Category: ISC

ISC English Literature Previous Year Question Paper 2003 Solved for Class 12

Section-A
The Tempest—Shakespeare

Question 1.
Choose three of the passages (a) to (d) and answer as briefly as possible the questions that follow :
(a) Prospero :
Hear a little further,
And then I’ll bring thee to the present business
Which now’s upon’s; without the which this story
Were most impertinent.

Miranda :
Wherefore did they not
That hour destroys us?

Prospero :
Well demanded, wench :
My tale provokes that question.
Dear, they trust not,

(i) Which “hour” is Miranda referring to?
(ii) According to Prospero why couldn’t his enemies destroy them?
(iii) What did they do to Miranda and Prospero?
(iv) What according to Prospero is the “present business which now’s upon’s ”?
(v) What was the main reason which gave Prospero courage to bear his troubles?

(b) Gonzalo :
Had I plantation of this isle, my lord—

Antonio :
He ’d sow’t with nettle-seed.

Sebastian :
Or docks, or mallows.

Gonzalo :
And were the king on’t, what would I do?

Sebastian :
‘Scape being drunk, for want of

Gonzalo :
1’ th’ commonwealth 1 would be contraries
Execute all things,

(i) Explain what Gonzalo means by “Had I plantation of this isle”? Whom does he address as “my lord”?
(ii) Mention four things which Gonzalo says he will have in his “commonwealth”.
(iii) Who are Antonio and Sebastian? What kind of attitude do they have towards Gonzalo?
(iv) Give one remark made earlier by Sebastian which shows his cold attitude.
(v) What is Gonzalo’s motive in talking about a commonwealth? Which characteristics of his stand out in this scene?

(c) Ferdinand :
This is strange. Your father’s in some passion
That works him strongly.

Miranda :
Never till this day
Saw I him touch’d with anger, so distemper’d

Prospero :
[To Ferdinand] You do look, my son, in mov’d sort,
As if you were dismay’d. Be cheerful, sir;
Our revels now are ended…

(i) Why is Prospero “touch’d with anger so distemper’d”? Explain the phrase.
(ii) What “revels” is Prospero referring to? Why were they held?
(iii) What does Prospero go on to say about human beings and life in the same speech?
(iv) What does Prospero now order Ariel to do?
(v) “At this hour Lies at my mercy all mine enemies” says Prospero at the end of this scene. Show how far this is true.

(d) Prospero :
Mark but the badges of these men, my lords,
Then say if they be true. This misshapen knave.
His mother was a witch, and one so strong
That could control the moon, make flows and ebbs,
And deal in her command without her power.
These three have robb’d me, and this demi-devil—
For he’s a bastard one-had plotted with them.
To take my life. Two of these fellows you
Must know and own; this thing of darkness I Acknowledge mine.

(i) Who are the “my lords” Prospero is ‘ addressing? Where are they?
(ii) Who are “these men ”? Why does Prospero want “my lords” to look at their “badges”?
(iii) “This misshapen knave” — to whom is Prospero referring? What does Prospero say about this person’s mother?
(iv) Describe the condition and dress of “these men”? How did they come to be in this state?
(v) How does Prospero deal with the three of them? State what you think of Prospero’s decision.
Answer:
(a) (i) Miranda refers to the hour when with the help of Alonso and Sebastian, Antonio removed her and her father Prospero, from Milan.
(ii) According to Prospero, enemies could not destroy them because the people of Milan loved them very much and they would have revolted against Antonio.
(iii) Miranda and Prospero were placed on a deserted boat and were left in the midst of the ocean by the enemies to die.
(iv) The present business refers to Prospero’s wish to tell Miranda the reason for raining the storm in the sea.
(v) The smile of Miranda gave courage to Prospero to bear the troubles.

(b) (i) Gonzalo means to say that if he would be the king of this island he would do many things. Alonso, the King of Naples, is addressed as ‘my lord’.
(ii) In his commonwealth Gonzalo would :
(a) Have no magistrates.
(b) Have no occupation; men will be idle.
(c) Neither have riches nor poverty.
(d) Women will be innocent and pure.
(iii) Antonio is the brother of Prospero, who had usurped the dukedom of Milan from him. Sebastian is the brother of the King of Naples, Alonso. They are making fun of Gonzalo.
(iv) “T’was what a sweet Marriage”, was end of the remarks made earlier by Sebastian to Alonso. He spoke in an ironical manner and blamed Alonso for whatever happened to them.
(v) Gonzalo’s motive in talking about a commonwealth is just to amuse his master Alonso, who is sorry and sad to have lost his son in the storm. In this scene, Gonzalo’s characteristics like loyalty and sincerity stand out.

(c) (i) The cause of Prospero’s anger is the treachery or wicked conspiracy hatched by Caliban against him with the help of Stephano and Trinculo. The phrase means that Miranda has never seen her father in such an angry state.
(ii) By ‘revels’ he refers to the masque in which various goddesses and spirits took part. It was held to bless the marriage of Miranda and Ferdinand.
(iii) Prospero says that human beings are as unreal as the dreams and their brief existence is followed by death that puts an end to that existence.
(iv) Prospero orders Ariel to bring ‘trumpery’ i.e., rich clothings, to deceive Caliban and the plotters against him.
(v) This is true to every extent as Alonso, Antonio, and Sebastian are in a fit of madness, whereas Trinculo, Stephano, and Caliban are chased away by spirits in disguise of dogs and hounds.

(d) (i) The “my lords” referred here by Prospero are Alonso, Sebastian, Gonzalo, Antonio, and others. They are in front of the cell of Prospero.
(ii) ‘These men’ are Caliban, Stephano, and Trinculo. He wants to point them out to look at their ‘badges’ because the clothes belonged to Prospero which ‘these men’ had stolen.
(iii) Prospero is referring to Caliban. He says about Sycorax, the mother of Caliban, that she was a witch and was so powerful that she had power over the moon and could cause the sea to ebb and flow.
(iv) “These men” are heavily drunk and are wearing the clothes they had stolen. They are in this state because of Prospero’s plan and are under the charm of his magical power.
(v) Prospero pardons them. It is a good decision as forgiveness is the keynote of the play.

Section – B
The Tempest -Shakespeare

Question 3.
Briefly but vividly describe the opening scene of the play “The Tempest”, bringing out clearly the impression the scene makes on your mind and its importance in’ the play.
Answer:
As the title of the play itself suggests, the opening scene of ‘The Tempest’ is a vivid description of a ship caught in a storm. It dramatically tells how a ship is wrecked and how people in it come to the island. It also introduces the audience to some of the important characters of the play.

As the scene unfolds, the captain of the ship is seen ordering his boatswain to call all men to duty as the ship is in danger. The boatswain instructs the mariners to adjust the topsail as he is apprehensive Of the outcome of the storm. On board the ship are Alonso, the king of Naples, Sebastian his brother, Antonio, the duke of Milan, Alonso’s son Ferdinand, Gonzalo, an honest councillor of Alonso, and other lords. Alonso shows deep concern for the ship but the boatswain tells them impatiently to go down to their cabins as they mar the crew’s labour.

When Gonzalo asks the boatswain to be patient, the boatswain retorts that he is hindering his work. He tells Gonzalo that, the waves do not care for the name of a king. He is rude towards Gonzalo. He commands him to go to his cabin and prepare himself for any misfortune that may fall on him. Gonzalo is annoyed but hopes that this man does not die by drowning but be hanged later on.

This scene also shows Shakespeare’s profound knowledge of sea and seamanship.

The boatswain tries to keep the ship far from the seashore, but is irritated by Sebastian and Antonio who curses and speaks ill words to him. Gonzalo wanted everyone to join the king at prayers, but at the same time a confused noise comes :

“Mercy on us!-We split, we split!-Farewell, my wife and children !-Farewell, brother!-We split, we split, we split!”

The scene ends with Gonzalo saying:
The wills above be done, but I would fain die a dry death.
Though the scene is not very long yet it is very effective. The treatment of the scene compels us to think that no one on board the ship would survive. So, it can be said that the presentation of the opening scene is realistic.

Question 4.
Antonio is an out and out villain. With close reference to what he says and does, show how far you agree with this statement.
Answer:
Antonio is the most wicked and hateful character in the play. He does evil without remorse or sense of any guilt. He does not regret his deeds towards his brother Prospero. He is loyal to none. He even plots to kill Alonso and instigates Sebastian against him. Prospero calls him “Perfidious”, a “false uncle” while narrating his tale to Miranda.

Antonio betrayed Prospero’s trust in him and usurped his dukedom. He cruelly put his brother and his three-year-old daughter in a deserted ship and left them at the mercy of the sea-god. He was not guilty or ashamed; instead boasts to Sebastian later :
“And look how well my garments sit upon me. Much feater than before.”

Antonio speaks ill about Gonzalo and calls him a talkative person. He instigates Sebastian to kill Alonso so that, he would be free from the tribute he has to pay to Alonso. He forgets all the help Alonso had extended to him in order to remove Prospero from Milan.

He laughs at Gonzalo for his loyalty and is ready to kill him and the King of Naples in their sleep. Prospero in the end remarks about Antonio—

“For you wicked Sir,
Whom to call a brother
Would even infect my mouth.”

Thus, we see that Antonio is an out and out villain.

ISC Class 12 English Literature Previous Year Question Papers

ISC English Language Previous Year Question Paper 2018 Solved for Class 12

Maximum Marks: 100
Time allowed: Three hours

(Candidates are allowed additional 15 minutes for only reading the paper. They must NOT start writing during this time.)
Attempt all four questions.
The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].
(You are advised to spend not more than 50 minutes on Question 1, 40 minutes on Question 2, 30 minutes on Question 3 and 1 hour on Question 4.)
(You should begin each answer on a fresh page.)

Question 1.
Write a composition (in approximately 450-500 words) on any one of the following subjects : (30)
(You are reminded that you will be rewarded for orderly and coherent presentation of material, use of appropriate style and general accuracy of spelling, punctuation and grammar.)
(a) You have recently moved to a new neighbourhood in your city. Describe the new neighbourhood, comparing it to the one you have just left.
(b) Relate something unpleasant that happened to you during your childhood that nevertheless helped you to grow up and mature.
(c) ‘The end justifies the means. ’ Argue for a against the statement.
(d) ‘Appearances can be deceptive’. Give your views on this topic.
(e) Dreams
(f) Write a short story that ends with the words “I really doubt if things could have turned out any better.”
Answers:
(а) Make use of the following hints and write your own answer.

Hints:

• quite a new experience with the new neighborhood
• more social and accommodating
• less quarrelsome and more well mannered
• more sacrificing, the previous being too self-centered
• more open-hearted than the previous neighbors who were too narrowminded
• mixed lot, rich and poor, highly educated and less educated living in harmony
• quite happy in the new neighborhood.

(b) Hints:

• was quite frail in childhood
• timid and shy
• easily scared of the bullies
• decided to turn frailties into strength
• started yoga to be fit
• developed strong willpower and the faculty to speak
• now full of confidence and successful
• Learnt how’ to fix the problem and didn’t blame anyone.

(c) (Against the Statement)

• achievement of the goal everybody’s concern
• means to achieve the end more important
• earning money or gaining success through unfair means kills the soul
• only fair means need be adopted
• passing by copying or bribing counter productive
• example of Gandhiji and such other prominent personalities – means justify ends
• only good means inspire people
• to make world happier only good means and intentions desirable.

(d)

• outward glamour and show not the reality or worth of somebody or something
• smiling faces may have devilish minds
• simple appearances may concel godliness or saintliness
• robes of sadhus may hide evil instincts and lusts
• world easily deceived by ornamentation
• all that glitters is not gold

(e)

• dreams – fulfilments of cherished desires
• different dreams interpreted differently
• pleasant dreams bring in cheer
• horrible dreams startle even in sleep.
• day dreaming of armed chair philosophers and idealists.
• some utopian dreams
• dreams very necessary to make the world more charming and worthliving
• dreams not bad, greatmen had great dreams
• alway s dream of good and great things and w orkhard to turn dreams into reality.

(f)

• Kamlesh, promising young boy
• wanted to go abroad for studies for medicine
• father with moderate means couldn’t afford
• Kamlesh worked very hard and stood first in the university
• applied for the scholarship with a philanthropist society for the meritorious and the poor
• selected to pursue studies abroad
• showed talent for research
• awarded the degree
• returned home and started his practice
• philanthropist society exempted his loan
• Kamlesh could not have expected more things could have not turned better than this
• Things could have not turned better than this

Question 2.
You are the editor of your school magazine. You have recently attended a cultural programme in your city. Write an account of this programme (in approximately 300 words) using the points given below : (20)

Date and venue – occasion – Chief Guest – other invitees – inauguration – events – other important features – highlights – reaction of audience – conclusion
Answer:

A Cultural Programme

A very interesting and enlightening cultural programme was held on the eve of the Independence day in the Desh Bhagatyadgar Hall in Jalandhar. It was organised by the artists of Tagore Dramatic club on the request of the Deputy Commissioner of our city. Navjot Singh Siddhu, the minister for Local Bodies, who is himself a talented poet and artist, was the chief guest. Among the other invitees were the principal, of schools and colleges, leading doctors, lawyers and many big industrialists.

Punctually at 6 p.m. the programme started with a devotional song by Hand Raj Hans. After this song the function was formally inaugurated by the Chief guest. The Deputy Commissioner then welcomed the honourable guests. The first item was a skit by the members of Tagore Dramatic Club. It was highly enjoyable skit on the theme of patriotism. The skit highlighted the sacrifices made by the freedom fighters in the struggle for independence.

After this skit, the artists presented patriotic songs which the audience enjoyed very’ much. Thereafter, a poetic competition was held for about an hour. Most of the poems presented on the occasion were full of humour, satire and comedy. The comic sketches presented by Dr Nagpal sent the audience into guffaws of laughter.

Then there was a programme of dance followed by Bhangra by the artists of D.A.V. College, Jal. It was undoubtedly the best item in the whole programme. The audience enjoyed it so much that some young boys and girls started dancing in their seats. In his presidential remarks Siddhuji entertained the audience with revelant verses and poems. The show was a grand success. The Deputy Commissioner, thanked the guests, the organisms and the audience for their co-operation in making the programme a grand success.

Question 3.
Answer sections (a), (b) and (c).
(a) In each of the following items, sentence A is complete, while sentence B is not. Complete sentence B, making it as similar as possible to sentence A. Write sentence B in each case. (10)
Example :
(0)
(A) : The heavy showers of rain revived the plants
(B) : The plants …………………………………
Answer:
(0) The plants were revived by the heavy showers of rain.

(1)
(A) : Ashita is the most beautiful girl in the class.
(B) : No …………………………………

(2)
(A) : As soon as she reached home, she learnt that she had to leave for London.
(B) : Hardly …………………………………

(3)
(A) : Ramesh said. “Rajiv. please bring your physics book to school tomorrow.”
(B) : Ramesh …………………………………

(4)
(A) : Some of the cakes had been caten by the boys before the party began.
(B) : The boys …………………………………

(5)
(A) : If you are not read to come with me. I will not go.
(B) : Unless …………………………………

(6)
(A) : It is such a wonderful opportun ty that we must not miss it.
(B) : lt is too …………………………………

(7)
(A) : We did not know that Mr. Francis was retiring and leaving for ooty.
(B) : Little …………………………………

(8)
(A) : He know the culprit, but refused to admit it.
(B) : Although …………………………………

(9)
(A) : I am afraid you cannot get admission to the college without clearing the admission lest.
(B) : I am afraid you cannot be …………………………………

(10)
(A) : If Rita had finished her work earlier, she would have gone to the market.
(B) : Had …………………………………

(b) Fill in each blank with a suitable word. (Do not write the sentence.) (5)
(1) After his parents died in a car accident, his uncle looked ………………………………… him.
(2) The chairman says that he will look ………………………………… their complaints.
(3) The soldiers laid ………………………………… their lives defending their country.
(4) I was laid ………………………………… for three weeks with a broken leg.
(5) This book runs ………………………………… a hundred and fifty pages.
(6) The program ran for………………………………… six hours.
(7) The ailing company was taken ………………………………… by the government.
(8) He takes ………………………………… his grandfather.
(9) I have an appointment ………………………………… the dentist.
(10) The best candidate should be appointed ………………………………… the post.

(c) Fill in the blanks in the passage given below with the appropriate form of the verb given in brackets. Do not write the passage, but write the verbs in the correct order. (5)

One day a millionaire went to a hotel in New York and ………………………………… (1) (ask) for the cheapest room they ………………………………… (2) (have). “What ………………………………… (3) (be) the price of the room ?” he ………………………………… (4) (ask). The manager ………………………………… (5) (tell) him. “Is that that the cheapest room you ………………………………… (6)(have)? I ………………………………… (7) (stay) by myself and only ………………………………… (8) (need) a small room.” The manager said, “Why do you choose a poor room like that? Your son always ………………………………… (9) (stay) in our most expensive room.” “Yes,” said the millionaire, “but his father ………………………………… (10) (be) a wealthy man; mine is not.”
Answers:
(a) (1) No other girl in the class is as beautiful as Ashita.
(2) Hardly had she reached home when she learnt that she had to leave for London.
(3) Ramesh requested Rajive to bring his physics book to school the next day.
(4) The boys had eaten some of the cakes before the party began.
(5) Unless you come with me, I will not go.
(6) It is too wonderful an opportunity to miss.
(7) Little did we know that Mr. Francis was retiring and leaving for Ooty.
(8) Although he knew the culprit yet he did not admit it.
(9) I am afraid you cannot be admitted to the college without clearing the admssion test.
(10) Had Rita finished her work earlier, she would have gone to the market.

(b)
(1) after (2) into (3) down (4) up (5) into (6) for (7) over (8) after (9) with (10) for

(c)
(1) asked (2) had (3) is (4) asked (5) told (6) have (7) shall stay (8) need (9) stays (10) is

Question 4.
Read the passage given below and answer the questions (a), (b) and (c) that follow :
(1) I could hear the squeaking that heralded the evening arrival of the hats. I listened to the noises of the approaching night. Every day my hearing grew sharper. I was learning to filter out whatever I did not need to listen to, and giving no sign that I could hear everything that went on in the house.

(2) I could not sleep. The air was heavy and still, the moon hidden behind thick 5 hanks of cloud. Lord Otori was sound asleep. I did not want to leave the house I’d come to love so much, but I seemed to be bringing nothing but trouble to it. Perhaps it would be better for everyone if I just vanished in the night.

(3) Now I heard the hiss of hot water as the bath was prepared, the clatter of 10 dishes from the kitchen, the sliding sigh of the cook’s knife, a dog barking two streets away, and the sounds of feet on the wooden bridges on the canals. I knew the sounds of the house, day and night, in sunshine and under the rain.

This evening I realized I was always listening for something more. I was waiting too. For what ? 15

(4) I began to wonder if I could get out of the house without setting the dogs barking and arousing the guards. I started consciously listening for the dogs. Usually I heard them bark on and off throughout the night, but I’d learned to distinguish their barks and to ignore them. I set my ears for them but heard nothing. Then I started listening for the guards : the sound of a foot on stone or a whispered conversation. Nothing. Sounds that should have been there were missing from the night’s familiar web.

(5) Now I was wide-awake, straining my ears to hear. There came the slightest of sounds, hardly more than a tremor, between the window and the ground.

(6) For a moment I thought it was the earth-shaking, as it so often did. Another tiny tremble followed, then another. Someone was climbing up the side of the house.

(7) My first instinct was to yell out, but cunning took over. I rose from the mattress and crept silently to Lord Otrori’s side. I knelt beside him and whispered in his ear, “Lord Otori, someone is outside.”

(8) He woke instantly, and then reached for the sword and knife that lay beside him. I gestured to the window. The faint tremor came again.

(9) Lord Otori passed the knife to me and stepped to the wall. I moved to the other side of the window. We waited for the assassin to climb in.

(10) Step by step he came up the wall, stealthy and unhurried, as if he had all the time in the world. We waited for him with the same patience.

(11) He paused on the still to take out the knife he planned to use on us, and then stepped inside. Lord Otori took him in a stranglehold. The intruder wriggled backwards. I leaped at him, and the three of us fell into the garden like a flurry of fighting cats.

(12) The man fell first, across the stream, striking his head on a boulder. Lord Otori landed on his feet. My fall was broken by one of the shrubs. The intruder groaned, tried to rise, but slipped hack into the water.

(13) “Get a light,” Lord Otori said.

(14) I ran to the house, took a light that still burned in one of the candle stands and carried it back to the garden.

(15) The assassin had died without regaining consciousness. It turned out he had a poison pellet in his mouth and had crushed it as he fell. He was dressed in black, with no marking on his clothes. I held the light over him. There was nothing to tell us who he was.

Adapted from Tales of the Otori by Lian Hearn

(a) (i) Given below are four words and phrases. Find the words which have a similar meaning in the passage : (4)
(1) Coming near
(2) Disappeared suddenly
(3) Awakening from sleep
(4) Moved slowly and gradually

(ii) For each of the words given below, write a sentence of at least ten words using the same word unchanged in form, but with a different meaning from that which it carries in the passage : (4)
(1) Bats (line 1)
(2) Sign (line 4)
(3) Banks (line 6)
(4) Back (line 43)

(b) Answer the following questions in our own words as briefly as possible:
(i) What could the narrator hear as he was hing down? [3]
(ii) Why couldn’t the narrator sleep? [2]
(iiI) When did he realise that there was something rong? [2]
(iv) How did the narrator and Lord Otori overpower the intruder? [3]

(c) Describe the incident of the assassination attempt that took place during the night, in not more than loo words (Paragraphs 4 to 15) Failure to keep within the word limit will be penalised. You will be required to:
(i) List your ideas clearly in point form. (6)
(ii) In about 100 words, write your points in the form of a connected passage (6)
Answers:
(a) (i)
(1) approaching
(2) vanished
(3) woke is and
(4) stealthy

(ii) (1) Bats : All the players were given new Bats.
(2) Headache may be a sign of stress.
(3) Banks : There are many private banks in our country.
(4) Back: M’ back has been aching since last night.

(b) (i) As the narrator was lying down he heard the loud cry of the bats.
(ii) The narrator could not speak because there was disturbance of the barking of the dogs and the sound of footsteps.
(ii) The narrator felt that there as something wrong. The earth seemed to be shaking someone was climbing up the side of the house.
(iv) Someone was trying to enter the house secretly. The narrator and Lord Otori took note of the intruder. They planned to capturing. Both of (hein attacked the assassin and overpowered the stranger.

(c (i)

• hearing of the strange movement at night.
• the narrator felt (hat something was wrong.
• noticed the movement outside.
• the narrator and Lord Otori jointly attacked the intruder
• they overpowered him and pushed hini into the water
• The assassin slipped back lillo the water and died.

(ii) The narrator could not sleep at night. He heard strange sounds that kept him awake. At finie, he felt that the earth was shaking. He noticed an intruder outside. He was the assassin. The narrator and Lord Oton planned to overpower him. They attacked and pushed him into the water. The assassin was drowned. Later on (hey discovered that the man had a poison pellet in his mouth and had crushed it as he fell. He died there and then.

ISC Class 12 English Language Previous Year Question Papers

ISC English Literature Previous Year Question Paper 2004 Solved for Class 12

Section – A
The Tempest—Shakespeare

Question 1.
Choose three of the passages (a) to (d) and answer as briefly as possible the questions that follow :
(a) Prospero :
[To Ferdinand] Come on; obey: Thy nerves are in their infancy again,
And have no vigour in them.

Ferdinand :
So they are :
My spirits, as in a dream, are all bound up.
My father’s loss, the weakness which I feel,
The wreck of cdl my friends, nor this man’s threats,
To whom I am subdued are but light to me,
Might I but through my prison once a day
Behold this maid. All corners else o ‘the ’ earth
Let liberty make use of space enough
Have 1 in such a prison.

(i) Where are Prospero and Ferdinand? Mention two commands given by Prospero that Ferdinand has to obey.
(ii) Explain : “Thy nerves are in their infancy again.”
(iii) What are “but light” to Ferdinand?
(iv) Who is ‘‘this maid” referred to? What had shocked the maid a little while ago?
(v) Where will Ferdinand find “space enough” to live in? What should “liberty” make use of?

(b) Antonio :
O!
If you but knew how you the purpose cherish
Whiles thus you mock it, how in stripping it
You more invest it, ebbing men, indeed,
Most often do so near the bottom run
By their own fear of sloth.

Sebastian :
Prithee, say on.
The setting of thine eye and cheek proclaim
A matter from thee, and a birth, indeed,
Which throes thee much to yield.

(i) Which ‘purpose” does Antonio refer lo? Where are Antonio and Sebastian at the present moment?
(ii) How had Antonio mocked the “purpose” he cherished? What is implied by “stripping il” and “invest it”?
(iii) What does Sebastian request Antonio to “say on”?
(iv) How does Sebastian conclude thai Antonio has much to convey?
(v) About whom does Antonio speak just after Sebastian ‘,s speech? What is his purpose in talking about him?

(C) Prospero :
lasidel Poor worm, thou art infected!
This visitation shows it.

Miranda :
You look wearily.

Ferdinand :
No. noble mistress, ‘ris fresh morning with inc
When you are by at nigh:. I do beseech you,—
Chiefly that I might set it in my prayers, —
What is your name?

Miranda :
Miranda —0 mv Jàrher,
have broke your hesi to say so!

Ferdinand:
Admir’d Miranda,
Indeed the top of admiration: worth
What ‘s dearest to the world! Full nwnv a 1dy
have eyed with best regard: and many a rime
The’ harmony of their tongues bath into bondage
Broughi mv too diligent ear.

(i) Who is the “poor worm” referred to? What has the “worm been “infected” with?
(ii) What makes Ferdinand “look wearily”? How does Ferdinand feel in Miranda s presence?
(iii) Wkv does Ferdinand wish to know Miranda ‘snaine? What compliments does he bestow upan Miranda?
(iv) E.plain: “Th harmony of their longues hath into bondage. Brought mv too diligent ear.”
(v) What are Prospero’s feelings on knowing about the couple ‘s feelings for each other?

(d) Alonso : Now all the blessings
Of a glad father compass thee about!
Arise, and say how thou cam’st here. ‘

Miranda :
O, Wonder!
How many goodly creatures are there here !
How beauteous mankind is! 0 brave new world.
That has such people in’t!

Prospero :
This new to thee

Alonso :
What is this maid with whom thou wast at play?
Your eld’st acquaintance cannot be three hours.
Is she the goddess that hath sever’d us,
And brought us thus together?

(i) Whom does Alonso ask to “arise ”? What is he glad “about”?
(ii) What is Miranda wonderstruck about?
(iii) Explain the terms, “eldest acquaintance” and “sever’d us”.
(iv) What information does Alonso receive in response to his question, “Is she the goddess that hath sever’d us. And brought us together”?
(v) Why is the world ‘new ’ to Miranda?
Answer:
(a) (i) Prospero and Ferdinand are on a lonely island where the latter is captivated by the former. The two commands given by Prospero that Ferdinand has to obey are :
(a) To carry and pile up the logs of wood.
(b) To be obedient always to his commands by following them.
(ii) Prospero treats Ferdinand cruelly, as he is under trial. Prospero thus speaks to him that all his muscles are limp and lifeless.
(iii) All the personal loss and threats of Prospero does not affect Ferdinand and he is ready to face it all.
(iv) Miranda is the “maid” referred to. She is shocked to find that her own father can be so cruel to someone.
(v) Ferdinand will enjoy enough space in a prison where he gets a single glance of Miranda each day. Though he will be in prison, liberty shall prevail in all comers of the earth.

(b)
(i) Here, the desire of Sebastian is referred to by Antonio who wants to be the King of Naples. Antonio and Sebastian are presently at another part of the island.
(ii) By pretending as if he was talking in sleep, Antonio mocked the “purpose” he cherished. The two phrases mean that the more you put it off, the greater the importance you give to it.
(iii) Sebastian requests Antonio to “say on” the desire he had in his heart.
(iv) By reading the expressions on Antonio’s face, Sebastian concludes that he has much to convey.
(v) After Sebastian’s speech, Antonio speaks about Francisco’s effort to convince Alonso that Ferdinand was dead fighting against the tempestuous waves.

The purpose in talking about the death of Ferdinand is that Sebastian should think seriously about becoming the King of Naples.

(c) (i) Miranda is referred to as the “poor worm”, and is infected with love for Ferdinand, the crown price.
(ii) Tiredness from hard physical labour makes Ferdinand look weary. But the very presence of Miranda refreshes him.
(iii) Ferdinand wishes to know Miranda’s name so that he could pray for her. “Admired Miranda—to of all admiration” is the compliment that he bestows upon her.
(iv) Ferdinand’s attention was drawn toward the melodious manner of women talking among themselves.
(v) Prospero is filled with fatherly love when he comes to know about the feelings of love that the couple has for each other, and he wishes that the grace of Almighty may rain “on that which breeds between them.”

(d) (i) Alonso asks his son Ferdinand to arise. Finding his son alive he is very glad.
(ii) So many “goodly creatures” are the cause of wonder for innocent Miranda.
(iii) Finding Ferdinand and Miranda close to each other, Alonso expresses his feeling that their acquaintance should be an old one and he thus calls it ‘eld’st’. Alonso takes Miranda as the goddess of the island who has ‘sever’d or separated them.
(iv) In response to his question Alonso comes to know from Ferdinand that Miranda is not a goddess but a mortal human being.
(v) Miranda had only seen two men in her life, who were Caliban and her father Prospero. So, the appearance of many human beings suddenly is a ‘new’ world to her.

Section-B
The Tempest – Shakespeare

Question 3.
Describe briefly but vividly the scene where Prospero reveals to Miranda, his brother’s secret plot to kill them and usurp his dukedom. What are your feelings for Prospero and Miranda’s fate at the hands of a cruel brother?
Answer:
Miranda is sorry to see the shipwreck and thinks that so many “Noble Creatures” have perished. She requests her father to stop the storm if he had raised it. Then Prospero, after removing his magical robe, addresses Miranda in the capacity of a father and tells her that twelve years since he was the duke of Milan, but was wrongly dethroned from his kingdom by his brother Antonio whom he loved and trusted blindly.

Prospero made Antonio the in charge of managing the kingdom’s affairs as he was busy in his secret study of magic. This made Antonio ambitious and his evil mind came to work. Prospero tells that he believed that he was indeed the duke; out of the substitution, and executing the outward face of royalty, with all prerogative. He tells that Antonio became an expert in whom to promote and whom to thrash for gaining hierarchy. He compares Antonio to an ‘ivy’ that had hidden his princely trunk and “suck’d his verdure out on”. Antonio considered Prospero to be no longer capable of managing state affairs and thereby joined hands with Alonso, the king of Naples, who was his relentless enemy. Alonso agreed to help Antonio on two conditions i.e., “to give him annual tribute, do him homage, subject his coronet to his crown, and bend the dukedom, yet unbowed”.

The opportunist King of Naples agreed to “extirpate” Prospero from Milan along with his three-year-old daughter, Miranda and “Confer fail Milan, with all honours” on Antonio. Thereby, in the darkness of the night Prospero and Miranda were carried on a ship with no sail or mast and were left in the sea. They were thus left in a miserable state to die.

Though a reader feels sympathy for both Prospero and Miranda who were deceived by a cruel brother and uncle, whom they trusted so much, but one may also feel that Prospero should have exercised his powers prudently and should not have left the affairs of the state to his treacherous brother.

Question 4.
Miranda’s appeal lies in her sweet innocence, gentle nature and pure selfless love for Ferdinand. Referring closely to the text bring out the truth of the statement.
Answer 4.
It is a true estimate of Miranda that her appeal lies in her sweet innocence, gentle nature and pure selfless love for Ferdinand. This is seen when Miranda believes that people have perished in the shipwreck and she says “O, I have suffered with those that I saw suffer.” She further states, “O the cry did knock against my very heart!” and wishes if “I had been any gou of power, I would have sunk the sea within the earth; or ere, it should the good ship so have swallowed and the fraughting souls within her.”

When Miranda meets Ferdinand for the first time, she says, “What is’t a spirit?” She says to her father “Believe me Sir, It carries a brave form; but tis a spirit”, as she had so far only seen her father and Caliban. She takes Ferdinand to be a spirit but Prospero tells her that he is a human being and she falls in love, i.e., love at first sight. She finds Ferdinand to be noble, but is shocked to see her father behave in a strange manner and requests him to be kind and gentle towards him.

Miranda is convinced that Ferdinand is one in whom “Nothing” can dwell in such a temple. When Prospero orders Ferdinand to be obedient to his commands, Miranda pleads for him to her father, “Dear father, Make not too rash a trial of him, for He’s gentle and not fearful.” On being rebuked by her father, she implores mercy on behalf of Ferdinand and says, “Sir, have piti,: I’ll be his surety”. It is an example of her innocence.

She tries to convince Ferdinand by saying, “my father’s of a better nature, sir, than he appears by speech.” When her father says that there are better-looking men in the world than Ferdinand, she says, “My affections are then most humble; I have no ambition to see a goodlier man!”

On seeing Ferdinand carrying logs of wood, against the orders of her father, she goes to meet him and is even willing to carry that for him. She finds the task so hard and laborious that she remorses by saying, “when this (logs) bums I will weep for having wearied you,” and then she asks him to take some rest.

Miranda is an example of innocence and straightforwardness. Her conversation with Ferdinand lacks cunningness and shrewdness. She is overjoyed when told that Ferdinand also loves her, and she considers herself to be very lucky to have his love as a great reward.

ISC Class 12 English Literature Previous Year Question Papers

ISC Biology Previous Year Question Paper 2015 Solved for Class 12

(Candidates are allowed additional 15 minutes for only reading the paper. They must NOT start writing during this time.)

• Answer all questions in Part I and six questions in Part II, choosing two questions from each of the three sections A, B and C.
• All working including rough work should be done on the same sheet as, and adjacent to, the rest of the answer.
• The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Part-I
(Attempt all questions)

Question 1.
(a) Give a brief answer for each of the following : [4]
(i) What is heterosis?
(ii) Why is non-cyclic photophosphorylation considered as a non-cyclic pathway?
(iii) Define test cross.
(iv) What are introns?

(b) Each of the following question(s)/statement(s) has four suggested answers. Choose the correct option in each case. [4]
1. Triple Fusion involves :
(i) Fusion of one male gamete with female gamete
(ii) Fusion of tube nucleus with generative nucleus
(iii) Fusion of two polar nuclei
(iv) Fusion of second male gamete with two polar nuclei

2. An EEG represents spontaneous electrical activity of the :
(i) Kidney
(ii) Spinal cord
(iii) Heart
(iv) Brain

3. The genotype of a person with Turner’s syndrome will be :
(i) 44 + XXY
(ii) 44 + XYY
(iii) 44 + XO
(iv) 44 + XXYY ’

4. Transcription is the transfer of genetic code from a DNA molecule to :
(i) RNA molecule
(ii) Second DNA molecule
(iii) Ribosomal subunit
(iv) Sequence of amino acids in a protein molecule

(c) Give a scientific term for each of the following: [4]
(i) The first formed category of photosynthetic organisms.
(ii) The surgical removal of a section of fallopian tube.
(iii) An animal behaviour which benefits others but is of no advantage to itself.
(iv) The hydrostatic pressure developed inside the cell on the cell wall due to endosmosis.

(d) Expand the following abbreviations : [4]
(i) STD
(ii) NADP
(iii) MRI
(iv) DDT

(e) Name the scientists who are associated with the following : [4]
(i) Discovered the fossil of Australopithecus
(ii) Microspheres
(iii) Coined the term Diffusion Pressure Deficit
(iv) Invented the CT scan
Answer:
(a) (i) Heterosis is the increased hybrid vigour displayed by the offspring from a cross between
genetically different parents.
(ii) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation is considered as non-cyclic pathway because electrons expelled by the excited photo centre does not return to it. It produces both ATP and NADPH.
(iii) Test cross is a special type of back cross made between the individual with a dominant trait and its recessive parent in order to know whether the homozygous or heterozygous for the trait.
(iv) Introns are the segment of DNA that does not code for the gene product. They are transcribed in primary transcript but are subsequently removed from the transcript before translation.

(b)
1. (iv) Fusion of second male gamete with two polar nuclei.
2. (iv) Brain
3. (iii) 44 + XO
4. (i) RNA molecule

(c) (i) Photoautotrophic bacteria
(ii) Tubectomy
(iii) Commensalism
(iv) Turgor pressure

(d) (i) Sexually Transmitted Disease.
(ii) Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide Phosphate.
(iii) Magnetic Resonance Imaging.
(iv) Dichloro diphenyl trichloroethane.

(e) (i) Dart (1924) fossil of a child called Taung Baby.
(ii) Fox (1957)
(iii) Meyer (1938).
(iv) Godfrey Hounsfield (1972)

Part-II (50 Marks)
Section-A
(Answer any two questions)

Question 2.
(a) Give any three characters that have developed during human evolution. [3]
(b) Explain the term homogeny. [1]
(c) Give any two distinctive features of Dryopithecus. [1]
Answer:
(i) Bipedal locomotion
(iii) Free grasping hands
(v) Brain, speech and memory.

(b) Chemogeny or chemical evolution in which the elements in the early atmosphere combined to produce simple and compound molecules, ultimately leading to the formation of complex organic molecules.

(c) (i) Walked semi-erect on kunckles.
(ii) Snout was slightly projecting.
(iii) Brow ridges were absent.
(iv) Forelimbs and hindlimbs were of the same size. (Any two points)

Question 3.
(a) Explain the evolution of giraffe’s neck according to Lamarck’s theory of evolution. [3]
(b) Give two chromosomal similarities between man and apes. [1]
(c) Name any two temporary embryonic structures invertebrates which provide evidence for evolution. [1]
Answer:
(a) Giraffe : According to Lamarck, Giraffe was initially deer-like animal who browsed on herbs and shrubs. However, due to famine-like conditions, food became scarce on the ground. It was, however, present on high shrubs and trees. As a result, the ancestors of Giraffe stretched their body, forelimbs and neck. There was slight success. The trait was passed to the next generation where stretching caused a further enlargement. The process continued for several generations. It increased the size of the animals, produced long forelimbs and a long neck of present-day Giraffe.

(b) Chromosomal similarities between man and apes.

1. Total amount of DNA in both is more or less similar.
2. Banding pattern of individual human chromosomes is very similar to the banding pattern of corresponding chromosomes in apes.

(c) Temporary embryonic structures in vertebrates.

1. gill clefts
2. tail

Question 4.
(a) Persons suffering from sickle cell anaemia are at an advantage in Malaria infested areas. Explain. [3]
(b) Define the term gene flow. [ 1 ]
(c) What are analogous organs? Describe with one example from the plant kingdom. [1]
Answer:
(a) Sickle cell anaemia is an autosomal disorder in which the erythrocytes become sickle-shaped under oxygen deficiency as during strenuous exercise and at high altitudes. The disorder or disease is caused by the formation of an abnormal haemoglobin called haemoglobin-S. As found out by Ingram (1958), haemoglobin-S differs from normal haemoglobin-A in only one amino acid-6th amino acid of P-chain, glutamic acid, is replaced by valine. This is the major effect of the allele.

During conditions of oxygen deficiency 6-valine forms hydrophobic bonds with complementary sites of other globin molecules. It distorts their configuration. As a result, erythrocytes having haemoglobin-S become sickle-shaped. This is one of the secondary effects. The homozygotes having only haemoglobin S usually die before reaching maturity because erythrocyte distortion and degeneration occur even under normal oxygen tension.

Despite having harmful effect, the allele for sickle-cell anaemia continues to persist in human population because it has survival value in malaria-infested areas like tropical Africa. Malarial parasite is unable to penetrate the erythrocyte membrane and cause any harm. Further, the sickle cell heterozygotes do not suffer from syndrome. Their erythrocytes appear normal till ‘ there is oxygen deficiency when some sickle-shaped etythrocytes may be observed.

Note : The gene for sickle-celled erythrocytes is represented by Hbs while that of normal erythrocytes is written as HbA. The homozygotes for the two types are Hbs and HbA. The heterozygotes is written as HbA Hbs.

(b) Gene flow is the addition or loss of alleles from a population due to the entry or exit of a section of population. It reduces the differences in the gene pools of separate populations.

(c) Analogous organs are those having similar outward form and function but quite different in anatomy and development e.g., tendrils help in climbing, in coiling around a support may be modified stipules (Smilax) in leaf-apex (Gloriosa), leaf-let (Pisum), whole leaf (Lathyrus) and stem-tendril (cucurbita, grapevine, passiflora).

Section-B
(Answer any two questions)

Question 5.
(a) With the help of diagrams, name and describe the different types of placentation seen in angiosperms. [4]
(b) Give four points of anatomical differences between a monocot stem and a dicot stem. [4]
(c) Define the following terms : [2]
(i) Racemose inflorescence
(ii) Osmotic pressure
Answer:
(a) Placentation : Placenta is a parenchymatous cushion present inside the ovary where ovules are borne. An ovary may have one or more placentae. The number, position and arrangement or distribution of placentae inside an ovary is called placentation. It is of . the following types :

1. Marginal : A single longitudinal placenta having one or two alternate rows of ovules occurs along the wall of the ovary called ventral suture. Marginal placentation is found in monocarpellary pistils of leguminosae (e.g., Pea, Cassia, Acacia) and other plants (e.g., Larkspur).

Fig. Parietal placentation. A~B. normal panetai placentation. C, parietal placentation of Poppy. D, parietal placentation in Brasslca. E, modified parietal placeniation of Cucurbits.

2. Parietal: Two or more longitudinal placentae develop along the wall of a syncarpous or compound pistil. The number of placentae correspond to the number of fusing carpels, e.g., two (Fun aria), three (Viola), four (Capparis). The ovary is usually unilocular (Fig. A-B) but modifications occur in many. In polycarpellary syncarpous pistil of poppy the ovule bearing placentae grow inwardly to form incomplete septa. A false septum called replum develops between the two parietal placentae in Mustard and other members of family Cruciferae. The ovary becomes bilocular. In the tricarpellary syncarpous pistil of cucurbits the three placentae grow inwards to meet in the centre and then bend outwardly. The ovary, therefore, becomes trilocular.

3. Axile : It occurs in syncarpous pistils. The ovary is partitioned into two or more chambers. Placentae occur in the central region where the septa meet so that an axile column bearing ovules is formed, e.g., Petunia (bilocular), Asphodelus (trilocular), Shoe Flower (pentalocular), Althaea (multilocular).

4. Free central : The pistil is polycarpellary and syncarpous but the ovary is unilocular. The ovules are borne around a central column which is not connected with the ovary wall by any septum, e.g., Pink (Dianthus), Silene, Primula.

5. Basal: The pistil can be monocarpellary or syncarpous. The ovary is unilocular. It bears a single placenta at the base with generally a single ovule, e.g., Ranunculus, Sunflower.

6. Apical : The ovary is unilocular and bears a single ovule that hangs from the tip of the chamber, e.g.. Cannabis. The terms sub-basal or sub-apical are used for single ovules borne on one side near the base or apex.

7. Superficial: The ovules develop on the whole inner surface of the ovary including the septa, if present. Superficial placentation is found in both monocarpellary (e.g., Butomus) and syncarpous (e.g., Nymphaed) pistils.

(b)

Monocot Stem	Dicot Stem
(i) Epidermal hairs absent.	(i) Multicellular epidermal hairs present.
(ii) Ground tissue undifferentiated.	(ii) Ground tissue differentiated into cortex, endodermis and pericycle.
(iii) Vascular bundles are scattered in ground tissue.	(iii) Vascular bundles are arranged in a ring.
(iv) Vascular bundles are conjoint collateral and closed.	(iv) Vascular bundles are conjoint, collateral and open.
(v) Pith absent.	(v) Pith present.
(vi) Xylem tracheids and vessels oval in outline.	(vi) Tracheids and vessels are polygonal in outline.
(vii) Secondary growth absent.	(vii) Secondary growth present.

(c)

1. Racemose inflorescence is a indefinite inflorescence in which the growing point of the flowering axis i.e. peduncle continues its growth, producing flowers laterally in an acropetal manner.
2. Osmotic pressure is the maximum pressure that cars be developed in a solution separated from pure water by a semipermeable membrane.

Question 6.
(a) Draw a diagram of the internal structure of the human ovary.
(b) Define the term water potential. What are its components? Explain.
(c) Give definition and importance of:
(i) Imbibition
(ii) Parturition
Answer:

(b) The difference between the free energy of water molecules in pure water and the energy of water in any other system (e.g., water in a solution or in a plant cell or tissue) is called water potential. The Greek letter psi the symbol for which is Ψ designates the water potential in a system. The water potential is measured in bars; a bar is a pressure unit, which equals 14.5 lb! n2 750 mm Hg or 0-987 atm.

Water potential (Ψ) of protoplasm of the cell is equal but opposite in sign to the diffusion pressure deficit (DPD) or suction pressure (SP). The water potential of a solution can be determined using pure water as standard of reference. The pure water at atmospheric pressure has a water potential of zero (i)). The presence of solute particles reduces the energy of water and thus decreases the water potential (negative). Therefore, the water potential of a solution is always less than zero. The direction of flow of water between the two regions will take place from the region of higher water potential (pure water) to the region of lower water potential (as in a solution), energetically downhill.

Components a water potential :
The typical plant cell consists of a cell wall, a vacuole filled with an aqueous solution and a layer of cytoplasm between the vacuole and the cell wall. When such a cell is subjected to the movement of water, many factors begin to operate which ultimately determine the water potential of cell sap. For solutions, such as contents of cells, water potential is determined by three major sets of internal factors viz., matric potential (Ψ rn), solute potential (Ψ s) and pressure potential (Ψ p). The water potential (Ψ) in a plant cell or tissue can be written as the sum of the matric potential (Ψ m) due to binding of water to cell walls and cytoplasm, the solute potential (Ψ s) due to concentration of dissolved solutes, which by its effect on the entropy components reduces the water potential and the pressure potential (Ψ p) due to hvdrostatic pressure, which by its effect on the energy components increases the water potential:

Ψ = Ψ m + Ψ s + Ψ p …………………… (1)

Each component potential is discussed separately below :

Matric potential (Ψ m) : Matric is the term used for the surface (such as, soil particles; cell walls; protoplasms etc.) to which water molecules are adsorbed. The matric potential (Ψ m) is the component of water potential influenced by the presence of a matrix. It has got a negative value. In case of plant cells and tissues, the matric potential is often disregarded because it is not significant in osmosis. Thus, the above equation (1) may be simplified as follows :

Ψ = Ψs + Ψp ………………………. (2)

Solute potential (Ψ s) : Solute potential is also known as Osmotic potential. It is defined as the amount by which the water potential is reduced as a result of the presence of solute. Solute potentials or osmotic potentials (Ψ s) are always in negative values (number). The term solute potential takes the place of osmose pressure, expressed in bars with a negative sign.

Pressure potential (Ψ s) : Plant cell wall is elastic and it exerts a pressure on the cellular contents. As a result of inward wall pressure, hydrostatic pressure is developed in the vacuole termed as turgor pressure. The pressure potential is usually positive and operates in plant cells as wall pressure and turgor pressure.

(c)

1. Imbibition is the phenomenon of adsorption of water or any other liquid by the solid particles of a substance without forming a solution.
2. Imbibition is the initial step in the germination of seeds, when seed coats imbibe water ‘ followed by embryo and endosperm.
3. Imbibition cause swelling of seeds and breaking of testa.
4. The imbibition is dominant in the initial stage of water absorption by root hair cells.
5. Water moves into ovules which are ripening into seeds by the process of imbibition.

(d) Parturition : It is the act of expelling the full term young one/foetus from the mother uterus at the end of gestation period. Hormones play a major role in parturition.

It is important that baby bom when it is mature. The foetal signals that it is mature by secreting certain hormones. The hormones diffuse across the placenta into mother’s blood, where they cause the excretion of oxytocin from her pituitary oxytocin stimulate the uterine contractions. This provides force to expel the baby from the uterus causing birth.

As a result of parturition, milk is produced in the female’s breasts following the birth of a young one. The actual release of milk, requires the presence of oxytocin, to bring contraction of smooth muscles of the ducts within the mammnary glands.

Question 7.
(a) Give four adaptations in flowers pollinated by insects. [4]
(b) Describe the mass flow hypothesis for translocation of organic solutes (food) in plants. [4]
(c) Write a brief note on the causes of infertility. [2]
Answer:
(a) Characters of Anemophilous Flowers (Insect-pollination)

• Flowers are small and inconspicuous.
• Non-essential floral parts are reduced or absent.
• Flowers are usually colourless, nectarless and odourless.
• Flowers are developed above the foliage, usually in hanging spikes or catkins.
• Male flowers are more abundant in case of unisexual flowers. In bisexual flowers stamens are more abundant.
• Anthers are exserted and versatile.
• Pollen grains are small and light. They may have air sacs or wings.
• Pollen grains are dry and unwettable. This protects the pollen from moisture present in the air.
• Stigmas are exserted, hairy feathery or branched to capture the pollen grains. The cob of Maize has elongated stigmas
• and styles which sway in wind to trap pollen grains.
• A very large number of pollen grains are produced, e.g., 500000 per flower in Cannabis, 25 million by a tassel of Maize and 135 million by Mercurialis.
• Pistils commonly possess single ovules.

Examples. Anemophily is common in grasses. Other examples are Amaranthus, Cannabis, Chenopodium, Coconut, Date, Mulberry, Poplar, Willow, etc.
(Any four points)

(b) Mass Flow or Pressure Flow Hypothesis : It was put forward by Munch (1927, 1930). According to this hypothesis, organic substances move from the region of high osmotic pressure to the region of low osmotic pressure in a mass flow due to the development of a gradient of turgor pressure. This can be proved by taking two interconnected osmometers, one with high solute concentration. The two osmometers of the apparatus are placed in water (Fig.). More water enters the osmometer having high solute concentration as compared to the other. It will, therefore, come to have high turgor ‘pressure which forces the solution to pass into the second osmometer by a mass flow. If the solutes are replenished in the donor osmometer and immobilised in the recipient osmometer, the mass flow can be maintained indefinitely.

Fig. B. Translocation of organic substances (assimilates) according to mass flow or pressure flow hypothesis Sieve tube system is fully adapted to mass flow of solutes. Here the vacuoles are fully permeable because of the absence of tonoplast. A continuous high osmotic concentration is present in the mesophyll cells (due to photosynthesis) and storage cells (due to mobilization of reserve food). The organic substances present in them are passed into the sieve tubes (by means of transfer cells).

A high osmotic concentration, therefore, develops in the sieve tubes of the source. The sieve tubes absorb water from the surrounding xylem and develop a high turgor pressure (Fig.). It causes the flow of organic solution toward the area of low turgor pressure. A low turgor is maintained in the sink region by converting soluble organic substances into insoluble form. Water passes back into xylem.

(c) Causes of infertility : Infertility is the failure to conceive when after to 1-2 years of regular unprotected sex i.e., inability to produce offspring. Infertility can be defined as relative sterility. Infertility is caused by defects found in male, female as well as both.

Infertility in Males:

• Cryptorchidism or failure of testes to descend into scrotum.lt causes azospermia.
• Absence or blockage of vasa deferentia and vasa efferentia.
• Hyperthermia or higher scrotal temperature due to varicocele (varicose veins), hydrocele or filariasis, tight undergarment, thermal undergarment or working in hot environment,
• Infection like mumps after puberty, infection of seminal vesicle.
• Alcoholism inhibits spermatogenesis.
• Gonadotropin deficiency.
• Cytotoxic drugs, radiations, antidepressant and anticonvulsant drugs depress spermatogenesis.

Infertility in Females : The various causes of infertility in females are as follow :

• Anovulation (nonovulation) and oligoovulation (deficient ovulation).
• Inadequate growth and functioning of corpus luteum resulting in reduced progesterone secretion and deficient secretory changes in endometrium.
• The ovum is not liberated but remains trapped inside the follicle.
• Fallopian tube may fail to pick up ovum, have impaired motility, loss of cilia and blocked lumen.
• Noncanalisation of uterus.
• Defective uterine endometrium due to either reduced or excessive secretory activity.
• Congenital malformation of uterus.
• Fibroid uterus.
• Defects in cervix like congenital elongation, occlusion of cervix by a polyp, cervicitis, scanty or excessive cervical mucus.
• Defective vaginal growth like atresia and transverse septum.

Section-C
(Answer any two questions)

Questions 8.
(a) Give any four reasons for Mendel’s success. [4]
(b) Briefly describe the technique employed in DNA fingerprinting. [4]
(c) Give any two features of Genetic Code. [2]
Answers:
(a) Reasons for Mendel’s Success :

• Mendel selected only pure breeding varieties of Pea (Pisum sativum) for his experiments.
• Mendel took only those traits for his studies which did not show linkage, interaction or incomplete dominance.
• Mendel took one or two characters at one time for his breeding experiments while his predecessors often studied all the traits simultaneously.
• Mendel’s experimental plant Pea (Pisum sativum) is ideal for controlled breeding. It is • cross-breed manually while normally it undergoes self breeding.
• He took care to avoid contamination from foreign pollen grains brought by insects.
• Mendel kept a complete record of every cross, subsequent self breeding and the number of seeds produced.
• He formulated theoretical explanations for interpreting his results. His explanations were further tested by him as to their validity.
• Mendel used statistical methods and law of probability analysing his results.
• Mendel was lucky in selecting those traits, the genes of which were either present on different chromosomes or showed recombination. (Any four points)

(b) Southern Blot Technique:
The Southern blot is one way to analyze the genetic patterns which appear in a person DNA. Performing a Southering Blot involves :

Source of DNA : White blood corpuscles, blood, semen, saliva, vaginal swabs, skin cells, bone cells, cells from hair root, etc. are used as a source of DNA for fingerprinting. The amount of DNA required can be met by 1 microgram of tissue or 1,00,000 cells.

• Isolation and Extraction – Isolation of DNA from DNA source cells in a high speed refrigerated centrifuge.
• DNA Amplification – Many copies of extracted DNA are made by PCR-technique.
• Fragmentation/Digestion of DNA by restriction endonuclease to produce VNTRs.
• Separation of DNA fragments (VNTRs) by size through gel electrophoresis.
• Single stranded DNA – Denaturing of VNTRs either by heating or chemically treating the fragments in the gel.
• Southern Blotting – Transferring (blotting) of separated single-stranded DNA fragments to synthetic membranes such as nitrocellulose or nylon.
• Hybridisation – Using radioactive/labelled VNTR probe.
• Exposure to X-Ray films/Autoradiography – Detection of hybridised DNA by autoradiography.
• After hybridisation autoradiography shows many dark bands of different sizes.
• These bands give a characteristic pattern for an individual DNA.

DNA prints or DNA profiles of dead bodies are compared with DNA prints of the close, blood relatives (sisters, brothers, parents) to determine the identity of the dead bodies.

(c) Characteristics of Genetic Code :

1. Triplet Code : Three adjacent nitrogen bases constitute a codon which specifies the placement of one amino acid in a polypeptide.
2. Start Signal: Polypeptide synthesis is signalled by two initiation codons – methionine AUG or codon and GUG or valine codon.
3. Stop Signal: Polypeptide chain termination is signalled by three termination codons – UAA (ochre), UAG (amber) and UGA (opal). They do not specify any amino acid and are hence also called nonsense codons.
4. Universal Code : The genetic code is applicable universally, i.e., a codon specifies the same amino acid from a virus to a tree or human being. Thus, /wRNA from chick oviduct introduced in Escherichia coli produces ovalbumin in the bacterium exactly similar to one formed in chick.
5. Nonambiguous Codons : One codon specifies only one amino acid and not any other.
6. Related Codons : Amino acids with similar properties have related codons, e.g., aromatic amino acids tryptophan (UGG), phenylalanine (UUC, UUU), tyrosine (UAC, UAU). (Any four points)

Question 9.
(a) Explain the mechanism of action of T-cells to antigens. [4]
(b) Explain how insulin can be produced using recombinant DNA technology. [4]
(c) What is pisiculture? Give one advantage. [2]
Answer:
(a) Mechanism of action of T-cells : On coming on contact with an antigen, a T-lymphocyte forms a clone of lymphocytes. The clone has 4 types of T-cells – helper T-cells, killer T-cells, supressor T-cells and memory T-cells. Out of these, the first three types are also called effector T-cells.

(i) Helper T-cells – They form 75% of the total lymphocytes of a clone. They secrete lymphokines for performing several types of functions like proliferation of other T-cells, stimulation of B-lymphocytes, attraction of macrophages and feedback system.

(ii) Killer or Cytotoxic T-cells – The T-cells reach the site of infection, come in contact with microbes and secrete perforins. Perforins produce holes. It is followed by secretion of toxic chemicals or lymphotoxins into the microbes for killing the same. Soon after a killer T-cell separates and . attacks another pathogen. Cytotoxic T-cells also attack cancer cells, cells of transplanted organs and helper T-cells invaded by HIV.

(iii) Supressor T-cells – They are protective T-cells which inactivate immune system,

(vi) Memory T-cells – They are those T-cells which were previously sensitised and retain the sensitisation for future.

Fig. Killing of foreign cell by cytotoxic T-cells.

(b) Insulin is a hormone produced by the pancreas which is a large gland present near, the stomach. This hormone is necessary for the body’s correct use of food, especially sugar. Insulin works by helping the sugar that penetrates the cell wall, where it is then utilized by the cell. In diabetic persons, the body either does not make enough insulin or the insulin that is produced cannot be used properly.

Insulin is the first genetically engineered hormonal drug ever marketed anywhere in the world. It was produced first in 1980 by Eli Lilly (U.S.A.) with the name Humulin by transferring the insulin gene into E. coli.

Insulin gene is transferred into a bacterial cell (E. coli) in the following two steps :

1. Transfer of the Insulin Gene into a Plasmid
Vector : The plasmid is cut across both strands by a restriction Transfer of the insulin gene enzyme leaving the loose, sticky ends to which DNA Restriction ^ human can be attached. Special linking sequences (called linkers) are added to the human cDNA (complemen- aoning the ,nsu|in Gene tary DNA) so that it will fit precisely into the loose ends of the opened ring of plasmid DNA. The plasmid containing the human gene, also called a recombinant plasmid, is now ready to be inserted into another organism such as a bacterial cell (E. coli). fig. Transfer and cloning of insulin gene.

2. Cloning the Insulin Gene : The recombinant plasmids and the bacterial cells are mixed up. Plasmid enters the bacterial cell through a process called transfection (Fig.) The . plasmid containing the human cDNA present inside bacterial cells is multiplied to get several dozen copies. When the bacteria divide, the plasmids also divide. Thus two daughter cells and the plasmids continue to reproduce. With cells dividing rapidly (every 20 minutes), a bacterium containing human cDNA (encoding for insulin) will shortly produce many millions of similar cells called clones containing the same human gene. In this way a large number of insulin molecules can be commerically produced in a fermentor.

Or

(b) Insulin Production r-DNA technology

1. A DNA fragment encoding each insulin chain was made by annealing two complementary oligonucleotides that had been chemically synthesised.
2. Each fragments was ligated into a bacterial expression vector such that during translation the insulin chain would be fused to the carboxy terminus of the beta-galactosidase enzyme.
3. The expression vectors, were transformed into E.coli and the beta-insulin fusion proteins accumulated inside the bacterial cells.
4. The cells were harvested and each beta-gal-insulin fusion protein was purified.
5. The insulin coding DNA was synthesised so that it started with a methionine codon. This provides a way to cleave off the beta-gal part from the insulin polypeptide.
6. Treatment of the fusion protein with cyanogens bromide (CNBr) cleave the peptides bonds after the methionine.
   Thus, in this way recombinant insulin is produced in E.coil.

(c) Pisciculture is cultivating, rearing and harvesting of fish. Fish is an important source of food, rich in iodine and other minerals. Fish liver oil is a good source .of vitamin A and D.

Question 10.
(a) Name the causative organism and preventive measures for each of the following : [4]
(i) Swine flu
(ii) Typhoid
(iii) Filariasis
(iv) Syphilis

(b) State four causes and four consequences of population growth
(c) Differentiate between:
(i) Cannabinoids and Barbiturates
(ii) Biotic potential and Carrying capacity.
Answer

DiseaseCausative	agentPreventive	Measures
(i) Swine flu	H1N1 (virus)	Bearing of mask in contact with patients.
(ii)Typhoid	Salmonella typhi (Bacteria)	Avoid contaminated food and water.
(iii) Filariasis	Wuchereria bancrofti (Helminth)	Avoid mosquito bite of especially culex.
(iv)Syphilis	Treponema pallidum (Spirochete Bacteria)	Avoid sex with many partners.

(b) Population growth is the increase in size of the population over a period of time. Human population is growing at a fast rate exihibiting population explosion. The two primary reasons for increase in human population are :

• decreaes in death rate
• increase in longevity

Factors favouring population growth :

1. Decrease in death rate.
2. Increase in average life span.
3. Better medical facilities.
4. Control of insect vector’s of fatal diseases and epidemics.
5. Better sanitation.
6. Proper care of new-born children and their mothers.
7. Better nutrition and life amenities.
8. Protection against wildlife and adverse weather through living in houses. (Any four points)

Consequences : Overpopulation has become a serious world problem. With increase in population, the available natural resources will fall short of requirements.
The more important consequences are :

1. Housing : New towns and cities are coming up to accommodate the growing population. This has put a great strain on agricultural land and forests. Clearing of forests for habitation and agriculture has caused new problems, particularly soil erosion and floods. Even with the coming up of new residential complexes, housing problem persists.
2. Food : Large families with moderate means are unable to provide adequate and balanced diet to the children. The latter suffer from malnutrition and grow into less fit members of society.
3. Employment : Rise in population has resulted in large scale unemployment. New employment schemes introduced by government have failed to absorb the fast growing numbers.
4. Education : Increase in population has led to rush in educational institutions and lowering of educational standards. A large family is unable to afford higher education to the children.
5. Medical Aid : Proper medical facilities are also beyond the reach of large families. State too is unable to look after the health of the ever-growing population.

(i) Cannabinoids:

• Hallucinogenic chemicals obtained from leaves, flowering tops of Cannabis sativa.
• Cannabinoid receptors are usually present in the air.
• They are hallucinogenic produce a dream-like state with disorientation loss of contact with reality etc.

Barbiturates:

• They are synthetic drugs.
• They are general depressant for all excitable cells, but the CNS is most sensitive to these drugs.
• They are hypnotic and sedative in action.

(ii) Biotic potential:
It is the maximum rate of increase of any organism if left to itself and isolated from its natural enemies, diseases or other inhibiting factors.

Carrying capacity:

• It is the total number of individuals that the environment can support.
  

ISC Class 12 Biology Previous Year Question Papers

ISC Computer Science Previous Year Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12

Maximum Marks: 70
Time allowed: 3 hours

Part – I
Answer all questions

While answering questions in this Part, indicate briefly your working and reasoning, wherever required.

Question 1.
(a) If X = A’BC + AB’C + ABC + A’BC’ then find the value of X when A = 1; B = 0; C = 1 [2]
(b) Verify if, P. (~ P + Q’) = (P = > Q) using truth table. [2]
(c) Draw the logic circuit of NOR and NAND gate only. [2]
(d) Convert the following function into its Canonical sum of products form: [2]
F(X, Y, Z) = Σ(0, 1, 5, 7).
(e) Show that dual of P’QR’ + PQ’R + P’Q’R is equal to the complement of: [2]
PQ’R + Q. (P’R’+PR’)
Answer:

Question 2.
(a) State the difference between an Interface and a Class. [2]
(b) Convert the following infix notation to postfix notation: [2]
(A + B) / C * (D + E)
(c) A character array B[7] [6] has a base address 1046 at 0, 0. Calculate the address at B[2] [3] if the array is stored Column Major wise. Each character requires tw o bytes of storage. [2]
(d) State the use of exceptional handling. Name the two types of exceptions. [2]
(e) (i) What is the worst-case complexity of the follow ing code segment: [2]

for (int i = 0; i < N; i++)
{
sequence of statements
}
for (int j=0 ; j < M; j++)
{ sequence of statements
}

(ii) How would the complexity change if the second loop went to N instead of M?
Answer:
(a) (i) Class can be extends in another class.
(ii) Interface is implemented in another class.

(b) (A + B) / (C * (D + E))
= (AB +) / (C * (DE +))
= (AB +) / (CDE + *)
= AB + CDE + */

(c) B + W [(I – LBR) + M (J – LBC)]
= 1046 + 2 [(2 – 0) + 7(3 – 0)]
= 1046 + 2(2 + 21)
= 1046 + 2(23)
= 1046 + 46
= 1092

(d) Exception: It refers to some contradictory or unusal situation which can be encountered while executing a program.
(i) IO Exception
(ii) Array out of Bound Exception

(e) (i) for (i = 0; i < N ; i + +) This loop gets executed N times thus take time C1 * N
for (i = 0; j < M ; j ++) This loop gets executed M times thus take time C2 * M
Total Time = C1 * N + C2 * M = 0 (N + M)
(ii) It becomes = O(2N)

Question 3.
(a) The following functions numbers (int) and numbers1 (int) are a part of some class. Answer the questions given below showing the dry run/working:

public void numbers (int n) 
{
if (n > 0)
{
System.out. print(n + " " );
numbers (n-2);
System.out.print(n + " ");
}
}
public String numbers1 (int n)
{
if (n < = 0)
return " ";
return numbersl(n-1) + n + " ";
}

(i) What will be the output of the function numbers (int n) when n = 5? [2]
(ii) What will the function numbersl (int n) return when n = 6? [2]
(iii) State in one line what is the function numbersl (int) doing apart from recursion? [1]
(b) The following function is a part of some class. It sorts the array a[ ] in ascending order using insertion sort technique. There are some places in the code marked by ?1?, ?2?, ?3?, ?4?, ?5? which must be replaced by expression / statement so that the function works correctly.

void insertsort (int a [ ])
{
int m = ?1?;
int b, i, t;
for (i = ?2? ; i < m; i++) 
{ 
t = a[i]; 
b = i - I; 
while (?3? > = 0 && t < a [ b ])
{
a[b+1] = a[b];
?4?;
}
?5? = t;
}
}

(i) What is the expression or statement at ?1? [1]
(ii) What is the expression or statement at ?2? [1]
(iii) What is the expression or statement at ?3? [1]
(iv) What is the expression or statement at ?4? [1]
(v) What is the expression or statement at ?5? [1]
Answer:
(a) (i) 5 3 1 1 3 5
(ii) “1 2 3 4 5 6”
(iii) It display all number from 1 to that number.
(b) (i) a length
(ii) 1
(iii) b
(iv) b = b – 1;
(v) a[b+1]

Part – II

Answer seven questions in this part, choosing three questions from Section A, two from Section B and two from Section C.

Section – A
Answer any three questions

Question 4.
(a) Given F(P,Q,R,S) = Σ (0, 2, 5, 7, 8, 10, 11, 13, 14, 15)
(i) Reduce the above expression by using 4 – Variable K-Map, showing the various groups (i.e., octal, quads and pairs). [4]
(ii) Draw the Logic gate diagram of the reduced expression using NAND gate only. [1]
(b) Given F(A, B, C, D) = (A + B + C + D). (A + B + C + D’). (A + B + C’ + D’). (A + B + C’ + D). (A + B’ + C + D’). (A + B’ + C’ + D’). (A’ + B + C + D). (A’ + B + C’ + D).
(i) Reduce the above expression by using 4 – Variable K-Map, showing the various groups (,i.e., octal, quads and pairs). [4]
(ii) Draw the Logic gate diagram of the reduced expression using NOR gate only. [1]
Answer:

Question 5.
A Government Institution intends to award a medal to a person who following criteria:
The person should have been an Indian citizen and had lost his/her completed 25 years of service.
OR
The person must be an Indian citizen and has served the nation for a continuous period of 25 years or more but has not lost his/her life in a war.
OR
The person is not an Indian citizen but has taken an active part in activities for the upliftment of the nation.
The inputs are:

A	The person is/was an Indian citizen
B	Has a continuous service of more than 25 years
C	Lost his/her life in a war
D	Taken part in activities for the upliftment of the nation

Output: X – Denotes eligible for Medal [1 indicates YES and 0 indicates NO in all cases]
(a) Draw the truth table for the inputs and outputs given above and write the POS expression for X (A, B, C, D). [5]
(b) Reduce X (A, B, C, D) using Karnaugh’s Map. [5]
Draw the logic gate diagram for the reduced POS expression for X (A, B, C, D).
You may use gates with two or more inputs. Assume that the variable and their complements are available as inputs.
Answer:

Question 6.
(a) What are Maxterms? Convert the following function as a product of Maxterms: [3]
F(P, Q, R) = (P + Q).(P’ + R)
(b) State whether the following expression is a Tautology or Contradiction with the help of Truth Table: [3]
(X⇔Z) . [(X⇒Y). (Y⇒Z)]
(c) What is Multiplexer? Draw the truth table and logic diagram of an 8 : 1 Multiplexer. [4]
Answer:
(a) Maxterm It is a sum of all the literals (with or without the bar) within the logic system.
F(P, Q, R) = (P + Q). (P’ + R’)
= (P + Q + RR’). (P’ + QQ’ + R’)
= (P + Q + R).(P + Q + R’).(P’ + Q + R’) ,(P’ + Q’ + R’)

It is neither Tautology nor contradiction.

(c) Multiplexer: It is a combinational circuit that selects binary information from one of many input lines and directs it to a single output line.

Question 7.
(a) Draw the circuit diagram for a 3 to 8 Decoder. [3]
(b) Draw the truth table for a Half Adder. Also, derive a POS expression for the Half Adder and draw its logic circuit. [3]
(c) Simplify the following expression and also draw the circuit/gate for the reduced expression.
[Show the stepwise working along with the laws used.] [4]
F = X.(Y + Z.(X.Y + X.Z)’)
Answer:

Section – B
Answer any two questions

• Each program should be written in such a way that it clearly depicts the logic of the problem.
• This can be achieved by using mnemonic names and comments in the program.
• Flowcharts and Algorithms are not required
• The Programs must be written in C/Java

Question 8.
The coordinates of a point P on a two-dimensional plane can be represented by P(x, y) with x as the x-coordinate and y as the y-coordinate. The coordinates of the midpoint of two points P1(x1, y1) and P2(x2, y2) can be calculated as P(x, y) where: [10]
\(x=\frac{x_{1}+x_{2}}{2}, y=\frac{y_{1}+y_{2}}{2}\)
Design a class Point with the following details:
Class name: Point
Data Members/instance variables:
x: stores the x-coordinate
y: stores the y-coordinate
Member functions:
Point (): constructor to initialize x = 0, y = 0
void readpoint (): accepts the coordinates x and y of a point
Point midpoint (Point A, Point B): calculates and returns the midpoint of the two points A and B
void displaypoint (): displays the coordinates of a point
Specify the class Point giving details of the constructor (), member functions void readpoint ( ), Point midpoint (Point, Point) and void displaypoint () along with the main () function to create an object and call the functions accordingly to calculate the midpoint between any two given points.
Answer:

import java.io.*;
class Point
{
int x;
inty;
public Point ()
{
x = 0;
y = 0;
}
public void read point () throws IOException
{
Buffered Reader br = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(Systemin);
System.out.println("Enter the value of x'');
x = Integer.parselnt (br. readLine());
System.out.printing'Enter the value of y ");
y = Integer.parselnt(br. readLine ( ));
}
public Point midpoint(Point A, Point B)
{
x = (A.x+B.x)/2;
y = (A.y + B.y)/2;
}
public void displaypoint()
{
System.out.println(x);
System. out.println(y);
}
public void main()
{
Point obj 1 = new Point();
obj1.readpoint();
Point obj 2 = new Point();
obj2.readpoint();
Point obj 3 = new Point();
Point obj4 = obj3.midpoint(obj 1, obj2);
obj4.displayPoint();
}
}

Question 9.
Input a word in uppercase and check for the position of the first occurring vowel and perform the following operation. [10]
(i) Words that begin with a vowel are concatenated with “Y”.
For example, EUROPE becomes EUROPEY.
(ii) Words that contain a vowel in-between should have the first part from the position of the vowel till the end, followed by the part of the string from beginning till the position of the vowel and is concatenated by “C”.
For example, PROJECT becomes OJECTPRC.
(iii) Words which do not contain a vowel are concatenated with “N”.
For example, SKY becomes SKYN.
Design a class Rearrange using the description of the data members and member functions given below:
Class name: Rearrange
Data Members/instance variables:
Txt: to store a word
Cxt: to store the rearranged word
len: to store the length of the word
Member functions:
Rearrange (): constructor to initialize the instance variables
void readword (): to accept the word input in UPPER CASE
void convert (): converts the word into its changed form and stores it in string Cxt
void display(): displays the original and the changed word
Specify the class Rearrange giving the details of the constructor (), void readword ( ), void convert () and void display (). Define a main () function to create an object and call the function accordingly to enable the task.
Answer:

import java.io.*;
class Rearrange
{
String Txt;
String Cxt;
intLen;
public Rearrange ()
{
Txt= " '';
Cxt = '' " ;
Len = 0;
}
public void readword ()
{
BufferedReader br = new BufferedReaderfnew InputStreamReader(Systemin)):
System.out.println( "Enter the String");
Txt = br. readLinef);
{
public void convert))
{
String str1 = " ", str 2 = " " ;
boolean check = false;
char ch1, ch2, ch3;
ch1 = Txt char A+(0);
if (ch1 == 'A' || ch1 == 'E' || ch1 == T || ch1 == 'O' || ch1 == 'U')
{
Cxt = Txt + "Y'';
}
else
{
for (i = 0; i < Txt. length (); i ++)
{
ch2 = TxtcharAt (i);
if(ch2 ! = 'A' || ch2 ! = 'E' || ch2 ! = 'I' || ch2 ! = 'O' || ch2 ! = 'U')
{
Strl = str1 + ch2;
}
else
{
check = true;
for (j = i; j < Txt.length 0; j++)
{ 
ch3 = Txt.charAt (j); 
str2 = str2 + ch3 ; 
} 
Str2 = Str2 + "C"; 
} 
Cxt=Str2 + Str1; 
} 
if (found = = false) 
{ 
Cxt = Txt + "N"; 
} 
} 
public void display() 
{ 
System.out.println("The original string is" + Txt); 
System.out.println(" The new String is"+ Cxt); 
} 
public void main() 
{ 
Rearrange obj = new Rearrange() 
obj.readword( ); 
obj.convert( ); 
obj.display(); 
} 
}

Question 10.
Design a class Change to perform string related operations. The details of the class are given below:
Class name: Change
Data Members/instance variables:
str: stores the word
newstr: stores the changed word
len: store the length of the word
Member functions:
Change(): default constructor
void inputword( ): to accept a word
char caseconvert (char ch): converts the case of the character and returns it
void recchange (int): extracts characters using recursive technique and changes its case using caseconvert () and forms a new word
void display (): displays both the words
(a) Specify the class Change, giving details of the Constructor ( ), member functions void inputword (), char caseconvert (char ch), void recchange (int) and void display (). Define the main () function to create an object and call the functions accordingly to enable the above change in the given word. [8]
(b) Differentiate between an infinite and a finite recursion. [2]
Answer:

(a) import java.io.*; 
Class change 
{
 String str; 
String newstr; 
int len; 
public change() 
{ 
str = " " ; 
newstr = " "; 
len = 0; 
}
 public void inputword() 
{ 
BufferedReader br = new BufferedReader (new InputStreamReader (System.in)); 
System.out.println ("Enter the number");
Str=br.readLine(); 
} 
public char caseconvert (char ch)
 { 
if (ch > = 'A' &&. ch<= 'Z') 
{ 
ch=(char) ((int) ch + 32); 
return ch; 
} 
if (ch > = 'a' && ch < = 'z')
{
return (char) ((int) ch - 32);
}
if (ch = = ' ')
return ch;
}
public void recchange (int a)
{
if(a<0)
return;
else
recchange (a-1);

(b) Finite recursion has the same stopping condition on which the recursive function does not call itself. Infinite recursion has no stopping condition and hence go on infinitely.

Section – C
Answer any two questions

• Each program /Algorithmshould is written in such a way that it clearly depicts the logic of the problem stepwise.
• This can be achieved by using pseudo-codes.
• Flowcharts are not required
• The programs must be written in Java.
• The Algorithm must be written in general/standard form.

Question 11.
A superclass Worker has been defined to store the details of a worker. Define a subclass Wages to compute the monthly wages for the worker. The details/specifications of both the classes are given below:
Class name: Worker
Data Members/instance variables:
Name: to store the name of the worker
Basic: to store the basic pay in decimals
Member functions:
Worker (…): Parameterised constructor to assign values to the instance variables
void display (): display the worker’s details
Class name: Wages
Data Members/instance variables:
hrs: stores the hours worked
rate: stores rate per hour
wage: stores the overall wage of the worker
Member functions:
Wages (…): Parameterised constructor to assign values to the instance variables of both the classes
double overtime (): Calculates and returns the overtime amount as (hours*rate)
void display (): Calculates the wage using the formula wage = overtime amount + Basic pay and displays it along with the other details
Specify the class Worker giving details of the constructor () and void display ( ). Using the concept of inheritance, specify the class Wages giving details of constructor ( ), double-overtime () and void display (). The main () function need not be written.
Answer:

importjava.io.*;
class worker
{
String Name;
double Basic;
public worker (String n, double b)
{
Name = n;
Basic = b;
}
public void display ( )
{
System.out.println (Name);
System.out.println (Basic);
}
}
class wages extends worker
{
int hrs, rate;
double wage
public wage (string n, double b, int h, int r, double w)
{
super (n, b);
hrs = h;
rate = r;
wage = w;
}
public double overtime ()
{
return (hours*rate);
}
public void display ( )
{
super.display ();
wage = overtime () + Basic;
System.out.prinln(wages);
}
}

Question 12.
Define a class Repeat which allows the user to add elements from one end (rear) and remove elements from the other end (front) only.
The following details of the class Repeat are given below:
Class name: Repeat
Data Members/instance variables:
st[]: an array to hold a maximum of 100 integer elements
cap: stores the capacity of the array
f: to point the index of the front
r: to point the index of the rear
Member functions:
Repeat (int m): constructor to initialize the data members cap = m, f = 0, r = 0 and to create the integer array
void pushvalue (int v): to add integer from the rear index if possible else display the message (“OVERFLOW”)
int popvalue (): to remove and return element from the front. If array is empty then return -9999
void disp (): Displays the elements present in the list
(a) Specify the class Repeat giving details of the constructor (int), member function void pushvalue (int). int popvalue () and void disp (). The main ( ) function need not be written. [8]
(b) What is the common name of the entity described above? [1]
(c) On what principle does this entity work? [1]
Answer:

import java.io.*;
Class Repeat
{
intan [];
int cap, f, r;
public Repeat (int m)
{
cap = m;
f=0;
r=0;
an [ ] = new int[100];
}
public void pushvalue (int v)
{
if (r = = cap)
{
Systemout.println ("OVERFLOW");
}
else if (f = = 0)
{
f = 1;
}
else
{
an [r++] = v;
}
}
public int popvalue ( )
{
if (f == 0)
{
System.out.println (-9999);
}
elseif(f=r)
{
f=0; r = 0;
}
else
{
return (an [f++]);
}
}
public void display ( )
{
for (i = f; i< = r; i ++)
System.outprintln (an [ i ];
}

(b) Queue
(c) It works on first in first out Principle(FIFO).

Question 13.
(a) A linked list is formed from the objects of the class, [4]

class ListNodes
{
int item;
ListNodes next;
}

Write a method OR an algorithm to compute and return the sum of all integers items stored in the linked list. The method declaration is specified below:
int listsum(ListNodes start);
(b) What is Big ‘O’ notation? State its significance. [2]
(c) Answer the following from the diagram of a Binary Tree given below:

(i) Name the parent of node E. [1]
(ii) Write the postorder tree traversal. [1]
(iii) Write the internal nodes of the tree. [1]
(iv) State the level of the root of the tree. [1]
Answer:
(a) Algorithm
Let P be a pointer of type listNodes.

1. P = start, sum = 0
2. Repeat steps 3, 4 while (P! = NULL)
3. sum = sum + P → item
4. P = P → next (end of step 2 loop)
5. Return sum (Print sum)

(b) Big ‘O’ notation: It is used to represent the complexity of algorithms e.g. O(n), O(n log n)
Significance: By using this notation one can compare the complexities of algorithms and can select the best algorithms under time or memory limitations.

(c) (i) C is a parent of E
(ii) Postorder: FGDBHECA
(iii) internal nodes: A B C D E
(iv) level 1

ISC Class 12 Computer Science Previous Year Question Papers

ISC Physical Education Previous Year Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 12

Maximum Marks: 70
Time allowed: Three hours

(Candidates are allowed additional 15 minutes for only reading the paper. They must NOT start writing during this time.)

• Answer any five questions from Section A.
• Section B comprises of one question on each game with five subparts (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e). Select any two games from this Section.
• Answer any three of the five subparts (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) from each of the two games selected by you in this section.
• The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Section-A
(40 Marks)
Answer any five questions.

Question 1.
What is meant by warming up? Write the advantages of warming up. [8]
Answer:
Prevention is better than cure is an age old saying. Injury prevention is one of the best ways to ensure that performance doesn’t dwindle or drop. There are many ways of preventing injuries. Warming up and cooling down helps in preventing sports injuries.
Muscle should be warmed up :
(a) To increase blood circulation.
(b) To enable oxygen to reach to the working muscle group.
(c) To increase temperature of the muscle.
(d) To increase metabolism of the muscle. Warming up can be divided into two types, namely, Physiological warm up and Psychological warm up.

I. Physiological Warm Up :
In this warm-up a player is prepared physically for the activity. All the systems of the body are

Warming up is preparing the athletes mentally and physically to adjust the sudden increase in the movement. Warming up is a process by which human body is brought to a condition at which it safely responds to the nerve impulses of the person for quick and efficient action. An insufficient warming up may contribute to muscle or tendon injuries. Components of warming up are jogging, running, stretching, calisthenics, flexibility exercise, games, sports or event-related activities.

made ready to bear stress during the activity. Physiological warm up creates following impact on the body :

1. Body temperature is raised gradually which in turn increases the blood supply to the muscles. Warming up enhances the body core temperature. If the core temperature of the body is increased by 1 °C then basal metabolic rate (BMR) is increased by 14% which enhances the physical work capacity.
2. Hemoglobin (RBC) carries more oxygen, which results in more oxygen exchange between blood or tissue and myoglobin.
3. Propagation of nerve impulses (signals) become faster which improves and sharpens the reaction time.
4. Rate of contraction of muscle becomes faster as the viscosity is lowered. Thus the chances of injuries or wear and tear are minimized.
5. Increases the stroke volume as per demand of muscles to be used in the activity.
6. Increases lung ventilation, which supplies more oxygen. It results in the removal of lactic acid which helps in improving the endurance,
7. Improves agility, coordination and range of motion (ROM) in the joints.
8. It helps the athlete to enjoy the second wind at the earliest possible.

II. Psychological Warm Up :

In this warm up athletes are prepared mentally for the activity. It is very important for all games and sports specially combating games like judo, wrestling, boxing etc. Psychological warm up can be started many days before the competition and can be given during the actual competition. It reduces tension and nervousness. It improves the concentration required for the main task.

Through psychological warm up a player is motivated by boosting his or her moral in following ways :

• Telling the players about his or her capabilities.
• Telling about the weakness of the opponent.
• Clarifying his doubts.
• Reminding about his or her past wins and defeats.
• Through rewards or punishments.
• Sometimes provoking him.
• Thumbs up signal.

Question 2.
(a) Explain the merits and demerits of league tournament. [8]
(b) Draw a league fixture for eight teams according to cyclic method.
Answer 2.
(a) In a league tournament each team competes with every other team participating in the tournament. Winners are decided on the basis of the points acquired after all the competitions. For each win a team may be awarded 2 points, for draw 1 point and for a loss no point is awarded. Formulae to find the number of matches in a league tournament – n (n – l)/2, where n = number of teams participating in the tournament.

For example :
The number of matches in a league tournament of 8 teams = 8 (8 – l)/2 = 28 matches. In a single league tournament, every team competes with every other team participating in the tournament once. In a double league tournament, every team competes with every other team participating in the tournament twice.

Advantages of league tournament:

• Luck factor does not have a role to play as each team gets to play with all the teams.
• If a good team has lost a match, it still can be winner of the tournament because it has other matches to play.
• There is less pressure on players to perform well because each match is not crucial.
• More number of matches for players to show their talent and also for the selectors to spot the talent.

Disadvantages of league tournament:

1. It takes more time to finish the tournament. Number of matches in a league tournament is more compared to the knock-out tournament.
2. It is not economical.
3. Each match is not crucial. So, some matches may become boring for spectators, riding to cyclic method

(b) League fixture for 8 teams According to cyclic method

Question 3.
Discuss the importance of health education for adult younger generation
Answer:
According to National Conference of Preventive Medicine USA, Health education is a process that informs, motivates and helps people to adopt and maintain healthy practices and lifestyle, advocates environmental changes as needed to facilitate this goal and conducts professional training and research to the same end.

Lawrence Green defined Health Education as ‘a combination of learning experiences designed to facilitate voluntary actions conducive to health.”

Health education is a social science that draws from the biological, environmental psychological, physical and medical sciences to promote health and prevent disease, disability and premature death through education-driven voluntary behaviour change activities.

Health education is the process by which individuals and group of people learn to promote, maintain, restore health. It is a process aimed at stimulating the wish to be healthy, to know how to stay healthy, to do what they can individually and collectively do to maintain health, and to seek help when needed.

Health education as applied to health and disease issues is a process with intellectual, psychological and social dimensions relating to activities that increase the abilities of people to make informed decisions affecting their personal, family and community well being. This process, based on scientific principles facilitates learning and behavioural change in both health personnel and consumers, including children and youth.

The purpose of health education is to positively influence the health behaviour of individuals and communities as well as the living and working conditions that influence their health. The focus of health education is on increasing functional health knowledge and identifying key skills that are applicable to all aspects of healthy living. These skills include identifying the influence of family, peers, culture, media and technology on health behavior; knowing how to access and use valid health information and using communication, decision-making, goal-setting and encouragement skills to engage in health-enhancing behaviours.

Importance of Health Education for adults :

1. Health education helps adults in personal development, well-being, increased self-confi-dence, etc.
2. Health education helps in health literacy. The capacity of people to understand how to deal with their health (indications of a doctor, instruc-tion leaflets on medicines, information leaflets on illnesses, etc.) helps in better health of adults.
3. Health education helps adult to have better understanding of the preventive measures and treatment for communicable and non- communicable diseases.
4. Health education helps in promotion of healthy lifestyles. Courses on nutrition or cooking but also yoga and gym classes, etc. help the adults to have healthy concepts for having healthy lifestyle.
5. Helps in promoting the proper use of health services available in adults.
6. By focusing on prevention, health educa-tion reduces the costs of adults (both financial and human) that individuals would spend on medical treatment.

Importance of Health Education for young generation :

1. Helps in instilling behaviors into young generation to prevent or delay the onset of the leading causes of death.
2. Helps in promoting the proper use of health services available in young generation.
3. Health education builds students’ know-ledge, skills, and positive attitudes about health. Health education teaches about physical, mental, emotional and social health. It motivates students to improve and maintain their health, prevent disease, and reduce risky behaviors.
4. Health education curricula and instruction help students learn skills they will use to make healthy choices throughout their lifetime. It provides logical reasons for avoiding alcohol, tobacco, and other drugs.
5. It helps to cite the young generation regarding the importance of injury prevention, having good physical and emotional health, proper intake of nutrition, physical activity, prevention of diseases and sexuality and family life.
6. Health education promotes learning in other subjects. In general, healthy students learn better. Numerous studies have shown that healthier students tend to do better in school. They have higher attendance, have better grades, and perform better on tests.

Question 4.
Mention the causes and corrective measures for the following ; [8]
(a) Lordosis
(b) Flat foot
Answer:
(a) Lordosis : Lordosis is a medical term used to describe an inward curvature of a portion of the vertebral column. It is an increased forward curvature in the lumber region and is the main cause of problems in walking and standing. It can affect the lower back and neck. This can lead to excess pressure on the spring causing pain and discomfort. Lordotic curves refer to the inward curve of the lumbar spine (just above the buttocks).

Causes:

• Birth defect.
• Deficiency of the vitamin- D, calcium, etc. during childhood.
• Misaligned healing of a spinal fracture or injury to the supporting ligaments of the spine.
• Habits from everyday activities such as lifting bag, bucket filled with water etc. using one hand.
• Obesity can put uneven pressure on the spine, causing curvature.
• Pregnancy period can result in Lordosis.
• Abdominal muscle of the body is wéak and lower back muscle is strong.

Symptoms:

• Stomach is outward.
• The lower back dips inward.
• Back pain or strain.

Treatment:

1. Surgery.
2. Following correct posture of standing, sitting and lying.
3. Treatment by exercise
   • Flexibility exercise for lower back muscle which is strong.
   • Strengthening exercise for muscle stomach which is weak (forward bending exercise).
   • Abdominal crunches.
   • Place the pillow under the stomach while sleeping in a prone Lying position.

Names of the yoga exercise which help in treatment of Lordosis : Paschimotanasana (Forward Bend Posture), Padahastasana (Standing Forward Bend Posture), Janu Sirsasana (Head to Knee Posture) Halasana (Plough Posture) Naukasana (Boat Posture) etc.

Following exercise can be performed as a remedy for Lordosis:

• From standing position bend forward from hip level. Repeat this exercise ten times.
• Lie down on back, raise head and legs simultaneously for 10 times.
• Perform sit-ups regularly.
• Halasana should be performed regularly.
• Lie down in supine position, i.e., on back, then raise legs at 45 degree angle. Remain in this position for sometime.
• Toe touching should be performed.
• Sit down and extend your legs forward.

Try to touch forehead to knees. Repeat this exercise 10 times.

(b) Flat Foot: Flat foot is one physical deformity on which the medial longitudinal and transverse arches of foot are depressed and medial border of foot comes in contact with ground. Flat foot deformity can be diagnosed with a very simple test called as ‘Wet Foot test’. In this deformity the arch of the foot collapses, with the entire sole of the foot coming into complete or near-complete contact with the ground.

Causes:

• Birth defect.
• Overweight or obesity Deficiency of the vita min D, cal cium, etc. during childhood.

Symptoms:

• Difficulty in running and walking.

Treatment:

• Surgery.
• Standing on toes.
• Walking on toes.
• Picking small stone with toes and placing it a little far.

Names of the yoga exercise which help in treatment of Flat-foot: Tadasana (Tree posture), Utkatasana (Chair posture), etc.

Following exercises can be performed as a remedy for Flat Foot deformity :

• Walking on heels.
• Walking on inner and outer side of feet.
• Walking on toes.
• To perform up and down the heels.
• Jumping on toes for sometime
• To skip on rope.
• To perform Vajrasana, the yogic asana.
  

Question 5.
Write in detail the effects of insufficient sleep, on human body. [8]
Answer:
Sleep plays an important role in the physical health of people. Sleep deprivation occurs when an individual fails to get enough sleep. The amount of sleep that a person needs varies from one person to another, but on an average most adults need about seven to eight hours of sleep every night in order to feel well-rested and alert.

Effects of insufficient sleep, on human body are as follows :

1. Increases the risk of heart disease, kidney disease, high blood pressure, diabetes, and stroke. Sleep deficiency also increases the menace of obesity. One study of teenagers showed that with each hour of sleep lost, the chances of becoming obese went up. Sleep deficiency increases the risk of obesity in other age groups as well.
2. Sleep helps maintain a balance of the hormones that regulate appetite. Sleep also affects the hormone that controls the blood glucose level and its deficiency may increase the risk for diabetes.
3. Sleep also supports healthy growth and development. Deep sleep triggers the body to release the hormone that promotes normal growth in children and teens. This hormone also boosts muscle mass and helps repair cells and tissues in children, teens, and adults. Prolonged sleep deficiency can change the way in which the immune system responds.
4. Sleep disturbance can also be an indication of other underlying medical conditions or psychological disorders. It may, for instance, be a symptom of Anxiety or Mood Disorder. Furthermore, sleep disturbance that is chronic or severe can bring on or exacerbate serious psychological disorders.

Question 6.
List the various ill effects of alcohol on an individual. [8]
Answer:
Alcohol has some immediate or short-term physical effects on the body as a whole, including the brain, the gut and pancreas, the heart and circulation, sleep control and sexual functions. The most obvious and immediate effects of alcohol are on the brain. The effects of alcohol on the brain are felt within about five minutes of alcohol being swallowed. Alcohol slows down or blocks many of the brain’s functions. The initial effect might be a reduction in tension or inhibitions, making the drinker feel more relaxed or excited. However, as the intake of alcohol increases, these effects are counterbalanced by less pleasant effects, such as :

• Drowsiness
• Loss of balance
• Poor coordination
• Slower reaction times (critical when driving or operating machinery)
• Slurred speech
• Slowed thought processes
• Nausea and vomiting

As more alcohol is consumed and the blood alcohol concentration (BAC) rises, performance and behaviour deteriorate progressively. The risk of accident, violence or injury increases rapidly with increasing blood alcohol levels.

If the BAC reaches a high enough level, it can lead to life-threatening events such as :

1. Unconsciousness.
2. Inhibition of normal breathing may be fatal, particularly as the person may vomit and can suffocate if the vomit is inhaled.
3. The pituitary gland at the base of the brain, which controls the body’s fluid balance, and can leave the person dehydrated and with a headache.
4. The gut, by irritating the lining of the gut as the level of alcohol is increased, with diarrhoea as a possible outcome.
5. The pancreas, which may become inflamed, sometimes chronically. This can cause severe pain and a highly unpleasant reaction to alcohol in the future.
6. The heart and blood circulation, where one or two standard drinks can affect the heart rate, blood pressure, the contraction of heart muscle and its efficiency in pumping blood, and blood flow throughout the body; higher levels of alcohol may result in irregular heart rhythms, raised blood pressure, shortness of breath, and cardiac failure.
   result in irregular heart rhythms, raised blood pressure, shortness of breath, and cardiac failure.
7. Disruption of sleep can be a trigger for a variety of mental health problems.
8. Sexual functioning, particularly in men, who may find it more difficult to get an erection after drinking alcohol beyond low-risk levels.
9. Alcohol can affect the level of risk of particular conditions or diseases, including: cancer; cirrhosis of the liver; heart disease and stroke; cognitive problems (including memory and reasoning); and dementia.

Question 7.
Explain what is contusion. Mention the steps to be followed for its prevention. [8]
Answer:
Contusion is an injury caused by a forceful hit by a hard object. It is an internal injury. There is no external cut or bleeding over the skin.
Signs and Symptoms : Swelling, pain, bluish colour appears on the outer surface of the skin. Management of Injuries
P – Protection : Protect the injured part from further injury. Do not attempt to pressure or massage the injured part.
R – Rest : Give rest to the injured part and restrict the movement.
I – Ice : Apply ice to the injured part for 15-20 minutes and repeat it 3-4 times in a day if required for first 24-48 hours of injury, after that apply heat for the dispersion of clotted blood.
C-Compression : Compress the injured part with a crape bandage to restrict the movement.
E – Elevation : Elevate the injured part with slings if required.
S – Support: Support the injured part to avoid painful movement until medical assistance is provided.

Injuries are part of the sport and almost every athlete gets injured at one time or another. Most sports injuries can be predicted and prevented with understanding and immediate treatment.

Following ways helps to prevent contusion :

1. Avoiding workout routine mistakes may help to prevent injuries. Workout routine mistakes are like :
   • Ignoring one’s medical condition.
   • Doing the same workout routine day after day.
   • Never taking a rest day.
   • Too much, too soon, too fast, too hard and too often use of muscle.
   • Missing several workouts in a row and then adding additional mileage to catch up.
   • Not using the proper technique.
   • Not wearing the right protective gear.
   • Not doing conditioning exercises before for strengthening the muscles used in play.
   • Not performing stretching exercises before and after games or practice.
   • Not drinking plenty of fluids before, during and after exercise or play.
   • Drinking water prevents dehydration and keeps the muscle flexible.
   • Not having a rest period during practice and games.
   • Rest period can reduce injuries and prevent heat illness.
   • Not stopping the activity if there is pain.
   • Not wearing light clothing.
2. Having adequate amount of calorie and supplements like iron and calcium for the body helps to prevent injury.
3. The player should have a positive approach to game and should look into the game as a means of developing the quality of sportsmanship and hard work.
4. Not having a positive approach to game can create emotional stress and this will affect the physiological process which results in lack of concentration leading to injuries.
5. Immediate first aid care should be provided to the athlete for preventing aggravation of injury.
6. Treatment and rehabilitation can be done through various physiotherapy treatments and modalities.
7. Proper Rehabilitation should be given to an injury for faster and maximum recovery.
8. Return to activity after full recovery helps to prevent the reoccurrence of injury as the muscles are tunes to take the load.

Section-B (30 Marks)

• Select any two games from this Section.
• Answer any three of the five subparts (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) from each of the two games selected by you.
• Each subpart is for 5 marks.

FOOTBALL

Question 8. [3 x 5]
(a) List any five fundamental skills which a football player must posses. [5]
(b) What decision is to be taken by the referee if the ball bursts or becomes defective during the course of a match? [5]
(c) Explain the difference between tackling and trapping. [5]
(d) Mention the basic compulsory equipment used by a referee while conducting a match. ’ [5]
(e) Mention any five duties of Assistant Referees. [5]
Answer:
(a)

Fundamental skills which a football player must possess are :
1. Controlling : To control the ball is to master it. Properly controlling the ball means that a move will be successful. The control move-ments to focus on are directed control and gathering the ball while moving these will introduce speed into the play.
2. Passing : This is the action of giving the ball to a team-mate. It is an essential part of team play. As the core of the game, passing allows a team to :
(a) Keep possession of the ball;
(b) Set up attacks;
(c) Change the direction of play;
(d) Counter-attack;
(e) Provide a decisive or final pass.
3. Shooting : This is an action with the objective of dispatching the ball into the opponent’s goal. It is the logical conclusion, the culmination of an attack. It is what football is all about. Shooting requires technical qualities (striking the ball well, accuracy), physical qualities (power, coordination, balance) and mental qualities (determination, audacity, self-confidence).
4. Dribbling : This is how an individual moves with the ball when faced by opponents or obstacles. Dribbling allows the player in possession of the ball to eliminate one or more opponents by :
(a) Making a manoeuvre and taking individual risks;
(b) Setting up a team move;
(c) Gaining time to allow support from team-mates;
(d) Deceiving an opponent (the concept of the feint).

5. Headers : Headers can be associated with mastery of the ball (juggling and control) and passing or shooting the ball. Heading is an essential skill for defending and marking.

(b) Decision to be taken by the referee if the ball burst or becomes defective during the course of a match

1. Play is stopped and restarted by dropping the replacement ball where the original ball became defective.
2. If the ball becomes defective at a kick-off, goal kick, comer kick, free kick, penalty kick or throw-in, the restart is re-taken.
3. If the ball becomes defective during a penalty kick or kicks from the penalty mark as it moves forward and before it touches a player, crossbar or goal posts, the penalty kick is retaken.
4. The ball may not be changed during the match without the referee’s permission.

(c) Tackling: Most forms of football have a move known as a tackle. The primary and important purposes of tackling are to dispossess an opponent of the ball, to stop the player from gaining ground towards goal or to stop them from carrying out what they intend.

Trapping: Trapping is to gain control over the ball. It is a skill applied to keep possession of the ball. It is a method of gaining control of the ball off of a pass or a loose ball. Trapping the ball involves using the feet, thighs or chest to bring the ball to the ground while keeping it in the player’s possession. It can include stopping the ball completely or redirecting the ball in a controlled manner. When trying to stop or slow the ball, players cushion the ball as it moves towards them.

(d) Referees must have the following equipment :

• Whistle(s)
• Watch(es)
• Red and yellow cards
• Notebook (or other means of keeping a record of the match).

(e) Five duties of Assistant Referee : A match official with a flag positioned on one half of each touchline to assist the referee particularly with offside situations and goal kick /comer kick/throw-in decisions:

They indicate when:

• The whole of the ball leaves the field of play and which team is entitled to a corner kick, goal kick.
• The whole of the ball leaves the field of play and which team is entitled to a throw-in.
• Player in an offside position may be penalised.
• A substitution is requested.
• At penalty kicks, the goalkeeper moves off the goal line before the ball is kicked and if the ball crosses the line; if additional assistant referees have been appointed the assistant referee takes a position in line with the penalty mark.

The assistant referee’s assistance also includes monitoring the substitution procedure. The assistant referee may enter the field of play to help control the 9.15 m (10 yards) distance.

CRICKET

Question 9. [3 x 5]
(a) Explain the following : [5]
(i) Dolly Catch
(ii) Gully
(iii) Seam
(iv) Hook shot
(v) Half-volley

(b) Differentiate between popping crease and bowling crease. [5]
(c) Explain the following terms : [5]
(i) Ball tampering
(ii) Sweep
(d) (i) Write the full forms of ICC and BCCI. [5]
(ii) State the function of ICC and BCCI.

(e) Under which conditions can an umpire change the ball? [5]
Answer:
(a) (i) Dolly Catch : A very easy catch taken by a fielder.
(ii) Gully : A close fielder near the slip fielders, at an angle to a line between the two sets of stumps of about 100 to 140 degrees.
(iii) Seam : The stitching on the ball.
(iv) Hook Shot : A shot, similar to a pull, but played so that the ball is struck when it is above the batsman’s shoulder.
(v) Half Volley : A delivery that bounces just short of the block hole, usually easy to drive or glance away.

(b) Difference between Popping crease and Bowling crease : Crease is one of several lines on the pitch near the stumps (the “popping crease”, the “return crease” and the “bowling crease”).

Note : Measuremets are in centimetres 100 cms = 1 metre Lines in Black are imaginary oniy and do net exist as pitch markings during play

The popping crease has the same length, is parallel to the bowling crease and is 4 feet (1.22 m) in front of the wicket. Although it is considered to have unlimited length (in other words, runs across the entire field) the popping crease must be marked to at least 6 feet (1.83 metres) perpendicular to the pitch, on either side of the middle of the pitch.

The bowling crease lie 22 yards (66 feet or 20.12 m) away, and marks the other end of the pitch. A bowling crease is 8 feet 8 inches (2.64 m) long with the middle stump placed dead centre. For the fielding side, the crease defines whether there is a no-ball because a fielder has encroached on the pitch or the wicket-keeper has moved in front of the wicket before he is permitted to do so.

(c)
(i) Ball tampering is the unlawful alteration of the surface or seam of a ball on the field, to affect its motion when bowled.
(ii) Sweep is a shot played to a good length slow delivery. The batsman gets down on one knee and “sweeps” the ball to the leg side.

(d)
(i) ICC-International Cricket Council.
Headquarters : Dubai, United Arab Emirates. BCCI-The Board of Control for Cricket in India.
Headquarters: Mumbai.

(ii) Functions of the International Cricket Council (ICC)

1. It is responsible for organizing major international tournaments of cricket, in which the “Cricket World Cup” is the main.
2. It employs all umpires and referees, who are responsible for the successful events of all Test matches, one-day international and Twenty-20 international tournaments.
3. It deals with the code of conduct for cricket, as well as the professional standards of discipline, action against corruption and match fixing.
4. It monitors the cricket playing conditions, the bowling action review, and the other rules of the ICC.

Functions of the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI)

1. BCCI works as a money churning machine which controls and improves the quality and standard of cricket in India.
2. To select teams to represent India in Test Match, One Day International and Twenty-20 and in any other format in India and abroad as BCCI may decide from time to time.
3. BCCI decides the sponsor, controls IPL, decides with whom and where India will play and also how much of what format will team play.
4. In consultation with various state cricket associations BCCI conducts Ranji, Duleep Trophy, Challenger Series and the other domestic tournaments.
5. To appoint representative on International Cricket Council.
6. To appoint managers and other team officials for Indian team.

(e) Conditions in which Umpire can change the Ball are:

1. If ball is lost or becoming unfit for play. If during play, the ball cannot be found or recovered or the umpires agree that it has become unfit for play through normal use, the ” umpires shall replace it with a ball which has had wear comparable with that which the previous ball had received before the need for its replacement. When the ball is replaced, the umpire shall inform the batsmen and the fielding captain.
2. If the umpires together agree that the condition of the ball has been unfairly changed by a member or members of the fielding side, the batsman at the wicket shall choose the replacement ball from a selection of six other balls of various degrees of usage (including a new ball) and of the same brand as the ball in use prior to the breaking.
3. If the umpires together agree that the condition of the ball has been unfairly changed by a member or members of the batting side, the umpires shall select and bring into use immediately, a ball which shall have wear comparable to that of the previous ball immediately prior to the breaking.

HOCKEY

Question 10. [3 x 5]
(a) Write a short note on Hockey Stick. [5]
(b) Mention any five duties of the captain of a Hockey team. [5]
(c) Write the equipment used by a Goal Keeper. [5]
(d) When is a penalty stroke awarded? [5]
(e) State the difference between a scoop and a stroke. [5]
Answer:
(a) Each player carries a stick and cannot take part in the game without it. The stick for an adult is usually in the range 89-95 cm (35-38″) long. A maximum length of 105 cm (41″) was stipulated from 2016. The maximum permitted weight is 737 grams. The majority of players use a stick in the range 19 oz to 22 oz (538 g – 623 g). Traditionally hockey sticks were made of hickory, ash or mulberry wood with the head of the sticks being hand carved. Sticks made of wood continue to be made but the higher grade sticks are now manufactured from composite materials which were first permitted after 1992. These sticks usually contain a combination of fibreglass, aramid fiber and carbon fibre in varying proportions according to the characteristics (flexibility; stiffness; resistance to impact and abrasion) required.

(b) Five Duties of the Captain in Hockey Team are:

• Captain must wear a distinctive arm-band or similar distinguishing article on an upper arm or shoulder or over the upper part of a sock.
• Captain is responsible for the behaviour of all players on their team.
• To ensure that substitutions of players on their team are carried out correctly.
• Understanding different game strategies and latest rules and regulation helps to make plays on the field.
• Work hard to develop the relationships between the players and coach(es).

(c) Equipment used by Goalkeeper are :
Hand protectors:

• Each have a maximum width of 228 mm and length of 355 mm when laid flat, palm upwards.
• Must not have any additions to retain the stick when the stick is not held in the hand.
• Leg guards : Each have a maximum width of 300 mm when on the leg of the goalkeeper.

(d) A penalty stroke is awarded :

1. For an offence by a defender in the circle which does not prevent the probable scoring of a goal.
2. For an intentional offence in the circle by a defender against an opponent who does not have possession of the ball or an opportunity to play the ball.
3. For an intentional offence by a defender outside the circle but within the 23 metres area they are defending.
4. For intentionally playing the ball over the back-line by a defender^ note: goalkeepers are permitted to deflect the ball with their stick, protective equipment or any part of their body in any direction including over the back line.
5. For an offence by a defender in the circle which prevents the probable scoring of a goal.
6. If the ball hits a piece of equipment lying in the circle and a probable goal is prevented, a penalty stroke may be awarded.
7. For an intentional offence in the circle by a defender against an opponent who has possession of the ball or an opportunity to play the ball.
8. If there is another offence or misconduct before the awarded penalty has been taken.

(e) Scoop is a method of passing or shooting the ball by leveraging the stick underneath the ball to pick it up and fling it through the air while Penalty stroke is a free one-on-one shot from the penalty stroke line awarded when a foul prevents a likely goal. The goalkeeper must remain behind the goal line until the ball is hit.

BASKETBALL

Question 11. [3 x 5]
(a) Explain Three Second Rule and Twenty- four Second Rule. [5]
(b) What is free throw? State the steps to be followed for taking a free throw. [5]
(c) Mention the violations in the game of Basketball. [5]
(d) What is a double foul in the game of basketball? What is the penalty for this foul? [5]
(e) Explain technical foul and multiple foul. [5]
Answer:
(a) Three Second Rule: The three seconds rule is often termed a lane violation requires that in basketball, a player shall not remain in the opponents’ restricted area for more than three consecutive seconds while that player’s team is in control of a live ball in the frontcourt and the game clock is running. The countdown starts when one foot enters the restricted area and resets when both feet leave the area.

Twenty-four Second Rule : A shot for a field goal is attempted near the end of the shot clock period and the shot clock signal sounds while the ball is in the air. If the ball does not touch the ring, a violation has occurred unless the opponents have gained an immediate and clear control of the ball. The ball shall be awarded to the opponents for the throw-in from the place nearest to where the game was stopped, except directly behind the backboard.

(b) A free throw is a shot that a player gets after they are fouled. It is a direct and unguarded shot from 15-feet away from the hoop. Player gets two free throws if shot does not go in the hoop after the foul no basket is awarded. If the shot does go in after the fouled then the basket counts and one more free throw is awarded. If a player gets a technical foul (a foul for bad behaviour), then a player on the other team is given one free throw.

Steps to be followed for taking free throw are:

1. Get the body in position. If one right handed then right foot should be lined up with the rim. Shoulders should be square and one should feel balanced – being off balanced will affect control.
2. Make sure to keep eyes on the front of the rim before shot and while shoot.
3. Keep shooting arm parallel to the rim when shoot the ball.
4. Bend knees. The strength of shot should come from legs rather than arms.
5. Shoot the ball off finger tips. If using palm, shot will be flat and not get good arc.
6. Make sure to follow through with shot! This will help get arc, rotation, and consistency.

(c) The violation in the game of Basketball are:

1. Walking or Traveling : Taking more than ‘a step and a half without dribbling the ball is traveling. Moving pivot foot once one has stopped dribbling is traveling.
2. Carrying or palming : When a player dribbles the ball with hand too far to the side of or, sometimes, even under the ball.
3. Double Dribble : Dribbling the ball with both hands on the ball at the same time or picking up the dribble and then dribbling again is a double dribble.
4. Held ball : Occasionally, two or more opposing players will gain possession of the ball at the same time. In order to avoid a prolonged and/or violent tussle, the referee stops the action and awards the ball to one team or the other on a rotating basis.
5. Goaltending : If a defensive player interferes with a shot while it’s on the way down toward the basket, while it’s on the way up toward the basket after having touched the backboard, or while it’s in the cylinder above the rim, it’s goaltending and the shot counts. If committed by an offensive player, it’s a violation and the ball is awarded to the opposing team for a throw-in.
6. Backcourt violation : Once the offense has brought the ball across the mid-court line, they cannot go back across the line during possession. If they do, the ball is awarded to the other team to pass inbounds.
7. Time restrictions : A player passing the ball inbounds has five seconds to pass the ball. If the player does not, then the ball is awarded to the other team. Other time restrictions include the rule that a player cannot have the ball for more than five seconds when being closely guarded and, in some states and levels, shot-clock restrictions requiring a team to attempt a shot within a given time frame.

(d) Double foul : A foul to be considered as a double foul, both fouls must have equal penalties.

Penalty for Double Foul : The penalties offset one another, so the offense retains the possession of the ball and inbounds the ball from the side-line. Both players, however, are charged with personal fouls.

(e) Technical Foul: An official warning is given to a player for an action or behaviour which, if repeated, may lead to a technical foul. That warning shall also be communicated to the head coach of that team and shall apply to any member of that team for any similar actions for the remainder of the game. An official warning shall be given only when the ball becomes dead and the game clock is stopped.

Multiple Foul : A multiple foul occurs when 2 or more teammates commit personal fouls against the same opponent at approximately the same time. For all double, multiple and simultaneous fouls the clock must be stopped between fouls.

VOLLEYBALL

Question 12. [3 x 5]
(a) Write the duties of a Volleyball coach. [5]
(b) Write the service faults in Volleyball. [5]
(c) (i) What is the procedure adopted to start a game? [5]
(ii) List any two National level tournaments in Volleyball.
(d) Differentiate between : [5]
(i) Service zone and substitution zone.
(ii) Positional fault and rotational fault.
(e) Mention the duties of a line judge. [5]
Answer:
(a) The Duties of Volleyball Coach are :

1. Duties of a volleyball coach involve focusing on the process.
2. Help every player on the team : Give every player equal attention, regardless of skill level. More skillful players often are given more opportunities to play, so pay closer attention to less-skilled players during practice.
3. Separate the performance from the performer : One of the most important things coaches can do is build every player’s selfesteem no matter what their skill level is. Make sure every comment is constructive, sandwiched between compliments and correction.
4. Be demanding and disciplined, never demeaning : The coaches style must be based on the laws of learning. If screaming, yelling, or putting down a player was the best way to teach, then all teachers in school classrooms would be using that method.
5. Coaches must make sure they are teaching, not taking out their frustrations or setting unrealistic expectations. Coaches should never be demeaning to their athletes.
6. Coach smarter, not harder : Experience is a great teacher, but attending coaching clinics and learning from other coaches is essential. Sharing and bouncing ideas off other coaches will lead to greater coaching wisdom.
7. Be innovative, not imitative : This is hard to do, but it’s best to not just copy other successful coaches. For instance, don’t just copy volleyball practice plans.

(b) Service Faults in Volleyball are : The service is the act of putting the ball into play, by the back-right player, placed in the service zone.

• The ball shall be hit with one hand or any part of the arm after being tossed or released from the hand(s).
• Only one toss or release of the ball is allowed. Dribbling or moving the ball in the hands is permitted.
• At the moment of the service hit or take-off for a jump service, the server must not touch the court (the end line included) or the floor outside the service zone.
• After the hit, he/she may step or land outside the service zone, or inside the court.
• The server must hit the ball within 8 seconds after the 1st referee whistles for service.
• A service executed before the referee’s whistle is cancelled and repeated.

(c) (i) Procedure Adopted to Start the game are:

• Before the match, the 1st referee carries out a toss to decide upon the first service and the sides of the court in the first set.
• If a deciding set is to be played, a new toss will be carried out.
• The toss is taken in the presence of the two team captains.
• The winner of the toss chooses either the right to serve or to receive the service, or the side of the court.
• The loser takes the remaining choice.

(ii) National Level Tournament in Volley-ball are:
1. Senior Nationals : The Tournament is held for state teams all over the country. Few Government Institutions also participate in this annual tournament. The tournament follows a league-cum-knockout system, both for men and women teams. It is considered as the topmost volleyball league currently in India. Playing in this league leads to the Final step in selection towards the Senior National Team.

2. Youth Nationals : It is held for the U-21 Category state teams all over the country. Few Government Institutions also participate in this annual tournament. The tournament follows a league-cum-knockout system, both for boys and girls teams. Playing in this league leads to the Final step in selection towards the U-21 National Team.

(d)
(i) Difference between Service Zone and Substitution Zone:

Service Zone : The service zone is a 9 m wide area behind each end line. It is laterally limited by two short lines, each 15 cm long, drawn 20 cm behind the end line as an extension of the side lines. Both short lines are included in the width of the service zone. In depth, the service zone extends to the end of the free zone.

Substitution Zone: This is the part of the free zone through which substitutions are carried out. The substitution zone is limited by the extension of both attack lines up to the scorer’s table.

(ii) Difference between Positional Fault and Rotational Fault:

Positional Fault : The team commits a positional fault, if any player is not in his/her correct position at the moment the ball is hit by the server. When a player is on court through illegal substitution, and play restarts, this is counted as a positional fault with the consequences of an illegal substitution.

Rotational Fault : A rotational fault is committed when the service is not made according to the rotational order. It leads to the scorer stops play by the buzzer; the opponent gains a point and next service;

(e) Duties of line judge are :

1. To perform their functions by using flags (40 x 40 cm), to signal.
2. To check whether the ball is ‘in’ or ‘out’ whenever the ball lands near their line(s).
3. To check the touches of “out” balls by the team receiving the ball.
4. To check whether the ball is touching the antenna, the served ball and the third hit of the team crossing the net outside the crossing space, etc.
5. To check any player (except the server) stepping outside of his/her court at the moment of the service hit.
6. To check the foot faults of the server.
7. To check whether there is any contact with the top 80 cm of the antenna on their side of the court by any player during his/her action of playing the ball or interfering with the play.
8. To check whether the ball is crossing the net outside the crossing space into the opponent’s court or touching the antenna on his/her side of the court.
9. To repeat the signal at the 1st referee’s request.

TENNIS

Question 13. [3 x 5]
(a) Explain the following : [5]
(i) Double fault
(ii) Chip shot
(b) List any five types of strokes in the game of Tennis. [5]
(c) What are the duties of a coach in Tennis? [5]
(d) Explain the following : [5]
(i) Set
(ii) Ace
(iii) Slice
(iv) Down the line
(v) Drive
(e) Explain how a forehand shot is taken. [5]
Answer:
(a) Double Fault and Chip Shot

1. Double Fault : Two missed serves in a row. The server will lose the point. The server has two attempts to get the ball in. If the ball lands outside the service box or does not clear the net or the net post, it is known as a ‘fault’. After one fault the server may try again. If both tries result in faults, a ‘double fault’ is called and the opponent wins the point.
2. Chip Shot : A chip is an under-spin blocking motion used to hit a tennis ball. In other words blocking a shot with backspin, creating a low trajectory. The aim of a chip is to put the opponent under pressure.

(b) Five Types of Strokes in Tennis are:

1. Serve : The essentials of this stroke include fluid motion and rotation of the entire body into the shot. Turn to predominant side at the baseline with the front foot angled towards the net post. Bring the racquet back while tossing the ball in the air slightly toward the other shoulder with free hand. Keeping eyes on the ball, quickly coil up at the waist and knees and release into an overhand motion that drives the ball at the opposite server box.

2. Forehand : This is usually the strongest shot, but requires footwork and focus. Remain in ready position with the knees and torso bent. Keep eyes on the ball as you reach back with the racquet. However, too much backs wing may result in a late stroke that lacks power or direction. How much control one has over the return swing will depend on playing strategy and timing. Concentration, balance and practice will help to develop more control.

3. Backhand : It takes good footwork and timing to get into position for the backhand. Fluid body rotation is important. Beginning players tend to use a short backswing and lack follow-through, making their backhand shot weaker. Backhands can be delivered with one or both hands. The one-handed style will give more reach while the two-handed technique provides better power and control.

4. Volley : A volley occurs when one approach the net and hit the ball in the air. A half-volley is volleying after a bounce, not in the air. Making a strong volley involves a short backswing and hitting the ball when it’s directly in front.

5. Overhead : An overhead stroke is any shot besides the hit that the ball hits the racket’s long axis close to vertical. The point of contact between the ball and racket with this stroke is typically above the players head. An overhead stroke can be used to hit off an opposing player’s lob stroke.

(c) Duties of Coach in Tennis are :
1. Learn how each student learns best : Some students are visual learners, since they emulate what they see. Other students are auditory learners who understand by listening. Some are kinesthetic learners, in that they need to perform a movement to understand it best. Make an assessment of the students’ learning style and adjust the message accordingly.

2. Separate the performance from the performer : One of the most important things coaches can do is build every player’s selfesteem, no matter what their skill level is Make sure every comment is constructive, sandwiched between compliments and correction.

3. Be demanding and disciplined, never demeaning : The coaches style must be based on the laws of learning. If screaming, yelling, or putting down a player was the best way to teach, then all teachers in school classrooms would be using that method. Coaches must make sure they are teaching, not taking out their frustrations or setting unrealistic expectations. Coaches should never be demeaning to their athletes.

4. Coach smarter, not harder : Experience is a great teacher, but attending coaching clinics and learning from other coaches is essential. Sharing and bouncing ideas off other coaches will lead to greater coaching wisdom.

5. Be innovative, not imitative : This is hard to do, but it’s best to not just copy other successful coaches. For instance, don’t just copy practice plans.

6. Put the needs of the player first : The experience of coaching is first and foremost about providing a secure, productive, healthy and motivating environment for players to learn, develop and grow. It is not about satisfying the coaches or parents’ needs. Do not exploit your players.

7. Be a role model : A coach should emphasise the importance of hard work, perseverance attentiveness, determination health and fitness. The greatest impact however, is when coach personally embody and repeatedly display these attributes. “Do as I say” is not as powerful a message as “Do as I do!”

(d)

• Set: A set consists of 6 games; a player that win 6 games with at least a two-game advantage wins the set.
• Ace : When a serve is not returned by the receiving tennis player, resulting in a point for the player who served.
• Slice : A type of shot with underspin.
• Down the Line : A ball that is hit straight along the side-line of the tennis court.
• Drive: It is a Fairly a hard hit. Two major types of drives are forehand and backhand drive.
• Flat drive is hit hard and fairly low.

Slice drive is a hit lower than flat and much lower than topspin. Top spin drive is hit hard and relatively low, but has more margin of clearance than flat.

(e) Steps for Taking Forehand Shot are: As with most strokes in tennis the forehand is hit on the move using a variety of different spins.

1. As the ball approaches stay in open stance position.
2. Rotates hips, shoulders and arms as part of the take back.
3. Now start unwinding body with dominant arm dropping down (to help generate topspin) as it trails the rest of the body forward towards the ball.
4. Continue rotating and swing the racket up, over and through the ball and make contact.
5. The front of the body and head should be facing the net.
6. Follow through by continuing the arms extension forward then across the body towards the non-dominant side.
7. Finally, complete the stroke with the weight shifted to the left leg (if right handed) and the racket head hovering around the left shoulder.

BADMINTON

Question 14. [3 x 5]
(a) Discuss the rule of a service in doubles. [5]
(b) What happens if the shuttlecock gets stuck on the net? [5]
(c) (i) What is meant by bird in the game of Badminton? [5]
(ii) Name the different types of strokes played by a badminton player.

(d) Explain the following terms : [5]
(i) Side out
(ii) Waist fault
(e) (i) Explain the following shuttle grips : [5]
(1) Out of hand grip
(2) Mid grip
(3) Base grip
(ii) What is the weight of a shuttle cock? How many feathers are there in a shuttle cock?
Answer:
(a) Service Rule in Doubles
1. Service Boundaries for Badminton
Doubles : Serve to the darkened area so that the shuttlecock falls inside.

2. Serving and receiving courts
(a) A player of the serving side shall serve from the right service court when the serving side has not scored or has scored an even number of points in that game.
(b) A player of the serving side shall serve from the left service court when the serving side has scored an odd number of points in that game.
(c) The player of the receiving side who served last shall stay in the same service court from where he served last. The reverse pattern shall apply to the receiver’s partner.
(d) The player of the receiving side standing in the diagonally opposite service court to the server shall be the receiver.
(e) The players shall not change their res-pective service courts until they win a point when their side is serving.
(b) If Shuttlecock gets struck in Net : After the service is returned, the shuttle is caught on the net and remains suspended on its top, or after passing over the net is caught in the net then the umpire shall call out let. When a “let” occurs, play since the last service shall not count and the player who served last shall serve again,

(c) (i) A shuttlecock (also called a bird or birdie) is a high-drag projectile used in the sport of badminton. It has an open conical shape formed by feathers (or a synthetic alternative) embedded into a rounded cork (or rubber) base. The shuttlecock’s shape makes it extremely aerodynamically stable. Regardless of initial orientation, it will turn to fly cork first, and remain in the cork-first orientation.

(ii) Different Strokes Played by Badminton Player are:
1. Defensive Badminton Clear/Lob : A clear or lob is a good way to get yourself more organized while you’re under pressure and buys some time to work back into the rally.

Overhead Defensive Clear

Underarm Defensive Clear

2. Badminton Drop Shot : The badminton drop shot is semi-offensive. It is performed from the back of the court and is usually used to maintain the pace of the game. A drop shot performed at a steep angle lands on the ground quicker, compared to the clear or lob. Opponent has to rush forward to retrieve it.

3. Badminton Smash : The smash is often known as the ‘winning shot’ in badminton. It’s used with the intention to end a rally.
Shuttle direction

4. Badminton Jump Smash : This is a more powerful version of the badminton smash. It is also one of the hardest badminton shots to perform. To hit this shot, one has to jump and hit the smash in mid-air.

5. Badminton Net Shot (Tumbling / Spinning Net Shot) : Badminton shots along the net (known as ‘net shots’) are used to create opportunities and dominate the front of the court. A tumbling net shot enables the shuttle to tumble across just slightly above the net.

6. Badminton Drive : Drives are fast and furious badminton shots exchanged hori-zontally across the net. One of the main reasons to hit the drive is to increase the pace of the game.

(d) (i) Side Out : This occurs when the side that is serving loses the serve and becomes the receiving team.
(ii) Waist Fault : The whole shuttle shall be below the server’s waist at the instant of being hit by the server’s racket. The waist shall be considered an imaginary line round the body, level with the lowest part of the server’s bottom rib. This is an important rule: it’s to prevent the player from smashing as he / she serve !

(e) (i) Shuttle Grips :
1. Out of Hand Grip : In this the shuttle cock is held with tip of the thumb and index finger.
2. Mid Grip : In this the shuttle cock is held with tip of the thumb and two finger at base of the shuttle.
3. Base Grip : In this the shuttle cock is held with tip of the thumb and fingers around the shuttle at the shafts of its feathers and the cork.

(ii) The feathered shuttle shall weigh from 4.74 to 5.50 grams and shall have 16 feathers fixed in the base.

SWIMMING

Question 15. [3 x 5]
(a) List the freestyle events for men. [5]
(b) (i) What is the position of backstroke turn indicators? [5]
(ii) Which lane is given to the best swimmer?
(c) Explain the starting stance of a swimmer in the backstroke event. [5]
(d) (i) What is a Dolphin kick? [5]
(ii) Describe any two duties of the judges of stroke.
(e) Explain the following terms : [5]
(i) Tapper
(ii) Peddler
Answer:
(a) Freestyle events for men are 50, 100, 200, 400, 800 and 1500 metres Freestyle Relays 4 x 100 and” 4 x 200 metres

(b)

(i) Position of Turn Backstroke Indicator :
Backstroke turn indicator posts should be installed 5 metres from each end of the pool and backstroke flags should be 1.8 metres to 2.5 metres above the water.

(ii) Lane for Best Swimmer : Except for 50 metre events in 50 metre pools, assignment of lanes shall be(number 1 lane being on the right side of the pool (0 when using pools with 10 lanes) when facing the course from the starting end) by placing the fastest swimmer or team in the centre lane in pool with an odd number of lanes, or in lane 3 or 4 respectively in pool shaving 6 or 8 lanes. In pools using 10 lanes, the fastest swimmer shall be placed in lane 4. The swimmer having the next fastest time is to be placed on his left, then alternating the others to right and left in accordance with the submitted times. Swimmers with identical times shall be assigned their lane positions by draw within the aforesaid pattern.

(c) Swimmers Starting Stance in Backstroke Event : Prior to the starting signal, the swimmers shall line up in the water facing the starting end, with both hands holding the starting grips. Standing in or on the gutter or bending the toes over the lip of the gutter is prohibited. When using a backstroke ledge at the start, the toes of both feet must be in contact with the end wall or face of the touchpad. Bending the toes over the top of the touchpad is prohibited.

(d) (i) Dolphin Kick : In the dolphin kick, both legs do a simultaneous whipping movement, with the feet pointed. The dolphin kick is a bidirectional (functioning in two directions) kick that requires abdominal, hip, lower back, and leg strength. Also, it requires an amazing amount of ankle flexibility and anaerobic conditioning.
(ii) Two Duties of the Judges of the Stroke are:

1. Judge of stroke shall ensure that the rules related to the style of swimming designated for the event are being observed, and shall observe the turns and the finishes to assist the inspectors of turns.
2. Judges of Stroke shall report to the Referee any violation on signed cards detailing the event, lane number, and the infraction.

(e) (i) Tapper : A tapper in blind swimming is a person that taps a swimmer on the head when they are coming to a wall. Tappers may assist swimmers by running from one end of the pool to the other.
(ii) Peddler : It is an equipment which assist in learning swimming skill. It assists in swimming.

ATHLETICS

Question 16. [3 x 5]
(a) Explain the event triple jump. [5]
(b) What is the dijference between marking radius and running radius? [5]
(c) Draw a neat diagram of a Shot-Put sector with all its specifications. [5]
(d) List the fundamental skills required by an athlete, for the event of Discus throw. [5]
(e) Explain the following terms : [5]
(i) Stagger
(ii) Athlete
(iii) Shoulder Shrug
(iv) Heat
(v) Lane
Answer:
(a) Triple Jump Event : The triple jump, some-times referred to as the hop, step and jump or the hop, skip and jump, is a track and field event, similar to the long jump. It is a horizontal jumps. The competitor runs down the track and performs a hop, a bound and then a jump into the sand pit. In hop, the athlete takes off and lands on the same foot. In step, athlete lands on the other foot. In jump, athlete lands in any manner, usually with both feet together. The triple jump was inspired by the ancient Olympic Games and has been a modern Olympics event since the Games inception in 1896.
(b) Running distance radius is an imaginary line through which the athlete is supposed to run. What is actually used for marking the track is called curve distance radius or marking distance radius.

(c) Diagram of Shot-Put Sector with all its specifications:

(d) Fundamental Skills Required by an Athlete for Discus Throw : The shot put consists of three movements: the glide or rotation, the standing power position, and the release. Movements involved in the discus include body rotation within the boundaries of a ring and rely on centripetal forces and torque, culminating with a release. A successful throw . requires the transfer of explosive strength and maximal muscular force onto the object in the shortest possible time.

The importance of muscular strength drives the requirement for throwers to develop leg strength in the early stages of their careers. Strength is so important for a thrower. Athlete with weaker, speed strength, coordination and ‘ flexibility find it difficult to develop and refine technique as quickly than an athlete having good speed strength, coordination and flexibility.

(e) (i) Stagger : The arrangement of the runners in lanes on a running Athletic track at the start of a race, so that the runner in the inside lane is positioned behind those in the next lane and so on until the outside lane. This is done to place the runners to run the equal distance for a specified distance race.

Stagger for 400 m track
= 2 – (1.22 × (Lane – 1))
For example, applying the formula to lane six:
Stagger = 6.283184 (1.22 × 5)
= 6.283184 × 6.1
= 38.327

(ii) Athlete : A person who takes part in competitive track and field events (athletics).
(iii) Shoulder Shrug : Shoulder shrugging technique is a type of finishing the athlete shrugs his opposite shoulder to the tape by turning the chest sideways into the tape at the very last movement.
(iv) Heat : One of a series of races or competitions, the winners of which then compete against each other in the next part of the competition.
(v) Lane : A narrow marked section of a track or that is used by one person taking part in a race. The track should have a minimum of 6 and a maximum of 8 lanes separated and bounded on both sides by white lines 50mm wide. The lanes shall all be 1.22m ± 0.01m wide including the lane line on the right.

Note : For all tracks constructed before 1 January 2004, the lanes may have a width of maximum 1,25 m. However, when such a track is fully resurfaced or replaced, the lane width shall comply with this Rule.

ISC Class 12 Physical Education Previous Year Question Papers

ISC Physical Education Previous Year Question Paper 2015 Solved for Class 12

Section-A (60 Marks)
Answer any six questions.

Question 1.
Explain the role of culture in modern games and sports. [10]
Answer:
The culture is that which people invented and which must be transmitted to each new generation. It includes our religion, dress, customs, games and sports. Present is an image of the past. Different types of races, jumping and throwing events etc. are some of the events of modem competitions that are result of the past. The ancient culture determined the past that games and sports played in the life of the people. In Indus Valley civilization swimming was quite popular, in Vedic period arrow shooting, fights with dagger, horse riding, chariot race etc., were popular events. Games like Cricket, Hockey etc. were also introduced later on.

In the end we can say that games and sports were the part of our culture and now different competitions are promoted and developed. By games and sports a person develops the self discipline, tolerance and patience etc.

So we can say that culture has an important role in modem games and sports.

Question 2.
Write short notes on the following :
(i) Isotonic exercises. [5]
(ii) Fartlek training method. [5]
Answer:
(i) Isotonic Exercise : Isotonic exercise is done against resistance. A muscle contracts and shortens under a constant load throughout the entire joint range. Isotonic exercises improve the strength, endurance and develop muscle hypertrophy.

In Isotonic exercise the weight that can be lifted 10 consecutive times but not more than 10. This is called 10 repetitions maximum. The exercise is done in 3 sets of 10 repetitions each. The advantage of isotonic exercise is the fast recovery of muscle fatigue.

(ii) Fartlek Training Method : Fartlek is a Swedish term which means speed play and has been used by distance runners for years. Fartlek is a form of road running or cross country running in which the runner, usually changes the pace significantly during the run. An advantage of Fartlek is that the athlete can concentrate on feeling the pace and their physical response to it. Fartlek is also beneficial for the average runner.

Question 3.
Why was Netaji Subhash National Institute of Sports (N.S.N.I.S.) formed ? State any five of its objectives. [10]
Answer:
In 1958 third Asian games were held in Tokyo where India gave a very poor performance specifically in Hockey. We lost in the finals. The defeat in Hockey gave a major shock to the Govt, of India and all concerned with sports in our country. To improve the performance in sports, All India Council of Sports advised the Govt, of India to abolish the Raj Kumari Coaching Scheme and establish National Institute of Sports at Patiala. This NIS was renamed ‘Netaji Subhash National Institute of Sports’ on the 76th birth anniversary of Netaji.

Objectives:

• To give a scientific orientation to the coaching profession.
• To provide systematic and coaching to our National teams.
• To promote sports in youngsters.
• To promote games and sports in different parts of country.
• To develop sports in the country.

Question 4.
Briefly explain the following :
(i) Seeding and Byes. [5]
(ii) Knock-out and League. [5]
Answer:
(i) Seeding : Seeding is the processes by which good teams are fitted in fixtures in such a way so that the stronger teams do not meet each other at the onset of the competition.

Byes : Bye is a privilege given to a team generally by drawing lots and exempting it from playing a match in the first round.

(ii) Knock-out : In this type of tournament the team which is defeated once, gets eliminated immediately and will not be given another chance to play.

Merits:

• There will be economy of expenditure.
• The tournament can be finished in a short period of time.

League : According to this tournament, each team plays with every other team once if it is a single league tournament. If it is a double league tournament each team plays with every other team twice.

Advantages:

• Only strong team get victory in the tournament.
• Every team gets full opportunity to show its efficiency.

Disadvantages:

• It requires more time.
• It costs more.

Question 5.
(i) Write any five objectives of health education.[5]
(ii) Explain the meaning of rehabilitation. [5]
Answer:
(i) Five objectives of health education :

1. To develop the health attitudes.
2. To eradicate the disease through health drive programmes.
3. To provide a healthful environment for physical and mental growth.
4. To improve the general conditions of living in the community.
5. To instruct the children and youth so as to conserve and improve their own health.

(ii) Meaning of Rehabilitation : Rehabilitation is the process of providing relief help to disabled, deformed, disfigured or injured people to come back to normalcy and lead a respectable and independent life again. Rehabilitation is an integral part of medical care. In other words giving every possible facility to disabled or handicapped person and making an effort to enable him to lead an honourable life is called rehabilitation.

Question 6.
State the corrective measures of the following postural deformities :
(i) Flat foot [5]
(ii) Knock-knee. [5]
Answer:
(i) Flat Foot: The best treatment to help the child with flat feet and no other problem may be to go barefoot. Walking barefoot on sand or rough ground helps, the feet get stronger and form a natural arch. Walking on tiptoe, skipping rope, and picking things up with the toes may also help. In order to strengthen the feet, the following exercises, if practiced daily, may be helpful:

1. Stand barefooted with feet parallel and about 2 inches apart, straddling a scam or line in a rug. On the count 1 the feet are forcibly turned out and on the count 2 they are allowed to roll slowly in, but not all the way. This is carried out from twenty-five to one hundred times.
2. Same as (1) except the two big toes are held together and on the floor.
3. Stand with feet straddling a scam in the rug or on a line on the floor and walk across the room with all the weight borne by the outer borders of the feet. This is done five times up and back.
4. Same as (3) except that the feet are raised alternately opposite the other knee.

Special exercises, training in ‘foot posture’, shoe adaptations, heel wedges and shoe inserts (heel cups and insoles) are often prescribed to correct flat feet. However, studies show that usually none of these help. Use of insoles to support the arches may even cause weaker arches. Usually insoles should be tried only when pain is a problem, or in some severe flat feet caused by polio, cerebral palsy, or Down Syndrome.

(ii) Knock-knees : If the knock-knees are severe, braces may help straighten the knees and keep the condition from getting worse. In a child over 6 or 7 years old, braces usually do not help. In extreme cases, surgery may be needed. Knock- knees may also lead to flat feet.

Question 7.
(i) Explain the procedure of administering first aid4o a person with a fractured bone. [5]
(ii) What is meant by contusion and abrasion ? [5]
Answer:
(i) Fracture is the term used to indicate that a bone is broken.

Procedure of First Aid :

• Check the general condition of patient.
• Check the level of consciousness.
• Check pulse, respiration etc.
• Stop bleeding if any.
• Keep the patient warm.
• Cover the open fracture with sterile dressing.
• Transfer the casualty to the hospital.

(ii) Contusion : A contusion is injury to the muscle, bone or soft tissue of the body. It usually results from blunt force, trauma, certain types of contusions are simply called bruises.

Abrasion : An abrasion is a shallow scrape on the skin surface and most commonly found on the hands, elbows or knees. It can be very painful.

Question 8.
Write any five effects of each of the following on individuals :
(i) Consumption of alcohol. [5]
(ii) Smoking. [5]
Answer:
(i) Five Effects of Consumption of Alcohol:

• It depresses parts of the nerves system.
• It effects the coordination even with small doses.
• The efficiency of work is lessened.
• The person who consumes alcohol is unable to take decisions.
• Consumption of alcohol has increased crime and violence.

(ii) Five Effects of Smoking :

• Smoking increase the blood pressure.
• It increase pulse rate which limits the sports performance.
• Smoking reduces stamina and overall physical fitness.
• Smoking reduces the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood.
• Unlike lung cancer, mouth cancer and heart disease may also develop.

Section-B (40 Marks)

• Select any two games from this Section Answer any two of the three subparts (a), (b) and (c)from each of the two games selected by you.

FOOTBALL

Question 9. [10 x 2]
(a) (i) Draw a neat diagram of penalty area and the goal post with its dimensions. [5]
(ii) State any three ways of restarting a play. [3]
(iii) In a football match, what is meant by the term sudden death ? [2]
(b) (i) Explain the procedure to be followed for a substitution in a football match. [5]
(ii) State any three pre-match duties of the referee. [3]
(iii) Explain the following : [2]
(1) Banana shot.
(2) Chip shot.
(c) (i) Explain any five offenses committed by a player for which a red card is shown. [5]
(ii) State any three fouls in the game of football. [3]
(iii) What is the circumference and weight of the ball ? [2]
Answer:
(a) (i)

ii.

• Throw in Kick off (After goal, Half-time and coach
• Dropped ball extra time if needed)
• Comer kick

iii. When no goal is scored after tie breaker, alternate penalty kicks are given to each team till the tie is broken. This is called sudden death.

(b)

1. In a football game three substitution are allowed. Procedure—The player will report to the official table when the game will stop. Referee allows the player to enter the field and he will go by centre line. The substitute player will come out of the field and procedure is complete.
2. Three pre-match duties of the referee :
   (a) To check the equipments are according to law.
   (b) To check all the measurements.
   (c) To check all the official are on their places.
   • Banana Shot r A banana shot is an off centre shot (kick) that makes the ball curve or suddenly change direction before dropping to the ground.
   • Chip Shot : A shot in which the ball kicked form underneath with accuracy but less than maximum force to launch it high into the air in order to pass it over the heads of opponents or to score a goal.

(c)

1. Five offenses when Red card is shown :
   • Pushing the opponent (player)
   • Charging the opponent (player)
   • Hitting the opponent (player)
   • Abusing the opponent (player)
   • Delaying the restart of play
2. Three fouls in the game of football:
   • Offside
   • Hand
   • (Throw-in) when ball crosses the touch line.
3. Circumference of ball = 68 cm – 70 cm
   Weight of ball = 410 gm – 450 gm.

CRICKET

Question 10.
(a) (i) Draw a neat diagram of cricket pitch with specification and dimensions. [5]
(ii) List any three important national tournaments. [3]
(iii) Give the full forms of MCC and ICC. [2]

(b) (i) Mention any five conditions when a ball is declared dead in cricket. [5]
(ii) Specify the measurements of the following: [3]
(1) Circumference of the ball.
(2) Maximum length of the bat.
(3) Height of stumps from the ground.
(iii) Explain the following terms : [2]
(1) China man.
(2) Time out.

(c) (i) State any five decisions given by the leg umpire. [5]
(ii) Explain the following terms : [3]
(1) Yorker
(2) Good length
(3) Half volley
(iii) Mention two exceptional circumstances under which the game can be suspended. [2]
Answer:
(a) (i) Diagram of Pitch.

(ii) Three National tournaments.

• Ranji Trophy
• C.K. Naidu Trophy
• Deodhar Trophy.

(iii) MCC = Marylebone Cricket Club
ICC = Imperial Cricket Conference, International Cricket Council

(b)

1. Five conditions when the ball is declared dead:
   • After over is complete.
   • When the batsman is out.
   • When the ball crosses the boundary line.
   • When the ball takes more than one bounces on the pitch.
   • When the inning is over.
2. Circumference of the ball = 22-4 to 22-9 cm.
   Maximum length of bat = 95-6 cm (38 inch) Height of stump from the ground = 32 inch.
   • China Man : A ball delivered in this way will spin from Off-side to the Leg-side for a right handed batsman.
   • Time-Out: A batsman takes more than 2 minutes to come out after the fall of a wicket.

(c)

1. Five decisions given by the Leg Umpire:
   • Run out at striker end.
   • Hit wicket.
   • Stumping out.
   • Height no ball.
   • Runout.
   • Yorker : Yorker is a delivery which bounces just near the popping crease.
   • Good Length : It is a type of delivery in cricket that pitches at a distance from the batsman that makes him difficult to score runs.
   • Half Volley : Half volley is a delivery that bounces just short of the block hole. Usually easy to drive or glance away.
2. Circumstances in which game can be suspended :
   • Due to bad weather.
   • Terrorist attack.
   • Misconduct by team.
   • Due to interference from outside people.

HOCKEY

Question 11. [10 x 2]
(a) (i) When is a goal scored in hockey ? How is the game restarted after a goal is scored ? [5]
(ii) Give the specifications of the following : [3]
(1) Length and width of the court.
(2) Circumference of the ball.
(3) Duration of extra time.
(iii) When can a goal keeper cross the 23 m line ? [2]
(b) (i) What is the difference between a penalty corner and a penalty stroke ? [5]
(ii) Explain the following : [3]
(1) Scoop.
(2) Flick
(3) Lunge.
(iii) When is a sixteen-yard hit awarded? [2]
(c) (i) List the equipment used by the referee drugging a match. [5]
(ii) Explain the term bully in hockey. [3]
(iii) What is the duration of a hockey match? [2]
Answer:
(a) (i) Methods of Scoring :
A goal is scored in hockey when the ball crosses the goal line within the goal post. The ball should have been hit from inside the striking circle or has touched the defender’s stick within the circle. The goal can be scored by way of field goal, penalty corner, long corner or penalty stroke.

To restart the game after the goal is scored, a centre pass is taken by a player of the team against which the goal was scored.

(b) (i)
Penalty Corner:

1. In this an attacker pushes a ball from a mark which is ten yards away from the goal post on the side that team prefers. Five defenders including a goal keeper are allowed to defend their goal.
2. A penalty corner is awarded for an offense by a defender in the circle which does not prevent the probable scoring of a rebel.

Penalty Stroke:

1. In this an attacker is allowed to push or scoop the ball from the penalty spot. All defenders except the goal keeper stand behind the 25 yard line.
2. A penalty stroke is awarded when a defender commits a foul in the circle that prevents a probable goal.

(ii)

1. Scoop : Scoop is a stroke in which a ball is lifted up with the flat part of the hockey blade.
2. Flick : A stroke executed with a jerking action of the wrists.
3.  Lunge : Lunging is used to increase the reach to play the ball which is out of reach. The player is required to hold the stick at the top of the stick by either hand. Hold the stick and the arm extending fully and body lunging forward on one leg, knees comfortable bent. It is used when the ball is out of the two-handed reach. To prevent the ball going out of the field either over the side lines or goal line by lunging at the ball and using that extra reach.

(iii) Sixteen yard hit is awarded when the ball crosses the back line. It is a method of restarting the game by defender.

(c) (i) Equipments used by referee during a match:

1. Whistle
2. Cards (Green, Yellow, Red)
3. Note book
4. Rule book
5. Watch
6. Pencil

(ii) Bully : It is a call used to start or restart play. The referee puts the ball between two opposing players. Two players of both the teams stand in front of each other. They touch this stick to the ground three times and alternately their opponent’s stick after that ball is put is play.

(iii) Duration of a Hockey Match : 4
Quarters of 15 minutes each.

BASKETBALL

Question 12. [10 x 2]
(a) (i) List the technical equipment used by the table officials. [5]
(ii) Give the measurements of the following: [3]
(1) Width of the lines on the court.
(2) Diameter of centre circle.
(3) Length and width of the board.
(iii) What is legal guarding position ? [2]

(b) (i) What are the conditions to be fulfilled for scoring in the game of basketball ? [5]
(ii) When is a ball considered to be dead ?[3]
(iii) Briefly explain the term time out. [2]

(c) (i) What is the duration of the game ?
How is this time divided ? [5]
(ii) State any three duties of the referee. [3]
(iii) Explain the following : [2]
(1) Rebound
(2) Lay-up shot.
Answer:
(a) (i) Technical equipment used by the table officials :

• Game clock and stop watch.
• 30 second devices
• Score sheet
• Whistles
• Score board
• Player foul marker
• Team foul marker.

(ii)

• Width of the lines on the court 5 cm.
• Diameter of centre circle — 1-80 m.
• Length and width of the board — 1-80 m and 1-05 m.

(iii) Legal guarding position is when the , defender merely must have both feet on the floor and be facing the opponent.

(b)

1. If a player of attacking team puts the live ball into the basket without any foul from outside the 3 point area or in side the three point by any way such as a lay-up shot, a Dunk shot or keeping his on the court or in air, these conditions are said to fulfil for scoring in the game of Basketball.
2. In basketball game when the game is stopped due to any reason (side line cross, after basket or foul etc.) ball is considered a dead ball.
3. Time-out: Time out is a halt in the play. This allows the coaches of either team to communicate with the team.
   Time out is generally used by team to stop the clock and/or reassess the team’s strategy.

(c)

1. Duration of Game : Four quarters of 10 minutes each with an interval of 2 min. after every quarter.
2. 
   1. Rebound : A rebound in basketball is the act of successfully gaining possession of the basketball after a missing field goal or free throw.
   2. Lay up Shot : A shot in which a player reaches the ring by taking one and half step.

VOLLEYBALL

Question 13. [10 x 2]
(a) (i) Write any five fundamental skills required by a player in the game of volleyball. [5]
(ii) Name any three of the national tournaments. [3]
(iii) Explain the following terms : [2]
(1) Under hand service
(2) Round arm service.
(b) (i) Explain the procedure to be followed for a substitution during the play. [5]
(ii) Mention any three acts of breach which are punishable. [3]
(iii) Give the specification of the net used in the game of volleyball. [2]
(c) (i) List the officials required for conducting a match. [5]
(ii) State any three duties of a coach during the match. [3]
(iii) What is the role of a setter in the game ? [2]
Answer:
(a) (i) Five fundamental skills required by a player:

• The service.
• The Net Recovery.
• The Block
• The Set-up
• The Attack (smash)

(ii) Three national tournaments :

• Youth National Championship
• Federation Cup
• National Club Volleyball Championship

(iii)

1. Under Hand Service : The ball is held on the extended hand at waist height in front of right shoulder. The serving arm is swung down well behind the body, tosses the ball a few inches into air when the ball contacted with heel of the hand, the wrist or the inside of the clenched fist.
2. Round arm service : The ball is tossed above the head. The body weight shifts towards the right leg. The ball is hit at the highest point with the complete straight arm and straight legs.

(b)

1. Substitution request is made only when a substitute enters the substitute zone. A substitution is the act by which a player after being recorded by the scorer enters the game for another player. One or more players are permitted at the same time.
   • 3 Acts of Breach : To talk again and again to the officials concerning their decision.
   • To make uncivil remarks to the officials or players of the opposing team.
   • To act in an uncivil manner so as to influence the decisions of officials.
2. Length of Net — 9-50 m.
   Breadth of Net — 1 m.
   Height of Net (men)—2-43 m.
   Height of Net (women)—2-24 m.

(c)

1. Officials required for conducting a match:
   • Referee — 2 (First and Second)
   • Scorer—2
   • Lineman—2
2. Duties of a Coach :
   • Encourage the player while playing.
   • To guide the player at the time out.
   • Tell them about the attacker team play.
   • Make substitution if required.
3. Setter : A person raising the ball for spike/smash.

TENNIS

Question 14. [10 x 2]
(a) (i) Explain clearly, the pattern of winning : [5]
(1) a game
(2) a set
(ii) Expand the following : [3]
(1) ATP
(2) AITA
(3) ITF
(iii) Name any two strokes used by the players in the game. [2]

(b) (i) Give measurements of the following : [5]
(1) Height of the net at the centre of the court.
(2) Diameter of the posts.
(3) Weight of the ball.
(4) Width of the strap of the net.
(5) Length of the racket.
(ii) Explain the following : [3]
(1) Overhead smash.
(2) Ground shot.
(iii) What is the difference between a volley and a lob ? [2]

(c) (i) Explain the rule of a tie-break in doubles. [5]
(ii) When do the players change ends in the game ? [3]
(iii) When is a ball considered to be out of play ? [2]
Answer 14.
(a) (i)

1. Game : Unit of set completed by winning four points before opponent wins three, or by winning two consecutive points after deuce. If a player wins first point score called 15, on winning second point score called 30, on winning his third point the score is called 40 for that player and the fourth point won by a player and scored game for that player.
2. Set: Player winning four points before his opponent wins. Three points takes the game and player winning six game wins a set.

(ii) Expand the following :

• ATP—Association of Tennis Professionals
• AITA—All India Tennis Association
• ITF—International Tennis Federation

(iii) Two stroke used by a player :

• Backhand stroke.
• Forehand stroke.

(b) (i) Measurement:

• Height of the net at the centre of the court—3 feet
• Diameter of the posts—6 inch
• Weight of the ball — 56-7 gm – 58-5 gm
• Width of the strap of the net—5 cm
• Length of the racket—81-28 cm (32 inch)

(ii)

1. Overhead Smash : In this, still swing the arm more fully back and bend it more and push the heel of the hand upward and hit the ball with power. It takes place when ball is high in the air.
2. Ground Shot : A ground shot in tennis is a forehand or backhand shot, that is executed after the ball bounces once on the court. It is usually hit from the back of the tennis court, around the baseline.

(iii) Difference between a volley and a lob : A volley : When a player strikes the ball without allowing it to touch the ground.
A lob : Hitting the ball high into the air to drive the opponent back from the net.

(c) (i) Rule of a tie-break in doubles :

• 66 in a set result in a 7 points tie- break game played.
• 7 points earned combined with a 2 points advantage wins the game.
• The 1st point is served from the right service court.
• Service rotates after the 1st point is played.
• Every 6-points the tennis competitors change the court.

(ii) Change of Ends : The player shall change sides at the end of the first third and every subsequent alternate game of each set.

(iii) When the ball crosses the side line and back line and then touches the ground, the ball is considered out of play.

BADMINTON

Question 15. [10 x 2]
(a) (i) What are the duties of the umpire before the match and during the match ? [5]
(ii) Explain any two types of grips used to hold the racket. [3]
(iii) Define the following : [2]
(1) Slice drop
(2) Net drop.
(b) (i) State any five duties of a service umpire. [5]
(ii) Name any three national badminton players. [3]
(iii) Explain the procedure to be followed for selecting a court for the game. [2]
(c) (i) Mention any five fundamental skills required by a player in the game of badminton. [5]
(ii) What is rally? [3]
(iii) Explain the following : [2]
(1) Alley
(2) Backhand shot
Answer:
(a) (i) Duties of umpire before and during match:

Before:

• Check all the equipments are according law.
• Check all measurements of court.
• See all officials are on their places.

During:

• Uphold and enforce the laws of game.
• Give a decision on any appeal.
• Appoint or remove line judges.
• Record and report to the reieree all matters.

(ii) Two types of Grips :

• Basic Grip : Which can be used for all strokes.
• Frying Pan : Which is solely for lob shots at near the net.

(iii)

1. Slice Drop : The opponent is deceived in believing that he will get a smash or straight clear, but get a drop shot which comes down more steeply as it clears the net.
2. Net Drop : A shot hit from the fore . court that just clears the net and drops sharply.

(b) (i) Five duties of service umpire :

• He will see that the server delivers a correct service.
• He approves hand signals for each low.
• To see undue delay to the delivery of the service.
• To see feet not in the service court.
• He may arrange with the service Judge any extra duties to be undertaken, provided that the players are also advised.

(ii) National Players :

• Prakash Padukone.
• SyedModi.
• Pullela Gopi Chand.
• ApamaPopat.
• S.M.Sarif.

(iii) Before commencing play the opposing side shall toss, the winner is free to change side or service.

(c) (i) Fundamental skills required by a player:

• Correct footwork,
• Service
• Lob
• Drop
• Smash
• Back hand
• Net Play

(ii) Rally : A sequence of one or more strokes starting with the service, until the shuttle ceases to be in play.

(iii)

1. Alley : The term ‘alley’ is used in doubles and is T5 foot extension of both sides of the court. There is also the back alley which is the area between the back boundary line and the long service line also used for doubles.
2. Backhand Shot : The action of hitting a shuttle approaching to the side of inactive arm. In this stroke it is essential that the right foot is taken across and slightly in front of the body.

SWIMMING

Question 16. [10 x 2]
(a) (i) Explain synchronized swimming. [5]
(ii) Give specifications for the starting platform: [3]
(1) Height of starting platform
(2) Area of the platform.
(3) Maximum slope of the platform.
(iii) What is meant by relay ? [2]
(b) (i) Mention five duties of the starter. [5]
(ii) State any three types of strokes used in swimming. [3]
(iii) What is meant by dolphin kick ? [2]
(c) (i) Explain the correct procedure of doing butterfly stroke. [5]
(ii) What should be the minimum temperature and the maximum temperature of the pool during a competition ? [3]
(iii) What is the full form of FINA ? [2]
Answer:
(a) (i) Synchronized Swimming: Synchronized swimming is a hybrid of swimming performing a synchronized routine of elaborate move in the water accompanied by music. It demands advanced water skills and required great strength,- endurance etc. Synchronized swimming is both an individual and team sport.

(ii)

• Height of starting platform = 0-5 m to 0-75 m
• Area of the platform = 0-5 m x 0-5 m
• Maximum slope of the platform = Not more than 10°.

(iii) Relay : A swimming relay is when four swimmers perform to complete the race is (4 x 100 m) in the distance divided in four each swimmer completes equal number of distances.

(b) (i) Five duties of starter :

• Call-up the competition approxi-mately 10 minutes before the race.
• Check clothing and numbers.
• To assure a fair start.
• Act as relay take-off judge when assigned.
• On receiving full clearance from the referee, the starter assumes full control of the swimmers until a fair start has been achieved.

(ii) Three types of strokes :

• Breast stroke.
• Back stroke.
• Butterfly stroke.

(iii) Dolphin kick : A swimming kick used mainly in butterfly stroke in which the legs are extended straight back and moving up and down in unison with a slight bend in the knees on the upward movement.

(c)

1. Butterfly Stroke : The arms are at shoulders width apart and pulled back together under the body elbow slightly bent in almost a double free style arm action. The arms leave the water at hip level and are thrown side ways forward through the air in a flying action to the entry position. The first is like the ordinary breast stroke leg kick but is not so wide after the hands entered the water. The head can be either forward or turned side ways to breathe.
2. Temperature of pool during competition min. 24°C max. 26°C.
3. FINA : Federation International de Nation Amateur.

ATHLETICS

Question 17. [10 x 2]
(a) (i) Mention the standard weight of the following equipment used in athletics field events : [5]
(1) Javelin for men
(2) Discus for men
(3) Shot put for men
(4) Hammer for men
(5) Hammer for women,
(ii) Explain the term block clearance in the sprint events. [3]
(iii) State any two commands used for a sprint start. [2]
(b) (i) What is a crouch start ? Name the events for which it is used. [5]
(ii) Explain the following : [3]
(1) False start
(2) Triple jump
(iii) What is relay? [2]
(c) (i) Explain any two types of starts in short distance races. [5]
(ii) Mention any three skills a long jump athlete should possess. [3]
(iii) What do AF1 and IAAF stand for ? [2]
Answer:
(a) (i)

• Javelin for men = weight – 800 gm
• Discus for men = weight – 2-00 kg
• Shot put for men = weight – 7-260 kg
• Diameter 110 mm – 130 mm
• Hammer for men = weight – 7-260 kg
• Hammer for women = weight – 4-00 kg

(ii) Block Clearance : As the athlete drives from the blocks the rear leg is pulled through fast the front leg fully extends the arms drive vigorously in a short arm action while the head remains in a natural line with the trunk.

(iii) Commands for sprint start:

• On your marks
• Set
• Go or Pistol fire.

(b) (i) Crouch Start : As per rules of competition in the sprint race the crouch start with starting blocks is compulsory while taking start sprinter drives against the starting block, the block push back against the feet. Jo avoid the risk of slippage the starting blocks must be fixed firmly. Crouch start is of three

types :

• Bunch start.
• Medium start.
• Elongated start.

(ii) (1) False start:
(a) A false start occurs if any movement is made before firing of the Pistol.
(b) If any movement occurs in the “set” position.
(2) Triple Jump : Triple jump is also called Hop step and Jump on the hop the jumper lands on the same foot after hop take off on the left foot upon which he landed and last phase of the event with jump. The jump is a normal long jump action, in which the jumper takes off from , the foot he had landed on the step.

(iii) Relay : Relay requires four sprinters together running a complete lap of the track, passing on a baton which has to arrive at the finish lines with the runner of the east leg.

(c) (i) Two types of starts in short distance races :
(1) Bunch Start: In bunch start the feet are spaced close together so close that the toe of the back foot is placed opposite the heel of the front foot while the runner is in standing position.
(2) Elongated start : The knee of the rear leg is placed opposite the heel of the front foot, while kneeling on the mark. This is generally for the tall sprinters.
(ii) Three skills a long jump athlete should posses :
(1) Approach run
(2) Take-off
(3) The flight.
(iii) AIT—Athletics Federation of India.
I AAF—International Association of Athletics Federation.

ISC Class 12 Physical Education Previous Year Question Papers

ISC Chemistry Previous Year Question Paper 2018 Solved for Class 12

Maximum Marks: 70
Time allowed: 3 hours

• • Candidates are allowed additional 15 minutes for only reading the paper.
  • They must NOT start writing during this time.

• All questions are compulsory.
• Question 1 is of 20 marks having four subparts, all of which are compulsory.
• Question numbers 2 to 8 carry 2 marks each, with two questions having an internal choice.
• Question numbers 9 to 15 carry 3 marks each, with two questions having an internal choice.
• Question numbers 16 to 18 carry 5 marks each, with an internal choice.
• All working, including rough work, should be done on the same sheet as, and adjacent to the rest of the answer.
• The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].
• Balanced equations must be given wherever possible and diagrams where they are helpful.
• When solving numerical problems, all essential working must be shown.
• In working out problems, use the following data:
• Gas constant R = 1.987 cal deg^-1 mol^-1 = 8.314 JK^-1 mol^-1 = 0.0821 dm³ atm K^-1 mol^-1
• 11 atm = 1 dm³ atm = 101.3 J. 1 Faraday = 96500 coulombs.
• Avogadro’s number = 6.023 × 10²³.

Question 1.
(a) Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word/words from those given in the brackets: [4 × 1]
(square pyramidal, electrical, 74, 26, sp³d², sp³d, chemical, 68, 32, tetrahedral, yellow, white, iodoform, Lucas)
(i) A Galvanic cell converts …….. energy into ………… energy.
(ii) The percentage of unoccupied spaces in bcc and fee arrangements are ……….. and …….. respectively.
(iii) Propan-2-ol on reaction with iodine and sodium hydroxide gives ……….. precipitate and the reaction is called ………. test.
(iv) The geometry of XeOF₄ molecule is ………… and the hybridisation of xenon atom in the molecule is

(b) Complete the following statements by selecting the correct alternative from the choices given: [4 × 1]
(i) During the course of an S_N1 reaction, the intermediate species formed is:
(1) a carbocation
(2) a free radical
(3) a carbarn on
(4) an intermediate complex

(ii) Purification of aluminium by electrolytic refining is called:
(1) Speck’s process
(2) Hoppe’s process
(3) Hall’s process
(4) Baeyer’s process

(iii) An aqueous solution of urea freezes at -0.186°C, K_f for water = 1.86 K kg mol^-1, K_b for water = 0.512 K kg mol^-1. The boiling point of the urea solution will be:
(1) 373.065 K
(2) 373.186 K
(3) 373.512 K
(4) 373.0512 K

(iv) In the dehydration of alcohols to alkenes by heating with concentrated sulphuric acid, the initiation step is:
(1) formation of carbocation
(2) formation of an ester
(3) protonation of the alcohol molecule
(4) elimination of water

(c) Match the following: [4 × 1]

(i) Rate constant	(a) Dialysis
(ii) Biodegradable polymer	(b) Glycine
(iii) Zwitter ion	(c) Arrhenius equation
(iv) Purification of colloids	(d) PHBV

(d) Answer the following questions:
(i) (1) Why does the density of transition elements increase from Titanium to Copper? (at. no. Ti = 22, Cu = 29)
(2) Why is zinc not regarded as a transition element?
(at. no. Zn = 30)
(ii) Identify the compounds A, B, C and D.
\(\mathrm{CH}_{3} \mathrm{CN} \stackrel{\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O} / \mathrm{H}^{+}}{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{A} \stackrel{\mathrm{NH}_{3}}{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{B} \stackrel{\text { heat }}{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{C} \frac{\mathrm{Br}_{2} / \mathrm{KOH}}{\mathrm{m}}>\mathrm{D}\)
(iii) Calculate the osmotic pressure of a solution prepared by dissolving 0.025g of K₂SO₄ in 2.0 litres of water at 25°C assuming that K₂SO₄ is completely dissociated, (mol. wt. of K₂SO₄ = 174 g mol^-1)
(iv) What type of isomerism is shown by the following coordination compounds:
[Pt Cl₂ (NH₃)₄)] Br₂ and [Pt Br₂(NH₃)₄] Cl₂.
Write their IUPAC names.
Answer:
(a) (i) A Galvanic cell converts chemical energy into electrical energy.
(ii) The percentage of unoccupied spaces in bcc and fee arrangements are 32 and 74 respectively.
(iii) Propan-2-ol on reaction with iodine and sodium hydroxide gives yellow precipitate and the reaction is called iodoform test.
(iv) The geometry of XeOF₄ molecule is square pyramidal and the hybridisation of xenon atom in the molecule is sp³d².

(b) (i) (1)
(ii) (2)
(iii) (4)
(iv) (3)

(c) (i) (c)
(ii) (d)
(iii) (b)
(iv) (a)

(d) (i) (1) This is due to increase in mass and decrease in size.
(2) This is because neither zinc atom nor its ion (Zn²⁺) has 1 to 9d-electrons in the (n -1) d-subshell.
(ii) A – CH₃COOH (Acetic acid)
B – CH₃COONH₄ (Ammonium acetate)
C – CH₃CONH₂ (Acetamide)
D – CH₃NH₂ (Methyl amine)
(iii) R = 00821 L – atm/K/mol
T = 273 + 25 = 298K
Van’t Hoff factor, i = 3 (α = 100%)
V = 2L
W_B = 0.025 g
M_B = 174

(iv) Ionisation isomerism.

Complex	IUPAC name
[Pt Cl2 (NH3)4] Br2 [Pt Br2 (NH3)4] Cl2	tetraammine dichlorido platinum (IV) bromide tetraammine dibromidoplatinum (IV) chloride.

Question 2. [2]
(a) (i) Write the rate law expression for the reaction A + B + C → D + E, if the order of the reaction is first, second and zero with respect to A, B and C, respectively.
(ii) How many times the rate of reaction will increase if the concentration of A, B and C are doubled in the equation given in (i) above?
(b) The rate of reaction becomes four times when the temperature changes from 293 K to 313 K. Calculate the energy of activation (E_a) of the reaction assuming that it does not change with temperature. (R = 8.314 J K^-1 mol^-1)
Answer:
(a) (i) Rate law expression is given as
r ∝ [A]¹ [B]²[C]°
∝ [A]¹ [B]²
or r = [A]¹ [B]²
(ii) Conc of A, B, C is doubled. The rate of a reaction in the equation given in (i) above will become 8 (2 × 2²) times.
Or

Question 3. [2]
(a) How do antiseptics differ from disinfectants?
(b) State the role of the following chemicals in the food industry:
(i) Sodium benzoate
(ii) Aspartame
Answer:
(a) Antiseptics: These are the chemical substances which prevent the growth of micro-organisms and may even kill them and are safe to be applied to living tissues. Examples: furacin, tobramycin etc.

Disinfectants: These are the chemical substances which kill micro-organisms but are not safe to be applied to living tissues but are used for non-living substances such as drains, toilet etc. For example 1% solution of phenol.

(b) (i) Food preservative
(ii) Artificial sweetener

Question 4. [2]
An aromatic organic compound [A] on heating with NH₃ and Cu₂O at high pressure gives [B], The compound [B] on treatment with an ice-cold solution of NaNO₂ and HCl gives [C], which on heating with Cu/HCl gives compound [A] again. Identify the compounds [A], [B] and [C]. Write the name of the reaction for the conversion of [B] to [C].
Answer:

A – Chlorobenzene
B – Benzenamine or Aniline
C – Benzene diazonium chloride

Question 5. [2]
Write the names of the monomers for each of the following polymers:
(a) Bakelite
(b) Nylon – 2 – Nylon – 6
Answer:
(a) Bakelite
Monomers: Phenol and formaldehyde
(b) Nylon – 2 – Nylon – 6
Glycine and ∈ – Amino Caproic acid

Question 6. [2]
Name the purine bases and pyrimidine bases present in RNA and DNA.
Answer:

Nucleic acid	Purine bases	Pyrimidine bases
RNA DNA	Adenine, Guanine Adenine, Guanine	Uracil, Cytosine Thymine, Cytosine

Question 7. [2]
(a) How will you obtain the following? (Give balanced equation.)
(i) Picric acid from phenol.
(ii) Ethyl chloride from diethyl ether.
Or
(b) How will you obtain the following? (Give balanced equation.)
(i) Anisole from phenol
(ii) Ethyl acetate from ethanol.
Answer:

Question 8. [2]
40% of a first-order reaction is completed in 50 minutes. How much time will it take for the completion of 80% of this reaction?
Answer:

Question 9. [3]
(a) The freezing point of a solution containing 5.85 g of NaCl in 100 g of water is -3.348°C. Calculate Van’t Hoff factor ‘i’ for this solution. What will be the experimental molecular weight of NaCl? (K_f for water = 1.86 K kg mol^-1, at. wt. Na = 23, Cl = 35.5)
Or
(b) An aqueous solution containing 12.48 g of barium chloride (BaCl₂) is 1000g of water, boils at 100.0832°C. Calculate the degree of dissociation of barium chloride. (K_b for water = 0.52 K kg mol^-1, at. wt. Ba = 137, Cl = 35.5)
Answer:
(a) ΔT_f = 3.348°C
W_B = 5.85g
W_A = 100g
K_f = 1.86 K kg mol^-1
Observed mol. mass of NaCl(M_B)

Observed mol. mass of NaCl = 32.5 g mol^-1
Normal mol. mass of NaCl = 23 + 35.5 = 58.5 g mol^-1
Van’t Hoff factor, i = \(\frac{58 \cdot 5}{32 \cdot 5}\) = 1.8
Or
K_b = 0.52 K kg mol^-1
W_B = 100 g = 0.01 kg
ΔT_b = 100.0832 – 100 = 0.0832°C = 0.0832 K
Molality of BaCl₂

Molality after dissociation = 5.99 × 10^-2(1 + 2α)
ΔT_b = K_b × m
0.0832 = 0.52 × 5.99 × 10^-2 (1 + 2α)
0.0832 = 0.0312 + 0.0624α
α = 0.833 = 83.3%

Question 10.
Examine the defective crystal given below and answer the question that follows: [3]

State if the above defect is stoichiometric or non-stoichiometric. How does this defect affect the density of the crystal? Also, write the term used for this type of defect.
Answer:
(i) 1. Stoichiometric defect
2. Density decreases
3. Schottky defect

Question 11.
Give the reason for each of the following: [3]

1. For ferric hydroxide sol, the coagulating power of phosphate ion is more than chloride ion.
2. Medicines are more effective in their colloidal form.
3. Gelatin is added to ice creams.

Answer:

1. This is because \(\mathrm{PO}_{4}^{3-}\) ion has more charge than Cl^– ion.
2. Phosphate ion \(\mathrm{PO}_{4}^{3-}\)
3. To stabilise ice creams.

Question 12.
(a) For the complex ion [Fe(CN)₆]^3- state: [3]
(i) the type of hybridisation.
(ii) the magnetic behaviour.
(iii) the oxidation number of the central metal atom.
(b) Write the IUPAC name of [Co(en)₂Cl₂]⁺ ion and draw the structures of its geometrical isomers.
Answer:
(a) (i) d²sp³
(ii) Paramagnetic due to one unpaired electron
(iii) +3
(b) dichlorobis (ethylene diamine) cobalt (III) ion.

Question 13.
(a) Explain why: [3]
(i) Mn²⁺ is more stable than Fe²⁺ towards oxidation to +3 state.
(At. no. of Mn = 25, Fe = 26)
(ii) Transition elements usually form coloured ions.
(iii) Zr and Hf exhibit similar properties.
(At. no. of Zr = 40, Hf = 72)
Or
(b) Complete and balance the following chemical equations:
(i) KMnO₄ + KI + H₂SO₄ → ____ + ____ + ____ + _____
(ii) K₂Cr₂O₇ + H₂SO₄ + H₂S → ____ + _____ + _____ + ____
(iii) KMnO₄ + H₂SO₄ + FeSO₄ → _____ + _____ + _____ + ____
Answer:
(a) (i) This is because Mn²⁺(3d⁵) has extra stable electronic configuration but Fe²⁺(3d⁶) does not.
(ii) This is due to the presence of impaired electrons in their (n-1) d – orbitals.
(iii) This is due to lanthanide contraction or ineffective shielding but intervening 4f- electrons in Hf.
Or
(b) (i) 2KMnO₄ + 10KI + 8H₂SO₄ → 6K₂SO₄ + 2MnSO₄ + 8H₂O + 5I₂
(ii) K₂Cr₂O₇ + 4H₂SO₄ + 3H₂S → K₂SO₄ + Cr₂(SO₄)₃ + 7H₂O + 3S
(iii) 2KMnO₄ + 8H₂SO₄ + 10FeSO₄ → K₂SO₄ + 2MnSO₄ + 5Fe₂(SO₄)₃ + 8H₂O

Question 14.
(a) Arrange the following in the increasing order of their basic strength: [3]
C₂H₅NH₂, C₆H₅NH₂, (C₂H₅)₂NH
(b) Give a balanced chemical equation to convert methyl cyanide to ethyl alcohol.
(c) What happens when benzene diazonium chloride reacts with phenol in weak alkaline medium? (Give balanced equation).
Answer:

Question 15.
Name the sulphide ore of Copper. Describe how pure copper is extracted from this ore. [3]
Answer:
The sulphide ore of copper is copper pyrite (CuFeS₂). The extraction of pine copper from copper pyrite ore involves the following steps.
1. Crushing and grinding
2. Concentration by the froth-floatation process to remove gangue particles.
3. Roasting in the presence of free supply of air or O₂ during roasting the reactions taking place are

The roasted ore mainly contains a number of Cu₂S, FeS and FeO.

4. Smelting: The roasted ore is mixed with powdered coke and sand and is heated strongly in a blast furnace.

The mixture thus obtained contains Cu₂S and some FeS. It is called the molten matte.

5. Bessemerisation: In Bessemer converter, a hot blast of air mixed with sand is blown through molten matte. The reactions taking place are:

On cooling molten copper, we get blister copper.

6. Refining of Copper: The copper obtained above is refined by poling and then by electrolyte refining containing acidified copper sulphate solution as an electrolyte.

Question 16.
(a) (i) Calculate the emf and ΔG° for the cell reaction at 25°C: [5]
\(\begin{array}{cl}{\mathrm{Zn}(s) | \mathrm{Zn}_{(a q)}^{2+} \|} & {\mathrm{Cd}_{(a q)}^{2+} | \mathrm{Cd}_{(s)}} \\ {(0 \cdot 1 \mathrm{M})} & {(0 \cdot 01 \mathrm{M})}\end{array}\)
Given E° Zn²⁺/Zn = – 0-763 and E°Cd²⁺/Cd = -0.403
(ii) Define the following terms:
(1) Equivalent conductivity
(2) Corrosion of metals
Or
(b) (i) The specific conductivity of a solution containing 5 g of an hydrous BaCl₂ (mol. wt. = 208) in 1000 cm³ of a solution is found to be 0.0058 ohm^-1 cm^-1. Calculate the molar and equivalent conductivity of the solution.
(ii) What is an electrochemical series? How is it useful in predicting whether a metal can liberate hydrogen from acid or not?
Answer:
(a) (i) The given electrochemical cell is



(ii) (1) Equivalent Conductivity: It is the conducting power of all the ions present in a solution containing one gram equivalent of the electrolyte.
(2) Corrosion of Metals: It is the process involving the conversion of the metal surface into undesirable compounds on exposure to atmospheric conditions i.e. moisture and air. It is also called weeping of metals.


(ii) It is a series or table in which the various electrodes are arranged in the increasing order of standard reduction potential values. With the help of the electrochemical series, we can predict whether a given metal can liberate hydrogen from acid or not. The metals which lie above hydrogen in the electrochemical series i.e. having negative standard reduction potential values can liberate hydrogen from dilute acids whereas metals which lie below hydrogen in the electrochemical series i.e., have positive standard reduction potential values cannot liberate hydrogen from dilute acids.

Question 17.
(a) (i) Explain why: [5]
(1) Nitrogen does not form pentahalides.
(2) Helium is used for filling weather balloons.
(3) ICl is more reactive than I₂.
(ii) Draw the structures of the following:
(1) HClO₄
(2) H₃PO₃
Or
(b) (i) Explain why:
(1) Mercury loses its meniscus in contact with ozone.
(2) Halogens are coloured and the colour deepens on moving down in the group from fluorine to iodine.
(3) Hydride of sulphur is a gas while hydride of oxygen is a liquid.
(ii) Complete and balance the following reactions:
(1) NaCl + MnO₂ + H₂SO₄ → _____ + _____ + ______ + _____
(2) KMnO₄ + SO₂ + H₂O → _____ + ______ + ______ + ______
Answer:
(a) (i) (1) Nitrogen does not form pentahalides because it has no vacant d-orbitals in its valence shell.
(2) This is because it is lighter than air.
(3) This is because ICl is polar and has lower bond energy than I₂ (non-polar)

(b) (i) (1) This is due to the formation of mercurous oxide (Hg₂O) which dissolves in mercury.
(2) This is because halogen molecules (X₂) absorb light in the visible region and transmit complementary colour. This is because on moving from fluorine to iodine ionisation enthalpy decreases.
(3) This is because in H₂S there are weak Van der Waals forces of attraction but in H₂O there are strong intermolecular H-bonds.

Question 18.
(a) (i) Give balanced equations for the following reactions: [5]
(1) Benzaldehyde reacts with hydrazine.
(2) Acetic acid reacts with phosphorous pentachloride.
(3) Acetone reacts with sodium bisulphite.
(ii) Give one chemical test each to distinguish between the following pairs of compounds:
(1) Ethanol and acetic acid
(2) Acetaldehyde and benzaldehyde
Or
(b) (i) Write chemical equations to illustrate the following name reactions:
(1) Clemmensen’s reduction
(2) Rosenmund’s reduction
(3) HVZ reaction
(iii) Explain why:
(1) Acetaldehyde undergoes aldol condensation but formaldehyde does not.
(2) Acetic acid is a weaker acid as compared to formic acid.
Answer:

ISC Class 12 Chemistry Previous Year Question Papers

ISC Computer Science Previous Year Question Paper 2011 Solved for Class 12

Maximum Marks: 70
Time allowed: 3 hours

Part – I
Answer all questions

While answering questions in this Part, indicate briefly your working and reasoning, wherever required.

Question 1.
(a) State the two Absorption laws. Verify any one of them using the truth table. [2]
(b) Reduce the following expression: [2]
F(A, B, C) = Σ (0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7)
Also, find the complement of the reduced expression.
(c) Name the logic gate for the following circuit diagram and write its truth table. [2]

(d) Using truth table, verify whether the following is true or false: [2]
\((p \Rightarrow q)=(\overline{q} \Rightarrow \overline{p})\)
(e) If A = 1, B = 0, C= 1 and D = 1 find its: [2]
(i) Maxterm
(ii) Minterm
Answer:

Question 2.
(a) How can we override a method in inheritance? [2]
(b) A square matrix A[m*m] is stored in the memory with each element requiring 2 bytes of storage.
If the base address A[1] [1] is 1098 and the address at A [4] [5] is 1144, determine the order of the matrix A[m × m] when the matrix is stored Column Major wise. [2]
(c) What is Big O notation? [2]
(d) What is an exception? [2]
(e) Convert the following infix expression to its postfix form: [2]
a + b * c – d/e
Answer:
(a) When we extend a class, you can change the behaviour of a method in the parent class. This is called method overriding. This happens when we write in a subclass a method that has the same signature as a method in the parent class.
(b) B = 1098, W = 2, n = m
1144 = 1098 + 2 [m(5 – 1) + (4 – 1)]
⇒ 1144 = 1098 + 8m + 6
⇒ 8m = 40
⇒ m = 5
The order of the matrix is [5 × 5]
(c) Big O is the function with parameter N, where N is usually the size of the input to the algorithm. More the input size, more impact it can have on the growth rate of the algorithm.
(d) An unexpected situation or unexpected error, during program execution, is known as an exception.
(e) (a + b * c – d/e)

Question 3.
(a) The following is a part of some class. What will be the output of the function mymethod( ) when the value of the counter is equal to 3? Show the dry run/working. [5]

void mymethod (int counter)
{
if (counter == 0)
System.out. println(” ");
else
{
System.out.println ("Hello" +counter);
mymethod (--counter);
System.out.println (" " +counter);
}
}

(b) The following function is a part of some class which computes and returns the greatest common divisor of any two numbers. There are some places in the code marked by ?1?, ?2?, ?3?, ?4? and ?5? which must be replaced by statement/expression so that the function works correctly0

int gcd(int a, int b)
{
int r.
while(?1?)
{
r = ?2?;
b = ?3?;
a = ?4?
}
if (a ==0)
return ?5?;
else
return-1;
}

(i) What is the expression or statement at ?1? [1]
(ii) What is the expression or statement at ?2? [1]
(iii) What is the expression or statement at ?3? [1]
(iv) What is the expression or statement at ?4? [1]
(v) What is the expression or statement at ?5? [1]
Answer:

(b) (i) a * b! = 0
(ii) b
(iii) a
(iv) a%b
(v) r

Part – II

Answer seven questions in this part, choosing three questions from Section A, two from Section B and two from Section C.

Section – A
Answer any three questions

Question 4.
(a) State the principle of Duality. Give the dual of the following: [3]
(A’.B) + (C. 1) = (A’ + C).(B + C)
(b) Reduce the Boolean expressions to their simplest forms: [4]
(i) {(C.D)’ +A} + A + C.D + A.B
(ii) A. {B + C(A.B + A. C)’}
(c) Verily using a truth table if: [3]
\((\mathrm{A} \odot \mathrm{B} \odot \mathrm{C})^{\prime}=\mathrm{A} \oplus \mathrm{B} \oplus \mathrm{C}\)
Answer:
(a) According to the principle of Duality, “Dual of one expression is obtained by replacing AND (.) with OR (+) and OR with AND togather with replacement of 1 with 0 and 0 with 1.”
Dual of (A’ . B) + (C.1) is given by (A’ + B). (C + 0) = (A’ + B). C
Dual of (A’ + C). (B + C) is given by (A’.C) + (B.C)
Then Dual of (A’ . B) + (C . 1) = (A’ + C) . (B + C) is (A’ + B). (C + 0) = (A’.C) + (B.C)

(b) (i) {(C.D)’ + A) + A + C. D + A.B
= {(C.D)’ + A} + A + AB + C.D
= {(C.D)’ + A) + A + C.D [Absorption Law]
= (C’ + D’) + A + A + C.D [De Morgan’s Theorem]
= C’ + D’ + A + C.D
= C’ + C”.D + D’ + A
= C’ + D + D’ + A
= C’ + A
(ii) A. {B + C (A . B + A. C)’}
= A {B + C ((A.B)’ . (A.C)’)} [De Morgan’s theorem]
= A. {B + C ((A’ + B’). (A’ + C’))} [De Morgan’s theorem]
= A. {B + C(A’+B’C’)} [Distributive law]
= A. {B + C.A’ + B’.C’.C.}
= A. (B + C.A’ +0) [Complement property]
= AB + C.A’.A [Complement property]
= AB + 0
= AB

Question 5.
(a) Given F(P, Q, R, S) = Π (2, 3, 6, 7, 9, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15) [5]
Reduce the above expression by using four variable Karnaugh’s Map. Draw the logic gate diagram of the reduced expression using NOR gate only.
\(\text { (b) Given } \mathbf{F}(\mathbf{A}, \mathbf{B}, \mathbf{C}, \mathbf{D})=\overline{\mathbf{A}} \overline{\mathbf{B}} \overline{\mathbf{C}} \overline{\mathbf{D}}+\overline{\mathbf{A}} \overline{\mathbf{B}} \overline{\mathbf{C}} \mathbf{D}+\mathbf{A} \overline{\mathbf{B}} \overline{\mathbf{C}} \overline{\mathbf{D}}+\mathbf{A} \overline{\mathbf{B}} \overline{\mathbf{C}} \mathbf{D}+\overline{\mathbf{A}} \mathbf{B} \overline{\mathbf{C}} \overline{\mathbf{D}}+\overline{\mathbf{A}} \mathbf{B} \mathbf{C} \overline{\mathbf{D}}\)
Reduce the above expression by using four variable Karnaugh’s Map. Draw the logic gate diagram of the reduced expression using NAND gate only. [5]
Answer:
(a) F (P, Q, R, S) = Π (2, 3, 6, 7, 9, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15)

Question 6.
(a) Show with the help of a logic diagram how a NAND gate is equivalent to an OR gate. [3]
(b) Verify if the following is valid: [3]
(a => b)^(a => c) = a => (b ^ c)
(c) What is a Decoder? Draw the truth table and logic circuit diagram for a 2 to 4 Decoder. [4]
Answer:

Question 7.
(a) What is Full Adder? Draw the truth table for a Full adder. Also, derive SOP expression for the Full Adder and draw its logic circuit. [4]
(b) State how a Decoder is different from a Multiplexer. Also, state one use of each. [3]
(c) Convert the following cardinal expression into its canonical form and reduce it using Boolean laws: [3]
F(L, M, O, P) = Π (0, 2, 8, 10)
Answer:
(a) A full adder is a logic circuit that can add three bits at a time producing two outputs one of which is the Sum bit and the other is Carry bit.

(b) A Multiplexer is a circuit that selects one of many input channels and connects it to the output channel. Whereas a decoder is a circuit tan converts binary numbers to denary numbers
A multiplexer is used as a common bus system. Whereas a decoder is used in converting binary to denary.

Section – B
Answer any two questions

• Each program should be has written in such a way that it clearly depicts the logic of the problem.
• This can be achieved by using mnemonic names and comments in the program.
• Flowcharts and Algorithms are not required
• The programs must be written in Java

Question 8.
Input a sentence from the user and count the number of times, the words “an” and “and” are present in the sentence. Design a class Frequency using the description given below: [ 10]
Class name: Frequency
Data members/variables:
text: stores the sentence
countand: to store the frequency of the word “and”
countan: to store the frequency of the word “an”
len: stores the length of the string
Member functions/methods:
Frequency(): constructor to initialize the instance variables
void accept(String n): to assign n to text, where the value of the parameter n should be in lower case.
void checkandfreq(): to count the frequency of “and”
void checkanfreq(): to count the frequency of “an”
void display(): to display the number of “and” and “an” with appropriate messages.
Specify the class Frequency giving details of the constructor(), void accepts(String), void checkandfreq(), void checkanfreq() and void display(). Also, define the main() function to create an object and call methods accordingly to enable the task.
Answer:

Class frequency
{
String text;
Public int countand;
Public int countan:
Public int len;
Frequency()
{
text = "countand = 0;
countan = 0:
len = 0;
}
void accept(String n)
{
n = text:
}
void check and freq()
{ String S = " "; countand = 0 ;
len = n. length();
for (int i = 0; i < len; i++)
{
char b = n. charAt(i);
if(b = = ' ')
{
if (S = = "and'')
{
countand = countand + 1;
}
S = " ";
}
else
S = S+b;
}
}
}
void checkanfreq()
{
String S1 = " ";
countan = 0;
len = n. length ( )
for (int i = 0; i < n; i++)
{
char b = n.charAt(i);
if (b = = ' ');
{
if (S1 == "an")
{
countan = countan + 1;
}
S1 = " ";
}
else
{
S1 = S1 +b;
}
}
}
void display()
{
System.out pri nl n(' 'Frequency of'and' in the sentence is'' + countand);
System.out.println(''Frequency of 'an' in the sentence is'' + countan);
}

Question 9.
A class DeciOct has been defined to convert a decimal number into its equivalent octal number. Some of the members of the class are given below:
Class name: DeciOct
Data members/instance variables:
n: stores the decimal number
oct: stores the octal equivalent number
Member functions:
DeciOct(): constructor to initialize the data members
n = 0, oct = 0.
void getnum(int nn): assign nn to n
void deci_oct(): calculates the octal equivalent of ‘n’ and stores it in oct using the recursive technique
void show(): displays the decimal number ‘n’, calls the function deci_oct() and displays its octal equivalent.
(a) Specify the class DeciOct, giving details of the constructor( ), void getnum(int), void deci_oct( ) and void show(). Also define a main() function to create an object and call the functions accordingly to enable the task. [8]
(b) State any two disadvantages of using recursion. [2]
Answer:

(a) Class DeciOct
{
Public int n ;
Public int oct;
DeciOct()
{
n = 0;
Oct = 0;
}
void getnum.(int nn)
{
n = nn;
}
void deci_oct( )
{
int t = n;
int r = 0;
int s;
while (t! = 0)
{
s = t % 8;
r = 10 * r + s;
}
Oct = 0;
while (r! = 0)
{
int p = r% 10
Oct = 10 * Oct + p;
r = r/10;
}
}
void show( )
{
System.out.println ('' The decimal number is " + n);
System.out.println ("The octal of "+ n + " is" + oct);
}

(b) The two disadvantages of recursion are:
(i) It takes more time to compile.
(ii) Much memory blocks are wasted.

(c) input java. io. *;
class abc
{
public static void main (String args [ ]) throws IO Exception
{
frequency ob = new frequency( );
BufferedReader B = new BufferedReader (new InputStream - Reader (System.in));
String p = B.readLine( )
Ob.accept(p);
Ob.checkandfreq( );
Ob.checkanfreq( );
Ob.display( );
}
}

Question 10.
You are given a sequence of N integers, which are called as pseudo arithmetic sequences [10]
(sequences that are in arithmetic progression).
Sequence of N integers : 2, 5, 6, 8, 9, 12
We observe that 2 + 12 = 5 + 9 = 6 + 8 = 14
The sum of.the above sequence can be calculated as 14 × 3 = 42.
For sequence containing an odd number of elements the rule is to double the middle element,
for example 2, 5, 7, 9, 12 = 2 + 12 = 5 + 9 = 7 + 7 = 14.
14 × 3 = 42 [middle element = 7]
A class Pseudoarithmetic determines whether a given sequence is a pseudo-arithmetic sequence.
The details of the class are given below:
Class name: Pseudoarithmetic
Data members/instance variables:
n: to store the size of the sequence
a[]: integer array to store the sequence of numbers
ans, flag: store the status
sum: store the sum of the sequence of numbers
r: store the sum of the two numbers
Member functions:
Pseudoarithmetic(): default constructor
void accept(int nn): to assign nn to n and to create an integer array. Fill in the elements of the array
boolean check(): return true if the sequence is a pseudo arithmetic sequence otherwise returns false
Specify the class Pseudoarithmetic, giving the details of the constructor(), void accept(int) and boolean check(). Also, define a main() function to create an object and call the member functions accordingly to enable the task.
Answer:

import java.io. *
clas Pseudoarithmetic
{
Public int n;
Public int a [ ];
Public int ans;
Public int flag;
Public int sum;
Public int r;
Pseudoarithmetic()
{
n = 0; flag = 0; sum = 0;
}
void accept(int nn)
{
n = nn;
BufferedReader B = new BufferedReaderf new InputStreamReader (System, in));
a [n];
(int i = 0; i < n; i++)
{
a [i] = Integer.parselnt (B.readLine( ));
sum = sum + a[i];
}
}
boolean check( )
{
if(n%2 = = 0)
{ int i = 0;p = n-1;
while (i < p)
{
r = a[i] + a[p]
if (r == (a [i + 1] + a [p - 1] && (r*3) = = sum)
{
flag = 0;
}
p = p-1;i = i + 1;
else
else if (n%2 ! = 0)
{
int i = 0;p = n-1;
while (i <=p)
{
r=a[i] + a[p]
if (r== (a [i +1] + a[p -1]) && (r*3) = = sum)
{
flag = 0;
}
else
{
flag= 1;
}
p = p-1;i = i+1;
}
}
if(flag = = 0)
return true;
else
return false;
}

Section – C
Answer any two questions

• Each Program /Algorithm should be written in such a way that it clearly depicts the logic of the problem stepwise.
• This can also be achieved by using pseudo-codes.
• Flowcharts are not required
• The programs must be written in Java.
• The Algorithm must be written in general/standard form.

Question 11.
A superclass Record has been defined to store the names and ranks of 50 students. Define a sub-class Rank to find the highest rank along with the name. The details of both classes are given below: [10]
Class name: Record
Data members/instance variables:
name[]: to store the names of students
mk[]: to store the ranks of students
Member functions:
Record(): constructor to initialize data members
void readvalues(): to store the names and ranks
void display(): displays the names and the corresponding ranks
Class name: Rank
Data members/instance variables:
index: integer to store the index of the topmost rank
Member functions:
Rank(): constructor to invoke the base class constructor and to initialize index = 0
void highest(): finds the index/location of the topmost rank and stores it in the index without sorting the array.
void display(): displays the names and rank along with the name haring the topmost rank.
Specific the class Record giving details of the constructor(), void readvalues( ) and void display (). Using the concept of inheritance, specify the class Rank giving details of constructor ( ), void highest() and void display().
THE MAIN() FUNCTION AND ALGORITHM NEED NOT BE WRITTEN.
Answer:

import java. io. *;
Class Record
{
Public String name [50];
Public int rank [50];
Record()
{
name[] = { };
mk[] = { };
}
void readvalues( )
{
BufferedReader B = new BuiferedReader (new InputStieamReader(systeni.in));
for (int i = 0; i < 50; i++)
{
System.out.println("Enter name and corresponding rank);
name[i| = B.readLine( );
mk[i] = Integer.parselnt (B.readLine());
}
voiddisplay( )
{
System.out.println("The names and corresponding ranks are : ");
for(int i = 0; i < 50; i++)
{
System.out.println(name[i] +" ''+mk[i]);
}
}
Class Rank extends Record
{
Public int index;
Rank( )
{
super.Record( );
index=0;
}
void highest()
{
index;
int a = 0;
for(int i = 0; i < 50; i++)
{
for(int j = 0; j < 50; j++)
{
if (mk [i] < mk [j])
{
index = i;
}
}
}
}
void display()
{
Super.display( );
System.out.println ("The Topmost rank activer is " + name [index] + " "+ mk [index]); .
}

Question 12.
A stack is a kind of data structure which can store elements with the restriction that an element can be added or removed from the top only.
The details of the class Stack is given below:
Class name: Stack
Data members/instance variables:
st[]: the array to hold the names
size: the maximum capacity of the string array
top: the index of the topmost element of the stack
ctr: to count the number of elements of the stack
Member functions:
Stack( ): default constructor
Stack(int cap): constructor to initialize size = cap and top = -1
void pushname(String n): to push a name onto the stack. If the stack is full, display the message “OVERFLOW”
String popname(): removes a name from the top of the stack and returns it. If the stack is empty, display the message “UNDERFLOW”
void display(): Display the elements of the stack.
(a) Specify class Stack giving details of the constructors(), void pushname(String n), String popname() and void display(). [8]
THE MAIN() FUNCTION AND ALGORITHM NEED NOT BE WRITTEN.
(b) Under what Principle does the above entity work?
Answer:

(a) Class Stack
{
String ST [ ];
int size;
int top;
int etr;
Stack( )
{
for(int i = 0; i <10; i++) 
St [i] = " "; 
size = 0; 
top = 0; 
ctr = 0; 
Stack(int cap) 
{ 
size = cap 
St [size]; 
top = -1 ; 
void pushname (String n) 
{ 
if (top = = (size - 1)) 
System.out.println (''overflow''); 
else 
{ 
top ++; 
St [top] = n; 
} 
} 
String popname( ) 
{ 
String v; 
if(top = = -1) 
System.out.println(''underflow "); 
else 
{ 
v = St[top]; 
System.out.println("poped element is''+'' : " + v); 
top--; 
} 
} 
void display 
{ 
if(top == -1) 
System.out.println(''empty''); 
else 
{ 
for (int i = top-1; i > = 0 ; i--)
{
System.out.println(St [i]):
}
}
}

(b) Stack works on LIFO (Lost In First Out) principle.

Question 13.
(a) A linked list is formed from the objects of the class, [4]

class Node
{
into info;
Node link;
}

Write an algorithm OR a Method for deleting a node from a linked list.
The method declaration is given below :
void delete node (Node start)
(b) Distinguish between worst-case and best-case complexity of an algorithm. [2]
(c) Answer the following from the diagram of a Binary Tree given below:

(i) Write the Postorder tree traversal. [1]
(ii) Name the Leaves of the tree. [1]
(iii) Height of the tree. [1]
(iv) Root of the tree. [1]
Answer:
(a) Algorithm
(i) Copy the content of the next mode into the mode that has to be deleted.
(ii) Assign the next pointer of the newly copied node of the next pointer of the node from the content has been copied.
(iii) Delete the node from the data has copied.

(b) Best case scenario for an algorithm is the arrangement of data for which the algorithm performs the best, eg., binary search.
The worst-case scenario, on the other hand, describes the absolute worst set of input for a given algorithm, e.g., quicksort.

(c) (i) B D G H F E C A
(ii) B, D, G, H
(iii) 5
(iv) A

ISC Class 12 Computer Science Previous Year Question Papers

ISC Physics Previous Year Question Paper 2011 Solved for Class 12

Maximum Marks: 70
Time allowed: 3 hours

• Candidates are allowed additional 15 minutes for only reading the paper. They must NOT start writing during this time
• Answer all questions in Part I and six questions from Part II, choosing two questions from each of the Sections A, B and C.
• All working, including rough work, should be done on the same sheet as, and adjacent to, the rest of the answer.
• The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].
• Material to be supplied: Log tables including Trigonometric functions
• A list of useful physical constants is given at the end of this paper.

Part-I
(Answer all questions)

Question 1.
A Choose the correct alternative A, B, C or D for each of the questions given below : [5]
(i) Two point charges (+e) and (-e) are kept inside a large metallic cube without touching its sides. Electric flux emerging out of the cube is:
(A) \(\frac{e}{\epsilon_{o}}\)
(B) \(\frac{-e}{\epsilon_{o}}\)
(C) Zero
(D) \(\frac{2 e}{\epsilon_{o}}\)

(ii) In current electricity, Ohm’s law is obeyed by all:
(A) solids
(B) metals
(C) liquids
(D) gases

(iii) When a charged particle is projected perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field, it describes a circular path in which:
(A) its speed remains constant.
(B) its velocity remains constant.
(C) its momentum remains constant.
(D) its kinetic energy increases.

(iv) Refractive index of a transparent material is:
(A) same for all colors.
(B) maximum for violet color.
(C) minimum for violet color.
(D) maximum for red color.

(v) Which one of the following graphs in figure below represents variation of de Broglie wavelength (λ) of a particle having linear momentum p:
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

B. Answer all questions briefly and to the point: [15]
(i) How much work is done in taking an electron around a nucleus in a circular path ?

(ii) A 10 m long potentiometer wire carries a steady current. A standard cell of emf 1.018 V is balanced against a length of 254.5 cm of the wire. What is the potential gradient across the potentiometer wire ?

(iii) Name any one instrument which works on the principle of Tangent law in magnetism.

(iv) An inductor L and a resistor R are connected in series to a battery, through a key/switch. Show graphically, how current decreases with time when the key/switch is opened.

(v) An ideal inductor does not consume any power even though both V and I are non zero. Explain in brief.

(vi) In Fraunhofer’s single slit diffraction experiment, how does semi-angular width θ of the central bright fringe depend on slit width ‘a’ ?

(vii) State one use of a polaroid.

(viii) A ray of light LM incident normally on the surface AC of an isosceles right angled prism ABC (where AB = BC) emerges along PQ, parallel to LM, as shown in figure below:

What can you say about refractive index µ. of the material of the prism ?

(ix) State one condition for obtaining a sustained interference of light.

(x) State any one postulate of Huygens’s wave theory.

(xi) How can an n – type semiconductor be obtained from a pure crystal of germanium ?

(xii) In the following nuclear reaction
\(_{6}^{11} \mathrm{C} \rightarrow_{5}^{11} \mathrm{B}+_{1}^{0} \mathrm{e}+\mathrm{X}\)
what does X stand for ?

(xiii) In photoelectric effect, what is meant by the term ‘threshold frequency’ ?

(xiv) Find angular momentum of an electron when it is in the second Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom,

(xv) What is the symbol of a NOT gate ?
Answer.
A. (i) C, since the net charge enclosed is zero.

(ii) B, all metals obey Ohm’s law.

(iii) A, because magnetic field does cause any change in K.E. of the particle,

(iv) B, as wavelength decreases, refractive index increases.

(v) \(\mathrm{D}, \text { as } \lambda=\frac{h}{p} \text { i.e., } \lambda \propto \frac{1}{p}\)

B. (i) No work will be done in moving the electron in a circular path around the nucleus because force and displacement are mutually perpendicular; hence \(\overline{\mathbf{F}} \cdot \overline{d s}=0\)

(ii) If a length ‘l’ of the potentiometer wire balances a cell of emf ‘E’, then E = kl, where ‘k’ is the potential gradient.
Here,
\(\begin{array}{l}{\mathrm{E}=1.018 \mathrm{V} \text { and } l=254.5 \mathrm{cm}} \\ {k=\frac{\mathrm{E}}{l}=\frac{1.018 \mathrm{V}}{254.5 \mathrm{cm}}=4 \times 10^{-3} \mathrm{V} / \mathrm{cm}}\end{array}\)

(iii) One instrument which works on the principle of tangent law in magnetism is a tangent galvanometer.

(iv) The required graph of the variation of current with time is as shown :

(vii) Polaroids are used:
(i) in windowpanes of the aeroplanes.
(ii) The sunglasses are made up of Polaroid sheets to avoid glare of sunlight reflected from bright surfaces.

(viii) The angle marked ×° in the fig. is 45°. Since the LN suffers total internal reflection, the critical angle C must be less than 45°.

(ix) The two sources of light must be coherent. Such sources are derived from the same source.

(x) One postulate of Huygens’s wave theory is : Every point on the wave front acts as a new wave-source from which fresh wave originates. These waves are called ‘secondary wavelets.’

(xi) A semiconductor is obtained from a pure germanium crystal by doping it with a pentavalent impurity like arsenic, antimony.

(xii) X stands for γ-rays. Conservation law gives both its mass number and atomic number to be zero.

(xiii) The lowest frequency of light which can emit photo electrons from a material is called ‘threshold frequency’ or ‘cut-off frequency’ of that material.

(xiv) Angular momentum of an electron revolving around the nucleus in an hydrogen atom is quantised and is given by

Part-II
Answer six questions in this part, choosing two questions from each of the Sections A, B and C
(Answer any two questions)

Question 2.
(a) Obtain an expression for intensity’ of electric field in end on position, i. e., axial position of an electric dipole. [4]

(b) Three capacitors each of capacitance C are connected in series. Their equivalent capacitance is C_s. The same three capacitors are now connected in parallel. Their equivalent capacitance becomes C_p. Find the ratio \(\left(\frac{\mathrm{C}_{\mathrm{p}}}{\mathrm{C}_{\mathrm{s}}}\right)\) (Working must be shown) [3]

(c) A galvanometer with a resistance of 75 Ω produces a full scale deflection with a current of 5 mA. How can this galvanometer be converted into an ammeter which has a range of 0 – 5 A ? [2]
Answer:
(a) Intensity of electric field in end on position i.e., axial position of an electric dipole:

Let AB be an electric dipole made up of two charges of -q and +q coulomb having a small distance 2l meter between them situated in vacuum. Let ‘P’ be a point on the axis at a distance V meter from the mid-point ‘0: of the dipole.
We have to determine the intensity at ‘P’.
Let E₁ and E₂ be the magnitudes of the intensities of the electric dipole at ‘P’ due to the charges + q and -qof the dipole respectively. The distance of the point P from the charge +q is (r – l) and that from the charge – q is (r + l). Therefore,

Question 3.
(a) In the circuit shown below in figure, E₁ and E₂ are batteries having emfs 4.0 V and 3.5 V respectively and internal resistance 1 Ω and 2 Ω. respectively. Using Kirchhoff’s laws, calculate currents : I₁ I₂ and I₃. [4]

(b) Show with the help of a labelled graph, how thermo emf ‘e’ developed by a thermocouple varies with θ, the temperature difference between the two junctions. On the graph, mark neutral temperature as θN and temperature of inversion as θ_I. [2]

(c) (i) What is meant by a paramagnetic substance ? State Curie’s law.
(ii) What is the value of magnetic susceptibility of Aluminium if its relative permeability is 1.000022?
Answer:
(a) The distribution of current is as shown in the figure :

(b) Variation of thermo emf ‘e’ with ‘θ’ is as shown below

(c) (i) Para magnetic substances : These substances are feebly attracted by a magnet. When placed in a magnetizing field, they are feebly magnetized in the direction of the field, that is, the magnetization I in para magnetic materials is weak, but in the same direction as the magnetizing field, thus, they have a small positive susceptibility X_m .
Curie’s law: States the susceptibility ‘ X_m‘ of a para magnetic substance varies inversely as the kelvin-temperature of the substance, i.e..

Question 4.
(a) Using Ampere’s circuital law or Biot and Savart’s law, show that magnetic flux density ‘B’ at a point ‘P’ at a perpendicular distance ‘a’ from a long current carrying conductor is given by:
\(B=\left(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi}\right) \frac{2 I}{a}\)
(Statement of the laws – not required)

(b) A current of 4 A flows in a coil when it is connected to a 12 V dc source. When the same coil is connected to an ac source (12 V, 8 Hz), a current of 2.4 A flows in the coil. Calculate coefficient of self inductance (L) of the coil. [4]

(c) How much force per unit length acts on a long current carrying conductor X due to a current flowing through another similar conductor Y, kept parallel to it in vacuum ? [2]
Use this equation to define an Ampere, the fundamental unit of current.
Answer.
(a) Consider a long straight conductor carrying a current I amp. It is desired to find the magnetic flux density at P at a distance a from the conductor. The lines of force will be circular with the center on the conductor.



(c) The force per unit length of a conductor X carrying current due to a current I₂ flowing in another conductor Y placed parallel to X is given by

Ampere : One ampere of current is that much current which when flowing through each of two infinitely long parallel conductors held 1m apart in vacuum results in a force of 2 x 10^-7 Nm^-1 on each of the conductor.

Section-B
(Answer any two questions)

Question 5.
(a) (i) Arrange all the seven types of electro-magnetic radiations in increasing order of their frequencies. (You must begin with a radiation with lowest frequency and end with the one having the highest frequency.) [3]
(ii) State how electric vector \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\), magnetic vector \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) and velocity vector \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{C}}\) are oriented in an electromagnetic wave.

(b) In Young’s double slit experiment, using monochromatic light L₁ of wavelength 700 nm, 10th bright fringe was obtained at a certain point P on a screen. Which bright fringe will be obtained at the same point P if monochromatic light of wavelength 500 nm is used in place of L₁. (No other alterations were made in the experimental set up.) [3]

(c) A certain monochromatic light travelling in air is incident on a glass plate at a polarizing angle. Angle of refraction in glass is found to be 32°. Calculate : [2]
(i) the polarizing angle;
(ii) refractive index of glass.
Answer:
(a) (i) Long waves → Radio waves → Microwaves, Infrared radiation → Visible light → Ultraviolet radiation → X-rays → Gamma rays.
(ii) The electric vector \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\), magnetic vector \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) and velocity vector \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{C}}\) are mutually perpendicular.

Question 6.
(a) Calculate angle of minimum deviation (δm) for a regular glass prism. (Refractive index of glass = 16) [2]

(b) Obtain an expression for refraction at a single convex spherical surface, i. e., the relation between μ₁ (rarer medium), μ₂ (denser medium), the object distance u, image distance v and radius of curvature R. [4]

(c) Where should an object be kept on the principal axis of a convex lens of focal length 20 cm, in order to get an image, which is double the size of the object ? [2]
Answer:

(b) Let O be a point object in the rarer medium of refractiive index μ₁ and lying on the principal axis. The image of this object. O is formed by refraction at the convex spherical surface of radius at the point I into the medium B of refractive index μ₂ of curvature as shown in the fig. The convex surface has a small aperture and the angles of incidence z and refraction r are small.
Let ∠AOP = α, ∠AIP = β and ∠ACP = γ
From A, draw AN perpendicular to principal axis. For refraction at the point A, by Snell’s law, we have




Question 7.
(a) (i) What is the use of a spectrometer ? [3]
(ii) In a spectrometer, what is the function of:

• Collimator ?
• Telescope ?

(b) Draw a labelled diagram of an image formed by a compound microscope with image at least distance of distinct vision. [3]

(c) An astronomical telescope consists of two thin convex lenses having focal lengths of 140 cm and 5 cm. The telescope is adjusted to be in normal adjustment. [2]
(i) What is the angular magnification, 7 . e., magnifying power of the telescope in this set up ?
(ii) What is the distance between the two lenses equal to ?
Answer.
(a) (i) Spectrometer is used for measurement of dispersive powers, wavelength of spectral lines, the refractive indices of solids and liquids.
(ii) (1) Collimator’s function is to alter the distance between the slit and the lens by rack and pinion arrangement. The slit is adjusted to be at the focus of the collimating lens so as to get a parallel beam of light.
(2) Telescope function is to adjust the distance between lens and the cross-wires by rack and pinion arrangement, while that between cross-wires and eye piece by hand. The objective of the telescope forms a real image of the slit. This image is then magnified by the eyepiece.

Section-C
(Answer any two questions)

Question 8.
(a) State two important conclusions that can be drawn from Millikan’s oil drop experiment to determine the charge on an electron. [2]

(b) A monochromatic source of light emits light of wavelength 198 nm. Calculate: [3]
(i) energy of each photon;
(ii) momentum of the photon.

(c) (i) Name a series of lines of hydrogen spectrum which lies in : [3]

• Visible region.
• Ultraviolet region.

(ii) Write Bohr’s formula to calculate wavelength (λ,) of visible light, emitted by hydrogen, and explain the meaning of each and every symbol used.
Answer:
(a) Important conclusions of Millikan’s oil drop method:
(i) The experiment established the quantum nature of the electric charge i. e.,Q = ne, where n is an integer.
(ii) it also helps us to find the mass of the electrons and its radius.

Question 9.
(a) Starting with the law of radioactive disintegration, show that: \(\mathbf{N}=\mathbf{N}_{0} \mathbf{e}^{-\lambda \mathbf{t}}\), where the terms have their usual meaning. [3]

(b) What is meant by Pair Production ? Explain with the help of an example and a balanced equation. [2]

(c) An X ray tube is operated at a tube potential of 40,000 V. Calculate: [3]
(i) Kinetic energy of an electron emitted by the filament when it reaches the target/anode.
(ii) Wavelengths of all the X rays emitted by the X ray tube.
Answer.
(a) Law of radioactive disintegration:
The rate of decay of radioactive atoms at any instant is proportional to the number of atoms present at that instant.
Let ‘N’ be no. of atoms present in radioactive substance at any instant ‘t’. Let dN be the no. that disintegrates in a short interval ‘dt’. Then, the rate of disintegration -dN/dt is proportional to N,


(b) When an energetic y-ray photon falls on a heavy substance, it is absorbed by some nucleus of the substance and its energy gives rise to the production of an electron and a positron. This phenomenon in which energy is converted into mass is called pair production. It is an example of materialization of energy.

Question 10.
(a) (i) In the following nuclear reaction, calculate the energy released in MeV: [3]

(ii) What is the name of this reaction ?

(b) What is meant by the terms : [3]
(i) a full wave rectifier?
(ii) an amplifier?
(iii) oscillator?

(c) Using several NAND gates, how can you obtain an AND gate ? Draw a labelled diagram in support of your answer. [2]
Answer:


Answer:

(b) (i) Full wave rectifier : It is a device which produces a unidirectional, pulsating output current for both halves of the ac input voltage i.e., it converts ac into pulsating dc.
(ii) Amplifier: An amplifier is a device used for increasing the voltage, current and pow er of an alternating form by supplying energy from an external source. The amplitude of the output signal is greater than the amplitude the input signal.
(iii) Oscillator : It may be defined as an electronic device which converts energy from a dc source into electrical oscillations of constant amplitude and frequency. For this conversion, an oscillatory circuit like L-C circuit is usually required.

(c) AND’ gate can be obtained by negating the output of a ‘NAND’ gate.

ISC Class 12 Physics Previous Year Question Papers

ISC Geography Previous Year Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 12

(Maximum Marks: 70)
(Time allowed: Three hours)

(Candidates are allowed additional 15 minutes for only reading the paper.They must NOT start writing during this time.)

• Answer Section A and B from Part I which are compulsory.
• Answer any four questions from Part II.
• Sketch maps and diagrams should be drawn wherever they serve to illustrate your answer.
• The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

PART – I (30 Marks)
Answer all questions.
SECTION – A

Question 1. [10 x 2]
(i) Why is the location of India in the Indian Ocean considered to be significant ? Give two reasons.
(ii) With reference to the extent of India, write the angular values of the points marked as (a), (b), (c) and (d) in the map given below :

(iii) Name the four Indian geological eras in their chronological order.
(iv) Briefly explain any two factors responsible for the depletion of forests in India.
(v) Mention any two differences between the Bhabar and the Tarai regions.
(vi) Briefly explain the following terms :
(a) Psychological Density
(b) Conurbation
(vii) State two problems affecting the fishing industry in Bangladesh.
(viii) Name one mining centre for each of the following :
(a) Mica in Andhra Pradesh
(b) Iron ore in Odisha
(ix) Name the two terminals of the East-West corridor.
(x) What is an agro-based industry ? Which is the largest agro-based industry in India ?
Answer:
(i) India stands at the head of the Indian Ocean at the very center of the Eastern Hemisphere commanding trade routes running in all directions. It’s location, size and economic resources have made it the most dominating country among the littoral states. It serves as a great linkage between the countries lying on its coasts and further beyond. Thus, the location of India in the Indian Ocean is considered to be significant.

(ii) (a) Western longitude 68° 7′ East.
(b) Standard Meridian 82° 30′ East.
(c) Eastern Longitude 97° 25′ East.
(d) Tropic of cancer 23° 30′ North.

(iii) The four Indian geological eras in their chronological order are the Archean era (Early Pre-Cambrian), the Purana era (Late Pre-Cambrian), the Dravidian era (400-570 million years old), and the Aryan era (400 million years old to the present).

(iv) Factors responsible for the depletion of forests in India are :

1. Thoughtless and rapid exploitation of forest resources as per the demand of the increasing population.
2. For acquiring land for agriculture, industries and construction purposes, the forests have been cut down recklessly.

(v) Bhabar Region

1. It lies along the foot of the Shiwaliks from Indus to Tista, about 8 to 16 kms wide.
2. It comprises of pebble-studded rocks with porous beds so it is not suited for agriculture.

Tarai Region

1. It lies to the south of the Bhabar and runs parallel to it, about 20 to 30 kms wide.
2. It is composed of comparatively finer alluvium and is reclaimed for agriculture.

(vi) (a) There is a spelling error in the question paper, it should be physiological density rather than psychological density. Physiological density is the ratio of the total population of the country to the total cultivated area of the country.
(b) Conurbation is an extended urban area, typically consisting of several towns merging with the suburbs of a central city.

(vii) Problems affecting the fishing industry in Bangladesh :

1. Severe tropical cyclones which frequently originate in the Bay of Bengal pose a serious threat to fishermen.
2. The present fish catch is still on a small scale, the boats are small and the methods used for fishing are traditional and inefficient.

(viii) (a) Nellore district.
(b) Keonjhar or Mayurbhanj districts.

(ix) The two terminals of the East-West corridor are Silcher in Assam and Porbandar in Gujarat.

(x) Agro-based industries are the ones that depend on the raw materials produced in the agricultural sector. These are mostly consumer goods industries which are important both in respect of their contribution to total industrial output as well as to employment. The largest agro-based industry in India is the cotton textile industry

SECTION – B

Question 2. [10]
On the outline map of India provided :
(a) Mark and name the northernmost point of the Indian Union.
(b) Mark and label the Nilgiri Hills.
(c) Shade and label the Gulf of Khambat.
(d) Trace the course and label the river Mahanadi.
(e) Show with a single arrow and name the wind that brings rain over the coast of Tamil Nadu, during winters.
(f) Locate with a dot and name the capital city of Rajasthan.
(g) Mark and name the Nathula Pass.
(h) Mark and name the oldest oil-field of India.
(i) Mark with a dot and name the major port of Andhra Pradesh.
(j) Mark and label the hinterland of Chennai.
Note : All the map work, including legend (Index) should be done on the map sheet only.
Answer:

PART – II (40 Marks)
Answer any four questions.

Question 3.
(a) Briefly explain the geological evolution of the Himalayas. [3]
(b) Explain giving any two reasons why the deltas of the river Mahanadi suffer from occasional floods. [2]
(c) Study the temperature and rainfall graph of station X given below and answer the questions that follow : [3]

(i) Is the location of station X inland or coastal ?
(ii) What is the cause of sudden fall of temperature in July, even though it is a summer month ?
(iii) Mention one main feature of the climate experienced by the station X.
(d) What is Agro-forestry ? Mention any two benefits of Agro-forestry. [2]
Answer:
(a) The Himalayan ranges were formed when the Indian plate was driven northwards and pushed beneath the Eurasian Plate. With the advance of the Indian Plate towards the north, the Tethys started contracting about 65-70 million years ago. About 30-60 million years ago, the two plates came closer and the Tethys sea crust began to fracture into thrust edges. About 20-30 million years ago, the Himalayan ranges started emerging.

(b) The deltas of the river Mahanadi suffer from occasional floods because of :

1. Large scale silting and the consequent change in the river courses.
2. Indiscriminate felling of trees in the catchment areas of the river has complicated the flood problem.
3. High tide at the time of flood aggravates the flood situation.

(c) (i) Inland.
(ii) The cause of sudden fall of temperature in July is due to the onset of the monsoon season. There is a fall of temperature from July to September because of rainfall during this period.
(iii) The station experiences continental type of climate with marked seasonal changes with respect to temperature and rainfall.

(d) Agro forestry involves the raising of trees and agricultural crops either on the same land or in close association in such a way that all land including the waste patches is put to good use. Two benefits of Agro-forestry are :

1. The farmers are able to get food, fodder, fuel, fruit, and timber from their land.
2. The land gives maximum production and provides employment to rural masses.

Question 4.
(a) (i) Define index of concentration. [1]
(ii) How is it useful in the study of population? [1]
(b) Differentiate between natural growth of population and migratory growth of population. [2]
(c) Explain why sex composition is an important demographic attribute of the population in India. [2]
(d) Figure A and B given below show two types of settlement patterns that have developed in India [2]

(i) Name the settlement patterns in Figures A and B.
(ii) State one characteristic feature of each of the settlement patterns.

(e) (i) What is urbanisation ? [1]
(ii) What are the two main components of urbanisation ? [1]
Answer:
(a) (i) Index of concentration is the proportion of the population living in each state or union territory to the total population of India.
(ii) Index concentration is a very useful method to understand the uneven nature of distribution of population. For example, the population of Uttar Pradesh according to 2001 census was 166 million whereas total population of India in the same year was 1027 million. So, the index of concentration for

U.P. in 2001 was : \(\frac { 166 }{ 1027 } \times 100\quad =\quad 16.16%.\)

(b) Natural Growth of Population

1. The difference between natural birth-rate and death rate is called natural growth of population.
2. It is prevalent in developing countries.

Migratory Growth of Population

1. he growth of population caused by migration of population, is called the migratory growth of population.
2. It is mostly seen in developed countries.

(c) Sex composition is a very important demographic attribute of population. Separate data for males and females is important for various types of planning and for other demographic characteristics such as natality, mortality, migration, marital status, economic characteristics, etc. The balance between the two sexes affects the social and economic relationships within a country.

The sex ratio in India has fallen from 972 in 1901 to 933 in 2001. This is a very serious trend which speaks volumes of the second rate treatment given to females in India. This dangerous trend must be checked at all costs and females must be given their proper place in society. Only then India can look forward for the overall development of the country.

(d) (i) Settlement patterns in :
Figure A: Checker Board or Rectangular pattern.
Figure B : Star-like pattern.

(ii) The characteristic features are :

Figure A : Checker board or rectangular pattern of settlement develops in villages at the meeting place of two roads. The streets are either parallel or perpendicular to each other and the settlement takes a rectangular shape. These are found in the northern plains, especially in the Ganga-Yamuna Doab and also in Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh states of South India.

Figure B : A village acquires a star-like pattern of settlement when streets radiate from a common centre. Such villages are found in Tamil Nadu and in the Upper Ganga plain.

(e) (i) Urbanisation refers to the population shift from rural areas, the gradual increase in the proportion of people living in urban areas, and the ways in which each society adapts to this change.

(ii) The main components of urbanisation are :

1. Population pressure and lack of resources in the rural areas are the push factors for urbanisation.
2. People migrate to urban areas due to the availability of better standards of living, well paid jobs, greater opportunities, better health care and education facilities.

Question 5.
(a) Briefly explain any two adverse effects of small and fragmented holdings on agricultural productivity [2]
(b) State two ways in which forest area in our country can be increased.
(c) Mention three constraints explaining why cultivable waste land is not being used for cultivation at present. [3]
(d) In which two ways are tube-wells better than ordinary wells as a form of irrigation ? [2]
(e) With reference to canal irrigation, name one canal in each of the following states [1]
(i) Uttar Pradesh
(ii) Punjab
Answer:
(a) Effects of small fragmented holdings on agricultural productivity are :

1. Low agricultural productivity and backward state of our agriculture is due to the large amount of time and labour lost in moving seeds, manure and cattle from one piece of land to another.
2. Irrigation becomes difficult on such small and fragmented fields.
3. A lot of fertile agricultural land is wasted in providing boundaries. The farmer cannot concentrate on improvements.

(b) Forest area can be increased by :

1. Massive trees plantations.
2. Vigorous restrictions on the reckless felling of trees.
3. Much of the area reclaimed from the forest for agriculture should be retired from cultivation and brought back under forest.

(c) The constraints are :

1. Due to human neglect large tracts of land of U.P., Punjab and Haryana turned infertile due to salinity or alkalinity of soil.
2. Due to extensive soil erosion or water logging or lack of water, agricultural land of the past had to be abandoned.
3. Due to unfavourable physiographic position or deficiencies in the soil resulting from faulty agricultural practices, large tracts of land now, can not be used for agriculture.

(d) Tube Well

1. It generally irrigates 2 hectares of land per day.
2. Tube-wells can bring up water or irrigate land quickly with the help of machines

Ordinary Well

1. It irrigates 0 – 2 hec tares of land per day.
2. Wells take longer time to irrigate the same area.

(e) (i) Uttar Pradesh-Upper Ganga Canal.
(ii) Punjab – Bhakra Canal.

Question 6.
(a) (i) What is crop rotation ?
(ii) Mention two reasons why crop rotation is necessary in India.
(b) What is the importance of animal husbandry in Indian agriculture ? [2]
(c) Differentiate between pelagic fish and demersal fish. [2]
(d) Name the following : [3]
(i) A geothermal energy plant in Himachal Pradesh.
(ii) An offshore oilfield in the country.
(iii) The nuclear power station in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
(a) (i) The growing of different variety of crops in succession on a piece of land to avoid ‘exhausting the soil and to control weeds, pests & diseases is called crop rotation.
(ii) Crop rotation is necessary in India as :

1. It helps make the soil more fertile, as legumes such as beans and ground nuts fix nitrogen in the soil.
2. It helps to reduce the use of chemical fertilizers as nitrogen is fixed naturally in the soil.
3. It helps to control weeds, diseases and pests by breaking their life cycles.
4. It reduces the risk of crop failure in case of drought or diseases.

(b) Animal husbandry forms a very important part of Indian agriculture. Animal husbandry and Dairy development plays a prominent role in the rural economy in supplementing the income of rural households, particularly, the landless and small and marginal farmers. It also provides subsidiary occupation in semiurban areas and more so for people living in hilly tribal and drought prone areas where crop output may not sustain families.

Pelagic fish

1. These are generally small in size and swim near the surface.
2. They are found in large shoals and may be caught close to the shore or far out at sea.
3. E.g., macrakel, herring, etc.

Demersal fish

1. These fish live at the bottom of shallow seas.
2. They prefer cooler waters and thus, are most frequently found at depths of about 40 metres where sunlight can easily penetrate.
3. E.g., cod, halibut, etc.

(d) (i) Manikaran.
(ii) Mumbai High.
(iii) Kalpakkam.

Question 7.
(a) Explain two factors that affect inland waterways in India.
(b) Give reasons for the following [3]
(i) There is a dense network of railways over the North Indian Plains.
(ii) Peninsular Plateau has a high proportion of metalled roads.
(iii) A good transport network promotes industrial development.

(c) Mention one advantage and one disadvantage of air transport. [1]
(d) Differentiate between Telecommunication and Mass Communication. [2]
(e) State any two ways in which radio can still be considered as a powerful means of mass communication in remote areas. [2]
Answer:
(a) Factors affecting inland waterways in India are :

1. The rivers and canals do not have a regular flow of sufficient water.
2. Rivers of South India are seasonal and are not much suited for navigation due to the presence of waterfalls, cataracts and sharp bends in their course.
3. Silting of river beds reduces the depth of water and creates problems for navigation. Desilting of river beds is a way costlier affair.

(b) North Indian Plains have a dense network of railways because :

(i) 1. Northern plain area is a densely populated region with highly developed agriculture and industry.
2. Large scale urbanisation and industrialisation have created a great demand for rail transport.
3. It is a flat plain which is suitable for the construction of Railways.

(ii) Peninsular Plateau has a high proportion of metalled roads due to :

1. High concentration of Industries.
2. Urbanisation.
3. Building materials are locally available.

(iii) Cheap and efficient transport is essential for the growth of industries as transport is a vital link between production and consumption, and also between production distribution. Transport facilities are required for carrying raw material and labour force to manufacturing site and carrying manufactured goods to the market. Thus, a good transport network promotes industrial development.

(c) Advantage of air transport : It is very essential for a vast country like India where distances are large, and the terrain and the climatic conditions are so diverse. It is the fastest mode of transport which has reduced distances and converted the world into one unit.

Disadvantage of air transport : It is the ‘costliest mode of transport which many people cannot afford.

(d) Tele communication

1. It provides for means of communication at the individual level and at the mass level through high speed transfer of messages from one part of the globe to another.
2. Talex, Fax, Telegraph, Telephone are the main means of telecommunication.

Mass Communication

1. It provides means for creating awareness, providing in formation, education and healthy entertainment at the mass level.
2. Electronic media (radio and television) and print media (newspapers and periodicals) are the main components of mass communication.

(e) Radio is a powerful medium which provides all sorts of useful information, news and a variety of entertainment. AIR broadcasts in 24 languages and 146 dialects with a total network of 225 broadcasting centres covering 91.4% of the country, almost reaching the entire population in a linguistically diverse country like India.

Question 8.
(a) Mention two reasons for the development of the Bengaluru-Tamil Nadu Industrial Region. [2]
(b) Give three reasons to explain the development of sugar industry in Maharashtra. [3]
(c) State two advantages that mini steel plants have over large integrated steel plants. [2]
(d) (i) Define tourism. [1]
(ii) State any two advantages of tourism in India. [1]
Answer:
(a) Bengaluru – Tamil Nadu Industrial Region has experienced the fastest industrial growth in the post-independence era as :

1. This region is dominated by the cotton textile industry but, over the years many other industries such as large number of silk manufacturing units, sugar mills, leather, chemicals, medicine and engineering industries have also emerged here.
2. Availability of cheap hydro-electric power from various dams.
3. Cheap skilled labour, good climate and proximity to vast local markets have favored the concentration of industries in this region.

(b) Maharashtra is the most important state where sugarcane cultivation and sugar mills are integrated in co-operative system. In fact, Maharashtra has emerged as India’s largest producer of sugar, producing about one-third of India’s sugar due to :

1. The high recovery rate of 11.6 per cent i.e. the sugar obtained is 11.6 per cent of the sugarcane used.
2. Longer crushing period of 162 days.
3. Close proximity of mills to the growing areas

(c) Mini steel plants have the following advantages over large integrated steel plants :

1. These are easy to construct and operate.
2. Mini steel plants have shorter gestation period than large integrated steel plants.
3. They produce mild steel as well as alloy steel including stainless steel and are located far away from the integrated steel plants to meet the local demands in that area.

(d) (i) Travelling to less disturbed or polluted natural areas with a view to study, admire and enjoy the beautiful aspects of a place along with the wild plants and animals and the cultural beauty (past and present) located in these areas is called tourism.

(ii) Advantages of tourism in India are :

1. It helps to improve infrastructure.
2. Development of local handicrafts and cultural activities.

Question 9.
(a) (i) What is a Planning Region? [2]
(ii) Mention any two characteristics of a planning region. [2]

(b) Explain giving two reasons why there is a need for planned development for a country like India. [2]
(c) Mention any two factors which have influenced the development of the Electronic City of Bengaluru. [2]

(d) (i) What is sericulture ?
(ii) Name two main districts of Silk production in Chhattisgarh.

(e) With reference to Haldia port, answer the following [2]
(i) Where is the port located ?
(ii) State the need for the development of this port.
Answer:
(a) (i) A planning region is a self-created living organism, having a life time which not only supports the life in the region but also radiates unifying forces that enable the region to be a unified regional space so as to facilitate the practice of regional planning.

(ii) Characteristics of a planning region are :

1. A planning region should be neither too big nor too small.
2. The boundary should be flexible.
3. There should be natural cohesion.
4. It should have economic harmony.

(b) There is a need for planned development for a country like India due to

1. Rapidly increasing population and pressure on physical resources.
2. Growing demand for food and other necessities of life.
3. Improving the general standard of living in less developed parts of India.
4. Economic progress, social advancement, political development and environment preservation.

(c) Factors that influenced the development of the Electronic city of Bengaluru are :

1. The incentives by the state and central government.
2. The strategic location of the city in the middle of the Indian peninsula.
3. A close network of road and railways.
4. A large number of Indian, foreign and multinational companies have invested large sums of money to nourish industries.

(d) (i) Sericulture is a labour intensive industry that deals with the production of silk and the nearing of silkworms for this purpose. It provides employment to a large number of people. Silk is produced by small units usually by individual families.
(ii) Silk in Chhattisgarh comes from Bastar and Bilaspur districts.

(e) (i) It is located at the confluence of rivers Hugli and Haldia about 105 km downstream from Kolkata.
(ii) Haldia post has been developed to release congestion at the Kolkata port and to enable docking of larger vessels which cannot enter the Kolkata port.

ISC Class 12 Geography Previous Year Question Papers

ISC Physical Education Previous Year Question Paper 2016 Solved for Class 12

Section-A (40 Marks)
Answer any five questions.

Question 1.
Explain how games and sports are helpful in promoting national integration among the players. [8]
Answer:
National integration means unity of nation. Physical Education plays an important role in building it. National integration includes feeling of brotherhood, friendship and oneness. When the people of different countries participate in games and sports and visit another district/state/country they come across the different ways of living, customs, religion, traditions, languages, eating habits, beliefs, etc. In sports camp players come from different states, live together, practice to participate in one game by living and working together and exchange ideas, habits etc.

Games and sports attract people from all over the world or nation. Social qualities such as patience, co-operation, sympathy etc. are developed. It satisfies the basic needs such as recognition, and self-respect. Sports is a universal language. At its best it can bring people together, no matter what their origin, background, religious beliefs or economic status.

Physical Education provides a common platform where they forget all their differences. It plays very important role in bringing about national unity.

Question 2.
What is meant by sports training? Explain the importance of sports training in the field of games. [8]
Answer:
Sports Training : Training is a process of preparing an individual for any event or an activity or job. In sports we use the term ‘sports training’ which denotes the sense of preparing sports persons for the highest level of performance. Sports training is the physical, technical, intellectual, psychological and moral preparation of an athlete or a player by means of physical education. Sports training is an overall scientific and systematic channel of preparation of sports persons for high level of sports performance. Therefore, we can say that sports training is a type of training that is designed to improve our fitness (in the broad sense of the term) level for the purpose of improving your ability to perform a given sports.

The importance of sports training is as follows :

1. Physical Fitness : Physical fitness is the basic requirement of any game and sports. There is a specific requirement of each component of physical fitness according to the specific sport. Sports training helps in building a fine physique and ensures good health.
2. Discipline : Sports training helps in incorporating a sense of discipline in a persons life.
3. Unity : Sports training teaches a sports person about teamwork, sense of belonging and unselfish play. It also encourages to play for team rather than for one’s personal accomplishment.
4. Confidence : It boost the morale of a person when he performs and also when he excels towards a particular game. It improves self esteem as well as body posture, which makes one feel more confident and determined.
5. Focus : Counselors and mental trainers help in identifying those areas which are causing the sportsman to become distracted on the field and enhance focus on the field.

Question 3.
List the various career options available in the field of physical education. Discuss any two of them in detail. [8]
Answer:
Career options available in the field of physical education are:
(1) Professional Sportsman.
(2) Sports Manager.
(3) Sports Teacher or Lecturer.
(4) Sports Coach.
(5) Gym Instructor.
(6) Sports Officials.
(7) Sports Event Co-ordinator.
(8) Sports Journalist.
(9) Sports Engineer.
(10) Marketing and Manufacturing Sports Equipments.
(11) Sports Photographer.
(12) Physical Therapist.

Sports Teacher or Lecturer : Physical Education has a major role to play in the school and college system. Physical Education occupies a dignified position in the higher education sector. Apart from being taught in training colleges it has been included as an elective subject in degree course. Physical Education professionals whosoever qualifies NET, M.Phil, B.P.Ed., M.P.Ed., Ph.D. degree may get job as Teacher / Lecturer in the school/colleges.

Sports Journalist : Sports Journalist write about and report on amateur and professional sports. As a sports journalist, you can expect a variety of job duties such as reporting game statistics, interviewing coaches and players and offering game commentary. One can work in a variety of media, including radio, television and print.

Question 4.
Mention the importance of intramural competitions and extramural competitions. Write any two objectives of each. [8]
Answer:
Importance of Intramural Competitions :

• Intramurals are very significant for physical, mental, emotional and social development of students.
• They instill and inculcate discipline among the students.
• They provide maximum recreation to the students.
• They develop healthy competition among the participants.
• They help in improving the personality of the students.

Importance of Extramural Competitions :

• Provide opportunity to schools to show their sports capabilities. .
• Enhance technical knowledge.
• Boost personal efficacy and self esteem.
• Increased level of self confidence.

Objectives of Intramurals:

• Provide opportunities for development of positive attitudes.
• Allow the development of sports and knowledge and strategies through participation in a safe and competitive situation.

Objective of Extramurals:

• To improve the standard of sports.
• To aid in the development of sportsmanship and fraternity.

Question 5.
What is meant by drugs and drug abuse ? Name any two drugs that are banned by the World Anti-Drugs Agency (WADA). Explain why these drugs are banned. [8]
Answer:
Drugs : Chemical substances that excite a person mentally or physically are called drugs. Drugs are powerful stimulant of the brain. They can produce an ecstatic sensation of both physical and mental power with temporary disappearance of feeling of fatigues and hunger.

Drug Abuse : It is the excessive self-damaging use of drugs, leading to addiction or dependence, serious physiological injury, psychological harm or even death.

Two drugs banned by the World Anti-Drugs Agency are:
(1) Stimulants.
(2) Anabolic agents.

1. Stimulants are banned because they may artificially stimulate the mind and body thereby improving an athlete’s performance and giving them an unfair advantage.
2. Anabolic agents are banned because they are prescribed for medical use only. Use of anabolic agents may enhance an athlete’s performance. Another possibility is serious medical side effects on the user.

Question 6.
What is scoliosis? State the causes and corrective measures for scoliosis. [8]
Answer:
Scoliosis : Scoliosis is the postural adaptation of the spine in lateral direction. It is a medical condition in which a persons spinal axis has a three-dimensional deviation. When viewed from the side, the spine should show a mild roundness in the upper back and shows a degree of swayback (inward curvature) in the lower back.

Causes of Scoliosis:

• Hereditary defects.
• One side paralysis of spinal muscles.
• Short leg of one side.
• One side flat foot.
• One side vision and hearing defects.

Corrective Measures : This can be cured through voluntary efforts :

• By hanging oneself from the hands.
• Using body weight.
• By developing strength in spinal extensors through corrective exercises.
• Swim by using backstroke technique.

Question 7.
What is meant by bruises ? Mention five measures that can be taken by an individual to prevent sports related accidents. [8]
Answer:
Bruises : Bruises are injuries caused by the hitting of a foreign agent on the skin without producing external wound. Bmise can be defined as an injury or mark where the skin has not been broken but it is darker in colour, often as a result of being hit by something.

Five measures taken by an individual to prevent sports related accidents :

1. Every individual should have pre-participation physical examination.
2. Sports person should focus on developing muscular strength and endurance as well as cardiovascular fitness and flexibility.
3. Limit workout and practices to maximum two hours.
4. All sports persons should use appropriate out fits properly in practices as well as competitions.
5. Ice should be available on the sidelines of every game and practice to apply to appropriate injuries.

Section-B (30 Marks)

• Select any two games from this Section Answer any three of the five subparts (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) from each of the two games selected by you.
• Each subpart is for 5 marks.

FOOTBALL

Question 8. [3 x 5]
(a) What is meant by wall formation in the game of football ? With the help of a diagram show any one defensive formation and any one offensive formation in the game. [5]
(b) State the importance of technical area in the game of football. Also, give its specifications. [5]
(c) Mention any five duties of the fourth official in the game. [5]
(d) What is a direct free kick in the game of football ? State any three situations when a referee awards a direct free kick. [5]
(e) Explain the following : [5]
(i) Heading
(ii) Goal area
Answer:
(a) Wall Formation : A line of players organized by a team to stand shoulder by shoulder and try to prevent a free kick being scored. A wall is designed to obstruct the kicker’s view of goal and restrict the target he has to shoot at. Therefore, we can say that the wall is primarily used to cut off the shooter’s angle to the post nearest to the spot of the free kick.

1. In this area team coach, manager and players (extra) sit together and make the strategies of game.
2. Only one person at a time is authorized to convey tactical instruction and he must return to his position after the instructions.
3. The coach and other occupants of the technical area must behave in a responsible manner.

The technical area extends 1 m on either side of the designated seated area and extends forward upto a distance of 1 m from the touch lines.

(c) Duties of Fourth Official :

• Assists the administrative functions.
• Assess the players.
• Ensues that the substitutions are conducted in an orderly manner.
• Serves as a replacement official in the event.
• Acts as the contact point between the match official and any non-participants.

(d) Direct Free Kick : A direct free kick is a method of restarting play in a game of football following a foul. A goal may be scored directly against the opposing side without the ball having first touched another player. A direct free kick is awarded to the opposing team if a player commits any of the following offenses :

• Kicks or attempts to kick an opponent.
• Charges an opponent.
• Handles the ball deliberately (except for the goalkeeper within his own penalty area).

(e)

1. Heading : Heading is an important skill which is used by players. To head a ball accurately, a player should judge the flight of the ball and wait for the proper jump and hit the ball with the head.
2. Goal Area : A goal area is defined at each end of the field. Two lines are drawn at right angles to the goal line 5-5 m from the inside of each goal post. These lines extend into the field of play for a distance of 5-5 m and are joined by a line drawn parallel with the goal line.

CRICKET

Question 9. [3 x 5]
(a) Draw a neat labelled diagram of a cricket field and show any ten fielding positions of the players. [5]
(b) Explain the term power play in the game of cricket. What are the restrictions imposed on the players during the power play? [5]
(c) What is meant by tampering of ball ? Mention any two ways by which a ball is tampered. [5]
(d) What are the duties of the third umpire ? How does the third umpire convey his decision during the game ? [5]
(e) Explain the following terms : [5]
(i) Bouncer
(ii) Lost ball
Answer:
(a)

(b) Power play is the name for the fielding restrictions in limited-over and Twenty- 20 matches in cricket. It is of 30 yard circle in the centre of field.

Restrictions imposed on the players during the power play:

• Mandatory powers play (1-10 overs) : Only two fielders are allowed outside the 30- yard circle.
• Between over 11 and 40, a maximum of four fielders are allowed outside the 30-yard circle.
• In the final 10 overs (41-50), a maximum of five fielders will be allowed to field outside the restricted area.

(c) Ball Tampering : Unlawful alteration of the surface or seam of a ball on the field to effect its motion is known as Ball Tampering. The two ways by which a ball is tampered are :

• Rubbing the ball on the ground.
• Picking the threads of the main seam.

(d) Third Umpire Duties : The third umpire is also known as on off-field umpire who usually gives his decision when the on-field umpires are unsure. The third umpire looks at various TV replays from different angles and comes to a conclusion by pressing the appropriate signal. The field umpire can use his discretion to refer a close decision to the third umpire regarding the dismissal of a batsman, catches or boundaries via a wireless set or a signal system. Third umpire conveys his decision through radio link and television replay. A red light indicates that the batsman is out and a green one otherwise.

(e) (i) Bouncer : In a game of cricket, a bouncer is a type of delivery in which a ball pitched short by a fast bowler so that it rises up to the batsman’s chest or head (or even higher).
(ii) Lost Ball : The ball which is hit by the batsman is gone out of the field and fielder is not able to find it is called lost ball.

HOCKEY
Question 10. [3 x 5]
(a) Mention the protective equipment used by the goalkeeper during the game. [5]
(b) What is Astroturf ? State its importance in the game of hockey. [5]
(c) When is a free hit awarded in the game of hockey ? Write any two famous tournaments associated with the game. [5]
(d) Explain the following : [5]
(i) Push pass
(ii) Team formation
(e) Write any five basic skills a hockey player should possess. [5]
Answer:
(a)

• Hand protector
• Helmet
• Gloves
• Leg guards.
• Chest guards
• Elbow pads
• Hockey stick

(b) Astroturf is a surface of synthetic fiber made to look like natural grass.

Importance : Astroturf is water base, due to this the water layer in the hockey pitch (field) has LSR (Low Side Resistance) and shock absorbency properties for excellent players, safety unlike some sand based hockey pitches, the surface will remain soft even at low temperatures thereby, reducing the risk of friction bum.

(c) Free Hit : Free hits are awarded when offenses are committed outside the scoring circles. The ball may be hit, pushed or lifted in any direction by the team offended against.

Tournaments :

• Champions Trophy
• Azlan Shah Cup
• Agha Khan Cup
• Indira Gold Cup

(d) (i) Push pass is used for short and accurate pass when there is no time. This pass can be executed while dribbling. While implementing the pass the left shoulder should be pointed in the direction of. the pass with the left foot forward. The right hand remains 6 to 8 inches lower than in the fundamental position.

(ii) Team formation is the position assigned to the player to play on the field to protect the goal from opponent team and score goal for the team.

There are :

1. Three forwards
2. Three midfielders
3. Three defenders
4. One sweeper
5. One goal keeper.

(e) Five skills of a hockey player are :

1. Dribbling
2. Dodge
3. Holding of Hockey stick
4. Hitting a stationary ball
5. Penalty stroke

BASKETBALL

Question 11. [3 x 5]
(a) Write a short note on FIB A. Define the term violation in basketball. [5]
(b) Differentiate between a personal foul and a foul. [5]
(c) Mention any five duties of a time-keeper during the game. [5]
(d) Explain the term jump shot in the game of basketball. Write any four types of passes used in the game. [5]
(e) Explain the following terms : [5]
(i) Technical foul
(ii) Pivoting
Answer:
(a) FIBA : The International Basketball Federation is more commonly known as FIBA. It defines the international rules of basketball, specifies the facilities required, regulates the transfer of players across countries and controls the appointment of international referees. This world governing body of basketball was founded in 1932. It brings together 214 National Basketball Federations from all over the world.

Violation : A violation is an infraction of the rules and the most minor class of illegal action. Most variations are committed by the team with the possession of the ball, when a player mishandles the ball or makes an illegal move.

(b) Personal Foul: A personal foul is committed by the contact foul with an opponent, whether the ball is live or dead.
Foul: A foul is an infraction of the rules more serious than a violation.

(c) Duties of Timekeeper :

• To set the clock at the beginning of each quarter.
• To keep score on the clock for each team during the game.
• To start and stop the clock as indicated by the referee.
• To indicate the appropriate quarters for the game.
• To keep team fouls and indicate if possible.

(d) Jump Shot: Jump shot is an attempt to score a basket by jumping usually straight up and in mid jump, propelling the ball in an arc. It is accomplished by the player bringing his or her elbow up until it is aligned with the hoops then sent towards the hoop in a high arc into the basket.

Four types of passes :

• Chest pass,
• Bounce pass,
• Under hand pass
• Overhead pass.

(e)

1. Technical Foul : An infraction by a player or a coach that is deemed unsportsman like conduct is called Technical Foul. The penalty for’ this infraction is one free throw for the opposing team and possession.
2. Pivoting : The action a player will use while in possession of the ball to make in any direction while still keeping one foot in contact with the floor is called pivoting. It is very useful for getting rid of an opponent.

VOLLEYBALL

Question 12. [3 x 5]
(a) Explain the system of rotation in the game of volleyball. Mention any four rotation faults a player may commit during the game. [5]
(b) Explain the following : [5]
(i) Assisted hit (ii) Penetration fault
(c) (i) Who is a Spiker in the game of volleyball ? [2]
(ii) List any three blocking faults the players may commit during the game. [3]
(d) What is the method of scoring in the game of volleyball ? State the various types of delays in the game. [5]
(e) Expand the following : [5]
(i) FIVB
(ii) VFI
(iii) AVF
(iv) UVA
(v) JVA
Answer:
(a) Rotation : It is a process of changing the positions of the players within a court in a clockwise direction after getting a chance to serve.

Rotation Fault:

• When the player is not being positioned correctly on the court at service.
• When the middle front player is being overlapped with the right front player.
• When middle back player is being overlapped with the middle front player.
• When determining whether the player in position 1 and player in position 6 are overlapped.

(b)

1. Assisted Hit: A player takes support from a team mate or any object in order to reach the ball within the playing area.
2. Penetration Fault : It is permitted for a player to step under the net into the opponents court provided that he does not interfere with the opponent’s play and if it interferes the play of opponents it is a fault.

(c)

1. Spiker : The title given to the player who finishes the attack by hitting the ball across the net fast and hard.
2. Blocking Fault:
   • When the blocker blocks an opponent’s serve.
   • Blocker is not given a chance to attack the opponent.
   • The ball is deflected out of play off a block.
   • A back row player or libro completes a block.

(d) There are two scoring methods in Volleyball:

1. Rally Scoring : In rally scoring team scores a point when the other team fails to return the ball over the net and hit the ball out of bounds commits an infraction or makes a service error.
2. Side out Scoring : In side out scoring the service team scores a point when the opponents fail to return the ball over the net hit the ball out of bounds.

Ways of delays in game :

• Delaying a substitution.
• Request for an illegal substitution.
• Repeating an improper request.
• Delaying the game by a team member.

(e)

1. FIVB—Federation International de Volleyball.
2. VFI—Volleyball Federation of India.
3. AVF—Asian Volleyball Federation.
4. UVA —United Volleyball Association.
5. JVA—Japan Volleyball Association.

TENNIS

Question 13. [3 x 5]
(a) (i) Explain the rule of advantage in the game of tennis. [5]
(ii) What is meant by the term ace ?
(b) List the duties of a chair umpire in the game of tennis. [5]
(c) (i) Give detailed specifications of a tennis ball with reference to its : [4]
(1) Material
(2) Weight
(3) Circumference
(4) Colour

(ii) Mention the width of the strap of the net used in Tennis. [1]
(d) Write a short note on Grand Slam Tournament. Also, name any two other important tournaments associated with the game. [5]
(e) Explain any five basic shots used by the players in the game. [5]
Answer:
(a)

• Advantage : A player, who scores a point after a deuce is said to have gained an advantage.
• Ace : When a receiver fails to control the ball while receiving a service the server is said to have served an ace. .

(b) Duties of a chair umpire :

• The chair umpire has the right to over rule a line or a net umpire.
• The chair umpire is responsible for calling any line or net umpire where no line umpire or net umpire is assigned.
• Play may be stopped or suspended at anytime the chair umpire decides.
• The chair umpire calls the score of the match to the players and spectators.
• The chair umpire is responsible for completing a score card.

(c)

1. Material — Rubber
   Weight — 56-7—60-24 gram
   Circumference — 6-35 — 6-67 gram
   Colour — Yellow or white.
2. Width of the strap of the net used in Tennis—5 cm (2 inch).

(d) The Grand Slam Tournaments are considered to be the most prestigious Tennis tournaments in the world. They are held annually. There are four tournaments included in the category of Grand Slam—The Australian Open, French Open. Wimbledon and US Open are the four Grand Slam Tournament. These are held at four different venues in Australia, France, The United Kingdom and United States of America.

Two other important tournaments :

• Federation Open
• Asian Tennis Championship.

(e) Drive : An offensive shot hit with an extra force.
Forehand : The stroke hit on the right side of a right-handed player.
Chip shot : An under-cutting stroke with a forehand or backhand action.
Top spin : The clockwise rotation of the ball at right angle.
Volley : When a player strikes the ball without allowing it to touch the ground.

BADMINTON

Question 14. [3 x 5]
(a) Name any five important tournaments associated with the game of badminton. [5]
(b) Mention any five faults a player may commit during the game. [5]
(c) Draw a neat diagram of a shuttle with all specifications. [5]
(d) Define the following : [5]
(i) Bird
(ii) Let
(iii) Drive
(iv) Double hit
(v) Service fault

(e) (i) Explain the procedure to be followed for performing a correct service in the game of badminton. [3]
(ii) When do the players change ends in the game ? [2]
Answer:
(a) Five important tournaments :

• Thomas Cup
• Uber Cup
• Wills World Cup
• Asia Cup
• All England Badminton Championship

(b) Five faults:

1. When a player touches the net or its supports with racket or in person.
2. When a player invades an opponents court under the net with racket.
3. A player deliberately distracts an opponent by action such as shouting.
4. If the shuttle is hit by a player and the player’s partner successively.
5. When the player hits the shuttle twice. shuttle cock. It is made of natural and synthetic materials when a ‘let’ occurs, play since the last service shall not count and the player what should last shall serve again.
   • Let : The stopping of a play owing to any outside interference is called let.
   • Drive : It is a flat stroke in which the shuttle is sent over the net, just clearing it and parallel to the floor.
   • Double Hit: When a player hits the shuttle cock twice in row.
   • Service Fault : In attempting to serve the server misses the shuttle.

(d)

1. Bird : It is another name for the shuttle cock. It is made of natural and synthetic materials when a ‘let’ occurs, play since the last service shall not count and the player what should last shall serve again.
2. Let : The stopping of a play owing to any outside interference is called let.
3. Drive : It is a flat stroke in which the shuttle is sent over the net, just clearing it and parallel to the floor.
4. Double Hit: When a player hits the shuttle cock twice in row.
5. Service Fault : In attempting to serve the server misses the shuttle.

(e)

1. Procedure of correct service :
   • Once the players are ready for the service, the first forward movement of the server’s racket head shall be the start of the service.
   • Once started, the service is delivered when the shuttle is hit by the server’s racket or in attempting to serve, the server misses the shuttle.
   • The server shall not serve before the receiver is ready. However, the receiver shall be considered to have been ready if a return of the service is attempted.
   • In doubles, during the delivery of service the partners may take up any positions within then respective courts, which do not in sight the opposing server or receiver.
2. Change of ends : Playei’ will change ends at the end of first game, at the end of second game. If there is a third game or irithe leading score reaches 11 points then also the ends will be changed.

SWIMMING

Question 15. [3 x 5]
(a) Draw a neat diagram of a standard swimming pool with its dimension[5]
(b) List the officials required for conducting a swimming competition. [5]
(c) With regard to swimming, explain the techniques of the following : * [5]
(i) Breast-stroke
(ii) Freestyle
(d) State the warming-up exercises used in swimming. [5]
(e) Explain the following : [5]
(i) Spring board
(ii) Marathon swimming
Answer:

(b) List of officials required is as follows :

• Referee 1
• Control room supervisor 1
• Judges of stroke 4
• Starters 2
• Chief inspectors of turns 2
• Inspectors of turns -(1 at each end of each lane)
• Chief recorder 1
• Clerk of course 2
• False start rope personnel 1
• Announcer 1

(c) (i) Breast Stroke : The breast stroke starts with the swimmer lying in the water, face down, arms extended straight forward and legs extended straight to the back, arm with move in out sweep, in sweep and recovery, the movement start with the out sweep and the leg will move like frog kick in this breathing is usually done during the beginning of the in sweep phase of arm through the mouth.

(ii) Free Style : In this leg kick should be performed with extended ankles kicks in the legs up and down from the hip with toes turned in and loose knees and arm forward in front of face pull down under the water steadily until the hand leaves the water at high level, little figure upper most bend and left the elbow to clear the water and swing the arm forward. Then repeat and turn the head side ways breath only as needed.

(d) Warm up exercises :

• Shoulder stretch
• Tricep stretching
• Muscles stretching
• Lower pectorals muscle stretch
• Forward lunge
• Quadricep stretch
• Hamstring stretch
• Calf stretches
• Neck stretches
• Long Hip adductor

(e)

1. Spring Board : A spring board is used for diving and is a board that is itself a spring. Spring Boards are commonly fixed by a hinge at one end and the other end usually hangs over a swimming pool with a point midway between the hinge and the end resting on adjustable fulcrum.
2. Marathon Swimming : Marathon swimming is a class of open water swimming defined by long distance at least 10 km. Unlike marathon foot races which have a specifically defined distance, Marathon swims vary in distance.

ATHLETICS

Question 16. [3 x 5]
(a) What is meant by stagger distance ? For a 400 m track race, state the stagger distance for each lane of a standard track. [5]
(b) Draw a neat diagram of a javelin runway and its sectors with all dimensions. [5]
(c) List the track and field events in athletics. [5]
(d) State any five duties of a physiotherapist in athletics. [5]
(e) Explain the following : [5]
(f) Wind-gauge operator
(ii) Steeple-chase race
Answer:
(a) Stagger Distance : When the runner runs in lanes around curves then they will run, unequal distance. In order to make the running distance same for all runners we give them staggered start (plus distance reduce from the curve) so that they cover the same distance from start to finish line.

Stagger for 400 mIs Trace:

• Lane No. – Distance
• 1st lane – 00:00 mts
• 2nd lane – 07:04 mts
• 3rd lane – 14:71 mts
• 4th lane – 22:38 mts
• 5th lane – 30 : 05 mts
• 6th lane – 37:72mts
• 7th lane – 45:39 mts
• 8th lane – 53:06 mts

(c) Track Events:
Sprint races:
1oo mts, 200 mts,
400 mts, 110 mts
hurdles 4 x 100 mts
4 x 400 mts relays

Middle races:
800 mts, 1500 mts

Long distance:
3000 mts, 5000 mis
10000 mts, 3000
steeplechase

Walking events:
20 km, 50 km

Cross country:
12 km

Marathon race:
26 miles and 385
yards or 42 km and
195 mts

Field Events:
Shot put – Discus Throw
Hammer Throw – Javelin Throw
Long Jump – Triple Jump
High Jump – Pole Vault

(d) Five duties of a physiotherapist in athletics :

• Protecting the injury to prevent further damage.
• Provide proper exercise to the injured part.
• Return functional movement and use by restoring flexibility and strength in and around the injured area.
• Pain management is also a part of sports physiotherapist ’ s responsibility.
• Deciding when you are ready to return to sports.

(e)

1. Wind Gauge Operator : The wind gauge operator ensures that the gauge is placed as per rule. He ascertains the velocity of the wind in the running direction in appropriate event and then records and signs the result obtained and communicates it to the Competition Secretary.
2. Steeple-chase Race : The standard distance is 3000 mts, there are 28 hurdles jumps and 7 water jump included in the 3000 mts event. In this event there shall be five jumps in each lap after the finish line has been passed for the first time with the water jump as the fourth.

ISC Class 12 Physical Education Previous Year Question Papers