Category: ISC

ISC History Previous Year Question Paper 2012 Solved for Class 12

Maximum Marks: 80
Time allowed: Three hours

• Candidates are allowed additional 15 minutes for only reading the paper. They must NOT start writing during this time.
• Answer Question 1 (Compulsory) from Part I and five questions from Part II, choosing two questions from Section A, two
• questions from Section B and one question from either Section A or Section B.
• The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Part—I
Answer all questions.

Question 1. [20]
(i) Name the two newspapers that Tilak edited in order to promote radical nationalism in India.
(ii) Name one well-known revolutionary organisation established in Bengal and one in Maharashtra in the early years of the 20th century.
(iii) What was the main demand of the Shimla deputation ? How was this demand fulfilled by the British Government ?
(iv) Why did Rabindranath Tagore give up his knighthood in 1919?
(v) Mention the two main principles of the Gandhian philosophy of Satyagraha.
(vi) What was the main provision of the Poona Pact ?
(vii) Name the nationalist leader who played the most important role in propa-gating and popularizing socialist ideas in the 1930’s in India.
(viii) Who was the founder of the Forward Bloc party in 1939 ?
(ix) What was the significance of the Lahore Session of the Muslim League in 1940?
(x) State any one reason for the Cabinet Mission’s rejection of the idea of a separate state of Pakistan.
(xi) Who introduced the ‘Battle of Wheat Campaign’ ? What was its primary objective ?
(xii) Why and by whom was the “Final solution ” policy implemented ?
(xiii) Why did Mussolini support General Franco during the Spanish Civil War ?
(xiv) Name the two countries that originally signed the Anti-Comintern Pact (1936).
(xv) State any one reason for the US decision to use the atom bomb against Japan.
(xvi) Which major crisis in Europe led to the establishment of NATO ?
(xvii) Why was the Berlin Wall erected by the Communists in 1961 ?
(xviii) What is meant by the veto power of the Security Council ?
(xix) How did the rise of Nazism in Germany impact the Palestinian conflict ?
(xx) Why did Nasser nationalize the Suez Canal ?
Answer:
(vii) Jawaharlal Nehru, insisted on the inculcation of a new socialist ideological orientation.

(viii) Subhash Chandra Bose was the founder of the Forward Bloc party in 1939.

(ix) Jinnah’s ‘Two Nation Theory’ was an outcome of the Lahore Session of Muslim League in 1940.

(x) Cabinet Mission rejected the idea of two sovereign states because it was believed that it would not solve the problem of the minorities.

(xiii) The nationalist agreed to allow Italy to establish bases in Spain if there was a war with France, Mussolini knew very well that from Spain. French industries in Marseilles could be easily bombed and thus, Italy would be able to establish his supremacy in the Mediterranean.

(xiv) Germany and Japan.

(xv) After aerial attack on Pearl Harbor, USA served ultimatum to Japan to surrender before USA. After the fall of Germany and Italy, Japan was still continuing the war, so after USA decided to use atom bomb against Japan.

(xvi) The conflict between Western and Eastern Europe over German problems was getting intense. The Soviet blockade of West Berlin made America decide to form a mutual military assistance organisation with the Western European countries. This resulted in the establishment of North Atlantic Treaty Organisation “NATO”.

(xvii) Khruschev announced that Russia no longer recognize the claims of western powers over west Berlin. He also demanded that the western powers should withdraw from the west Berlin. When the U.S. refused to accede to this demand, Russia erected Berlin wall in Aug. 1961. The 28 miles Berlin wall across the entire city effectively blocked the escape route to the west.

(xviii) The five permanent, members of the Security Council have the right to veto. By an application of this right a permanent member may reject any decision of the Security Council.

(xix) Germany’s Palestine policy between 1933 and 1940 was based on a fundamental acceptance of the post-World War I status quo in the Middle-east. For different reasons, the Hitler regime continued in the footsteps of the various Weimar Governments by identifying German interests with the postwar settlement in Palestine. That settlement embodied a growing Jewish presence’ and homeland in Palestine, as well as the establishment of British imperial power over Palestine and the Middle-east. It also represented a denial of Arab claims to national self determination and independence in Palestine and throughout the Middle-east.

Between 1933 and 1940, German policy encouraged and actively promoted Jewish emigration to Palestine, recognized and respected Britain’s imperial interests throughout the Middle-east and remained largely indifferent to the ideals and aims of Arab nationalism.

(xx) Gamal Abdel Nasser in 1956 declared nationalization of the Suez Canal to be able to use the funds collected from toll tax to help build Aswan dam. This was a result of America’s refusal to further loans to Egypt for political reasons.

Part—II

Section—A

Question 2.
(a) Briefly explain two political events in India and two at the international level that led to the rise of radical nationalism at the turn of the 20th century. [4]
(b) Give an account of the Anti-Partition Movement and its subsequent development into the Swadeshi and Boycott Movement. [6]
(c) How did the differences in interpretation and application of Swadeshi and Boycott, widen the rift between the Moderates and the Radical nationalist ? [6]

Question 3.
The first World War led to a maturing of Indian nationalism. In this context, answer the following :
(a) Why did the Indian nationalist leaders initially decide to. support the British in their war effort and later launch the anti-British Home Rule League Movement ? [4]
(b) Name the two founders of the Home Rule League in India. What was the contribution of this League in the freedom movement ? [6]
(c) Discuss the events that led to the Lucknow session of the Congress and the signing of the Congress League Pact in 1916. Explain the significance of the Lucknow Pact. [6]

Question 4.
(a) Explain the circumstances that led to the launching of the Non-Cooperation Movement under Gandhiji’s leadership in 1920. Why was the Movement suspended ? [10]
(b) How did the Swaraj Party carry on the anti- British struggle after the suspension of the Non-Cooperation Movement ? [6]

Question 5.
(a) Why was Lord Mountbatten sent to India ? What were the main features of the Mountbatten Plan ? [6]
(b) Why did the Congress agree to the proposal for partition of the country ? [10]
Answer:
(a) In 1945, the Labour Party, under Clement Atlee, came to power in England. Lord Wavell was summoned to England and informed that Britain had made up its mind to quit India. The British Government sent a Cabinet Mission to India with the intention to solve the Indian angle. No agreement could be reached as the differences between the Congress and the Muslim League were found to be irreconciliable. Since no agreement appeared in sight between the two parties, the Mission put forward its own plan.

An Interim Government was proposed. This Government was not functioning well due to non-cooperation of the Muslim League. The country was passing through communal riots at different places. The situation suddenly changed when Clement Atlee announced in the British Parliament on 20 February, 1947 that the Government would transfer power to the Indians not later than June 1948. Lord Mountbatten now came to India to take charge as Viceroy and Governor-General from Lord Wavell.

It is in this background that Lord Mountbatten took charge as Viceroy in March 1947. Main features of his plan which was announced on June 3,1947 :
Creation of a separate state of Pakistan was conceded. Congress’ concerns for the unity were to be given paramount importance. A seperate constituent assembly for Pakistan to frame its constitution was to be made.

An early transfer of power to two Dominion states of India and Pakistan was to be done. Early transfer of power was sought to ensure Congress agreement for Dominion status as also to escape responsibility for escalating communal situation.

The fate of NWFP was to be decided through a referendum. If was left to the princely states to decide as to which Dominion they would like to join or to remain independent. A boundary commission were to determine the boundaries of Punjab, Bengal and Assam which were slated to be divided between the two Dominions.

(b) Why Congress accepted the Partition :
The partition of India was a part of the Mountbatten Plan, which was announced on June 3, 1947. The plan was accepted by both Congress and Muslim League for different reasons.
The Congress accepted the plan of partition due to following reasons :
Due to communal riots the situation was taking a worst turn. In order to avoid further bloodshed among Hindus and Muslims, Congress accepted the partition of India.

The experience of working with the Muslim League had convinced the Congress that the League had aimed at the Interim Government to obstruct and not to cooperate and that having a joint administration with the League was not feasible.

The only alternative of partition was a federation with a weak center which could not face disruptive forces. After Partition, a smaller India with a strong center was more desirable.

The Congress leaders felt that the partition would remove separate electorate and many undemocratic procedures which were implemented due to the demand of the Muslim League.

If the Congress would have not accepted the Partition, the transfer of power would have been delayed, which may have plugged India into another civil war and disintegration of country.

Question 6.
(a) Explain the contribution of Sardar Patel in the reorganization and integration of the princely states with special reference to Hyderabad and Junagarh. [10]
(b) What is the full form of NAM ? Explain the main principles of the Panchsheel which was adopted at the Bandung Conference ? [6]
Answer:
(a) Sardar Patel handled effectively the integration of the princely states with his diplomatic skills and foresightedness.
Sardar Patel took charge of the states department in July 1947. He sensed the urgent and imperative need of the integration of princely states. He followed an iron-handed policy. He made it clear that he did not recognize the right of any state to remain independent and in isolation, within India.

He handled the Junagarh and Hyderabad crisis as a seasoned statesman. Nawab of Junagarh wanted to accede to Pakistan. When the people revolted, Patel intervened. Indian Government took over the administration. Patel merged it with India by holding a plebiscite.

Patel with an iron-fisted hand subdued the Nizam. When the Nizam boasted anti-India feelings and let loose a blood bath by the Razakars, Patel decided upon police action. He ordered the army to March into Hyderabad. The Nizam surrendered and Hyderabad was acceded to India.

Thus, Sardar Patel ensured, by his calculated methods, the absorption of a multitude of princely states into the Indian Union. Without a civil war, he secured the solidarity of the nation.

(b) NAM stands for Non-Aligned Movement. The term “non-alignment” was coined by Indian Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru during his speech in 1954 in Colombo, Sri Lanka. In this speech, Nehru described the five pillars to be used as a guide for Sino-Indian relations, which were first put forth by Chinese Premier, Zhou Enlai called Panchsheel (five restraints). These principles would later serve as the basis of the Non-Aligned Movement.

A significant milestone in the development of this movement was the 1955 Bandung Conference, a conference of Asian and African states hosted by Indonesian President, Sukarno. Sukarno has given a significant contribution to promote this movement. The attending nations declared their desire not to become involved in the Cold War and adopted a “declaration on promotion of world peace and cooperation”, which included Nehru’s five principles :

• Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty.
• Mutual non-aggression.
• Mutual non-interference in domestic affairs.
• Equality and mutual benefit.
• Peaceful co-existence.

Six years after Bandung conference an initiative of Yugoslav president Tito led to the first official Non-Aligned Movement Summit, which was held in September 1961 in Belgrade.

Section—B

Question 7.
(a) Explain how Mussolini came to power in Italy in 1922 with reference to :
(i) The march on Rome (Oct. 1922).
(ii) The role of the Italian king, Victor Emmanuel III. [6]
(b) Discuss any five important features of the Italian Fascist State under Mussolini. [10]

Question 8.
(a) State the main aims of Hitler’s foreign policy. [10]
(b) Discuss the various successful events of Hitler’s foreign policy between 1933 and 1938. [6]
Answer 8.
(a) The main aims of the Hitler’s policy were :
(i) To destroy the Treaty of Versailles imposed on Germany after her defeat in World War One. Hitler felt the Treaty was unfair and most Germans supported this view.

(ii) To unite all German speakers together in one country. After World War One there were Germans living in many countries in Europe e.g., Austria, Czechoslovakia and Poland. Hitler hoped that by uniting them together in one country he would create a powerful Germany or Grossdeutschland.

(iii) To expand eastwards into the East (Poland, Russia) to gain land for Germany.

(iv) Hitler protested at the fact that the Allies had not disarmed after World War and he left the disarmament conference and the League of Nations in 1933. He intensified the programme of secret rearmament.

(v) To exalt nationalism.

(vi) To advocate the rule by a great leader from a single party.

(vii) To uphold the racial supremacy of the Germans and to have hatred for the Jews.

(b) In 1934, Germany and Poland concluded an alliance, the first of his infamous ten year non aggression pacts. This caused a surprise in Europe at the time. The alliance broke Germany’s diplomatic isolation while also weakening France’s series of anti-German alliances in Eastern Europe. For the next five years Poland and Germany were to enjoy cordial relations. However, like many of his agreements, this was a tactical move and Hitler had no intention of honoring the agreement in the long term. In January 1935, the Saar voted to return to Germany.

This region had been placed under the control of the League of Nations by the Treaty of Versailles. This allowed the French to exploit its coalfields for 15 years. The vote to return to Germany was supported by over 90%. It was a major propaganda boost for Hitler who could claim that his policies had the backing of the German people.

Under the Treaty of Versailles the Germans were forbidden to erect fortifications or station troops in the Rhineland or within 50 kilometers of the right bank of the river. In 1935 when Mussolini attacked Ethiopia, Hitler ignored international protests and supported Mussolini. This ended Germany’s international isolation and the Italians signaled their acceptance of German influence in Austria and the eventual remilitarization of the Rhineland.

In June 1936, the Spanish Civil War broke out. Both Hitler and Mussolini sent aid to General Franco who was fighting against the popularly elected Government of Spain. This closer co¬operation between the two Fascist dictators led to an alliance known as the Rome-Berlin Axis. It was an agreement to pursue a joint foreign policy. Both agreed to stop the spread of communism in Europe. This relationship became closer in 1939 with the signing of “The Pact of Steel”.

In February 1938, the Austrian Prime Minister, Schuschnigg met Hitler at Berchtesgaden in the Alps. At the meeting the Austrian chancellor was threatened and was forced to place leading Austrian Nazis in his Government.

On his return to Austria, Schuschnigg tried to stop spreading German influence by calling a referendum. This enraged Hitler and Schuschnigg was forced to resign. German troops “were invited in” by the new Nazi Prime Minister, Seyss-Inquart.

Question 9.
(a) Explain how the following events led to the collapse of international order in 1930’s :
(i) The Japanese conquest of Manchuria. [6]
(ii) The Italian conquest of Abyssinia. [6]
(b) Why did Britain and France choose to follow the Appeasement Policy that hastened the outbreak of the Second World War ? [4]
Answer 9.
(a) (ii) In 1896 Italian army was defeated in the battle of Adowa while Italy tried to conquer the region. Italy wanted to wipe out the humiliation of defeat at Adowa.

Italy’s existing colonies Eritrea and Somaliland were not very rewarding. Italy thus needed colonies for more space, more food for her growing population and more markets for Italy’s exports.

Italy and Germany equally suffered from the great depression. The League of Nations declared Italy as aggressor and applied economic embargo, but Mussolini defied the league and declared king victor Emmanuel as the emperor of Abyssinia in 1936.

Taking advantage of Italy’s Abyssinia attack, Germany sent troops to the demilitarized zone of Rhineland and violated the treaty of Versailles.
Italy now realized the helpless condition of Britain and France in international politics.

Question 10.
The period after the Second World War was marked by tension and cooperation. In this context, discuss the following :
(a) The Berlin Blockade. [6]
(b) The Cuban Missile Crisis. [6]
(c) The role of the UN in the Korean War. [4]
Answer 10.
(a) The Berlin Blockade (June 1948 to May 1949) by Russia brought the cold war to its climax. At the Yalta and Potsdam, it was agreed by the Allied Powers that Germany and Berlin would be divided into four zones, each under America, Britain, France and Russia. First three powers did their best to organise the economic and political recovery of their respective zones. But Russia treated the zone its satellite and drained its resources towards Russian development.

In 1948, the three zones merged together and formed a single economic unit. With the help of the Marshall Plan, the three zones had developed economically in contrast to the poverty of the Russian zone. The Western Powers wanted four zones to be reunited again. But the State wanted to keep the Russian zone separate, because the reunited three zones would be a part of the Western Bloc thus, threatening Russia to a great extend.

In June 1948, the Western Powers introduced a new currency and ended price control in their respective zones and in West Berlin. But the Russian authority was not in a position to have two different currencies in the same city. Actually Berlin city was situated within East Germany. Moreover, they were embarrassed by

the central between the prosperity of West Berlin and the poverty of the surrounding areas. Russia then closed all roads, rail and canal links between West Berlin and West Germany. In this situation, the Western Powers decided to send food supply through aeroplanes to the blocked area for the next ten months. In May 1949, Russia was compelled to withdraw the blockade. The result was not be relation of the Western Powers with Russia reached the worst ever. The West Bloc then decided to form the NATO in April 1949, for the coordination of their defence. It thus, became clear that Germany would remain divided in future

(c) While the UN did not participate in the decision making process of the military campaign carried out in its name, it played a role then and continues to play a role by allowing the US Government to appropriate the United Nations name as a camouflage cover for the actions of the US Government. The UN authorized Member States to intervene in the Korean War, to form the “Unified Command”, to use the UN flag along with the flags of the member states participating in the “Unified Command”, and it authorized the US to appoint a Commander in Chief for the “Unified Command”.

Under pressure from the US, the UN failed to exercise its obligation to supervise the actions of the “Unified Command”. Subsequently, the UN continues to evade fulfilling its obligations by continuing to allow the US to claim that it is the “United Nations Command” in Korea and in failing to provide its political supervision over what the US has done and continues to do in Korea in the name of the UN.

Question 11.
(a) Give a brief account of the conflict in Palestine after the First World War and explain how it led to the outbreak of the Arab- Israel War in 1948. [4]
(b) Discuss the causes and results of the Yom Kippur War (1973). [8]
(c) Why did the Egyptians and Israelis agree to start negotiations in 1978 to resolve their differences ? Who acted as the mediator ? [4]
Answer 11.
(a) With the outbreak of World War I, the British Government decided to drive away the Turks from Arabia and the Middle-east. The Ottoman Sultan was an ally of Germany. The British agents contacted the Grand Sheriff King Hussain of Mecca to give a call to the faithful Muslims to wage a Jihad against the Turks. The British Government promised king Hussain independent Arabia after the end of the war. Consequently, the Arabs joined the British against the Turks.

Though Pan Arab nationalism swept the Arab World but, Hussain failed to get what he and his people wished.
On the other hand as the Jews were persecuted by the Christians in Europe, they were determined to protect their nationalism and regain their lost homeland in Palestine. With the outbreak of the First World War, the British Government faced severe economic crisis and approached great Jewish bankers for loan and subsidy. Under pressure from the Jewish Congress, in return for this loan, Lord Balfour made a public declaration in the Parliament, “His Majesty’s Government views with favour the establishment in Palestine of a national home for the Jewish people and will use their best endeavour to facilitate the object.” The Balfour Declaration of 1917 was highly contradictory to the Hussain- Macmohan correspondence. This mutually contradictory diplomacy of the British lay at the root of the Palestine problem.

After the First World War, Arab territories were mostly divided between Britain and France as mandated territories under the nominal authority of the League of Nations. Palestine became a British mandate. Its administration fell upon Britain.

When the question of conflicting pledges was raised at the League of Nations, Britain cleverly pointed out that there was really no duplicity and conflict. If they promised Arabia to Hussain, Palestine was certainly not included in the pledge. The name of Palestine was not mentioned in the Hussain-Macmohan letters. If a homeland was assured to the Jews, it meant a part, not the whole of Palestine.

Due to the Arab-Jewish rift, the British Government began to seek ways and means to solve the Palestine problem. In 1936, a Royal Commission under Peel was appointed in Palestine, which reported that Palestine should ‘ be partitioned into two small Jewish states-the holy places were to be kept under British mandate and the rest was to be annexed to Jordan. This proposal was outrightly rejected by the Arab leaders and partly rejected by the Jews. Meanwhile, the Second World War broke out.

The clever Zionist leaders became aware that America had emerged as a centre of world politics after the war. They shifted the headquarters of the Zionist movement from London to New York. Five million Jewish Americans supported the claim for a Jewish homeland and no American politician could ignore 5 million votes. So, both the Democrat and Republican parties became sympathetic to the Jewish cause. In a Zionist Congress at New York, the Jews demanded :

1. Declaration of a Jewish state in Palestine.
2. Formation of a Jewish voluntary force.
3. Free, unfettered entry of Jews in Palestine. After the New York Zionist Conference, Britain informed the U.N.O. that she would withdraw her troops and officials from Palestine by 1948.

To resolve this problem, an Anglo-American Commission was appointed. Its recommendations were rejected by both Arabs and Jews. At this point, the Jewish terrorism was intensified. On Nov. 19, 1947, the U.N.O. decided to partition Palestine on the lines laid down by the Royal Commission, the Zionist leaders accepted the proposal but the Arabs rejected it. The U.N.O. sent a commission to fix the boundary of the new Jewish state. On Aug. 1, 1948, the Zionists declared the birth of the state of Israel on the lines laid by the U.N. Commission with Dr. Chain Wise men as the President and David Ben Gurion as the Prime Minister. The United States granted recognition to the new state within a day and the Soviet Union followed it. Britain and other countries did not delay in granting recognition. Thus, the state of Israel was bom with violence and the Arab-Israeli conflict continues from 1948 to the present date.

(c) After the Yom Kippur war, the Egyptian president Sadat became convinced that Israel could not be destroyed by force and it was a foolish thought to keep on wasting the sources of Egypt in fruitless wars.

Israel also had a number of economic problems due to their enormous defense expenditure and world recession. America also pressed Israel to settle their disputes with at least some of the Arab states.

The US President Jimmy Carter took the initiative for a formal negotiation between the two countries at a place called Camp David near Washington. The treaty was finally signed in March 1979.

ISC Class 12 History Previous Year Question Papers

ISC History Previous Year Question Paper 2013 Solved for Class 12

Maximum Marks: 80
Time allowed: Three hours

• Candidates are allowed additional 15 minutes for only reading the paper. They must NOT start writing during this time.
• Answer Question 1 (Compulsory) from Part I and five questions from Part II, choosing two questions from Section A, two
• questions from Section B and one question from either Section A or Section B.
• The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Part—I
Answer all questions

Question 1. [20]
(i) Who laid the foundation of the Federation Hall in Bengal in 1905 ? What was its objective ?
(ii) Who was elected as the President of the Indian National Congress in Surat in 1907?
(iii) Give any one example of Sir Sayyid Ahmad’s efforts to spread Western sciences and culture among the Indian Muslims.
(iv) Why were the Indian Muslims critical of the British after the First World War?
(v) What was the most significant provision of the Nehru Report ?
(vi) What was the significance of the Khilafat Movement ?
(vii) Where did Gandhiji ’s first experiment with Satyagraha (1917) take place?
(viii) Why did the British authorities arrest the Congress leaders on 9th August, 1942?
(ix) What was the objective of setting up the All Indian States People’s Conference?
(x) Give any one reason for India’s decision to follow the policy of Non-Align-ment.
(xi) Which event led to hyper inflation in Germany in 1923 ?
(xii) What is the significance of the Night of the Long Knives incident ?
(xiii) Why did the property owners in Italy support the Fascists ?
(xiv) How did Hitler use the Reichstag Fire incident to strengthen his position?
(xv) Give one example of Anglo-French appeasement of Hitler.
(xvi) Why was the battle of Britain regarded as the first major turning point of the Second World War ?
(xvii) Which event during the Cold War marked the completion of the Iron Curtain in Europe in 1948 ?
(xviii) In what way was the establishment of NATO a reversal of America’s foreign policy ?
(xix) Why did the General Assembly adopt the ‘Uniting for Peace Resolution’ ?
(xx) What was the immediate reaction of the Arab States to the creation of the new State of Israel in 1948 ?
Answer:
(viii) To prevent the ‘Quit India Movement’ the British authorities arrested Gandhiji and all Congress leaders on 9 August, 1942.

(ix) The objective of setting up the All India States People’s Conference was to coordinate political activities in different states.

(x) One reason for India’s decision to follow the policy of Non-Alignment was the Desire for Nationalism.

(xv) By treaty of Versailles, Rhineland had been declared demilitarized zone, ignoring this clause of the treaty, Germany occupied Rhineland. At this point England and France would have taught Hitler a lesson. Instead they gave Hitler a chance to increase his power at home.

(xvi) The Battle of Britain was a turning point in World War II as it gave Germany the superiority over Britain and would have opened the door for the German invasion.

(xvii) Czechoslovakia was the only remaining democratic country in Eastern Europe. It was hoped that it would form a bridge between the East and the West but the communist coup ended hope. The Iron Curtain was complete.

(xviii) NATO was a reversal of America’s foreign policy because of America’s historic policy of shunning, entangling European alliances and attempting to steer clear of old World conflicts.

(xix) The General Assembly adopted the ‘Uniting for Peace Resolution’ because Security Council failed to exercise its primary responsibility for the mainte-nance of international Peace and Security.

(xx) The immediate reaction of the Arab states to
the creation of the new state of Israel in 1948 was that the Arab-Israeli war of 1948 broke out when five Arab nations invaded territory in the former Palestinian mandate immediately following the announcement of the independence of the state of Israel on May 14,1948.

Part-II

Section-A

Question 2.
Various factors were responsible for the rise of radical nationalism in India in the early years of the 20th century. In this context, explain the following :
(a) The contributions of Tilak in popularizing radical nationalistic ideas. [6]
(b) The impact of Curzon ’s policies on the rapid growth of Radical Nationalism. [4]
(c) The growth of revolutionary dispositions (1904-1907). [6]

Question 3.
(a) Discuss the events leading to the establishment of the Muslim League with reference to the following: [10]
(i) The Hindi-Urdu controversy.
(ii) The demands of the Shimla deputation.
(b) State three important objectives of the Muslim League when it was formed. What was the British government’s attitude towards the League ? [6]

Question 4.
(a) Why was the Simon Commission sent to India in 1927 ? How did the Indians react to it ? [4]
(b) Give an account of the significance, events and developments of the Civil Disobedience Movement from the Dandi March in 1930 to the signing of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact in 1931. [8]
(c) Highlight the main features of the Gandhi Irwin Pact that led to the suspension of the Civil Disobedience Movement. [4]

Question 5.
(a) Several changes in circumstances after the end of the war in 1945, led to a change in the attitude of the British Government towards India. Explain. [6]
(b) State the main provisions of the Cabinet Mission Plan. [6]
(c) How did the League react to the proposals of the Cabinet Mission Plan. [4]
Answer:
(a) Although Germany and Japan were defeated in the Second World War, the towering imperial power of Great Britain had also weakened. The Soviet Union and the USA emerged as the two great powers in the World. There was a common anti-imperialist feeling all over the Asian colonies, including India. The Congress, though banned by the Government in 1942, had gained more popularity. Quit India was the main agenda of its campaigns. The threat of the movement was always hovering over the Government. People were in a mood to do or die. There were regular strikes protesting against unemployment, price-hike and food shortage. It looked as if the country was going to face another famine. Nehru declared “If people die of hunger, their deaths will be revenged.”

The new struggle took the form of a massive movement against the trial of the INA soldiers, all over India. These soldiers were considered as war heroes. Hindus and Muslims united in protest against the seven years rigorous punishment passed on Abdul Rashid. Hundreds of people died while protesting against the trial. Finally, the Government had to quash the decision and remit the three INA officers.

The explosive situation, which had developed in India after the war, continued till 1946. Hundreds of non-industrial workers, bank employees, post and telegraph workers participated in the agitation. Railway men also threatened to go on a strike.

On February 18, 1946, the ratings of the Royal Indian Navy in Mumbai openly revolted against the miserable service conditions, poor meals, racial discrimination and arrogance of their British officers. Within 48 hours, the strike spread to naval bases all over the country. The Congress and League flags were hoisted on the ships. The mutineers, led by the naval strike committee, renamed the Royal Indian Navy as the Indian National Navy.

The Government threatened them with serious consequences. When they returned to their respective ships and barracks on February 20, they found themselves cordoned off b y armed guards. A pitched-battle broke out between the British army, police and the RIN strikers. The cause of the ratings evoked tremendous support from the people.

On February 22, the Mumbai working class, already agitated over ration cuts, called for a general strike. All textile mills, railway workshops and city transport closed down. Hindu and Muslims, students and workers also supported the naval mutiny. Violent street fighting and serious clashes took place on February 22 and 23. Karachi remained disturbed throughout the month of February. About 300 people were killed and 1500 injured in Mumbai on 22nd and 23rd February.

However, the strike was called off on 23rd when Sardar Patel and Jinnah urged the mutineers to lay down their arms. While surrendering they declared, “We surrender to India and not to Britain.” The INA episode and the Naval Mutiny had bridged the gap between the people and armed forces and both found themselves on the common platform fighting for the cause of freedom.

Though the Quit India Movement and the strikes were called off, they clearly revealed the strong determination of the Indian people to do away with the British rule. The British had never faced such an opposition before. They realised that it was no longer possible to hold India by force. In a letter to Churchill, Lord Wavell had pointed out, “It would be impossible to hold India by force after the war… it would in fact be wise to start negotiation before the end of the war.”

The people in England were also fed up of the struggle. They wanted the Government to concentrate on internal reconstruction and problems created by the war. As a result, Winston Churchill who was determined to hold on to the British Colonies, was voted out of power and Labour party leader, Clement Attlee was elected as Prime Minister in 1945. It had become clear that the British would have to leave India sooner or later.

Conclusion : Finally, the Quit India Movement and the stiff opposition to British rule by the people of India had created a strong public opinion in foreign countries in favour of India. America and China were specially influenced by the tide of this revolution. The American President, Roosevelt, wrote to the Chinese Prime Minister that the best policy for the English would be to grant independence to the people of India as soon as possible.

(b) The Cabinet Mission Plan : In the absence of any agreed solution, the Cabinet Mission announced its own recommendations on 16 May, 1946.
These recommendation are known as the Cabinet Mission Plan which included :
A Union of India, embracing both British India and the Princely States, would deal with three subjects namely, defence, foreign affairs and communication and would have the powers necessary to raise the finance required for the above subjects.

All subjects other than the union subjects and all residuary powers would rest with the provinces of British India.

The Princely States would also retain all subjects other than those ceded to the Union.

Provinces would be free to form groups and each group would be free to decide the provincial subjects to be held in common. The three groups proposed were :

• Madras, Bombay, United Provinces, Bihar, Central Province and Orissa.
• Punjab, North-West Frontier Province and Sindh.
• Bengal and Assam.

A province could opt out of the group if the majority of the members of its legislature so decided.

The new constitution was also to contain a provision that any province might call for the amendment or reconsideration of the Constitution after the initial period of ten years and a ten year interval thereafter.

It provided for Constituent Assembly to draw up the future constitution of the country. The Constituent Assembly was to consist of 389 members, 292 from British India and 93 from Princely States and 4 members represented the Chief Commissioners’ Provinces.

To carry on the country’s administration while the Constitution making was proceeding, an interim Government having the support of the major political parties would be set up.

(c) Both the Congress and the Muslim League . were quite ambivalent in their reaction to the Cabinet Mission proposals. While certain ambiguities remained unsolved, the Mission left for Britain on 29 June, 1946 in exasperation without satisfying either the Congress or the Muslim League. However, later both the Congress and the Muslim league accepted the proposals of the Cabinet Mission Plan. Subsequently, the Interim Government was formed and the elections to the Constituent Assembly were also held in September 1946.

Question 6.
(a) Discuss the origin of the Kashmir problem and the events that culminated in its accession to the Indian Union. [6]
(b) Give a brief account of the conflict between India and Pakistan that arose as a result of partition, with specific reference to the following: [10]
(i) Indus waters dispute.
(ii) Refugee problem.
Answer:
(a) The heavenly state Kashmir has always been a trouble spot for India since independence. It has consumed a lot of lives, time, money and resources of India and Pakistan. Number of Wars were fought between two countries on this issue. However, no solution of this problem could be found till date. The origin of this problem started with the partition of Indian sub-continent along religious lines which led to the formation of India, Pakistan and East Pakistan which later became Bangladesh.

The State of Jammu and Kashmir can be subdivided into three major regions:

• Kashmir
• Jammu
• Ladakh.

However, majority of the people living in Jammu and Kashmir were Muslims and it was ruled by a Hindu ruler, Maharaja Hari Singh. After Independence, Maharaja Hari Singh was unable to decide which nation should Kashmir join or whether it should remain independent. The National Conference Party under the leadership of Sheikh Abdullah, however, started an agitation for popular Government. On the other hand, Pakistan dashed all hopes on Maharaja Hari Singh to remain independent and started military campaign in Kashmir. Gradually, Pakistani invaders reached Baramula and Srinagar. Maharaja Hari Singh was left with no other option.

He appealed for military assistance to Indian Government. Then, Jawaharlal Nehru, Indian Prime Minister accepted his appeal and thus, Instrument of Accession was signed and Kashmir was ceded to India. India sent its military force and thus, first war was fought between India and Pakistan over Kashmir. India referred this matter to UNO and the intervention of UNO brought the war to an end. Though Kashmir was integrated to India, a large portion is still under Pakistan administration. The ceasefire line which was agreed under UN supervision has been named as ‘Line of Control’. Around one third of the territory is under Pakistan administration and rest under India. However, Pakistan still considers Kashmir as its territory and thus, continues to fight proxy war.

(b) The relationship between India and Pakistan was never cordial since its formation after partition of Indian sub-continent. Both the countries suffered a lot and fought several wars from 1947 to 1965. However, Kashmir remained the main issue of dispute. Pandit Nehru and successive leaders tried to improve the relations between India and Pakistan, but all failed. Among all issued, Indus water dispute and Refugee problem were the two most important issues of disputes.

Indus waters dispute : Indus waters dispute started over sharing of the Indus river, water and some of its tributaries for irrigation purpose and became an important issue between India and Pakistan. After partition, India got only five million acre of land out of 28 million irrigated by Indus water and its tributaries like Ravi, the Beas and the Satluj. Pakistani canals were solely dependent on the eastern rivers flowing through East Punjab for their supplies. On the other hand, India wanted to utilise water of the eastern river for agriculture.

As a result, Indus water became an important issue of dispute. However, dispute was settled through the intervention of Eugene Black, the President of World Bank. Indus Water Treaty was signed on 19th September, 1960. Pandit Nehru went to Karachi and signed the treaty. However, Indian people were not happy because it was a one sided agreement and India got small share in comparison to Pakistan. Moreover, India was supposed to contribute ? 83.3 crores for the construction work to Pakistan. Pandit Nehru however, considered it as a remarkable agreement and thus wanted to settle problems with Pakistan.

Refugee problem : Indian sub-continent was divided on the religious line. Muslim majority became Pakistan and Hindu majority became India. While, India was established as a secular state, Pakistan decided to be an Islamic republic. The reports of maltreatment oyer the minorities on either side started causing bilateral problems among India and Pakistan. Pandit Nehru and Pakistan Prime Minister, Liaquat Ali Khan, held talks on April, 1950 to resolve the minorities problem and an agreement was reached.

This agreement gave constitutional guarantees for minorities and promised the retum/transfer of refugees and recovery of abducted women. It was also assured freedom of movements and protection during travel to the migrants. Due to this pact, refugee migration dropped to some extent. However, it was increased again with the influx of Hindus from East Pakistan in 1951. Throughout late fifties and early sixties refugees continued to cross over to India. It was becoming a serious problem for Indo-Pak relation. In 1971 there was a massacre and large number of people were killed. This lead to a war between India and Pakistan. Eventually, Pakistan conceded defeat and Bangladesh was formed.

Section-B

Question 7 .
By the end of 1932, the Weimar Republic seemed to be on the verge of collapse. Meanwhile, Hitler and the Nazis had been carrying out a propaganda campaign setting out Nazi solutions to the problems. In this context, answer the following :
(a) What were the economic problems facing the Weimar Republic. [8]
(b) What made the Nazis so popular ? [8]

Question 8.
(a) Describe the changes in Mussolini’s foreign policy towards Germany from 1934 to 1940. [10]
(b) How did Mussolini’s involvement in World War II eventually lead to his downfall? [6]
Answer:
(a) This apparent alienation in Europe drove Mussolini even further to Hitler. Mussolini referred to Italy and Germany being the most influential countries in Europe and that all the rest of Europe would revolve around this “axis”.

In September 1937, Mussolini visited . Germany. Hitler put on a major display of military power for Mussolini and by the end of the visit; Mussolini became convinced that Germany was the power he should ally with. He was sure that an alliance with Germany would lead to Italy becoming more powerful throughout Europe. As Germany had left the League of Nations in 1933, so Mussolini left the League in 1937 after the League had imposed economic sanctions on Italy for the invasion of Abyssinia.

In 1938, Germany occupied Austria in the Aeschylus (forbidden by Versailles). Hitler did . not forewarn Mussolini about what he was going to do and this upset Mussolini’s belief that he was an equal partner. However, there was nothing Mussolini could do about the Nazi occupation of Austria and it was clear from 1938 on that Mussolini was definitely the minor partner in the relationship.

Hitler’s invasion of Czechoslovakia in March 1939 angered Mussolini because it was clear that Germany was carving out its own empire and Italy was not.
In May 1939, the Germans and Italians cemented their friendship with the Pact of Steel. This pact committed both countries to support the other if one of them became involved in a war.

On September 1st, 1939, Nazi Germany invaded Poland. Hitler had informed Mussolini what his plans were and fully expected Italian help. Mussolini, for all his boasts, realized that the Italian Army was not up to fighting in September 1939. Therefore, the Italians did not join in the German attack despite the Pact of Steel.

(b) Mussolini was misled by the Germans into thinking that the war led by the allied forces would not start until the mid-1940s. He was taken by surprise, however, when Hitler unexpectedly started the war in 1939, just months after becoming allied with Italy. Since Mussolini’s military was ill prepared and worn down from previous battles that they had fought, he was forced to stay out of the war when it began. The next year, in 1940, however, he got his country’s troops involved in the war, but Italian forces were quickly defeated when they attempted to take over African and Greek regions.

In 1942, Mussolini tried to encourage Hitler to ally with Stalin to strengthen the Axis forces even further, but these attempts failed and the Italian dictator began losing power in his country. After Mussolini was ousted from power, Hitler employed him as a puppet dictator where he continued making war plans for Hitler and facilitated German military actions. In 1945, the Germans surrendered to the Italian forces and Mussolini was killed.

Question 9.
(a) What were Hitler’s motives for the invasion of Russia in 1941 ? Give a brief account of the invasion and Hitler’s failure to achieve his objective by the end of 1941. [6]
(b) Why did Japan attack Pearl Harbor in 1941 ? What was its significance ? [6]
(c) Mention any two important reasons for Japan’s defeat in the Second World War. [4]
Answer:
(a) There were a number of reasons for Hitler’s attack on Russia:
Hitler hated Russia for introduction of communist rule. He hated communism from the bottom of his heart.
Hitler apprehended that Russia might attack Germany while Germany would be pre-occupied in the war in the west.
Hitler thought that Japan would attack Russia in the Far East.
Above all, there was his strong hatred for communism and his desires for lebensraum or living space.

Course of the attack : This campaign of Germany was known as the operation Barbarossa which started on 22 June, 1941. Hitler made an elaborate arrangement for the invasion of Russia from three sides- Leningrad, Moscow and Ukraine. Within short time, German army advanced within the striking distance of Leningrad and Moscow, but was held up by Russian resistance. Germans reached Stalingrad and destroyed all bridges factories, etc.

Reasons for the failure : The German army officers severely underestimated their opponent. One of the important causes of the German failure was their faulty planning. The greatest mistake the Germans made was that they came as conqueror, not as a liberator against communist oppression.
(b) The only military force that Japan had to fear was the US pacific fleet based at Pearl Harbor in Hawaii, so on December 7th, 1941, Japan ordered aerial attack on the Pearl Harbor.
It was significant because :
Japan destroyed important airfields of USA and 3700 people were killed. On December 8th, 1941, the USA joined the war halting the Japanese advance.

The Americans started their offensive against . Japan to liberate the islands in the south-west pacific by using Island hopping. By this policy the allied forces secured some islands which had strategic value like an airfield. By this policy of hopping some island to island, the distance to Japan was shortened, established forward land bases and cut off Japanese supply line. On August 6th and 9th USA dropped atom . bombs on Nagasaki and Hiroshima, Japan surrendered unconditionally and world war-II came to an end.
(c) The American forces destroyed a number of Japanese carriers and about 330 planes. Midway proved to be a crucial turning point in the battle for the pacific. The loss of ammunitions and strike planes weakened the Japanese.

By this policy of hopping some island to island, the distance to Japan was shortened, established forward land bases and cut off Japanese supply line.

Question 10.
(a) Discuss the reasons for the thaw in the Cold War in the 1950s. Give examples to show that the thaw was only partial. [6]
(b) What led to a permanent relaxation of tensions (detente) in the 1970s. [4]
(c) Why did many European world leaders develop the idea of greater cooperation and unity in Western Europe after World War II ? [6]
Answer:
(a) The thaw was related to the East-West relationship in early 1950s. The reasons of thaw in the Cold War of 1950s can be described in two points :

The death of Stalin : The death of Stalin was probably the starting point of the thaw. The new Russian leaders like Malenkov, Bulganin and Khrushchev wanted to improve relationship with USA. The probable cause was the manufacture of more nuclear weapons by both the countries in August 1953, Russia and America had developed hydrogen bombs and both sides were so nicely balanced that if there was international tension, nuclear war could not be avoided.
In his famous speech of February 1956 over the new policy of Russia, Nikita Khrushchev criticized Stalin and said that ‘peaceful co-existence’ with west was essential. There are two ways—either peaceful co-existence or the most destructive war in history.

There was no third way’. This never means that Khrushchev had given up his idea or dream of communist world. He wanted to achieve this by showing superior economic system of Russia to western powers. He was also hopeful of winning neutral states by Lavish economic aid.

McCarthy Discredited : Anti-communist feeling in America started decreasing when McCarthy was discredited in 1954. Actually, McCarthy had stirred up anti-communist feeling in America. When he began to accuse leading generals of having sympathy for the communists, the American senate condem-ned him. It clearly showed that America’s policy towards Russia had been changed. The Republican President, Eisenhower, announced that the American people wanted to be friendly with the Soviet people.
Thaw was only partial. This can be shown by the following examples :

• The Warsaw Pact of 1955 between Russianand her satellite states shortly introduction of Germany into NATO.
• Russia continued building of nuclear armaments.
• Shooting down of American U-2 spy plane by Russia thousand of miles inside its territory and subsequently defending the act by American president caused more tension. Russia wanted the withdrawal of western powers, from Berlin, while America denied it. This also caused more tension.
• The most provocating was the installation of Soviet missiles in Cuba less than hundred miles from American coast.

(b) The word ‘detente’ is used to mean a permanent relaxation of tensions between East and West. The major reasons of permanent relaxation of tension or detente were as follows:
Due to the build up of nuclear arsenals by both Russia and America, there was increasing fear of the catastrophe of nuclear war where no one will be the real winner. On the other hand, Russia wanted to reduce their defense budget so as to increase standard of living of their people along with the satellite states. Moreover, Russia never wanted to be isolated when the relationship of China and America was improving.

America began to realize that their way of coping with communism brought little success for them. They were clear on this fact that military power could achieve very little. So, some congressmen and senators started talks of ‘Isolationism’.

American intention in Vietnam made China more anxious. Moreover, they were not happy about their worsening relationship with USSR.

Nations of western Europe were worried as they would be in forefront of possible nuclear war. Policy known as ‘Ostpolitik’ was worked out by Willy Brandt, Chancellor of the West Germany so as to improve relations with countries of Eastern Europe.

(c) After World War II, European leaders brought together Russia, England and America. They formed Allied force with other countries and eventually Axis force was defeated. However, the war time unity among the Allied powers was lost. They failed to come to an agreement about the terms and conditions to be imposed on Germany. Russia wanted to have a Government in Germany where communists would take lead. But America and England favored otherwise. In such a difference of opinions, Russia and western powers took different steps and this resulted in creation of two German states, namely Federal Republic of Western Germany and German Democratic Republic in the East.

The gradual deterioration in the relationship between Russian and western powers brought European leaders together and developed the idea of greater cooperation. The chief objective behind the cooperation was to strengthen politically, economically and socially. The first step towards economic cooperation took place after Benelux Customs convention of 1944. The Signatory Governments of this convention agreed upon free trade. Moreover, to finance European countries, America sponsored the ‘Economic Cooperation Act’ in 1948 and in 1960 this organisation was transformed into ‘Organisation for European Economic Cooperation and Development’.

The Cold war of America and Russia also brought European countries together. The North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO) formed on April 4,1949 was also a step that brought together America, Britain, France, Italy, Canada, Belgium, Denmark, Luxembourg, Norway, Portugal, Iceland and Netherlands. It was a defense organisation against the Soviet Bloc.

Question 11.
(a) Discuss the causes and results of the Suez War in 1956. [10]
(b) What were the reasons for the Civil War in Lebanon in 1975 ? [6]
Answer 11.
(a) The Suez war was mainly fought between Israel and Egypt. It started with the invasion of Egypt by Israel through Sinai Peninsula on 29th October, 1956. Israel was supported by Britain and France who bombed Egypt through airfields and landed troops at the western end of Suez Canal. The main purpose of this war was to overthrow Colonel Nasser, the new ruler of Egypt. The Arabs blamed Israel, communist and many other Arab states blamed Britain and France accusing them of imperialist tactics and Britain blamed colonel Nasser for his anti-western approach. However, the different views on the causes of Suez war are discussed below :
Colonel Nasser, the new ruler of Egypt was in favor of Arab unity and independence including the liberation of Palestine from the Jews. Moreover, he did almost everything which could exasperate British, Americans and French :

• He organized guerrilla fighters, known as fedayeen to carry out sabotage and murder inside Israel. The Gulf of Aqaba was blockaded by an Egyptian ship, which was leading to the Israeli port of Eilat.
• An agreement which was signed by British and Egypt in 1936 that allowed British to keep troops at Suez. Colonel Nasser refused to renew this agreement and insisted the British troops to be withdrawn immediately.
• He supported the Algerian Arabs in their struggle against France, prodded the other Arab states into opposing British sponsored Baghdad Pact.
• He signed an arms deal with Czechoslovakia for Russian fighters, bombers and tanks.

The Americans were outraged over the arms supply by Russia to Egypt. They took it as a sinister plot by Russians to move into Middle-east. Thus, Egypt became a part of the cold war. Any country which was not a part of the western alliance and bought arms from Eastern Europe was considered as bad as a communist country in the American eyes. Americans, therefore, cancelled a promised grant of 46 million dollars towards the building of a dam. Their intention was to force Nasser to abandon his new links with Russia.

After cancellation of 46 million dollars aid for the construction of a dam, Nasser retaliated by nationalizing the Suez canal, intending to use the income from it to finance the dam project. However, he promised to provide compensation to the shareholders in the canal, the majority of whom were British and French.

Anthony Eden, the British Prime Minister could not digest nationalization of Suez canal by Egypt. He believed that Colonel Nasser was forming United Arabia under Egyption control and Communist influence which could cut off oil supplier for Europe. He started to view Nasser as another Hitler or Mussolini. However, he ignored this fact that Nasser offered them compensation and promised to allow ships of all nations.

Britain, French and Israel had a secret talk and a plan was hatched. According to the plan, Israel would invade Egypt across the Sinai peninsula, whereupon British and French troops would occupy the canal zone on the pretext that they were protecting it from damage in the fighting. Anglo-French control over the canal would be restored and it hoped that the defeat would topple Nasser from power.

Historians still believe that the war would have been avoided if the British Prime Minister had not come under the influence of MIG (British Intelligence Service) and Harold Macmillan (Chancellor of Exchequer).

The attack to Egypt caused an outcry from rest of the world. The Americans, who were afraid of upsetting the Arabs, who might opt to side with USSR, on the other hand refused to support Britain. At United Nations, America and Russia demanded an immediate ceasefire and prepared to send a UN force. With the pressure from all sides, Britain, France and Israel called off the war, while UN troops moved in to police the frontier between Israel and Egypt.

Outcome of War : The Suez war was a complete humiliation for Britain and France who achieved nothing. However, it was considered a triumph for Nasser. The outcomes of the war are as follows :

• The war failed to overthrow Colonel Nasser. As a result, his prestige as a leader of Arabs was increased. Arab people started to look at Nasser as a hero.
• The Egyptians blocked the canal and Arabs reduced oil supplies to Western Europe where petrol rationing was introduced for a time. Russian aid replaced that from the USA.
• Nuri-es-Said, premier of Iraq who was considered as one having pro-British attitude, soon came under attack and he was murdered in 1955. Thus, Britain lost Iraq as their ally.
• Britain was now weak and unable to follow any foreign policy independent of the USA.
• The Algerians got support in the struggle for independence from France which they achieved in 1962.
• On the other hand, Israel had some success. Although she had been compelled to hand back all captured territories, but she had inflicted heavy losses on the Egyptians. Moreover, guerrilla raids were stopped and had a hastened space to consolidate.

ISC Class 12 History Previous Year Question Papers

ISC Geography Previous Year Question Paper 2017 Solved for Class 12

(Maximum Marks: 70)
(Time allowed: Three hours)

(Candidates are allowed additional 15 minutes for only reading the paper.They must NOT start writing during this time.)

• Answer Section A and B from Part I which are compulsory.
• Answer any four questions from Part II.
• Sketch maps and diagrams should be drawn wherever they serve to illustrate your answer.
• The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

PART – I (30 Marks)
Answer all questions.
SECTION – A

Question 1. [10 x 2]
(i) Name one country each which forms a frontier with India in the :
(a) North
(b) West
(ii) Name any two standard geological eras, along with their duration.
(iii) Mention any two differences between the Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats.
(iv) State two objectives of social forestry.
(v) Define the following terms :
(a) Ribbon settlement
(b) Metropolis
(vi) What is meant by market gardening ? State any one importance of market gardening.
(vii) Mention any two factors which influence natural vegetation of a place.
(viii) What is eco-tourism ? How is it promoted in India ?
(ix) Mention the locational factors which favour the growth of cement industry in India. Name any two states which serve as hinterland for the Haldia port.
Answer:
(i) (a) China
(b) Pakistan
(ii) 1. Pre-Cambrian over 570 million years old.
2. Paleozoic (245-570 million years old)

(iii) Western Ghats

1. It runs parallel to the western coast in a north-south direction from Tapi river to Kanya Kumari.
2. It’s average elevation is 900 to 1100 metres above sea level.

Eastern Ghats

1. It runs in a north-south to south-west direction parallel to the eastern coast from Odisha to the Nilgiri hills.
2. It’s average elevation is less than that of the western ghats and is about 600 meters above sea level.

(iv) Two objectives of social forestry are :

1. To reduce pressure on the traditional forest areas by developing plantations of fuelwoods, fodder and grasses.
2. Management and protection of the forests as well as afforestation of barren lands, aimed at helping in environmental social and rural development.

(a) Ribbon Settlement : Such villages develop along some road, railway, river or a canal. The main streets run parallel to the road, rail or river and main shops are also in the main street. Linear pattern is also found along the sea coast. The flood plains of rivers in the hilly terrains are also occupied by linear settlements. In the low-lying areas of western Europe, villages are often positioned on dykes and levees forming linear patterns. In India, such patterns are found all along the major roads and rivers.

(b) Metropolis : A metropolis is a distinct form of settlement, characteristically with sprawling of its built-up area and includes its interdependent nearby villages and even towns.

(vi) Market gardening is the growing of fruits and vegetables in suburban areas for commercial purposes and sale in urban markets. It is creating skilled employment for rural masses especially for women folks.

(vii) Two factors which influence natural vegetation of a place are climate and soil.
(a) Climate : It influences the vegetation to a great extent and we can have several varieties such as Tropical evergreen, Tropical deciduous, Tropical grasslands and Tundra type of vegetation on the basis of climate.
(b) Soil : It modifies vegetation to a great extent. The tidal forests of coastal areas and the acacia in drier parts of Maharashtra are examples of modification by soil.

(viii) Eco-tourism is defined as responsible travel to natural areas that aims to conserves the environment, sustains the well-being of the local people and involves interpretation and education. Eco-tourism is promoted in India by evaluating environmental and cultural factors, initiatives by hospitality providers to promote recycling, energy efficiency, water reuse and the creation of economic opportunities for local communities.

(ix) Manufacturing of cement requires heavy and weight loosing materials and is primarily a raw material oriented industry. Limestone is the main raw material and on an average 1.5 tonnes of limestone is required to produce one tonne of cement. So, location of a cement plant is based on limestone deposits and also coal which is a major input, as it is used not only as fuel in kiln but also to burn the limestone.

(x) Two states which serve as hinterland for the Haldia port are Bihar and Jharkhand.

SECTION – B

Question 2. [10]
On the outline map of India provided :
(a) Mark and name the central longitude of India.
(b) Mark and name the highest peak of Himalayas in India.
(c) Mark and name the longest river of Peninsular India.
(d) Shade and label the Meghalaya Plateau.
(e) Mark and label Chilka lake.
(f) Draw an arrow to show the direction of easterly jet streams over India.
(g) Mark with a dot the capital city of Karnataka.
(h) Shade and name the state with the largest production of groundnut.
(i) Mark with a dot and name the centre for Garden Reach Workshop.
(j) Mark with a dot and name the centre for Maruti automobile industry.
Note : All the map work, including legend (Index) should be done on the map sheet only.
Answer:

PART – II (40 Marks)

Question 3.
(a) Name any two physical divisions of India and state two characteristic features of each. [4]
(b) Explain how the following factors affect India’s climate : [2]
(c) Study the climatic data provided in the table below for a city A in India and answer the questions that follow : [2]
(i) Southern Oscillation Answer any four questions.
(ii) Northern Mountain Ranges

T = Mean monthly temperature in degree Celsius (°C).
R = Average monthly rainfall in millimeters (mm).
(i) Mention two main features of the climate experienced by station A.
(ii) Calculate the annual rainfall for station A.
(d) Name the major region for the following:
(i) Tropical evergreen forests
(ii) Arid forests
(iii) Mountain forests
(iv) Tropical monsoonal forests [2]
Answer:
(a) Himalayas and Peninsular Plateau are the two physical divisions of India :

Himalayas

1. It is a young fold mountain of soft rocks.
2. Most of the rocks are sedimentary.
3. Himalayas are tectonic mountains and the rivers are torrential.
4. It was formed 20 – 30 million  years ago, during Tertiary period.

Peninsular Plateau

1. It is an old landmass of hard rocks.
2. Most of the rocks are granite and Basalt.
3. Rivers are slow moving and are of low gradients with shallow river valleys.
4. It was formed during Precambrian era.

(b) (i) Southern Oscillation : The Southern oscillation is a pattern of meteorological changes which are often observed between Indian and Pacific oceans. Whenever the surface level pressure is high over the Pacific Ocean and low over Indian Ocean, the south west monsoons in India tend to be stronger. If the surface level pressure is high over Indian Ocean and high over Pacific Ocean, the southwest monsoon is likely to be weaker.

(ii) Northern Mountain Ranges : The Himalayas and the adjoining mountain ranges protects India from the bitter cold dry winds of Central Asia during winters. The mountains also act as an effective physical barrier for the rain bearing southwest monsoons to cross the northern frontiers of India.

(c) Two main features of the climate experienced by station A :
(i) 1. The range of temperature is as high as (39°C – 20°C) = 19°C.
2. The station receives rain from south west monsoon.
(ii) 1552 mm.

(d) (i) Tropical evergreen forests are found in Andaman and Nicobar islands, Assam, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram, Tripura, West Bengal and on the Western slopes of the Western ghats.
(ii) Arid forests are found in Rajasthan and Southwest Punjab, Southwest Haryana and parts of Gujarat.
(iii) Mountain forests are found in the hilly ranges of northeast India and the Himalayan parts of West Bengal, Bihar and Uttarakhand.
(iv) Tropical monsoonal forests are found in the north-eastern parts of the peninsula, middle and lower Ganga valley and along the foothills of the Himalayas.

Question 4.
(a) Explain any three factors that influence the spatial distribution of population in India. [3]
(b) Define the following terms :
(i) Stepwise migration
(ii) Urban agglomeration
(c) (i) What is meant by pull migration and push migration ? [3]
(ii) What are the two major differences between rural settlements and urban settlements ? [2]

(d) Study the given data and answer the following questions :

S.No.	Name of the State/Union Territory	Total Population
		2001	2011
1	N.C.T. of Delhi	1,38,50,507	1,67,53,235
2	Uttar Pradesh	16,61,97,921	19,95,81,477
3	Bihar	8,29,98,509	10,38,04,637
4	West Bengali	8,01,76,197	9,13,47,736

(i) Identify the state with the highest growth rate of population.
(ii) Calculate the absolute growth of population for the state mentioned by you in (d) (i) above.
Answer:
(a) The three factors are :
1. Terrain : The plains have encouraged higher density of population as compared to mountain region. The steep slope of the Himalayas restrict the availability of land for agriculture, development of transport, industries and other economic activities which may tend to discourage concentration of population and its proper growth. So, the great plains of North India is a land of extremely gentle slope and offers great opportunities for the growth of agriculture, transport and industries.

2. Industries : Industrial growth offers massive employment opportunities and acts as a great magnet to attract people. This results in higher population density. Industrial areas are invariably associated with areas of high population densities. One of the major causes of population density in West Bengal, Gujarat and Maharashtra is the phenomenal growth of industries.

3. Urbanization : Urbanization and population concentration go hand in hand and are closely related to each other. Agricultural based rural areas do not provide employment to all the people living there. Even small scale cottage industry fails to provide employment to the entire rural folk. Urban areas provide vast scope for employment in industries, trade, transport and services.

(b) (i) Sometimes people move from a village to a small town and later to a big city. Such movements are known as step wise migration.
(ii) Urban agglomeration denotes a continuous urban spread and normally consists of a town and its adjoining urban outgrowths ‘ or two or more physically contiguous towns together with contiguous well recognised outgrowths, if any of such towns.

(c) (i) Pull Migration : There is a vast scope of employment in industries, trade, transport and other services in the urban centres. So, the urban centres act as magnets for the migrant population, known as ‘Pull factors’.
(ii) Push Migration : Due to unemployment, hunger and starvation people are pushed out of the villages to the urban centres to find livelihood. Natural disasters like floods, droughts, earthquakes, tsunami and war also give extra “push” to migrate to other regions.

Rural Settlements

1. Rural settlements are of small size which may consist of two to four houses or a few hundred houses.
2. Pollution free environment.
3. People are primarily engaged in agriculture or other primary activities.

Urban Settlements

1. Urban settlements are of bigger sizein which a few thousand to a few lakh persons are living, still bigger cities are know as mertro-polis.
2. Environmental pollution is a great problem with urban population.
3. People are primarily engaged in secondary and tertiary activities of which industry, trade, transport and services are important.

(d) (i) Bihar

Growth rate = \(\frac { { P }_{ 2 }\quad -\quad { P }_{ 1 } }{ { P }_{ 2 } } \quad \times \quad 100\)
P1 = Population of the base year
P2 = Population of the current year

P2 = 10,38,04,637
P1 = 8,29,98,509
P1 – P2 = 2,08,06,128
Growth rate = \(\frac { 20806128 }{ 10,38,04,637 } \quad \times \quad 100\)
= 2%

(ii) 20806128 (10,38,04,637 – 8,29,98,509)

Question 5.
(a) Mention any two reasons why sufficient land is not available for cultivation in India. [2]
(b) (i) Give a reason for small size of cultivable landholdings in India. [3]
(ii) Suggest two methods for increasing the size of land holdings.
(c) (i) What is meant by tank irrigation ? [3]
(ii) State one advantage each of the following means of irrigation :
(1) Tube wells
(2) Tanks
(d) Explain the following :
(i) Watershed management
(ii) Rainwater harvesting
Answer:
(a) Two reasons for land not available for cultivation in India are :
1. Barren and unculturable waste cover all barren and uncultivated lands in mountains, hills slopes, deserts and rocky areas. These areas cannot be brought under plough except at high input cost with possible low returns.
2. The other reason is land put to nonagricultural uses like irrigation, industry, mining, etc.

(b) (i) The land holdings are very small in India due to the fact of law of inheritance. The farming land gets divided and sub-divided. The holdings becomes smaller with each generation as it passes with division from fathers to their sons.
(ii) Two methods are:
1. Consolidation of landholding, which means reallocation of holdings which are fragmented due to law of inheritance. This has taken place in Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh.
2. Land holding can be increased if culturable waste land can be brought under cultivation. The land is not being used at present due to constraints like lack of water, salinity or alkalinity of soil, soil erosion, water logging, etc. can be reclaimed to bring it back under plough.

(c) (i) A tank consists of water storage which has been developed by constructing a small bund of earth or stones built across a stream. The water impounded by the bund is used for irrigation.
(ii) 1. Tube-Wells : It can irrigate about ten. times more areas than done by ordinary well and it is an independent source of irrigation.
2. Tanks : The cost of construction of tanks is very low as tanks are natural.

(d) (i) Water Shed Development or Management : It is a very important device to conserve water resources, increases agricultural production and stop ecological degradation. In this way it improves the living conditions of the people.

(ii) Rainwater Harvesting : It is a technique of increasing the recharge of groundwater by capturing and storing rainwater locally in subsurface water reservoirs to meet the demands for water.

Question 6.
(a) Briefly discuss any two problems of Indian agriculture and suggest measures to overcome the same. [2]
(b) State the geographical conditions favourable for the growth of : [3]
(i) Rice (ii) Tea
(c) Discuss any two factors which influence growth of fishing industry in Kerala. [2]
(d) Name the major state in India and its one centre for the production of the following : [3]
(i) Mica (ii) Petroleum
Answer:
(a) Two problems of Indian agriculture are :
(i) Seed : Good quality seeds are out of reach of the majority of farmers especially small and marginal farmers. To solve this problem the Government of India established National Seeds Corporation and State Farmers Corporation of India. High yielding variety programme was a major thrust plan to increase the production of food grains in the country.

(ii) Manures, Fertilizers and Biocides : Indian soils have been used for growing crops over thousands of years. This has led to depletion and exhaustion of soils resulting in their low productivity. Chemical fertilizers are costly and are often beyond the reach of the poor farmers so the problem of fertilizer availability problem is acute and complex. To solve this problem the government has given subsidy for using chemical fertilizers. In order to maintain the quality of the fertilizers, 52 fertilizers quality control labs have been set up in different parts of the country. Training institute is at Faridabad with its three regional centres at Mumbai, Kolkata and Chennai.

(b) (i) Rice : Temperature-means monthly temperature of 24°C, with a range of 16°C32°C. Average Rainfall is about 150 cm. Deep fertile clayey or loamy soils are considered ideal for rice. Rice also needs ankle deep water or flooded fields during the earlier part of its growing season.

(ii) Tea : The following are the conditions required for tea cultivation : Temperature : 10°C-30°C
Rainfall : Average yearly rainfall of 2,000 mm.
Altitude : Ground level between 600-2000 meters above sea level.
Soil : Soil with ph 4.5 to 5 and less and soil with excellent drainage.

(c) Two factors are :

1. Kerala has indented coast. So, large numbers of fishing ports have developed.
2. 85% of India’s total processing facilities like freezing, ice-making, cold storage, canning, etc., are available in Kerala only.

(d) (i) Mica : Andhra Pradesh
Centre : Nellore
(ii) Petroleum : Gujarat
Centre : Ankleshwar

Question 7.
(a) (i) How are roads classified in India ? [3]
(ii) Mention the different types of roads classified in India.
(b) (i) In which two fields is remote sensing data 1. important ? [2]
(ii) Name two satellite systems of India.
(c) Mention any three geographical conditions that favour rail transport in the Northern Plains of India. [3]
(d) What are the two main items of export from the following sea ports : [2]
(i) Mumbai Port
(ii) Visakhapatnam Port.
Answer:
(a) (i) Roads in India are classified on the basis of their importance, maintenance and administration.
(ii) 1. National Highways
2. State Highways
3. District Roadways
4. Village Roads
5. Border Roads
(b) (i) Remote sensing data is important in the field of agriculture, soil and land use, water resources, ocean/marine resources, forestry and geology meteorology, etc.
(ii) 1. INSAT : 3E – 4 Series. INSAT 3 DR
2. GSAT: 2 – 8 – 10 – 16 Series.

(c) 1. The area of Northern Plain is densely populated region with highly developed agriculture and industry.
2. Large scale urbanisation and industrialization have created a great demand for the rail transport.
3. The flat plains which is suitable for the construction of railways.

(d) (i) Mumbai : Cotton textiles / Leather/ Tobacco / manganese.
(ii) Visakhapatnam : Iron ore/Manganese / spices/wood.

Question 8.
(a) Explain any three factors that have led to the growth of industrialisation in India. [3]
(b) (i) Why is cement industry known as a basic industry ? [3]
(ii) Mention two major centres of cement industry in India.
(c) Discuss any two factors which have influenced Ahmedabad to develop as the largest centre of cotton textile industry in Gujarat. [2]
(d) Name the following :
(i) Aluminium plant at Renukoot.
(ii) Iron and Steel plant at Paradeep.
(iii) HAL centre in South India.
(iv) First IPCL centre for Petrochemicals.
Answer:
(a) Three factors that have led to the growth of industries in India are :

1. Raw material
2. Power
3. Labour

1. Raw Material : India is richly endowed with a variety of minerals. It is self-sufficient in materials for making steel, aluminium, cement and other products because of the availability of minerals. The agricultural produce like sugarcane, jute and cotton are also responsible for the growth of textile industry, sugar industry and jute industry.

2. Power : Regular supply of power is a must for the localization of certain industries like iron and steel, aluminium, electro metallurgical and electro – chemical industries which need large quantities of power. HEP, thermal power and other sources of power are available in India. So, these industries developed in India.

3. Labour : Modern industry still requires a large number of workers despite the increasing mechanisation. Location of any industrial unit is determined by the availability of skilled and unskilled supply of labours.:

(b) (i) Cement is indispensable for building and construction work. So, cement industry is considered to be an important core infrastructure core industry. The per capita consumption of cement is taken as one of the important indicators of well-being of the people.
(ii) Centres of cement industry in India are :
1. Satna / Kymore / Katni/ Durg in – Chhattisgarh (Any two).

(c) Ahmedabad is the largest centre of cotton textile in Gujarat and the second largest centre after Mumbai.

1. Ahmedabad lies near the main cotton growing region of India and there is no problem of getting raw material.
2. Climate is humid and is suitable for this industry. Even the mills produce cheap cloth. This cloth finds ready market amongst the poor masses of India.

(d) (i) Hindustan Aluminium Corporation HINDALCO.
(ii) Daitari steel plants near Paradeep.
(iii) Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd. Bengaluru.
(iv) Union Carbide India Ltd. Trombay in 1966.

Question 9.
(a). (i) What is a planning region ? [5]
(ii) Mention two characteristics of a planning region.
(iii) Distinguish between multi-level planning and single level planning.
(b) Mention any three factors which have led to the emergence of Bengaluru as the electronic capital of India. [3]
(c) Name the mineral for which Chhattisgarh is the only producing state in India.
(d) Name the city that is located 105 km upstream from Haldia. [1]
Answers:
(a) (i) A planning region is a self-created living, having a life time which not only supports the life in the region but also radiates unifying forces that enable the region to be a unified regional space so as to facilitate the practice of regional planning.
(ii) Any two

1. A planning region should be neither be too big nor too small.
2. Boundary should be flexible.
3. There should be natural cohesion.
4. It should have economic harmony.
5. There should be social harmony.
6. Functional unity.

(iii) Multi-level Planning

1. Planning for a variety of is regions which together form a system and subordinate system.
2. The country centralised.

Single level Plan

1. Single-level Planning done at the national level.
2. Process is is divided into small territorial units.

(b) Bengaluru has emerged as electronic capital of India because of :

1. The incentives by the State and Central government.
2. The strategic location of the city is in the middle of the Indian peninsula.
3. A close network of road and railways.
4. A large number of Indian, foreign and multinational companies have invested large sums of money to nourish industries.

(c) Tin
(d) Kolkata.

ISC Class 12 Geography Previous Year Question Papers

ISC History Previous Year Question Paper 2016 Solved for Class 12

Maximum Marks: 80
Time allowed: Three hours

• Candidates are allowed additional 15 minutes for only reading the paper. They must NOT start writing during this time.
• Answer Question 1 (Compulsory) from Part I and five questions from Part II, choosing two questions from Section A, two
• questions from Section B and one question from either Section A or Section B.
• The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Part-I (20 Marks)
Answer all questions

Question 1. [20]
(i) Name the leader of the ‘Indian National Congress who popularized the vision of a socialist India.
(ii) Why did the Congress ministries resign in 1939 ?
(iii) What was the significance of the Lahore Session of the Muslim League (1940) ?
(iv) Name any two states whose union with India involved armed intervention by the Indian army.
(v) Name two major political parties that played an important role during the General Elections of 1967.
(vi) Which state was formed in 1953, on the basis of linguistic identity ?
(vii) Name the leaders of India and Pakistan between whom the Tashkent Agreement was signed (1966).
(viii) Why did Dalai Lama seek refuge in India ?
(ix) State any two major observations made by the Committee, on the Status of Women in India, Towards Equality Report (1974).
(x) What was the primary demand of the All Assam Students’Union ?
(xi) State one important example of Anglo- French appeasement of Hitler (1938) that made war inevitable.
(xii) What was the significance of the Japanese attack on Pearl Harbour ?
(xiii) What was the primary objective behind Mao Tse Tung’s “Hundred Flowers Campaign” ?
(xiv) Name the nationalist leader under whose leadership Ghana became independent.
(xv) Give one example to show that the Super Powers wanted to reduce East-West tension after the Cuban Missile Crisis.
(xvi) What is the full form of CIS ?
(xvii) Name the most outstanding leader of the Anti-Apartheid Movement in South Africa.
(xviii) Name the first president of the National Organization for Women (NOW).
(xix) Why did Nasser nationalise the Suez Canal ?
(xx) Name the Agreement signed between the PLO and Israel (1993) that indicated a change in their respective attitudes.
Answer:
(i) Jawaharlal Nehru (1889-1964) was the foremost leader of the Indian National Congress who popularised the vision of a socialist India.

(ii) On 3rd September, 1939, Lord Linlithgow declared India to be at war with Germany. The Indian National Congress objected strongly and alleged that the Viceroy had involved India in the World War II without consulting the Central Legislature and the provincial governments. They were the dominant party and had formed the government in eight of the eleven provinces. The Congress working committee passed a resolution and demanded an immediate transfer of power in return for cooperation of the war efforts. Lord Linlithgow did not respond satisfactorily to this. Therefore, the Congress, on October 22nd, 1939 asked the Congress Ministries to resign.

(iii) On 23rd March, 1940 at the Lahore Session, the Muslim League adopted Jinnah’s two nation theory and passed the historic Pakistan Resolution which demanded the division of India and the establishment of an independent, sovereign Muslim State. This ultimately led to the division of the country in 1947.

(iv) Kashmir; Junagarh; Hyderabad; (any two)

(v) Indian National Congress and the Swatantra Party.

(vi) Andhra Pradesh.

(vii) Tashkent Agreement, (January 10, 1966) accord signed by India’s Prime Minister Lai Bahadur Shastri (who died the next day) and Pakistan’s President Ayub Khan, ending the 17-day war between Pakistan and India of August-September 1965. A cease-fire had been secured by the United Nations Security Council on September 22,1965.

(viii) On March 10,1959, Dalai Lama received an invitation from a Chinese army officer to attend a drama festival. Though the invitation looked like a simple one, the conditions applied by the Chinese made everyone understand that it was a Chinese play to take him into custody as one of the condition was that the personal security staff of Dalai Lama would not be allowed to carry any weapon. Thousands of Tibetans gathered in front of the Narbulinka palace and decided that Dalai Lama should escape from Lhasa. Dressed like, a common army man, he left Lhasa and came down to India.

(ix) 1. It observed that more than a hundred million women were “missing” (in the sense that their potential existence had been eliminated either through sex selective abortion, infanticide or inadequate nutrition during infancy).

2. There are discriminatory social-cultural practices, political and economic processes which adversely affect the women in India.

(xi) One important example was the Munich Conference of 1938, when the Sudetenland of Czechoslovakia was handed over to Germany. Neither the Czechs nor the Russians were invited to the conference. The Czechs were told that if they resisted they would receive no help from Britain or France.

(xii) The US Naval Base at Pearl Harbour, Hawaii was attacked by the Japanese on the morning of December 7, 1941. The Japanese had planned and executed the surprise attack in order to dishearten the American people and kept the United States out of World War II. Instead the Japanese attack on Pearl Harbour riled the emotions of the American people and spurred their entry into the war. Until then, USA had remained neutral though they provided Britain with massive financial aid under the Lend Lease Act of April 1941. This brought USA into war, and transformed it in a global conflict.

(xiii) In China, industrialization had produced a class of technicians and engineers who were critical of the party cadres. The cadres in turn thought these experts would undermine their authority. Therefore, Mao Tse Tung called for open dialogue and discussion between the cadres and the experts which would improve their mutual relationship. He said, “Let a hundred flowers bloom and a hundred schools of thought contend.”

(xiv) Kwame Nkrumah ruled Ghana from its independence in 1957 to 1966 when the army removed him.

(xv) In July 1963 the USSR, the USA and Britain signed a Nuclear Test Ban Treaty agreeing to carry out nuclear tests only underground to avoid polluting the atmosphere.

(xvi) Commonwealth of Independent States.

(xvii) Nelson Mandela

xviii) Betty Friedan, gender activist and writer.

(xix) The Americans canceled a promised grant of 46 million dollars for building the Aswan Dam. Nasser retaliated by nationalizing the Suez Canal intending to use the income from it to finance the Dam.

(xx) It was the Oslo Accords which was an attempt in 1993 to set up a framework that would lead to the resolution of the ongoing Israeli-Palestinian conflict. It was the first face-to-face agreement between the government of Israel and the Palestine Liberation Organization (PLO).

Part-II (60 Marks)

Answer five question in all, choosing two questions from Section A, two questions from Section B and one question from either Section A or Section B.

Section—A

Question 2.
(a) What were the main proposals of the Cabinet Mission Plan ? [6]
(b) What led . to the observance of Direct Action Day by the Muslim League, on August 16, 1946 ? [6]
Answer:
(a) Main Provisions of the Cabinet Mission Plan : The Cabinet Mission Proposal two-tiered federal plan which was expected to maintain national unity while conceding the largest measure of regional autonomy :
(i) There was to be a federation of the provinces and the States, with the federal central controlling only defence, foreign affairs and communications.

(ii) At the same time, individual provinces
could form regional unions to which they could surrender by mutual agreement some of their powers. ,

(iii) There would be three groups of provinces :

1. Group ‘A’ was to include Madras, Bombay, U.P., Bihar, Central Province and Orissa,
2. Group ‘B’ was to comprise Punjab, Sindh, N.W.F.P. and British Baluchistan (Muslim majority in most of the areas),
3. Group ‘C’ was to include Bengal and Assam.

These groups would draft their own constitutions in consultation with their respective provinces included in each group.

(iv) A Constituent Assembly consisting of 389 members-292 from provinces, 4 from territories governed by Chief Commissioners and 93 from Indian
Princely States would draft the Constitution of India.

(v) An interim government at the Central consisting of representatives of all the communities, provinces would be installed on the basis of parity between the representatives of the Hindus and Muslims.

(b) Observance of Direct Action Day The elections to the Constituent Assembly under the Cabinet Mission Plan were held in My 1946, seat of the Congress 212 out of 298, Muslim League won 73 seats. The League apprehensive of the overwhelming strength of the Congress demanded appointment of two different constituent assemblies. On 27th July, 1946, Jinnah addressing the All India Muslim League attached the cabinet Mission Plan in general and Lord Wavell in particular and also charged him for playing in the hands of the Congress.

Muslim League withdraw its early acceptance of the Cabinet Mission Plan and announced the programme of Direct Action day. The working committee of the Muslim League met on 30th July and fixed 16th August as the Direct Action Day throughout the country. It would be observed all over India by holding meetings, taking out processions and organizing big rallies.

However, on that day the worst holocaust took place at Calcutta. During the four days that followed Muslims and Hindus indiscriminately murdered each other. Women and children were killed in broad daylight. Arson, rape, murder and pillage were rampant. More than 4,000 people lost their lives and 100,000 residents were left homeless in Calcutta. This violence sparked off further religious riots in the surrounding regions of Noakhali, Bihar, United Provinces (modern Uttar Pradesh), Punjab, and the North Western Frontier . Province. These events sowed the seeds for the eventual Partition of India.

Question 3.
The first General Election in India (1952) was a landmark event in the history of independent India. Discuss. [12]
Answer:
Independent India’s first polls under its brand new Constitution were spread over five months, between October 1951 and February 1952.
After India became independent on August 15, 1947, Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru formed the first union cabinet with 15 members picked from a wide range of communities and some known detractors. Just before the first election, Shyama Prasad Mookerjee (industries minister under Nehru) broke away to set up the Bharatiya Jana Sangh, representing the Hindu right wing. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar formed the Scheduled Caste Federation, later the Republican Party of India. Another high- profile Congress leader, J.B. (Acharya) Kriplani, founded the Kisan Mazdoor Praja Party. Ram Manohar Lohia and J.P. Narayan, were the forces behind the Socialist Party.

The communists, having just abandoned an armed struggle in Telangana, too contested 49 seats. There was no tradition of a leader of the opposition then. The Congress secured four times as many votes as the closest opponent. The importance of this election was that democracy took a giant step forward. These elections were the biggest experiment in democracy anywhere in the world. The elections were held on the basis of universal adult franchise. All those who were twenty- one years of age or older had the right to vote. There were over 173 million voters, most of them poor, illiterate, and rural, and having had no experience of elections. The big question at the time was how would the people respond to this opportunity.

Many were doubtful that such an electorate would be able to exercise its right to vote in a politically mature and responsible manner. Some said that democratic elections were not suitable for a caste-ridden, multi-religious, illiterate and backward society like India’s and that only a benevolent dictatorship would be effective politically in such a society. The coming elections were described by some as ‘a leap in the dark’ and by others as ‘fantastic’ and as ‘an act of faith.

India’s electoral system was developed according to the directives of the Constitution. The Constitution made a provision for an Election Commission. It was to be headed by a Chief Election Commissioner, to conduct elections. It was to be independent of the executive or the parliament or the party in power.

There was a house-to-house survey to register the voters. With over 70 percent of the voters being illiterate, the candidates were to be identified by symbols, assigned to each major party and independent candidates, painted on the ballot-boxes (this was later changed to symbols on the ballot papers). The voters were to place the ballot papers in the box assigned to a particular candidate, and the ballot was secret. Over 224,000 polling booths, one for almost every 1000 voters, were constructed and equipped with over 21/2 million steel ballot-boxes, one box for every candidate. Nearly 620,000,000 ballot papers were printed. About a million officials supervised the conduct of the polls. Of the many candidates, whoever got the largest number of votes would be elected. It was not necessary for the winning candidate to have a majority.

In all, candidates of over fourteen national and sixty-three regional or local parties and a large number of independents contested 489 seats for the Lok Sabha and 3,283 seats for the state assemblies. Of these, 98 seats for the former and 669 for the latter were reserved for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes. Nearly 17,500 candidates in all stood for the seats to the Lok Sabha and the state legislatures. Despite illiteracy and poverty the electorate in India has developed and become really mature as we can see today.

Question 4.
(a) What steps did the Congress Government take after the imposition of Emergency by Indira Gandhi in 1975 ? [6]
(b) What was the immediate impact of this Emergency on the common people? [6]
Answer:
(a) At 6 a.m. on 26th June, 1975, members of the Union Cabinet were faced with the fact that an Emergency had been declared.
The first step the Congress Government took was to jail leaders and legislators of opposition ‘ parties, student activists, trade unionists or anyone with the slightest connection to the Jana Sangh, The Congress (O), The Socialists or other groups opposed to the Congress including Jayprakash Narayan, Morarji Desai and the Rajmatas of Gwalior and Jaipur.

Thousands were arrested under MISA- Maintenance of Internal Security Act. The Prime Minister said that there was a need for a ‘New Spirit of Discipline and Morale’. Government copywriters began to churn out slogans such as ‘Discipline Makes the Nation Great’. ‘Talk Less, Work More’, ‘Be Indian, Buy Indian’, “Efficiency is our Watchword”. The New Economic Programme was put through. The slogan was “Garibi Hatao”. The Prime Minister offered the ‘20 Point Programme for Economic Progress’ which promised a reduction in prices of essential commodities, speedy imple-mentation of land reforms, the abolition of indebtedness and of bonded labour, higher wages for workers and lower income taxes for the middle class.

A series of Constitutional Amendments were passed. The 38th Amendment passed on 22nd July, 1975 barred Judicial Review of the Emergency. The 39th Amendment stated that the election of the Prime Minister could not be challenged by the Supreme Court, but only by a body constituted by Parliament. The Supreme Court, too, supported the Government by ruling that detentions without trial were legal under the new dispensation. The 42nd Amendment gave unprecedented powers to the Parliament. It could now extend its own term. Laws passed by the Parliament were immune from judicial scrutiny and strengthened the powers of the Center over the State.

In January 1976, when the term of the DMK Government ended in Tamil Nadu, the Center ordered President’s Rule. The same was applied to Gujarat. This is how the Congress made itself supreme all over India.

Most importantly, freedom of the Press was curbed. A system of pre-censorship was put in place whereby editors had to submit for scrutiny and approval of any article that criticized the Government. There were guidelines as to what constituted and what did not constitute as news. Even jokes and cartoons tinged with satire were forbidden.

The Congress Government supported the programme of Sanjay Gandhi who formulated a 5-Point Programme to complement his mother’s 20-Point Programme. These dealt with family planning, afforestation, abolition of dowry, removal of illiteracy and slums. It was his forced sterilization programme and indiscriminate bull dozing of slums that finally led to the downfall of Indira Gandhi and the Congress Government.

(b) Initially the Emergency, which followed a strife filled decade was welcomed by the middle class. The crime rate came down, the trains ran on time, there was a sense of alertness and discipline. There was a good monsoon in 1975 ensuring that prices were low. The average Indians did not care for the freedom of the press and expression. They wanted economic progress and above all peace even at the cost of personal rights. The 20- Point Programme brought stabilization and growth of the economy.

The business community were specially elected. Even small hotel owners had been hounded by unions. Even J.R.D. Tata felt that things had gone too far with strikes, boycotts and demonstrations. Hardly anyone resigned or left their jobs in protest against the Emergency. Then Gandhi had called for non-cooperation, thousands of teachers, lawyers, judges, even ICS officers had resigned. But now only a handful resigned in protest. These include Fali Nariman who resigned as Additional Solicitor General, M.L. Dantewala, who refused to continue as an advisor to the Reserve Bank and Bagaram Tulpule, who resigned from his office in the Public Sector.

In the Parliament the Opposition MPs who had been jailed but allowed to attend the session to ratify the Emergency protested and walked out and later boycotted the session. Mrs. Gandhi was accused of betraying India for the sake of personal ends and reducing Parliament to a farce and an object of contempt.

The resistence on the streets took a serious turn. On 14th November 1975, the Lok Sangharsh Samiti began a Satyagraha in Bombay. The protesters shouted slogans such as “down with dictatorship” and “JP Jindabad”. Within a month over a thousand of protestors – were arrested including 146 women. The protest soon spread to other states where people stood at the bus stands, railway stations and government offices and shouted slogans and courted arrest. Within the first three months as many as 80,000 people were arrested.

On 15th August 1976, Manibehn Patel, daughter of Vallabhai Patel started a march to the Dandi beach along Gandhi’s route shouting slogans such as ‘Remove Emergency’ and ‘Release Political Prisoners’. The Marathi writer Durga Bhagawat was arrested. A group of Kannada writers circulated poems satirizing the Emergency. Other writers refused to put pen on paper such as Annada Shankar Ray. Cartoonist K. Shankar Pillai closed his magazine. Hindi writer Phanishwar Nath Renu returned his Padma Shree and Kannada writer Shivarama Karanth returned his Padma Bhushan.

An underground movement was carried out by George Fernandez who disguised himself and travelled from town to town organizing resistance against the Emergency. Acharya J.B. Kripalini was one of its fiercest opponents. Once the emergency was lifted, Congress faced the consequences of the same combined with the wrath of the general public. Writers wrote books and films were made about Emergency Salman Rushdie’s ‘Midnight Children’, V.S. Naipaul’s ‘ India: A wounded Country’ are some of the many books. Films like ‘Kissa Kursi Ka’ was a bold mockery of the dark phase. ‘Nasbandi’ and ‘Aandhi’ were some other films that played out the condition of the nation.
Question 5.
(a) Why did China attack India in 1962 ? [6]
(b) What were the consequences of the Indo-china war ? [6]
Answer:
(a) With the independence of the Republic of India and the formation of the People’s Republic of China (PRC) in the year 1949, one of the policies for the Indian Government was that of maintaining cordial relations with China. However, the border disputes between the two countries is one of the main factors leading to the war. India shares a border of 3488 km with China which can be divided into the following sectors :

• Western Sector : This refers to the border shared by Jammu and Kashmir, Xinjiang and Tibet.
• Central Sector : This refers to the border shared by Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand with Tibet.
• Eastern Sector : This is the sector where the Indian Sovereignty is challenged by China over an area of 90,000 sq km.

This area falls mostly in Arunachal Pradesh, Bum La, Lo La, Asaphi La and Tawang which inciden-tally happens to be the most sensitive area.

China annexed Tibet in 1950 and thus, removed a historical buffer between the two countries. Initially, the Government of India did not oppose this openly. But as more information came in about the suppression of Tibetan culture, the Indian Government grew uneasy. The Tibetan spiritual leader, Dalai Lama, sought and obtained political asylum in India in 1959. China alleged that the Government of India was allowing Anti¬China activities to take place from within India.

The main dispute was about the western and the eastern end of the long border. China claimed two areas within the Indian territory. Aksai-Chin area in the Ladakh region of Jammu and Kashmir and much of the state of Arunachal Pradesh in what was then called NEFA (North Eastern Frontier Agency). Between 1957 and 1959, the Chinese occupied the Aksai-Chin area and built a strategic road there. Despite a very long . correspondence and discussion among top leaders, these differences could not be resolved. Several small border skirmishes between the armies of the two countries took place.

In July 1954, Nehru wrote a memo directing a revision in the maps of India to show definite boundaries on all frontiers, however, Chinese maps showed some 120,000 square kilometres of Indian territory as Chinese. On being questioned, Zhou Enlai, the first Premier of People’s Republic of China, responded that there were errors in the maps.

Top People’s Republic of China leader, Mao Zedong felt humiliated by the reception Dalai Lama obtained in India when he fled there in March 1959. Tensions increased between the two nations when Mao stated that the Lhasa rebellion in Tibet was caused by Indians.

China’s perception of India as a threat to its rule of Tibet became one of the most prominent reasons for the Sino-Indian War. Various conflicts and military incidents between India and China flared up throughout the summer of 1962. On July 10,1962, around 350 Chinese troops surrounded an Indian post at Chushul and used loudspeakers to convince the Gurkhas that they should not be fighting for India.

In October 1959, India realized that it was not ready for war after a clash between the two armies at Kongka Pass in which 9 Indian policemen were killed; the country assumed responsibility for the border and pulled back patrols from disputed areas. On October 20, 1962, China’s People’s Liberation Army invaded India in Ladakh, and in the east across the McMahon Line in the North-East Frontier Agency.

The Border War and the ceasefire brought many changes and many implications to both India and the world. The political and military climate in southern Asia was dramatically changed in the last three months of 1962. India recognized many of the weaknesses in her Army and many lessons are still relevant today that emerged from the 1962 Border War.

India was decisively defeated in the Border War. But in many ways, India gained benefits from the 1962 conflict. The war united the country as never before. The Communist Party in India lost what little strength it had.

India did get 32,000 square miles of disputed territory. The new Indian republic had avoided international alignments by asking for during the war, India demonstrated her willingness to accept military aid from several sectors. Finally, India recognized the serious weaknesses in her Army. She would more than double her military manpower in the next two years and she would work hard to resolve the military’s training and logistic problems. India’s efforts to improve her military posture significantly enhanced her army’s capabilities and preparedness.

The War would also had significant impact on India’s relationship with Pakistan (which then bordered India on two sides, east and west). Seeing that India was militarily weak after the Border War, Pakistan felt that she was in a favourable position to resolve lingering border disputes in Kashmir. China was friendly towards Pakistan, and Pakistani leaders believed that China might support them in a dispute with India. When India reorganized and built up her Army, Pakistan became quite alarmed. In 1965, India and Pakistan would fight a border war in Kashmir.

The Sino-Indian conflict affected the opposition as well. This and the growing rift between China and the Soviet Union created irreconcilable differences within the Communist Party of India (CPI). The pro- USSR faction remained within the CPI and moved towards closer ties with the Congress. The other faction was for sometime closer to China and was against any ties with the Congress. The party split in 1964 and the leaders of the latter faction formed the Communist Party of India (Marxist) (CPI- M). In the wake of the China war, many leaders of what became CPI (M) were arrested for being pro-China.
The war with China alerted the Indian leadership to the volatile situation in the Northeast region. Apart from being isolated and extremely underdeveloped, this region also presented India with the challenge of national integration and political unity. The process of its reorganization began soon after the China war. Nagaland was granted statehood; Manipur and Tripura, though Union Territories, were given the right to elect their own legislative assemblies.

Question 6.
(a) Briefly discuss the reasons for Assam’s demand for greater autonomy for the state. [6]
(b) How did the Center respond to Assam’s agitation for more autonomy. [6]
Answer:
(a) Reasons for Assam’s agitation for greater autonomy for the state:

1. The North East was aggrieved due to unfair . treatment by the centre, e.g. evident in neglectof industries / lack of economic enterprises and / even in the allocation of funds.
2. It was deprived of its revenue from crude oil, tea and plywood./Assam’s revenue was pumped out of the state.
3. Marwaris and Bengalis were controlling Assam’s economy.
4. Labour forces were also largely non- Assamese, contributing to unemployment among Assamese youth.
5. There was demand for better connectivity between North East and the rest of India e.g. Bridges over Brahmaputra/ railway upgradation / better road links.
6. Even before independence, there had been a large scale migration from Bihar and Bengal into Assam.
7. From 1971 onward, refugees poured in from Bangladesh (East Pakistan).
8. Most returned back after the creation of Bangladesh but almost a lakh stayed behind.
9. Peasant influx continued in search of land, triggering fear of land-loss among Assamese peasants.
10. Demographic changes had generated cultural, linguistic and political insecurity.
11. To face the challenge of illegal migration from Bangladesh, in 1979 All Assam Students Union (AASU) and Assam Gana Sangram Parishad (Assamese Peoples Struggle) were organised.
12. In 1983, election to State’s Legislature Assembly was organised.
13. It was marked by large scale violence.
14. 98% of eligible Assamese voters had boycotted.
15. Congress, however, formed the government.
16. By- elections showed an increase in the number of voters.
17. Identification of non Assamese by the Central Government demanded by the people.

(b) Demands for autonomy were raised when Non- Assamese populace felt that Assamese language was being forcibly imposed on them by the State Government. Leaders of the major tribal communities wanted to secede from Assam. To put up a united front, they set up Eastern India Tribal Union, which later transformed into All Party Hill Leaders Conference in the year 1960. They demanded that a tribal state be separated from Assam.

As a result, massive movement began taking shape to demand autonomy for the State. Consequently, riots broke out in the region. To contain these uneventful series of incidents taking place throughout the State, the Centre acted swiftly and took the following decisions:

1. It created Mizoram, Meghalaya and Arunachal Pradesh out of Assam.
2. Tripura and Manipur were’ upgraded into states by the Centre.
3. Re organisation of the region was completed by 1972.

By taking the above mentioned measures, Center Government indeed fulfilled the demand for autonomy to a certain extent, yet the major tribal communities went into revolt. They started organizing mass movements and mobilizing public opinion. This is the time when the evil of insurgency started to spread its hood in the region. After creating a number of States from Assam, the Government did not deem it feasible to create more States. They instead went ahead with creating autonomous Councils for these groups/communities. To fulfill the aspirations of other tribal communities like Bodos, Karbis and Dimasas; the latter two were granted autonomy under District Councils and the Bodos were granted autonomous Council.

Section-B
Answer any two questions.

Question 7.
(a) Discuss the significant changes in Mussolini’s foreign policy after 1935, till the outbreak of the Second World War. [6]
(b) Why did Britain and France follow a policy of appeasement towards Germany and Italy ? [6]
Answer:
(a) Weakness of armed forces : Britain had many economic problems. Due to the effects of the great depression Military costs were reduced. Their army was weak and didn’t have enough Arms. Due to Germany’s strong army Britain and France needed to avoid war. The policy of appeasement seemed the best way to avoid war. At least Hitler was standing up to Communism. Britain was not only worried about Hitler, Communism was a bigger threat. People were more afraid of communism than the nazis being in power. Due to that people thought Hitler being in power was better than communism. They signed the appeasement to avoid communism.

(b) In the late 1930’s Britain, under Neville Chamberlain, and her ally France adopted a policy of appeasement. This meant that they wanted to keep the peace, and avoid entering a war at any cost, even if it meant making concessions towards potential aggressors, particularly Germany ruled by the dictator Adolf Hitler. Britain and France adopted and pursued this policy for a variety of reasons, though it was eventually abandoned in September 1939.

They believed that if they pursued appeasement and didn’t go to war with Germany then Germany would provide defense against the spread of communism. In conclusion, Britain and France pursued a policy of appeasement in the late 1930’s for a variety of reasons. Public opinion was very much against war, as the horror of the first one was still in living memory. Britain and France could not afford to fight a war; they were more concerned with the social situation in their own countries, and with protecting their empires.

Question 8.
(a) Give a critical account of the main features of the Great Leap Forward Policy adopted by Mao Tse Tung. [6]
(b) What was the significance of the Great Leap ? [6]
Answer:
(a) The Great Leap Forward was an effort made by the Communist Party of China (CPC) under the leadership of Mao Zedong (also known as Mao Tse-tung) to transform China into a society capable of competing with other industrialized nations, within a short, five-year time period. In January 1958, the Great Leap Forward, the second Five-Year Plan, was launched, and between 1958 and 1960, millions of Chinese citizens were moved to communes to work on farms or in manufacturing. Private farming was prohibited.

The Great Leap Forward, intended to be a five-year effort, was halted in 1960 after three brutal years. The initiative is said to have cost an estimated 20 to 48 million lives as a result of catastrophic economic policy, compounded by adverse weather conditions including a flood that killed 2 million people and the subsequent crop failures that led to starvation. In addition to the fatalities, the Great Leap Forward had negative environmental impacts as communes were encouraged to set up “backyard” production plants for needed supplies such as steel, timber and cement. In 1960, an extensive drought further added to the country’s troubles. Mao Zedong was forced to resign from his position as Head of the State, although he was able to remain in a powerful party position.

(b) The Great Leap Forward of the People’s Republic of China (PRC) was an economic and social campaign by the Communist Party-of China (CPC) from 1958 to 1961. The campaign was led by Mao Tsetung and aimed to rapidly transform the country from an agrarian economy into a socialist society through rapid industrialization and collectivization. However, it is widely considered to have caused the Great Chinese Famine.

The Great Leap Forward proved to be only a sign of things to come under the rule of Mao Zedong. Chinese society, on every level, was turned upside down as a result of the policies of the GLF. With the notable exception of the Soviet Union under Stalin, during no other time period was such an effort made to mobilize such a large number of people and so quickly. As a testament to the power of the Chinese Communist Party, they were able to take an entire population (some 600 million people) and put them to work towards the common goals that were believed to be for the greater good. This fact alone is quite remarkable. Of course, the negative side of these changes is even more astounding.

During the Great Leap Forward, it is estimated that over 24 million Chinese died as a result of starvation due to the policies of the CCP. The death toll incurred during this short time period of only 2 years, far exceeds the 15 million who died in the bloodiest modem war, World War II. Another factor that makes this atrocity as amazing as it is the fact that it was occurring right in front of the government’s face, yet they were unable or unwilling to do anything about it. Even more important for today’s society, one must recognize that this occurred only 43 yeafs ago. Historically, perhaps the most important aspect of the Great Leap Forward is that it served as a .

key pre-cursor of the Cultural Revolution that was to occur just 6 years after the Great Leap was brought to an end. Despite having lost some of the faith of the Chinese people as a result of his policy making failures during the Great Leap and previous to it (the 100 Flowers Campaign), Mao Zedong did not allow these setbacks to deter him from fulfilling his vision of Chinese Socialism. The Great Leap had proven that the Chinese people could easily be manipulated to the CCP’s wishes, whether it was out of voluntary compliance or outright fear. It was with this understanding in mind that he would once again seek to alter China’s political and social structure to his liking during the Cultural Revolution of 1966-1976, once again only to create horrendous consequences for the Chinese people.

Question 9.
(a) Discuss the main features of Mikhail Gorbachev’s policies of Glasnost and Perestroika. [6]
(b) Briefly discuss the events that led to the end of Commission in East Germany. [6]
Answer:
(a) When Mikhail S. Gorbachev (1931) became general secretary of the Communist Party of the Soviet Union in March 1985, he launched his nation on a dramatic new course. His dual program of “Perestroika” (“Restructuring”) and “Glasnost” (“Openness”) introduced profound changes in economic practice, internal affairs and international relations. Perestroika, his restmcturing concept, started with an overhaul of the top members of the Communist Party. It also focused on economic issues, replacing the Centralized Government planning that had been a hallmark of the Soviet system with a greater reliance on market forces. The accompanying concept of Glasnost sought to ease the strict social controls imposed by the Government. Gorbachev gave greater freedom to the media and religious groups and allowed citizens to express divergent views. By 1988, Gorbachev had expanded his reforms to include democratization, moving the USSR towards an elected form of Government.

(b)The fall of Berlin wall was just a tipping point in the disintegration of USSR. It marked an important point in history with some scholars declaring it as end of communism. Following events are the precursor to the fall of Berlin wall or end of communism in East Germany :
Sudden change in structure of economy proposed by Gorbachev, which created a shock to existing structure and notwithstanding change, it led to the eventual collapse of communist economies.

Gorbachev’s policy of freedom of expression: This led to discontent being expressed freely, finally leading to a strong protest against communist economy. Example- A group called New Forum was formed in East Germany,which pressed for reforms in East Germany.

Gorbachev’s policy of more power to states: This led to states like Hungary opening its borders to its western neighbours eventually leading to east Germans flocking in numbers to other western countries in search of jobs and livelihood.

Above events combined led to the eventual fall of Berlin wall; when group of 5,00,000 protestors gathered and marched towards Berlin wall leading to its fall. Consequences of such fall has been phenomenal. East Germany having cheap labour and non-competitive industries lead its citizens to move in other economies in search of job and strengthening of industries in west Germany as they are more competitive. Moreover, generations which witnessed such fall continue to dominate the thinking and polity of Germany, in which more liberal western expresses multiculturalism whereas east Germans continue to be dominated by conservatives. But both Germany in regret of nazism that existed there, try to accommodate all cultures and peoples in its economy and society.

Question 10.
(a) Why was there a significant change in the US Government’s attitude towards racial discrimination with the appointment of the Truman Committee (1946) ? [6]
(b) Briefly evaluate Dr. Martin Luther King’s role in the Civil Rights Move-ments. [6]
Answer:
(a) Harry Truman is a name usually associated with America’s Civil Rights movement. The main ‘points’ that happened after his presidency were Montgomery, Little Rock, Birmingham, the careers of Martin Luther King and Stokely Carmichael. However, some very important civil rights issues were covered ‘ in his presidency. In 1946, Truman did establish a civil rights committee whose task was to examine violence against African Americans within America itself. This committee was filled with known liberals who Truman knew would produce a report that would and should shock mainstream America. The report was issued in October 1947.

The report was called “To Secure These Rights”. It was highly critical of a nation that appeared to tolerate the way African Americans were treated at a time that the nation also claimed to be the world’s leading light of democracy and protecting the world against the evils of communism, which destroyed the individual rights of the people under the tyranny of Communist Governments. The report wanted the Federal Government to use its authority to end segregation in America and lynching to be made a federal offence. The poll tax abolished voting rights introduced for African Americans which guaranteed their right to vote in elections free from threats of violence.

The FEPC made a permanent feature in America to end discrimination in inter-state traveling to end discrimination in the armed forces. The powerful Justice Department in Washington have a permanent Civil Rights section for Government financial backing for law suits to be taken by African Americans or others in favor of civil rights; when heard in a federal court for the creation of the United States Commission on Civil Rights.

During less than 13 years of Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr.’s leadership of the modem American Civil Rights Movement, from December, 1955 until April 4, 1968, African Americans achieved more genuine progress towards racial equality in America than the previous 350 years had produced. Dr. King is widely regarded as America’s pre-eminent advocate of non-violence and one of the greatest nonviolent leaders in world history.

Drawing inspiration from both, his Christian faith and the peaceful teachings of Mahatma Gandhi, Dr. King led a non-violent movement in the late 1950’s and 60’s to achieve legal equality for African-Americans in the United States.

His contributions are manifold :
In 1955, he was recruited to serve as spokesman for the Montgomery Bus Boycott, which was a campaign by the African- American population of Montgomery, Alabama to force integration of the city’s bus lines. After 381 days of nearly universal participation by citizens of the black community, many of them had to walk miles to work each day. As a result, the U.S. Supreme Court ruled that racial segregation in transportation was unconstitutional.

In 1957, Dr. King was elected as the Conference (SCLC), an organization designed to provide new leadership for the now burgeoning civil rights movement.

In 1963, he led a coalition of numerous civil rights groups in a non-violent campaign aimed at Birmingham, Alabama, which at the time was described as the “most segregated city in America.” It was during this campaign that Dr. King drafted the “Letter from a Birmingham Jail,” the manifesto of Dr. King’s philosophy and tactics, which is a required- reading material in universities worldwide.

Later in 1963, Dr. King was one of the driving forces behind the March for Jobs and Freedom, more commonly known as the “March on Washington,” which drew over a quarter-million people to the national mall. It was at this March that Dr. King delivered his famous “I Have a Dream” speech, which cemented his status as a social change leader and helped inspire the nation to act on civil rights. Dr. King was later named as Time magazine’s “Man of the Year”.

Also in 1964, partly due to the March on Washington, Congress passed the landmark Civil Rights Act, essentially eliminating legalized racial segregation in the United States. The legislation made it illegal to discriminate against blacks or other minorities in hiring, public accommodations, education or transportation areas which at the time were still very segregated in many places.

The next year, 1965, Congress went on to pass the Voting Rights Act, which was an equally-important set of laws that eliminated the remaining barriers to voting for African- Americans, who in some locales had been almost completely disenfranchised. This legislation resulted directly from the Selma to Montgomery, AL March for Voting Rights lead by Dr. King.

Between 1965 and 1968, Dr. King shifted his focus towards economic justice- which he highlighted by leading several campaigns in Chicago, Illinois – and international peace – which he championed by speaking out strongly against the Vietnam War.

Question 11.
Discuss the causes and consequences of the Suez War of 1956. [12]
Answer 11.
Causes of the war :
Vital British interest : The Suez Canal provided Britain with a shorter sea route to its empire and, as the 20th century dawned and oil grew in importance, it provided a short sea route to the oilfields of the Persian Gulf. Britain was, therefore, committed to protect the canal.

The crisis builds : The Suez Crisis of 1956 has its roots in the post-war upsurge of nationalism in Egypt. In 1951, Nahas Pasha, leader of the recently-elected nationalist Wafd party revoked the Anglo-Egyptian Treaty of 1936. British threats to occupy Cairo prompted King Farouk of Egypt to dismiss Nahas Pasha, but in July 1952 Farouk was overthrown in a military coup and General Mohammed Neguib seized power in 1954, Colonel Gamel Abdul Nasser replaced General Neguib. He had three goals: to make Egypt independent by ending British occupation; to build up Egyptian forces for a successful attack on Israel; to improve Egypt’s economy by constructing a high dam at Aswan to irrigate the Nile valley.

Appeasement fears : In February 1955, Anglo-Egyptian affairs were strained once more by Eden’s decision to deprive Nasser of promised British arms. In April, Eden succeeded Winston Churchill as the Prime Minister.

Treaties and collusion : The end of the Second World War in 1945 had brought a period of rapid change. The creation of the state of Israel in 1948 was followed by the first Arab-Israeli War, and a renewed upsurge of Arab nationalism made the Middle-east a volatile region. The United States had emerged from World War II as a global super power and, as a former colony itself it was committed to overseeing the decolonization of the globe.

Military action : On 29 October 1956, the Israeli attack was spearheaded by an airborne drop to seize control of the Mitla Pass. On 5 November, some three months and 10 days after Nasser had nationalized the canal, the Anglo-French assault on Suez was launched. It was preceded by an aerial bombardment, which grounded and destroyed the Egyptian Air Force. At midnight on 6 November, a cease-fire was called on the insistence of UN Secretary General Dag Hammarskjold. The Anglo-French forces had reached El Cap, just south of Port Said, but were not yet in control of the entire canal when they were stopped. Militarily, the operation was well on its way to being a great success.

Britain, France and Israel to withdraw their troops from Egypt. In Britain too there had been widespread outrage. A United Nations peacekeeping force was sent in to supervise the ceasefire and to restore order. The Suez Canal was cleared and reopened, but Britain in particular found its standing with the US weakened and its influence ‘east of Suez’ diminished by the adventure.

ISC Class 12 History Previous Year Question Papers

ISC History Previous Year Question Paper 2017 Solved for Class 12

Maximum Marks: 80
Time allowed: Three hours

• Candidates are allowed additional 15 minutes for only reading the paper. They must NOT start writing during this time.
• Answer Question 1 (Compulsory) from Part I and five questions from Part II, choosing two questions from Section A, two
• questions from Section B and one question from either Section A or Section B.
• The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Part-I (20 Marks)
Answer all questions.

Question 1. [20]
(i) Name the first All-India Peasant Organisation.
(ii) What was the most important reform introduced at the provisional level, by the Government of India Act, 1935 ?
(iii) Who said, “You give me blood, I will give you freedom” ?
(iv) Name the first Chief Election Commissioner of independent India.
(v) Name the leader of the Indian National Congress (O) party that was formed after the split in the Congress (1969).
(vi) What is the historical significance of 25 June, 1975, in the context of Indian democracy ?
(vii) Where was the first Summit of the Non- Aligned Nations held ?
(viii) Why was the Indian government not prepared for the sudden attack on India by the Chinese army in 1962 ?
(ix) Who began the Total Revolution (Sampoorna Kranti) Movement is Bihar (1974) ?
(x) Against which social evil was a campaign launched by the Shree Sangharsh Organisation ?
(xi) State any one reason why Mussolini helped General Franco in the Spanish Civil War.
(xii) Mention any one serious tactical mistake made by the Japanese in the Second World War.
(xiii) Name the policy on the basis of which
communes were introduced in China.
(xiv) Who was the African nationalist leader of the Kenya African Unity Party (KAU) ?
(xv) What was the main issue that led to a disagreement between the Allied Powers at the Potsdam Conference of 1945 ?
(xvi) How did the fall of communism in East Europe impact the future of Germany, in October 1990 ?
(xvii) Under which US President was the Civil Rights Act of 1964 passed ?
(xviii) What was Martin Luther King’s dream ?
(xix) What was the Balfour Declaration of 1917 ?
(xx) Name the signatories of the Camp David Accord of 1979.
Answer:
(i) The first All India Peasant Organisation was Akhil Bharatiya Kisan Sabha or All India Kisan Sabha.

(ii) Provincial autonomy.

(iii) Subhash Chandra Bose.

(iv) Sukumar Sen.

(v) Kamaraj and later Morarji Desai.

(vi) On 25 June, 1975, State of internal emergency was declared by the Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.

(vii) Belgrade.

(viii) (a) India and China had singned the Panchsheel based on five principles of Peaceful coexistence.
(b) Army was not prepared for attack.
(c) Over faith of India towards China.

(ix) Jayaprakash Narayan.

(x) The Shree Sangharsh Organisation launched a campaign against oppression of women.

(xi) On 28th November, the Italian government signed a secret treaty with the Spanish Nationalists. In return for military aid, the Nationalist agreed to allow Italy to establish bases in Spain if there was a war with France.

(xii) Attacking Pearl Harbor and attacking Soviet forces from Manchuria were the serious tactical mistakes made by Japanese in the Second World War.

(xiii) The great leap forward.

(xiv) Jomo Kenyatta.

(xv) Post war fate of Germany.

(xvi) The fall of communism in East Europe had an impact on the future of Germany in following two ways :

1. The two Germanies were reunified ,
2. fall of Berlin wall.

(xvii) President Lyndon Johnson.

(xviii) An end to racism in the United States and called for civil economic rights.

(xix) The Balfour Declaration was a short letter by Arthur Balfour to arguably one of the most influential Jewish families – the Rothschild’s. It was assumed that the letter was all about the British government’s support to the creation of a Jewish homeland in Palestine.

(xx) The Camp David accord was signed in the United States on September 17,, 1978 by Israeli Prime Minister Menachem Begin and Egyptian President Anwar El-Sadat.

Part-II (60 Marks)

Answer five questions in all, choosing two questions from Section A, two questions from Section B and one question from either Section A or Section B

Section-A

Question 2.
(a) Under what national and international circumstances was the Cripps Mission sent to India in 1942 ? State any four proposals of the Cripps Mission Plan. [6]
(b) Give an account of the repressive measures adopted by the Government to supress the Quit India Movement. [6]
Answer:
(a) Japan fought the Second World War against the British. In December 1941, they attacked Pearl harbour, an American naval base. It was also making significant gains in South-east Asia, which brought it closer to the borders of India. Hence, the British government was forced to seek the support of the leaders of India. There was a considerable pressure from the Allies, especially the USA on the Britain to grant constitutional reforms to India.

In March 1942, the British Government sent Stafford Cripps, the leader of the House of Commons in England, to India with a set of proposals in order to seek its support for the war.
Main proposal of the Cripps Mission :

1. The British Government would set up an Indian Union with a dominion status.
2. The proposed union would be free to decide its relations with Britain.
3. The Government would constitute a Constituent Assembly, which would frame the Constitution.
4. Some of the members of this assembly were to be elected by the provincial assemblies through proportional representation. The other members were to be nominated by the princes of the Indian states.
5. Any provinces not willing to join the Indian union would be free to frame a separate Constitution and form a separate union.
6. The British Government desired for effective participation of Indians in the governor- general’s council.
7. The defence of India would remain in the hands of the British.

(b) The arrest of Gandhi and the Congress leaders led to mass demonstrations throughout India. Thousands were killed and injured in the wake of the Quit India Movement. Strikes were called in many places. The British swiftly suppressed many of these demonstrations by mass detentions; more than 100,000 people were imprisoned. At many places houses were burnt by the police, huge amounts of fines were realized from the people. Women and children were assaulted. There were firings on as many as 538 occasions by the police and the military.

The entire Congress leadership was cut off from the rest of the world for over three years. At many places houses were burnt by the police, huge amounts of fines were taken from the people. By November 1942, the official figures revealed 1,028 as killed and 3125 as seriously wounded. The figures no doubt were very less and the real death was much more. The movement revealed the people’s fighting spirit and their laying for freedom. This movement thus served as an eye-opener to the British Government about India’s attitude to imperialism.

Question 3.
(a) Explain the main features of the Mountbatten Plan. [6]
(b) Why did the Congress agree to the proposal for the partition of India ? [6]
Answer:
(a) 1. The provincial assemblies of Punjab and Bengal would, by simple majority, decide on the issue of partition. If the assemblies voted for partition, there would be two dominions and two Constituent Assemblies.
2. The province of Sindh was free to take its own decision.
3. A referendum would be organized in NWFP to decide on remaining in the Indian union or the other union.
4. The Indian princely states were either to join Pakistan or the Indian union.
5. If the partition was accepted then a boundary commission would be set up.
6. Both the dominions would be independent in determining their foreign relations and about the nature of their relations with the commonwealth countries and Britain.
7. Independence would come on 15th August,1947.

(b) 1. Peaceful and immediate transfer of power.
2. Getting rid of undemocratic means.
3. Communal situation in the country.
4. League’s negative tactics.
5. Threat to the unity of India.
6. Alternative of accepting a loose federation.
7. Threat of civil war.

Question 4.
(a) Discuss the circumstances that let to the formation of the Janata Government in 1977. [6]
(b) Why did the Janata Government fail ? [6]
Answer:
(a) The Janata Party was formed by political leaders and activists of various political parties who had been united in opposing the state of emergency imposed in 1975 by the then-Prime Minister Indira Gandhi. After elections were called in 1977, the Janata Party was formed from the union of the Congress (O), Swatantra Party, Socialist Party of India, Bharatiya Jana Sangh and the Lok Dal. Congress defector Jagjivan Ram, Hemvati Nandan Bahuguna and Nandini Satpathy formed the Congress for Democracy and joined the Janata alliance. The widespread unpopularity of Emergency rule gave Janata and its allied a landslide victory in the election.

(b) The Janata Government failed because of the following reasons:

1. The Janata Government began to wither as significant ideological and political divisions emerged.
2. The party consisted of veteran socialists, trade unionists and pro-business leaders, making major economic reforms which were difficult to achieve without triggering a public divide.
3. Socialists and secular Janata politicians shared an aversion to the Hindu nationalist agenda of the Rashtriya Swayam Sevak Sangh.
4. The Government had failed to prove most of the allegations and obtained few convictions.
5. Cases against Indira Gandhi had also stalled for lack of evidence, and her continued prosecution began to evoke sympathy for her from the Indian public and anger of her supporters.
6. Through 1979, support for Morarji Desai had declined considerably due to worsening economic conditions as well as the emergence of allegations of nepotism and corruption involving members of his family.
7. Desai also lost the support of the secular and socialist politicians in the party, who saw him as favouring the Hindu nationalist BJS.
8. On 19 July 1979, Desai resigned from the Government and eventually retired to his home
9. The broken health of Jayaprakash Narayan made it hard for him to remain politically active and act as a unifying influence, thereby his death in 1979 deprived the party of its most popular leader.
10. Dissidents placed Charan Singh as the new prime minister in place of Desai.
11. President Reddy appointed Charan Singh as the Prime Minister of a minority Government on the strength of 64 MPs, calling upon him to form a new Government and prove his majority.
12. The departure of Desai and the BJS had considerably diminished Janata’s majority, and numerous Janata MPs refused to support Charan Singh. MPs who were loyal to Jagjivan Ram withdrew themselves from the Janata Party.
13. Former allies such as the DMK, Shiromani Akali Dal and the Communist Party of India (Marxist) had distanced themselves from the Janata party.
14. Desperately seeking enough support for a majority, even Charan Singh sought to negotiate with Congress (I), which refused. After three weeks Charan Singh resigned.

Question 5.
Discuss the causes and consequences of the Indo-Pak war of 1971. [12]
Answer:
The causes of the Indo-Pakistan war of 1971 were as follows:
Differences due to languages – Urdu and Bengali : After Mr. Jinnah became the Governor general of Pakistan, he declared in 1948, ‘Urdu alone would be the state language and the lingua franca of the Pakistan state’. The Bengalis in East Pakistan (present Bangladesh) didn’t appreciate it. They launched an agitation that peaked in 1952. The Pakistan Government relented and granted it the official recognition in 1956.

Political alienation : The East Pakistan was not treated and ruled well by the central Pakistan leadership. When military leaders began to rule the nation, they were even more one-sided with the West Pakistan and the alienation increased. Sheikh Mujibur Rehman, the leader of East Pakistan fought for the rights of East Pakistan. He came up with Six Points movement. It basically sought equal power for the East Pakistan on political, budgetary and military resources. The military leadership of West Pakistan didn’t heed it. Sheikh Mujibur Rehman and East Pakistan felt they were seeking more powers and autonomy. The military and West Pakistan saw it as an effort for separation. Mujibur Rehman was also arrested and imprisoned.

1970 elections and the break point : In the 1970 elections, out of the total 300 seats, Mujibur Rehman’s Awami League came first with 160 seats, followed by Zulfiqar Ali Bhutto’s Pakistan People’s party winning 81 seats and other parties the remaining. The majority required was 151, and Awami League had won it. But the Pakistan military leadership and the West Pakistan political leadership combined to deny a legitimate. When the military establishment was dragging its feet, East Pakistan grew restive. In March 1971, Mujibur Rehman called for independence. The Pakistan President, Gen. Yahya Khan declared martial law in East Pakistan and ordered arrest of Mujibur Rehman. Then, the Pakistan military attacked East Pakistan and refugees flooded into India. Also, some of the East Pakistan forces, the Muktibahini had been trained by Indian armed forces and they attacked Pakistan military. The 1971 Bangladesh liberation war had begun. Following are the Consequences of Indo- Pakistan 1971 War:

1. Creation of Bangladesh (Previously known as East Pakistan): Birth of a new nation.
2. Myth of superiority of Islamic armies busted.
3. Indo-Soviet Friendship.
4. Military posture of Pakistan: With defeat of magnitude comparable to Stalingrad- Pakistan started covert aggression against India through militancy in Kashmir & Punjab.
5. Bid to acquire Nuclear weapons.
6. Signing of Shimla agreement in June 1972 for restoration of peace and order between the two states.

Question 6.
(a) What were the main features of the Towards Equality Report (1974) ? [6]
(b) Discuss briefly the efforts made by various Women’s Movements in India, to root out the social evils of :
(i) Dowry.
(ii) Domestic violence in the 1970’s and 1980’s. [6]
Answer:
(a) The report revealed the deplorable condition of women in the country evident from demographic data, an analysis of the socio-cultural conditions prevalent, the legal provisions and safeguards, economic role played by women in all sectors, women’s access to education, political participation, the policies and programmes for welfare and development, the impact of mass media, etc. The report also made several recommendations which included stressing the important role of the State and the community in the achievement of ‘gender equality’.

It highlighted the need for a concerted effort to eradicate oppressive practices such as dowry, polygamy, bigamy, child marriage, ostentatious expenditure on weddings. It also emphasized the need for a campaign on legal awareness, the provisions of creches, better working conditions for women including equal remuneration for equal work, the compulsory registration of marriages, law reform on aspects concerning divorce, maintenance, inheritance, adoption, guardianship maternity benefits, the universalisation of education, etc. The report reiterated the constitutional goal of a Uniform Civil Code for the country.

(b) (i) The Progressive organisation of Women in Hyderabad organized new and fresh protests against dowry. In the late 1970s, Delhi became the focus of the movement against dowry and the violence inflicted on women in the marital home. Groups which took up the campaign included ‘Shree Sangharsh’ and ‘Mahila Dakshita Samiti’. Later, a joint front called the ‘Dahej Virodhi Chetna Mandal’ (organization for creating consciousness against dowry) was formed under whose umbrella a large number of organizations worked. The anti dowry campaign attempted to bring social pressure to bear on offenders so that they would be isolated in the community in which they lived. Experience in the campaign revealed the need for counseling, legal aid and’ advice to women.

It was in response to this that legal aid and counseling centers were set up in different parts of the country. Women’s organizations also succeeded in getting the dowry law changed,

(ii) The battered women’s movement, as it was called, exposed the failures of the law, medicine and society at large in responding to the 2-4 million women who were beaten in their homes annually. A massive outpouring of feminist activism and service provision for battered women in the mid-1970’s quickly caught the attention of Government officials, law enforcement, social workers and other non- explicitly feminist professionals. By the end of the decade many groups took on the work of the battered women’s movement.

Section—B
Answer any two questions.

Question 7.
(a) State the main aims of Hitler’s foreign policy and his plans to ful fil these aims. [6]
(b) Give an account of the successful events of Hitler’s policy between 1933 and 1938. [6]
Answer 7.
(a) The main aims of Hitler’s foreign policy were:
To destroy the Treaty of Versailles imposed on Germany. After her defeat in World War I, Hitler felt the Treaty was unfair and most Germans supported this view.
In a secret meeting in 1933, it was decided that from 1933 to 1935 Germany would rearm secretly. This would include :

• 300,000 men instead of 100,000.
• 1000 aircraft with secretly trained pilots.
• Barracks airfields and fortifications.
• New air force – Luftwaffe and 2500 aircraft and 300,000 men. In 1933 :
• Took Germany out from league and armament conference.
• Army to sign oath of allegiance.
• Signed non-aggression pact with Poland to make it seem as though Germany was no threat.
• Conscription – MARCH 1935 – announced publicly to have 500,000 men.

To unite all German speakers together in one country. After World War I there were Germans living in many countries in Europe e.g., Austria, Czechoslovakia and Poland. Hitler hoped that by uniting them together in one country he would create a powerful Germany or Grossdeutschland. To expand eastwards into the East (Poland, Russia) to gain land for Germany (Lebensraum living space).

(b) Following are the successful events of Hitlers’s policy between 1933 and 1938 :
The Saar : The Saar, with its rich coalfields, was an industrial area that had been taken from Germany by the Treaty of Versailles and put under the control of the League of Nations. A plebiscite (a vote by the people living in an area to decide the answer to an important question) was to be held after 15 years to decide if it was to be returned to the Germans. The plebiscite was held in January, 1935. The results of the plebiscite showed that over 90% of the population of the Saar wanted to reunite with Germany. Hitler considered this as a great triumph because it was the first of the injustices of the Treaty of Versailles to be reversed.

The Disarmament Conference- 1932-1934 : The conference first met in February. 1932. The main problem that they were discussing was what to do with Germany. Germany had been involved in the League for 6 years and many people accepted that Germany should be treated more fairly than it was said in the terms of the Treaty of Versailles. The question was, should everyone disarm to the level that Germany had been forced to or should the Germans be allowed to rearm to the level of other countries ? The Germans walked out of the conference in July 1932 when the other countries refused to disarm to the level that Germany had to. In May 1933, Hitler returned to the conference and promised that he wouldn’t rearm if ‘in five years all other nations destroyed their arms’. They refused and Hitler withdrew from the conference in October and not much later, the League of Nations.

Non-Aggression Pact with Poland 1934 :
Germany signed a non-aggression pact with Poland in January 1934. Hitler signed this for various reasons, including :
(i) He hoped to weaken the alliance that already existed between Poland and France.
(ii) He hoped to reduce the Polish fears of German aggression.
(iii) He wanted to show that he didn’t have a quarrel with Poland, merely the USSR.

Rearmament: Hitler staged a huge military rally celebrating the armed forces of Germany in 1935. He also reintroduced conscription and announced an army of 550,000 in the same year. An Air Ministry was set up to train pilots and build 1,000 aircraft. Hitler was breaking the terms of the Treaty of Versailles but he believed that he would get away with it due to the collapse of the Disarmament Conference. French, Italian and British representatives meet at the town of Stresa where they agreed to co¬operate to preserve the peace in Europe. They condemned the rearmament of Germany. This was known as the Stresa Front against German aggression. But it didn’t last long. It collapsed due to the Abyssinian Crisis which destroyed the relations between France, Britain and Italy and the Anglo-German Naval Treaty.

Anglo-German Naval treaty 1935 : Hitler was aware that Britain had some sympathy towards Germany regarding rearmament. Britain believed that the terms of the treaty had been too harsh on Germany and that a strong Germany would be a buffer against Communism. In 1935, Britain signed a naval agreement with Germany. This allowed the Germans to have navy fleet up to 35% of the size of the British fleet and had the same number of submarines. The British were accepting Hitler’s breach of the Treaty.

The Remilitarisation of the Rhineland 1936 : On 7th of March, 1936, Hitler moved German troops back into the demilitarised area of the Rhineland. This was a risk for Hitler as it was clearly a breach of the terms of the Treaty of Versailles. Also, the German army consisted of only 22,000 men and if the French army had reacted then there would have been no opposition. The men were also under strict orders to withdraw if they were faced with any opposition. But, neither the French nor British did anything. The troops remained in the Rhineland. Anschluss with Austria 1938 : Hitler was Austrian bom and he wished to see Germany and Austria united as one country.

Question 8.
(a) Discuss the initial achievements of Kwame Nkrumah in the field of internal and external affairs of Ghana. [6]
(b) Explain the reasons for Nkrumah’s downfall and eventual overthrow from power in 1966. [6]
Answer 8.
(a) As the corruption became entrenched, President Nkrumah made a “Dawn Broadcast” in April 1961 to denounce his ministers and other public officials engaged in corruption.
Led Protest Against British Rule in Africa : The ability of President Nkrumah to lead Ghana to attain independence from the British colonial rule is very much appreciated. While before President Nkrumah, Dr. J.B Danquah and others had formed UGGC to fight for independence, it appears they were not capable to lead thus, they invited President Nkrumah from UK to become the General Secretary.

Formed the Convention People’s Party :
The British convened a selected commission of middle-class Africans to draft a new constitution that would give Ghana a self-government. Under the new constitution, only those with money and property would be allowed to vote. Nkrumah organized a “People’s Assembly” with CPP party members, youth, trade unionists, farmers and veterans in September 1948.

Overcame Opposition Within Ghana : Dr. Nkrumah used his CPP’s parliamentary majority to ban all form of opposition and declared Ghana a one party state, and all forms of criticism, including constructive ones, were utterly suppressed.

Passed Bills such as the Avoidance of Discrimination Act 1957 and the Preventive Detention Act of 1958

Nkrumahism emerged as Sole Ideology by developing a One-Party Socialist State

Foreign Policy Based on Pan-Africanism and Liberation : Soon after Dr. Nkrumah became the leader of Ghana, he pursued an aggressive foreign policy, seeking to ultimately unite the whole of Africa. Hence, he was one of the founders of the Organisation of Africa Unity. He worked very tediously towards achieving this goal.

He was a founded member of NAM.

(b) Reason for downfall:
Role of Foreign Agents : It seems established that British and American imperialist circles, as well as the CIA and the British Secret Service, conspired with the military in bringing Nkrumah down.

Type of Mixed Economy : Ghana’s economic structure was a queer mixture of “welfare socialism” of the type seen in Western Europe and typical neo-colonialism. Such a combination hardly seems possible.

Parallel Private Enterprise : Quite a number of Ghanaian businessmen started up private concerns of their own, especially in consumer goods. As the socialist, democratic revolution grew and spread, there remained an under-lying potential for counter-revolution which proved to bring down Nkrumah easily.

Failure to Disarm Generals : As the coup plotters were later to allege, Nkrumah’s reign of terror created fear and panic among the populace. General insecurity created by mistrust came to take over from the well-knit Ghanaian society.

Lessons of the coup : A series of military coups (a quick and decisive seizure of governmental power by a strong military or political group) in the neo-colonialist states controlled by French imperialism like Dahomey, Central African Republic and Upper Volta; the way Ian Smith could get away with his Unilateral Declaration of Independence, and now the overthrow of Nkrumah, all point in the same direction-a seemingly uninterrupted wave of counter-revolutions is sweeping Africa. Only the military coup in Nigeria can be listed as a partial exception.

Nkrumah was a very complicated man. The times were turbulent and unpredict-able and his undertaking was of extraordinary complexity, His successes, his pan-African enthusiasm, the political galvanization of a very diverse, multifaceted society, the attainment of independence for Ghana and his early economic achieve¬ments have earned him an important place in history.

His failure emphasizes the extreme fragility of the developing world. It is a world with little or no tolerance for political, economic, social or natural shortcomings. Nkrumah’s serious shortcomings resulted in his political destruction and the near-devastation of a magnificent land and people.

Question 9.
Explain the deepening of the crisis in East- West relations during the Cold War with reference to :
(a) The Communist takeover of Czechoslovakia (1948). [6]
(b) The Berlin Blockade (1948-49). [6]
Answer 9.
(a) A coalition government was set up and led by the Non-Communist Benes. However, the Communists’ leader Gottwald made sure that they controlled the radio, the army and the police. Gottwald became the prime minister and set up a secret police force. Non¬Communists were arrested. In 1948, Communist workers went on strike, the Non¬Communist minister Masaryk committed suicide and Gottwald took over the government.

1. It was the only remaining democratic state in Eastern Europe.
2. It had a coalition government of communists and other left-wing parties in 1946.
3. The communists had won 38 per cent of the votes and held a third of the cabinet posts.
4. Prime Minister Gottwald was a communist, but President Benes and foreign minister, Masaryk, were non-communists. It was the only bridge between the East and the West.
5. A crisis arose early in 1948: elections were due in May.
6. There were signs that the communists were going to lose the elections as they had rejected the Marshall Plan.
7. The communists decided to act before the elections and took control of the unionsandthe police in an armed coup.

(b) Berlin Blockade (1948-49) : The main cause of the Berlin Blockade was the cold war, which was started during that period. Stalin was taking over eastern Europe by salami tactics and Czechoslovakia had just turned Communist (March 1948). On the other side, the USA had just adopted the Truman Doctrine to ‘contain’ the USSR. The Berlin Blockade was just another event in this ‘Cold War’ between the superpowers. The second reason for the Berlin Blockade was that the USA and the USSR had different aims for what they wanted to do with Germany.

The USSR had already disagreed with Britain and the USA at Potsdam (July 1945) about this. Stalin wanted to destroy Germany, and the USSR had been stripping East Germany of its wealth and machinery. On the other side, Britain and the USA wanted to rebuild Germany’s industry to become a wealthy – trading partner (so as not to repeat the mistake of Versailles). This difference in aims was the underlying cause of the Berlin Blockade. The policy of the USA and the USSR towards Germany was so different that conflict was bound to break out there sooner or later.

These were the two causes which underlay the conflict in Berlin in 1948. Then there were three events which actually led to Stalin blocking off the borders.
Firstly, in January 1947, Britain and the USA joined their two zones together. They called the new zone Bizonia (‘two zones’). The Russians . realized that Britain and USA were beginning to create a new, strong Germany, so they were angry.

Secondly, on 31 March 1948, Congress voted for Marshall Aid. Stalin (rightly) saw this as an attempt to undermine Russian influence in eastern Europe. Immediately, the Russians started stopping and searching all road and rail traffic into Berlin.

Finally, on 1 June, America and Britain announced that they wanted to create the new country of West Germany; and on 23 June they introduced a new currency into ‘Bizonia’ and . western Berlin. People in eastern Europe began to change all their money into the new western currency, which they thought was worth more. The next day the Russians stopped all road and rail traffic into Berlin.

The Americans claimed that Stalin was trying to force the USA out of Berlin, and that the blockade was Russian empire-building in Eastern Europe. Stalin, however, claimed that – by introducing the new currency – the USA and Britain had been trying to wreck the east German economy. He said that the airlift was ‘simply a propaganda move intended to make . the cold war worse.’

Question 10.
Discuss the main features of Apartheid in South Africa and give a brief account of the opposition to Apartheid within South Africa.
Answer 10.
Some Basic Features of Apartheid :
Basic premise : The races must be separated and allowed to develop their own way. In reality it was a system to keep white South Africans in control of the country.

Put into effect when the Afrikaners gained control of the Government (Afrikaners outnumbered other whites).

For years the system was supported theologically by a perversion of the Calvinist doctrine of predestination held in the South African Dutch Reformed Church.

The population was classified into four racial groups and had to carry internal passports which stated to which group the person belonged:

• European- whites – Afrikaners and British.
• Asians – from India – Brought over by the British to build the railroads and became a class of small shop owners.
• Coloured- People of mixed racial background – the largest number being in the Cape Town area.
• Bantu – the black residents of South Africa from numerous tribes.

Intermarriage was not allowed.

Only the white South Africans were considered complete citizens – The Bantu were considered foreigners living in South Africa.

Residence and jobs were determined by racial category – separate jobs, water fountains, benches in the park, residences, hospitals, schools – separate, but no equality was mentioned.

Criticism of the government was considered a Communist activity and was punishable by imprisonment.

Under the 90-day detention act, a person could be held in jail without being charged with a crime for 90 days (could be extended for a second 90 days).

Jnternational sanctions and embargoes helped in bringing an end to the system. Today all people are considered equal citizens of South Africa and Nelson Mandela (imprisoned for 27 yrs.) led the country, as president, into an era of real freedom and equality for all.

Opposition to apartheid within South Africa:
Internal resistance to the apartheid system in South Africa came from several sectors of society and saw the creation of organisations dedicated variously to peaceful protests, passive resistance and armed insurrection.

In 1949, the youth wing of the African National Congress (ANC) took control of the organisation and started advocating for a radical black nationalist programme that combined the tenants of Africanism with those of Marxism. The new young leaders proposed that white authority could only be overthrown through mass campaigns. In 1950 that philosophy saw the launch of the Programme of Action, a series of strikes, boycotts and civil disobedience actions that led to occasionally violent clashes with the authorities.

In 1959, a group of disenchanted ANC members formed the Pan Africanist Congress (PAC), which organised a demonstration against pass books on 21 March 1960. One of those protests was held in the township of Sharpeville, where 69 people were killed in the Sharpeville uprising.

The majority of whites supported apartheid. However, there were some who opposed apartheid, such as Helen Suzman, Colin Eglin and Harry Schwarz.

In the wake of the Sharpeville incident the government declared a state of emergency. More than 18,000 people were arrested, including leaders of the ANC and PAC. As a result both the organisations were banned. The resistance went underground, with some leaders in exile abroad and others engaged in campaigns of domestic sabotage and terrorism.

In the 1970s, the Black Consciousness Movement was created by tertiary students influenced by the American Black Power movement. BC endorsed black pride and African customs and did much to alter the feelings of inadequacy instilled among black people by the apartheid system. The leader of the movement, Steve Biko, was taken into custody on 18 August 1978 and died in detention.

In 1976, secondary students in Soweto protested against forced tution in Afrikaans. On June 16, it was meant to be a peaceful protest, 23 people were killed. In the following years several student organisations were formed with the goal of protesting against apartheid, and
these organisations were central to urban school boycotts in 1980 and 1983 as well as rural boycotts in 1985 and 1986.

In parallel to student protests, labour unions started protest action in 1973 and 1974. After 1976 unions and workers are considered to have played an important role in the struggle against apartheid, filling the gap left by the banning of political parties. In 1979, black trade unions were legalized and could engage in collective bargaining, although strikes were still illegal.

At roughly the same time churches and church groups also emerged as pivotal points of resistance. Church leaders were not immune to prosecution, and certain faith-based organisations were banned, but the clergy generally had more freedom to criticise the Government than militant groups did.

Among the white population, some 20 percent of which did not support apartheid, resistance was largely centred in the South African Communist Party and women’s organisation the Black Sash. Women were also notable in their involvement in trade union organisations and banned political parties.

Question 11.
(a) Give a brief account of the conflict in Palestine after the First World War that led to the outbreak of the Arab-Israel War in 1948. [6]
(b) Discuss the causes and results of the Yom Kippur War (1973). [6]
Answer 11.
(a) Palestine was absorbed into the Ottoman Empire in 1517 and remained under the rule of the Turks until World War One. Towards the end of this war, the Turks were defeated by the British forces led by General Allenby. In the peace talks that followed the end of the war, parts of the Ottoman Empire were handed over to the French to control and parts were handed over to the British – including Palestine. Britain governed this area under a League of Nations mandate from 1920 to 1948. To the Arab population who lived there, it was their homeland and had been promised to them by the Allies for help in defeating the Turks by the McMahon Agreement – though the British claimed the agreement gave no such promise.

The same area of land had also been promised to the Jews (as they had interpreted it) in the Balfour Declaration and after 1920, many Jews migrated to the area and lived with the far more numerous Arabs there. At this time, the area was ruled by the British and both Arabs and Jews appeared to live together in some form of harmony in the sense that froth tolerated the existence of the other. There were problems in 1921 but between that year and 1928/29, the situation stabilized.

The main problem after the war for Palestine was perceived beliefs. The Arabs had joined the Allies to fight the Turks during the war and convinced themselves that they were due to be given what they believed was their land once the war was over.

Clashing with this was the belief among all Jews that the Balfour Declaration had promised them the same piece of territory. In August 1929, relations between the Jews and Arabs in Palestine broke down. The focal point of this discontent was Jerusalem.

The primary cause of trouble was the increased influx of Jews who had immigrated to Palestine. The number of Jews in the region had doubled in ten years.
The city of Jerusalem also had major religious significance for both Arabs and Jews and over 200 deaths occurred in just four days in August (23rd to the 26th).

Arab nationalism was whipped up by the Mufti of Jerusalem, Haji Amin al-Husseini. He claimed that the number of Jews threatened the very lifestyle of the Arabs in Palestine.

In May 1936, more violence occurred and the British had to restore law and order using the military. Thirty four soldiers were killed in the process. The violence did not stop. In fact, it became worse after November 1937.

For the Arabs there were two enemies – the Jews and the British authorities based in Palestine via their League mandate. For the Jews there were also two enemies – the Arabs and the British.

Therefore, the British were pushed into the middle of a conflict they had seemingly little control over as the two other sides involved were so driven by their own beliefs. In an effort to end the violence, the British put a quota on the number of Jews who could enter Palestine in any one year. They hoped to appease the Arabs in the region but also keep on side with the Jews by recognizing that Jews could enter Palestine – but in restricted numbers. They failed on both counts.

Both the Jews and the Arabs continued to attack the British. Many Jews had fought for the Allies during World War Two and had developed their military skills as a result. After the war ended in 1945, these skills were used in acts of terrorism. the aftermath of the Holocaust in Europe, many throughout the world were sympathetic to the plight of the Jews at the expense of the Arabs in Palestine.

However, neither group got what they were looking for. The British still controlled Palestine. As a result, the Jews used terrorist tactics to push their claim for the area. Groups such as the Stem Gang and IrgunZvaiLeumi attacked the British that culminated in the destruction of the British military headquarters in Palestine – the King David Hotel. Seemingly unable to influence events in Palestine, the British looked for a way out In 1947, the newly formed United Nations accepted the idea to partition Palestine into a zone for the Jews (Israel) and a zone for the .Arabs (Palestine). With this United Nations proposal, the British withdrew from the region on May 14th 1948. Almost immediately, Israel was attacked by Arab nations that surrounded in a war that lasted from May 1948 to January 1949.

(b) The Yom Kippur War can be traced to three factors:

1. The failure of all international initiatives for the resolution of the Arab-Israeli dispute.
2. The emergence of an Arab coalition which was able and willing to do battle with Israel.
3. The steady flow of arms from the superpowers to their regional clients.

Effects of war:

1. Syria was unable to capitalize on its (brief) gains in the war.
2. The primary effect of Egyptian-Israeli war was the fact that, in giving Israel a bloody nose, Egypt was able to achieve a sense of quid-pro- quo (a favor or advantage granted in return for something) – posts the 1967 debacle, in a way to achieve a “victory”.
3. The primary Israeli effect of war was to kick off the final crumbling of the hegemony of the Israeli Labour party leadership and the rise of the Likud on the other hand.
4. The blood-letting in the war briefly made Israel to be willing to negotiate withdrawal from conquered lands. This allowed Egypt to achieve its longer pre-war aims of recovering the Sinai peninsula in its entirety in exchange for a peace agreement in Israel. So, peace and withdrawal are two very significant after-effects.
5. Militarily, the war gave a positive proof  of the efficacy of the anti-tank missile and, to a lesser degree, the surface-to-air missile (these latter had a great test in Vietnam too).

ISC Class 12 History Previous Year Question Papers

ISC Physical Education Previous Year Question Paper 2017 Solved for Class 12

Section-A (40 Marks)
Answer any five questions.

Question 1.
Discuss the role of Physical Education in the development of an individual through the medium of games and sports. [8]
Answer:

1. Games and sports help not only in physical fitness but also the psychological. A combination of physical and psychological fitness leads to an overall development of an individual.
2. Games and sports help an individual to maintain a good shape and size of the body.
3. They also help in the improvement of the physiological capacities of the various systems of the body. Games and sports affect not only the physical and physiological aspects of the body but also the psychological fitness.
4. They help to improve perception, emotional stability, motivation and intelligence of an individual.
5. They help the individual to bear stress and tension better. Therefore, we can see that games and sports helps in the overall development of an individual.

Question 2.
Explain the procedure of conducting circuit training, with the help of a diagram. Explain any four benefits of circuit training. [8]
Answer:
Circuit training is a form of body conditioning or resistance training using high- intensity aerobics. It targets strength building or muscular endurance. An exercise “circuit” is one completion of all prescribed exercises in the program.

Four benefits of Circuit Training :

1. Get Maximum Results in Minimum Time : Circuit training is the perfect workout for the time-crunched fitness fiend. You can set up as many or as few stations as you like and then continue through the circuit until your time runs out. You can fit it in effective, total-body workout whether you have 15 min or an hour.
2. Send your Metabolism Soaring : Circuit training kicks your fat-burning furnace into high gear. You’ll torch more calories in 20 minutes than you would in an entire hour on the elliptical reading a magazines. Plus, the afterbum effect will have you torching calories for up to 48 hours after your workout ends.
3. Never Waste Another Minute : It’s easy to swap out one station for a different exercise and still get the same great workout.
4. Beat Gym Boredom : Circuit training is such a flexible format, the options in how you set up your workout are limitless. Whether you like to stick to one routine for a while to measure your progress or prefer mixing it up every time you go to the gym, having a plan will makes you more confident and efficient.

Question 3.
Explain the meaning of weight training. Write any eight weight training exercises. [8]
Answer:
Weight training is a common type of strength training for developing the strength and size of skeletal muscles. It utilizes the force of gravity in the form of weighted bars, dumbbells or weight stacks in order to oppose the force generated by muscle through concentric or eccentric contraction. Weight training uses a variety of specialized equipment to target specific muscle groups and types of movement.

(1) Bodybuilding : Bodybuilders train in a specific manner to achieve a specific goal making their muscles bigger. They tend to lift in the eight- to 12-rep range and only train one muscle group per day, per week. This type of training is the best for making your muscles larger but not necessarily stronger.

(2) Power Lifting : Power lifting is the best type of training for maximal strength what many people would consider “brute” strength. A power lifter’s goal isn’t appearance, it’s strength. Power lifters focus on lifting an extremely heavy amount of weight for only a few repetitions.

Circuit Weight Training : Circuit weight training is when you do a number of exercises in quick succession, usually lifting a light amount of weight for a high number of repetitions. For example, doing 20 bench presses, 20 squats and shoulder presses with little or no rest in between. This type of training is ideal for burning fat, increasing endurance and making some gains in strength.

(4) Isometric Weight Training : Isometric weight training is when you hold a weight up in one position for a given amount of time without going through a range of motion. For example, holding a dumbbell straight in front of you for 30 seconds. This type of training increases your stamina and makes you stronger in the positions you hold.

(5) High-Volume Training : High volume training is similar to body building in the sense that you only work your muscle groups once a week. This type of training places a strong emphasis on increasing muscular endurance one exercise at a time. Not only does it make your muscles larger, it also makes them better at keeping up a certain amount of resistance for a long period of time. It is done is by performing one exercise at a time, lifting the same amount of weight 10 times for 10 sets. Each week, you try to increase the amount of weight slightly.

(6) Resistance Bands : With resistance bands you can strengthen and tone all the major muscle groups. The advantage of resistance bands is that you can adjust the resistance, using less resistance when needed or increasing the resistance to increase the challenge.

(7) Pull-Ups : A pull-up is when your hands are facing away from you. This will work your back and biceps.

(8) Back Squat: This is the squat movement where the biggest amount of weight is moved. This is the one and original squat movement which has been around for as long as people have been lifting weights.

Question 4.
What is International Olympic Committee (IOC) ? Write any five functions of the IOC. [8]
Answer:
The body that governs the Olympic Games is the International Olympic Committee (IOC). This is a non-governmental organization that was created on June 23rd 1894, Paris, France based in Lausanne Switzerland, by Baron Pierre De Coubertin. IOC is the governing body of Modem Olympic Games.

Main Role-Functions of International Olympic Committee (IOC) : As IOC being the governing body, it has various roles and functions. The roles and functions are as follows :

1. To boost support and promote ethics in games and sports.
2. To encourage and support the organization, its progress, coordination of sports and sporting competition.
3. To act in contradiction of any form of discrimination that disturbs the Olympic Movement.
4. To execute the principle of equality between men and women by encouraging and supporting in elevating the women in sports at all level.
5. To fight against illegal practices by atheletes (doping) in sport.

Question 5.
What is meant by correct posture ? Explain any two common postural deformities. [8]
Answer:
Correct posture means the balancing of body in accurate and proper manner while sitting, standing, reading and writing, walking, running or during any other action.

Postural deformities imply not having proper alignment of body parts. An individual who has postural deformities cannot perform his work efficiently. Some postural deformities are kyphosis, flat foot, knock knee etc.

(1) Lordosis : Lordosis denotes or indicates increased anterior curvature of spine. It is an exaggeration or increase in the amount of the normal concavity of the lumber region of the spine, i.e., an increase in the extension curve of the lumber region beyond normal region. It is inward curvature of the spine with protruding abdomen resulting in hollow back.

(2) Scoliosis : The term scoliosis is derived from a Greek word, which actually means twisting or bending. Scoliosis means a lateral bending of spine to one or more sides from midline. It is an exaggerated lateral curvature i.e. sideward curvature or deviation of the spine, with the shoulder lower and hip higher on one side. It may be present in a very small part of spine or it can involve the whole or major part of spine. Usually there is a single curve in one direction only and called ‘C’ curve scoliosis. When two or more than two lateral curves are present in the spine, that is called ‘S’ curve scoliosis or compound and double scoliosis.

Question 6.
Explain the meaning of Health Education. Mention any five principles of health education. [8J
Answer:
Health education is one strategy of health promotion and is focused on helping individuals learn and use health-enhancing skills. Health education helps to know about the causes and occurrence of various diseases that mainly is the result Of sedentary lifestyles and lack of activities. So knowing of these may help people to participate in physical activities. It will also helpful to know about the nutritional facts, healthy and harmful food and suitable physical activity or exercise for an individual.

Principles of Health Education :

1. Supported by the latest knowledge from research.
2. A systematic, comprehensive and consistent activity.
3. Respects environment or culture of an individual.
4. Encourages personal investment of an individual.
5. Adapted to age, gender, education and particular health, mental or social problems of an individual or community.

Question 7.
Write short notes on the following : [8]
(a) Cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
(b) Stimulants.
Answer:
(a) Cardiopulmonary resuscitation :
Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is a procedure to support and maintain breathing and circulation for an infant, child, or adolescent who has stopped breathing (respiratory arrest) and/or whose heart has stopped (cardiac arrest).

CPR is performed to restore and maintain breathing and circulation and to provide oxygen and blood flow to the heart, brain and other vital organs. CPR can be performed by trained lay people or healthcare professionals on infants, children, adolescents and adults.

(b) Stimulants : A stimulant which is one of the classes of doping that comprises types of drugs that increases alertness, reduce fatigue and also enhances competitiveness, and hostility. Using of this also produces loss of judgements that may lead to accidents to others in some sports. Some of the examples are like amphetamine, cocaine, pentetetrazol, phentermine, ephedrine etc. It improves the performances by providing a psychological and physical stimulus. It increases the heart and breathing rates, the functions of the brain and aggressiveness. They are taken orally, by sniffing, by smoking or by injecting in the body.

Section-B (30 Marks)

• Select any two games from this Section
• Answer any three of the five subparts (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) from each of the two games selected by you.
• Each subpart is for 5 marks.

FOOTBALL

Question 8. [3 x 5]
(a) Draw a neat diagram of a football field, showing all its specifications. [5]
(b) State any five ways of trapping the ball by various body parts. [5]
(c) Mention the basic compulsory equipment used by a football player. [5]
(d) Explain goal-kick. When is a goal-kick awarded ? [5]
(e) Explain the following : [5]
(i) IFAB
(ii) AIFF
Answer 8.
(a)

(b)

1. You can trap both high and low balls with your foot in many different ways.
2. You can trap balls on the ground, in the air and during or just after the bounce.
3. You can trap the ball with the inside, outside, underside and top of the foot.
4. There are two basic ways of trapping a high ball.
5. One is to allow the ball to bounce up a little when trapping it.
6. You can then play the ball on before it reaches the ground.

(c) The basic compulsory equipments required by a football player are :

1. A jersey or shirt with sleeves.
2. Shorts : If thermal undershorts are worn, they are of the same main colour as the shorts.
3. Stockings
4. Shinguards : These are covered entirely by the stockings. These are made of a suitable material (rubber, plastics or similar substances). They provide a reasonable degree of protection.
5. Footwear

(d) Goal-kick : When the whole of the ball passes over the goal-line excluding that portion between the goal posts, either in the air or on the ground, having last been played by one of the attacking team, it shall be kicked directly into play beyond the penalty area from a point within that half of the goal-area nearest to the point where it crossed the line by a player of the defending team. A goal-keeper shall not receive the ball into his hands from a goal- kick in order that he may thereafter kick it into play. If the ball is not kicked beyond the penalty area i.e. directly into play, the kick shall be retaken. The kicker shall not play the ball a second time until it has touched or been played by another player. A goal shall not be scored directly from such a kick. Players of the opposite team shall remain outside the penalty-area until the ball has been kicked out of the penalty area.

A goal kick is awarded to the defending team when the ball goes out of the field of play by crossing either on the ground or in the air, the goal line, without a goal being scored, when the last person to touch the ball was from the attacking team.

(e) (i) IFAB : The International Football Association Board.

It is the body that determines the laws of the game of association football. IFAB was founded in 1886 to agree standardised laws for international competition, and has since acted as the “guardian” of the internationally used Laws; since its establishment in 1904 FIFA, the sport’s top governing body, has recognised IFAB’s jurisdiction over the Laws.

IFAB is known to take a highly conservative attitude regarding changes to the laws of the Game.

(ii) AIFF : The AIFF is a National Association registered with the Registrar of Societies, Mumbai, under the Societies Registration Act, 1860. The Headquarters of the AIFF is in Dwarka, New Delhi. AIFF is a member of FIFA, AFC and Indian Olympic Association and is self obliged to respect the Statues, Regulations, Directives and decisions of FIFA and AFC and to ensure that these are likewise respected by its members. Its main objective is to improve and popularise the game of football constantly and promote it throughout India in the light of its unifying, educational, cultural and humanitarian values, particularly through youth and development programmes to urban, rural and remote areas including Schools, Colleges and Universities. Its responsibility is to draw up regulations and provisions and ensure their enforcement.

CRICKET

Question 9. [3 x 5]
(a) State any five pre-match duties of the umpire. [5]
(b) Name any five different variations of spin bowling, in cricket. [5]
(c) Specify the measurement of the following : [5]
(i) Length and width of a bat
(ii) Circumference and weight of a ball
(iii) Length of wickets above the ground.
(d) Write any five instances when a ball becomes dead. [5]
(e) Explain the following terms : [5]
(i) An appeal (ii) Bump ball
Answer:
(a)

(a) Day n to Previous Day :

• Acknowledge the appointment and seek particulars relevant to the match. (Venue, Date, Teams, Partners, Scorers etc.)
• Connect with partner (s) and agree on the time to meet the venue on previous day.
• Revise laws and connect to public information relevant to the match or tournament.

(b) Previous Day :

• Meet partner as planned and jointly meet match and ground authority at the venue-aim to establish report.
• Enquire about weather, ground and light conditions affecting.
• Check facilities like drainage, cover at disposal etc.

(c) The Match Day :

• Umpire to be present on the ground and report to ground authority at least 45 mins before scheduled start to the match.
• Umpire have to inspect the playing field and satisfy that the things are fix or fit for play to start.
• Meet the scorers etc.

(b)

• Off spin or off break.
• Leg spin or leg break.
• Top spin.
• Googly.
• Arm ball (Right arm off-spin)

(c)

• Length 38 inches width 4-25 inches.
• Circumference-22-4 to 22-9 cms and Weight: 155-9 gms to 163 gms.
• 28 inches.

(d) A ball is dead in cricket when :

1. It is finally settled in the hands of the wicket keeper.
2. A boundary is scored.
3. A batsman is dismissed.
4. Lost ball.
5. Whether played or not, it lodges in the clothing or equipment of a batsman or the clothing of an umpire.

(e)
(i) Appeal : Time of appeals. The umpires shall not give a batsman out unless appealed to by the other side which shall be done prior to the bowler beginning his next delivery.

An appeal “How’s that” ? shall cover all ways of being out. Answering appeals, the umpire at the bowler’s wicket shall answer appeals before the other umpire in all cases, except those arising out of 35 (Hit wicket) or 39 (Stumped) or 38 (Run out) when this occurs at . the striker’s wicket.

(ii) Bump Ball: A delivery that bounces very close to the batsman’s foot, after he has played a shot, such that it appears to have come directly from the bat without ground contact. The result is often the appearances of a clean catch.

HOCKEY

Question 10. [3 x 5]
(a) Draw a neat diagram of a hockey goal post, with all its dimensions. [5]
(b) Explain the rule of substitution in the game of hockey. [5]
(c) List five cups and trophies associated with the game of hockey in India. [5]
(d) Explain the following : [5]
(i) Shooting circle
(ii) Bully
(e) Write any five occasions when the
Answer:
(a) goal dimension

Code	Metre	Code	Metre
A	3.66	E	Minimum 0.90
B	2.14	F	0.050
C	0.46	G	0.050 to 0.075
D	Minimum 1.20

(b) The Rules of Substitution :

• There is no limit to the number of players who may be substituted at the same time nor to the number of times any player may substitute or be substituted.
• The substitution of a player may be made only after a player from the same team has left the field.
• Time shall not be stopped for substitutions except for goalkeepers.
• Substitutes shall not be permitted for suspended players during their suspension.
• After completing a suspension, a player may be substituted without first returning to the field.
• Players leaving or entering the field shall do so at the center-line or such other place on the side of the field decided by the umpires before the game.

(c)

Cups	Trophies
(1) Agha Khan Cup	(1) Dhyan Chand Trophy
(2) Scindia Gold Cup	(2) Nehru Trophy
(3) Bombay Gold Cup	(3) MCC Trophy
(4) Rangaswami Cup	(4) Gurmeet Trophy
(5) Indira Gandhi Gold Cup	(5) Guru Nanak Trophy

(d) (i) Hockey Shooting Circle : A semi-circle is drawn on the ground 16 yards in front of the goal, which is referred to as the shooting circle in Hockey.

• A goal is only awarded when the ball is touched inside the circle by an offender or defender and the goal is converted.
• The severity of the foul will be in higher degree when it is committed inside the circle.
• An intentional foul inside the circle will be awarded with a penalty stroke.
• An unintentional foul inside the circle will be awarded with a penalty comer.

(ii) Bully : It is a call used to start or restart play. The referee puts the ball between two opposing players. Two players of both the teams stand in front of each other. They touch this stick to the ground three times and alternately their opponent’s stick after that ball is put is play.

(e) Five occasions when the umpire shall blow the whistle in the game are :

• Start and end of each quarter of the match.
• Start a bully.
• Enforce a penalty.
• Start and end a penalty stroke.
• Indicate a goal.

BASKETBALL

Question 11. [3 x 5]
(a) Draw a neat diagram of the restricted area in basketball with all its dimensions. [5]
(b) Explain the procedure of substitution in the game of basketball. [5]
(c) Name any five types of passes in the game of basketball. [5]
(d) Mention any five duties of a scorer and an assistant scorer. [5]
(e) Explain the following terms : [5]
(i) Screening
(ii) Three Second Rule
Answer:

(b) The coach should send the substitute who must be ready to play to the Scorer. After reporting to the Scorer, the substitute must sit on the seat provided until the Scorer sounds his signal. He should then stand up and indicate to the nearer Official that he wishes to enter the court. He should not enter the court until beckoned to do so by an Official. If substitution is required during a charged time-out the substitute must report to the Scorer and the nearer Official before entering the court.

(c) The five types of passes, in the game of basket ball are as follows :

• Chest Pass
• Bounce Pass
• Baseball Pass
• Outlet Pass
• No-look pass

(d) Duties of the Scorer :

1. The scorer shall keep a record of the names and number of players who are to start the game and of all substitute who enter the game. .
2. The scorer shall keep a chronological running summary of the points scored, he shall record the Baskets made and free throws made or missed.
3. He shall record the time-outs charged to each team and shall notify the coach through an official when he has taken a second time-out in each half or has no more time-outs left in a half or extra period.
4. He shall also indicate the number of fouls committed by each player by raising, in a manner visible to both coaches and by using the numbered markers as provided.
5. Effect substitutions.
   Duties of Assistant Scorer : The assistant . scorer shall note when each half is to start and shall notify to the referee more than three minutes before this time so that he may notify the teams, or cause them to be notified, at least three minutes before the quarter is to start. He shall signal the scorer two minutes before starting time;

(e) (i) Screening : Screening occurs when a player attempt to prevent an opponent who does not control the ball from reaching a desired position on the court. Screening may be legal or illegal.

Legal screening occurs when the player who is attempting to screen an opponent is not in motion but standing still and has both feet on the floor. Illegal screening occurs when the player who is attempting to screen an opponent is moving when contact occurs with the player who is being screened. If that occurs, the screener is guilty of blocking and blocking is a foul.

(ii) Three Second Rule : A player shall not remain in the opponents restricted area for more than three consecutive seconds while his team is in control of a live ball in the front court and the game clock is running.

VOLLEYBALL

Question 12. [3 x 5]
(a) Write any five skills a volleyball player should possess. [5]
(b) Explain the following : [5]
(i) Blocking faults
(ii) Antennae
(c) List any five important duties of a volleyball referee. [5]
(d) State any five violations of rules that are punished by the referee. [5]

(e) State the dimensions of the following : [5]
(i) Circumference of the ball
(ii) Height of the net for men and women
(iii) Distance of attack line from the centre
(iv) Length of the net
(v) Length and breadth of the volleyball court.
Answer:
(a) Five fundamental skills required by a player :

• The service.
• The Net Recovery.
• The Block
• The Set-up
• The Attack (smash)

(b) (i) Blocking Faults : A blocker commits a faults when :

• He blocks outside the antennas and touches the ball in the opponents space.
• He interferes with the play of an opponent in the opponent’s space, either before or during the action.
• As a back line player he is effecting or participating in a block.
• He blocks the opponent’s service, (he may neither block nor attack in the front zone from higher than the top of the net).

(ii) Antennae : The antennas are two flexible rods made or fiber glass or similar material, 1.80 m long and 10 mm in diameter.

The antennas shall be marked with 10 cm bands of contrasting colours, preferably red and white.

Each is fastened on the outer edge of each vertical side band extending net and on opposite sides of the net. They are considered as parts of the net and mark its side limits.

(c)

• The referee initiates service, and controls the tempo of the game.
• The referee is primarily responsible for judgements regarding ball handling.
• The referee is only responsible for rotation of serving team.
• The referee has the duty of communication with umpire, captains and statistician.
• The referee performs the toss up from service and court.

(d)

1. Consecutive Contacts : A player may not hit the ball 2 times consecutively except when blocking, provided the contacts take place simultaneously. However, a player may make consecutive contacts on the teams first team contact, provided the contacts occur during one action.
2. Four Hits : It’s a violation for a team to hit the ball 4 times before returning it.
3. Assisted Hit : It’s illegal for a player or any object to assist a teammate in playing the ball.
4. Catch : It’s illegal to catch or throw the ball. The ball must rebound from the hit.
5. Ball Crossing the Net Outside the Crossing Space : The ball must cross the net within the crossing space. The ball must cross over the net, between the antennaes and their imaginary extension, and without contacting the ceiling.

(e)

1. 65 cm to 67 cm.
2. 2-43 m for Men.
   2-24 m for women.
3. 3 m
4. 9-50 m
5. Length : 18 meters.
   Width : 9 meters .

TENNIS

Question 13. [3 x 5]
(a) Draw a neat diagram of the tennis court, with its dimensions. [5]
(b) Explain the pattern of scoring in the game of tennis. [5]
(c) Explain the following : [5]
(1) Let (2) Footfault
(d) State any five conditions when the service is considered to be a fault service. [5]
(e) Write the instances when a player hinders the opponent. What are the penalties for it ? [5]
Answer:
(a)

(b) The tennis scoring system is the standard system by which tennis matches and tournaments are generally operated and scored. A tennis tournament is organized into matches between players (for singles tournaments) or teams of two players (for doubles tournaments). The matches of the . tournaments are grouped into rounds. In round all players (or teams) are paired and play against each other in matches. The losers are said to leave, or be out. They no longer compete in the tournament (this is single elimination). The winner of the final round will go further for the other matches of the tournament. A tennis match is composed of points, games, and sets. Traditionally, matches are either a best of three sets or best of five sets format. The best of five set format is typically only played in the men’s singles or doubles matches at Majors and Davis Cup matches.

(c)

1. Let : A serve is called a let when the ball hits the net cord but still lands in the service court. Such a serve is not considered a fault and the server may repeat the service attempt. A ball that hits the net cord but lands outside the service box is still a fault.
2. Foot Fault : Foot faults occurs when the player is serving and he steps on or over the line before making contact with the ball.

(d) Five conditions when the service is considered to be a fault are :

1. When the server touches inside the court while serving.
2. Two consecutive service faults leading to lose on point.
3. If the players miss the ball in attempting to strike it.
4. If the ball goes in the side gallery.
5. If the ball served touches the permanent fixture other than the net, strap or band.

(e) Player Hinders Opponent : If a player commits any act which hinders his opponent in making a stroke, then, if this is deliberate, he shall lose the point or if involuntary, the point shall be replayed.

BADMINTON

Question 14. [3×5]
(a) List any five duties of an umpire. [5]
(b) Explain the method of testing the speed of a shuttle. [5]
(c) List any five basic skills required by a player, in the game of badminton. [5]
(d) Define the following : [5]
(i) Smash shot
(ii) Drop shot
(iii) Drive shot
(iv) Clear shot
(v) Toss or lob shot
(e) State the following dimensions : [5]
(i) Height of the net at the centre
(ii) Length and width of the racket
(iii) Weight of the shuttle
(iv) Number of feathers in a shuttle
(v) Width of the court lines.
Answer 14.
(a) Duties of umpire before and during match : Before:

• Check all the equipments are according law.
• Check all measurements of court.
• See all officials are on their places.

During:

• Uphold and enforce the laws of game.
• Give a decision on any appeal.
• Appoint or remove line judges.
• Record and report to’ the referee all matters.

(b) To test a shuttle, a player shall use a full underhand stroke which makes contact with the shuttle over the back boundary line. The shuttle shall be hit at an upward angle and in a direction parallel to the side lines.

A shuttle of correct speed will land not less than 530 mm and not more than 990 mm short of the other back boundary line as in Diagram B.

(c) Fundamental skills required by a player :

• Correct footwork,
• Service
• Lob
• Drop
• Smash
• Back hand
• Net Play

(d)

1. Smash : It is a powerful stroke which pushes the shuttle cock to move downwards sharply. This is the most important and point winning stroke.
2. Drop-Shot: It is a very soft shot that can help in winning points if played well. This stroke can be executed from forehand and backhand sides in the frontcourt of the opponent. Drop-shots are of two types—fast and slow drop-shots.
3. Drive Shot : It is a stroke in which the shuttle crosses over a net in a horizontal or flat trajectory. It can be played from both forehand and backhand sides. It is prominently used in the game of doubles a player intends to keep the shuttle as low as possible.
4. Clear Toss : This is the most common and important of all badminton strokes that can be played overhead or underarm and can be executed from both forehand and backhand sides of the court. The clear can be of attacking (flat) and defensive (long and high) in nature,
5. Toss or Lob Shot : Prior to the start of a game, there will be a toss. The winner of the toss makes a decision to choose an end of the court or to serve first. If the player chooses the court, the opponent player will serve first. On the other hand, lobbing or lob shot is a stroke executed at the baseline, hitting the ball far to the back of the opponent court. Any good lob should be over the opponent’s reach at mid court, hence pushing them to the back of the baseline.

(e)

1. 5 Ft high in the centre.
2. L = 680 mm.
   W = 230 mm.
3. 4.75 – 5.50 gms.
4. 16
5. 6-1 m full width of the court from the centre line dividing the width of the court.

SWIMMING

Question 15. [3 x 5]
(a) Explain synchronised swimming and marathon swimming. [5]
(b) State the duties of the following : [5]
(i) Judges of stroke
(ii) Recorders
(c) Classify the different types of races in swimming. [5]
(d) Name any five important swimming tournaments. [5]
(e) Explain the following. [5]
(i) Lane ropes
(ii) Automatic officiating equipment.
Answer 15.
(a) (1) Synchronized Swimming : Synchronized swimming is a hybrid of swimming performing a synchronized routine of elaborate move in the water accompanied by music. It demands advanced water skills and required great strength,- endurance etc. Synchronized swimming is both an individual and team sport.
(2) Marathon Swimming : Marathon swimming is a continuous open water swimming of at least 10 km. This distance was chosen for its equivalence in time-to- completion to a 26-2 mile marathon run.

(b) (1) Judges of Strokes : At the start, the stroke Judge is responsible for observing the swimmers at the 15 meter mark for all strokes except the breaststroke. After the start, the Stroke judge walks the sides of the pool, preferably abreast of swimmers during all strokes except freestyle. The breaststroke and butterfly are best judged by walking slightly behind the swimmers. Judges should walk at a pace that is sufficient to stay with the swimmers. If the field spreads out, the stroke judge should maintain a position slightly ahead of the trailing swimmers while maintaining contact with the lead swimmer (s). If there are two (2) stroke judges working one side of the pool (usually in long course meets), a “lead- lag” observation pattern could be utilized as the field spreads out.
(2) Recorders : Record withdrawls from the competition, enter results on official forms and maintain record for team awards as appointment.

(c) Types of races in swimming are as follows :

• Freestyle
• Back stroke
• Breast stroke
• Butterfly
• Individual medby
• Relays.

(d) Five important swimming tournaments are:

• FINA Swimming World Cup
• European Masters Swimming
• Swedish Swimming
• Australian Swimming.
• World Open Water Championships.

(e) (1) Lane Ropes : They shall extend the full length of the course, secured at each end wall to anchor brackets recessed into the end walls. Each lane rope will consists of floats placed end to end having a minimum diameter of 5 cm to a maximum of 11 cm. The colour of the floats extending for a distance of 5-0 m from each end of the pool shall be distinct from the rest of the floats. There not be more than one lane rope between each lane.

(2) Automatic Officiating Equipments :
Automatic Officiating Device is used in any competition. The placings and timings so determined shall have precedence over the decisions of human judges and timers.

ATHLETICS

Question 16. [3 x 5]
(a) Draw a neat diagram of standard 400 m track, with all its dimensions. [5]
(b) List the fundamental skills required by an athlete, for hammer throw. [5]
(c) What is false start ? Explain any two types of finishing techniques. [5]
(d) Write any five duties of the call-room manager. [5]
(e) Explain the following : [5]
(i) Exchange zone
(ii) Starting blocks.
Answer 16.

400-meter Run : One full lap around an outdoor track. Runners remain in their assigned lanes and receive staggered starts. Although competitors begin in starting blocks and the 400 is technically considered a sprint the runners must pace themselves a bit. Come from behind victories.

(b) Hammer throw is a sport in athletics (track and field) in which a hammer is hurled for distance, using two hands with a throwing circle.

Grip : The athlete’s left hand, wearing the glove, grips the handle between the 2nd and 3rd joints of the fingers and the right hand is then placed inside the handle on top of the left hand.

Swings : The thrower stands at the rear of the circle, feet parallel, with back towards the throwing sector. The preliminary swings are used to commence momentum of the throw.

Entry : At the end of the swings, the athelete is about to enter the turning phase. With the hammer directly in front of the thrower, the hammer is pushed to the left and the turns are started.

Turns : The number of turns performed is a personal choice, but in general 3 or 4 are used. These are a series of movements performed to increase the speed of the hammer using balance through the feet, and power from the legs and hips. The feet works together throughout the throw. The left foot is rotated into the first turn. The left foot is rotated 180° on the heel towards the direction of the throw, and the right foot rotates 180° on the toe. The thrower then picks up the right foot, brings it fully around and places it on the ground parallel to the left. This completes one turn. The elite throwers usually perform 3 or 4 turns, whereas the beginners perform one or two turns.

Releasing of Hammer : After the turns performed by the thrower have accelerated the hammer head to its maximal velocity, the thrower now stays with both feet in contact with the circle but still rotating and, at the same time, extending through ankles, knees and hips to drive the hammer upward and out to a position opposite the low point, known as the high point, at which point the hammer is released. In the drive upward, the feet are pointing at “9 O’clock” and the left side of the body is blocked.

(c) A false starts is a movement by a participant before (or in some cases after) being signaled or otherwise permitted by the rules to start. Depending on the sport and the event, a false start can result in a penalty against the athlete’s or team’s field position, a warning that a subsequent false start will result in disqualification, or immediate disqualification of the athlete from further competition.

Generally, the athletes use three types of finishing techniques which are mention below :

1. Run through : This technique is generally adopted by novice athletes. In this technique, the finishing line is crossed with the full speed by the athletes.
2. Lunging : In this technique, the athlete bends his ‘torso’ towards the finishing line in the last stride. This technique is adopted by experienced or well experienced athletes.
3. Shoulder shrug : An athlete tends to bend his one shoulder and the complete action is performed in the last stride near the finishing line by the extraordinary athletes.

(d) Duties of call room manager are :

• Organise the call room area.
• Brief the team.
• Attend the technical meeting.
• Organise the team.
• Receive and relay any messages.

(e)

1. Exchange Zone : It is an area of the track where the baton is passed from one runner to the other during a relay race.
2. Starting Block : It is a device used in the sports of track and field by sprint athletes to hold their feet at the start of a race so they do not slip as they push out at the sound of the gun.

ISC Class 12 Physical Education Previous Year Question Papers

ISC Biology Previous Year Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 12

Maximum Marks: 70
Time allowed: Three hours

(Candidates are allowed additional 15 minutes for only reading the paper. They must NOT start writing during this time)

• This paper comprises two parts – Part I and Part II.
• Answer: all questions.
• Part I consists of one question of 20 marks having five subparts.
• Part II consists of Sections A, B and C.
• Section A consists of seven questions of two marks each.
• Section B consists of seven questions of three marks each, and Section C consists of three questions of five marks each.
• Internal choices have been provided in two questions in Section A, two questions in Section B and in all three questions of Section C.
• The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Part-1 (20 Marks)

Question 1.
(a) Answer: the following questions briefly and to the point: [8 × 1]
(i) Name the antibody which is most effective in allergies.
(ii) What is the function of GEAC?
(iii) What is a clone?
(iv) What do detritus food chains begin with?
(v) Give the full form of EFB.
(vi) How many chromosomes are present in meiocytes of a fruit fly?
(vii) Name the common ancestor of apes and man.
(viii) Give the scientific term used for the preservation of germplasm at a very low temperature.

(b) Each of the following sub-parts, (i) to (iv) has four choices. Choose the best option in each case: [4 × 1]
(i) Eyelids in human foetus separate in :
(1) 14 weeks
(2) 16 weeks
(3) 24 weeks
(4) 40 weeks

(ii) Study the given monohybrid cross:

A test cross for this Fj will be:
(1) Tt × TT
(2) Tt × tt
(3) Tt × Tt
(4) TT × tt

(iii) Montreal Protocol aims at:
(1) Reduction of ozone-depleting substances
(2) Biodiversity conservation’
(3) Control of water pollution
(4) Control of CO₂ emission.

(iv) In the given pedigree chart, the trait shown is:

(1) Autosomal dominant
(2) Autosomal recessive
(3) X-linked
(4) Y-linked

(c) Give one significant contribution of each of the following scientists: [4xl]
(i) Wallace
(ii) R. Mishra
(iii) G. Gamow
(iv) Sanger

(d) Define the following: [2 × 1]
(i) Carrying capacity
(ii) Homologous chromosomes

(e) Give a reason for each of the following: [2 × 1]
(i) Bagging is essential in artificial hybridisation.
(ii) Climax stage is achieved quickly in secondary succession as compared to primary succession.
Answer:
(a) (i) Immunoglobulin E
(ii) Genetic engineering approval committee’s function is to examine the validity of GM research and to inspect safety in use of GMO’s for the public.
(iii) The offsprings which are produced are genetically and morphologically identical are called clones.
(iv) Scavengers
(v) European Federation of Biotechnology
(vi) 8
(vii) Dryopithecus
(viii) Cryopreservation

(b) (i) 24 weeks
(ii) Tt × tt
(iii) Reduction of ozone-depleting substances
(iv) Autosomal recessive

(c) (i) Divided the Earth into Biogeographical regions
(ii) Father of Indian Ecology
(iii) Triplet nature of codon
(iv) DNA sequencing

(d) (i) Habitats are species specific and have resources upto a limit that can support maximum number of individuals to grow and reproduce beyond which no further growth is possible.
(ii) Homologous chromosomes are chromosome pairs that are similar in length, gene position and centromere location.

(e) (i) So that no foreign pollen may fall on the stigma.
(ii) Because some seeds and underground parts of plants are already present.

Part-II
Section-A (14 Marks)
(Answer: all questions)

Question 2.
Enumerate any four essential features of good and effective poultry farm management practices. [2]
Answer:
1. Comfortable, well ventilated, dry, clean and properly lighted house.
2. Poultry house should be protected from rats, cats, etc
3. Good drainage system is essential.
4. Birds of different age should be kept separately.

Question 3.
What is a single cell protein? How is it significant for human welfare? [2]
Answer:
It is one of the alternative sources of proteins for animal and human nutrition.

Significance

– Used as protein rich supplement of human diet.
– Reduces pressure on agriculture.
– Reduces environmental pollution.

Question 4.
(a) List four reasons for drug addiction. [2]
Or
(b) List four effects of alcoholism on human health.
Answer:
(a) 1. Curiosity, temporary escape and mental relaxation.
2. Inability to adjust to stresses, strains and anxiety.
3. Differences are shown by members of family and drudgery.
4. Drugs alter perception, behaviour & consciousness.

Or

(b) 1. Loss of judgement will power and self-confidence.
2. Amnesia
3. Fatty liver syndrome. In advance, stage causes liver cirrhosis.
4. Effects heart, kidney and stomach.

Question 5.
State four features of flowers pollinated by insects.
Answer:

1. Flowers large and brightly coloured.
2. Pollen grains covered with pollen kit, rough and sticky.
3. Sepals and petals well developed.
4. Nectar gland present.

Question 6.
What is reproductive fitness? Explain it with the help of an example. [2]
Answer:
Those who are better fit in the environment leave more progeny than others. This is called reproductive fitness.

Example:
Oyster lays 60-80 million eggs in a single spawn. If all the eggs hatch and young ones survive, it will be a very huge number of oysters which will be formed on the earth. All of them do not survive only those who are fit in the environment can survive rest die.

Question 7.
Give one significant difference between primary lymphoid organs and secondary lymphoid organs. Give one example of each. [2]
Answer:
Primary lymphoid organs – In these organs, immature lymphocytes differentiate into antigen- sensitive lymphocytes e.g., Bone marrow, Thymus Secondary lymphoid organs – The matured lymphocytes undergo proliferation and differentiation e.g., lymph nodes, spleen, tonsils.

Question 8.
(a) Explain the term biofortification. How is this technique useful for the production of ‘ golden rice? [2]
Or
(b) Write a short note on Electrophoresis.
Answer:
(a) Breeding of crops with higher levels of vitamins and minerals or higher proteins and healthier fats is called biofortification.
Golden rice has five times more iron than common varieties.
Or
(b) It is a technique commonly used in the lab to separate charged molecules like DNA, according to size.

There are two types of gels used for electrophoresis.

– Agarose gel for separation of medium and large-sized nucleic acids
– Polyacrylamide gels for separation of proteins and purification of enzymes or separation of DNA fragments.

Section-B
(21 Marks)
(Answer: all questions)

Question 9.
Explain the evolution of long neck of giraffe according to Charles Darwin. [3]
Answer:
Darwin explained evolution of long neck of modem Giraffe by presuming existence of variability in length of neck and legs in ancestral population of Giraffe. Long necked giraffe with long fore legs were more successful in reaching soft leaves of trees for feeding. Therefore, natural selection favoured long neck progeny generation after generation.

Question 10.
(a) Draw a labelled diagram of the T.S. of a mature anther. [3]
Or
(b) Draw a labelled diagram of the internal structure of human ovary.
Answer:
(a)

Question 11.
Describe the structure of a nucleosome with the help of a well-labelled diagram.
Answer:
Nucleosomes are submicroscopic units of chromatin named by Oudet et al. Nucleosome is about 11 nm in diameter and 5.76 nm in height. It is formed of core particle of histone octamer lightly wrapped with 1.73 circles of DNA with 146 nucleotide pairs, two adjoint nucleosomes are connected by linker DNA or interbreed DNA,

Question 12.
(a) Explain the Rivet Popper hypothesis. [3]
Or
(b) Define:
(1) Standing crop
(2) Stenothermal organisms
(3) Niche
Answer:
(a) According to Rivet Popper hypothesis by Paul Ehlrich describes the effect of loss of biodiversity on ecosystem. Removal of rivets (species) by passengers on a plane may not affect safety of flight initially but as more and more rivets are removed, it becomes weak. Removal of rivets of a critical part like wing (species performing major ecosystem functions) will pose a very serious immediate threat to the safety of the flight. In an ecosystem various species act as rivets and role of each species is important and well defined.
Or
(b) 1. The total dried biomass of living organisms present in a given environment.
2. A species or living organism only capable of living within a narrow temperature range.
3. The specific area where an organism inhabits.

Question 13.
Give the biological names of the following: [3]
(i) The mould from which penicillin is obtained.
(ii) Baker’s yeast.
(iii) The microbe used to control insect larvae growing on cotton.
(iv) The microbe used to produce Swiss cheese.
(v) The fungus that is being developed as a bio-control agent.
(vi) A symbiotic nitrogen-fixing bacterium found in root nodules.
Answer:
(i) Penicillium notatum
(ii) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(iii) Bacillus thuringienesis
(iv) Propionibacterium shermanii
(v) Trichoderma
(vi) Rhizohium

Question 14.
Explain the different types of endosperms in angiosperms. [3]
Answer:
Different types of endosperms in angiosperms are:

1. Free nuclear : It is most common type of endosperm – nuclear division of endosperm is not followed by cell wall formation and nuclei remain free e.g., coconut, water.
2. Cellular : Division of endosperm nucleus is immediately followed by cell wall formation so endosperm is cellular from beginning e.g., peperomia, villarsia Drimys.
3. Helobial : It is intermediate between cellular and helobial type. Partition develops which divides endosperm into large micropylar and small chalazal chambers e.g. vallisneria, Erimus,.

Question 15.
A homozygous pea plant with round seed coat and yellow cotyledons is crossed with another homozygous, pea plant having wrinkled seed coat and green cotyledons. [3]
(i) Give the types .of gametes produced by plants of F-generation.
(ii) Give the dihybrid phenotypic ratio with the corresponding phenotypes.
(iii) State Mendel’s principle involved in this cross.
Answer:
(i) Types of gametes = RY Ry rY ry
(ii) Dihybrid phenotypic ratio =9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(iii) Law of independent assortment : It states that two different characters or genes assort independently and enter into gametes without influencing each other.

Section-C
(15 Marks)
(Answer: all questions)

Question 16.
(a) Describe the physico chemical events that take place during fertilization in humans. [5]
Or
(b) (i) Define and give the role of amniocentesis.
(ii) Name the causative agent and give any one symptom of Gonorrhoea.
(iii) What is the significance of dispersal of seeds? Give any two points.
(iv) What are seasonal breeders? Give an example.
(v) How is the chromosome number maintained in sexually reproducing organisms?
Answer:
(a) Physical and Chemical Events of Fertilization :

These events include the following ‘ processes.
(i) Acrosomal Reaction : After ovulation, the secondary oocyte reaches the Fallopian tube (oviduct). The capacitated sperms undergo acrosomal reaction and release various chemicals contained in the acrosome. These chemicals are collectively called sperm Iysins. Important sperm lysins are

(i) hyaluronidase that acts on the ground substances of follicle cells,
(ii) corona penetrating enzyme that dissolves corona radiata and
(iii) zona lysine or acrosin that helps to digest the zona pellucida.
OptimumpH, Ca⁺⁺, Mg⁺⁺ ions concentration and temperature are essential for acrosomal reaction. Ca⁺⁺ plays majorrole in acrosomal reaction. In the absence of Ca⁺⁺, fertilization does not occur.

Due to acrosomal reaction, plasma membrane of the sperm fuses with the plasma membrane of the secondary oocyte so that the sperm contents enter the oocyte. Binding of the sperm to the secondary oocyte induces depolarization of the oocyte plasma membrane. Depolarization prevents polyspermy (entry of more than one sperm into the oocyte). It ensures monospermy (entry of one sperm into the oocyte).

(ii) Cortical Reaction : Just after the fusion of sperm and plasma membranes of oocyte, the secondary oocyte shows a cortical reaction. The cortical granules are present beneath the plasma membrane of oocyte, and release their contents including cortical enzymes between the plasma membrane and the zona pellucida. These enzymes harden the zona pellucida which also prevents entry of additional sperms (polyspermy).

(iii) Sperm Entry : At the point of contact with the sperms, the secondary oocyte forms a projection termed the cone of reception or fertilization cone which receives the sperm. The distal centriole of the sperm divides and forms two centrioles to generate the mitotic spindle formation f pr cell division. The mammalian secondary oocyte (egg) does not have centrioles of its own.

(iv) Karyogamy (Amphimixis): Sperm entry stimulates the secondary oocyte to complete the suspended second meiotic division. This produces a haploid mature ovum and a second polar body. The head of the sperm which contains the nucleus separates from the middle piece and the tail and becomes the male pronucleus. The second polar body and the sperm tail degenerate. The nucleus of the ovum is now called, the female pronucleus. The male and female pronuclei move towards each other. Their nuclear membranes disintegrate. Mixing up of the chromosomes of a sperm and an ovum is known as karyogamy or amphimixis. The fertilized ovum (egg) is now called zygote. The zygote is diploid unicellular cell that has 46 chromosomes in humans. The mother is now said to be pregnant.

(v) Activation of Egg : Sperm entry stimulates metabolism in the zygote. As a result, the rates of cellular respiration and protein synthesis increase greatly. Besides activating the egg another role of sperm is to carry DNA to egg.

or

(b) (i) Aspiration of amniotic fluid from amniotic sac around the foetus is called amniocentesis.

Role : Used to determine

• To determine sex and sex abnormalities of developing baby.
• Genetically controlled congenital diseases.
• Gene related metabolic disorders.

(ii) Causative agent – Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Symptom – Pus containing discharge from genital ducts.

(iii) Significance of dispersal of seeds:

• Evolution of land plants.
• In establishing species in new areas by means of dispersal.

(iv) Seasonal breeders are organisms that perform breeding and have active reproductive cycles during particular breeding season e.g.. Birds

(v) in sexually reproducing organisms. chromosome number is maintained by process of meiosis in which chromosome number is reduced to half which is restored on fertilization.

Question 17.
(a) (i) What are restriction endonucleases? Give the rules of their nomenclature.[5]
(ii) Explain the mechanism of action of restriction endonucleases that makes them suitable for genetic engineering.
Or
(b) (I) Explain what are the desirable characteristics of an ideal cloning vector used in r DNA technology.
(ii) Describe two vectorless methods of gene transfer used in rDNA technology.
Answer:
(a) (i) They cut DNA duplex at specific points. They are molecular scissors.
Rules : Restriction endonucleases are named by using first letter of the name of genus followed by first two letters of species from which these enzymes are isólated. All the three letters are written in italics.

(ii) Each restriction endonuclease recognises a specific palindromic base sequence in foreign DNA and cuts sugar phosphate backbone of both strands of double helix at specific points. These ends are called as sticky ends. The sticky ends of 2 different molecules of DNA cut by same restriction endonuclease arc thenjoined by ligase to form a recombinant DNA.

Or

(b) (i) Desirable characters of an ideal cloning vector :

• Origin of replication: It is a specific sequence of nucleotides which serves as binding site for initiator protein (Helicase) to start replication. Any foreign DNA linked with vector DNA also gets replicated along with it, hence is important for maintaining the copy number of foreign DNA.
• Selectable markers : Cloning vectors must contain atleast one selectable marker or it helps in:
  – detection of transformed host cells,
  – Identification and elimination of nontransformed post cells,
  – Isolation and growth of transformed host cells.
• Cloning sites : A cloning site is a restriction endonuclease recognition site or target site in vector DNA. It has palindromic sequence of nitrogenous bases cut by a specific restriction endonuclease enzyme for insertion and linking of foreign DNA.
• Small size: A vector should be small in size because large molecules bind is break up during isolation and purification.

(ii) Two vectorless methods of gene transfer used in rDNA technology.

• Chemical mediated gene transfer: Use of chemicals like polyethene glycol (PEG) and dextron sulphate induces DNA uptake by plant protoplast
• Electroporation : Short electric impulse of high voltage causes fine transient forces in cell membrane through which foreign DNA enters into the cell.

Question 18.
(a) Give a graphic representation of carbon cycle in nature.
Or
(b) Give a graphic representation of phosphorus cycle in nature.
Answer:


Phosphorus cycle in terrestrial ecosystem

ISC Class 12 Biology Previous Year Question Papers

ISC English Language Previous Year Question Paper 2012 Solved for Class 12

Question 1.
Write a composition (in approximately, 450-500 words) on any one of the following subjects: [30]
(You are reminded that you will be rewarded for orderly and coherent presentation of mate-rial, use of appropriate style and general accuracy of spelling, punctuation and grammar).
(a) ‘We are happier than our forefathers.’ Express your views on the given statement.
(b) The sounds of laughter and loud voices attract your attention to a room in your house. The door is closed. Describe what you hear, as well as what you see, as you gently open the door.
(c) “Today, in our global society, if young people go abroad to study or to seek jobs, they cannot be termed unpatriotic.” Write for or against this topic.
(d) Diversity.
(e) ‘Nowadays, there are careers that cater to every interest and aptitude.’ Discuss this in light of your own interests.
(f) Write an original story with the following beginning:
“I was not more than fourteen at that time ………………………”
Answers:
(a) The statment appears to be meaningful and correct to some extent. It is true that we are happier than our forefathers in many ways. Life in the past was very simple. It moved at a slow pace. There was no circulation of money and therefore people lived from hand to mouth. They did not enjoy the modem comforts. But things have changed in the modem age. Life is very quick and fast. Time is very precious for everyone. There is a mad race for money. Most people lead a mechanical life. It is an admitted fact that we have made a rapid progress in different walks of life. Take, for example, the progress and the development made in the field of science and technology. We certainly take pride in scientific inventions and discoveries. Today we have computers, televisions, refrigerators, cellphones, air conditioners and washing machines at out disposal. These things have made our life very comfortable. The fastest means of transport are available to cover long distances in a few hours. Anything can be had for the asking.

There was time when there were very few schools and colleges. Most people were uneducated. They were confined to a very small area. They had no plans or ambitions to rise high in life. Financial assitance was the biggest hurdle. Educational institutions were available only to the selected few. But these days schools and colleges are available at our doorstep. These days most children go to school to get education. Even the villages situated in remote areas have the facility of providing education to the children. The state governments have made education free and compulsory for the children. In this context, the state of Kerala is in the forefront to have 100% literacy rate. Thus education has played a significant role not only in providing jobs to boys and girls but also in contributing to the development of the country. In the field of medical science we have achieved wonderful success. Death rate has fallen. The scientists have done researches in different fields of study. Now doctors can treat and cure the deadliest diseases. It is a great hoon to humanity.

In the light of the achievements made in different fields we can certainly take pride in saying that we are definitely happier than our forefathers. It is also true that we have paid a price for all these comforts of life. For example old values like, love, care, simplicity, affection and sympathy have disappeared from our lives. We have grown selfish and greedy. We lead a life of stress and strain. To sum up it can be rightly said :

What is this life if full of care
We have no time to stand and stare.

(b) Read the given outline and develop it into an essay.
I heard a sound, ……………………… became suspecious ……………………… the door was closed ……………………… I knocked at it
……………………… B. B. opened the door ……………………… room full of fragrance ……………………… I felt some-one was watching ……………………… I saw a young girl ……………………… disappeared in a second ……………………… asked B.B about her ……………………… He said nobody was there ……………………… he was alone ……………………… I insisted, I had heard a sound ……………………… two persons laughing ……………………… B.B. denied it ……………………… I turned to leave ……………………… again a sound ……………………… looked back ……………………… nobody there ……………………… I was terrified ……………………… B.B laughed at me ……………………… explained the whole mystery ……………………… showed me a small paper weight ……………………… gave out sounds at intervals.

(c) If young people go abroad to study as to seek job, they cannot be termed unpatriotic Write for or against:-
Not surprisingly, education has undergone considerable changes in recent years. In current society, the rapid developing of economy the competitions stiff. There is no denying that a number of people choose to go abroad to get better education or jobs.

Everyone wants to live better and decent life. According to them studying abroad or doing jobs abroad will get them healthy return. They want their family be happy and healthy.

In many countries, there was not such facilities for a man. Due to the high competition, in their own country, the young people want to go abroad. They hope to enjoy there. They think life will be easy.

But the feeling of their own country where they were bom and brought up is still in their mind or heart. It is a patriotic feeling that never leaves their mind. But due to high society and the development they have to think high but the feeling for their country is still the same which was there before. They cannot forget the past which they spent in their homeland.

We cannot blame them to be unpatriotic. As everyone wants to live better life, so their thinking of living better is natural.

In our generation we have to use the opportunities which we get, because competition is so high that we cannot escape.

So, to get better life, we have to study abroad or to do jobs abroad, but it doesn’t mean that, we should forget our motherland. The feelings for our country remain the same as they were before. So if people go abroad for study or jobs they should not be termed unpatriotic.

(d) Essay

Diversity:
Diversity is something which contains different elements. Diversity also means change and that change can be of anything. In our day to day life there are so many changes or separations happening that we are sometime aware of them and sometimes we are unaware. This change happens so quickly that sometime we are unable to know that and sometime it is so slow that we know that for long period.

Diversity is something which is common to every human being. I myself have observed this diversity in my life for several times. When I was small and studying in lower class then I was less attentive towards my studies and played a lot with my friends but now when I am in class-XII, now, have to only focus on my studies. So there is a huge change in my lifestyle and this is also a part of diversity. In our country there are so many changes being made. In earlier times there were so many places for children to play but nowadays all the grounds have been transformed into big buildings or complexes or malls. This is also a diversity in our environment.

In earlier periods the climate was fine but nowaday the climate has changed. Warmness is much more than coldness in our country. This is all because of Global warming and this kind of change is also known as Diversity. These changes are happening all around the globe and this change is happening very fast in our environment. This could cause serious damage to our ecosystem. We have to be very alert about this kind of change.

Everyone is not aware of these changes and they think that these changes are small and harmless but in my opinion these changes are very much harmful and can cause serious damages to us. So we have to be aware of this kind of changes because these changes in the ecosystem are because of Global wanning and global wanning is caused only and only by human’s. So, we humans have to be very serious about this and have to try how we could overcome such kind of changes known as Diversity.

(e) In this 21st century the population of our country is growing rapidly day by day, and all of us have become very career sensitive. In market there are less number of jobs and the more number of people suitable for job. Every person has an aim to became something or to take a position in life. But out of hundred people only thirty to forty people can fulfill their aim, because there is a competition in every field. For that reason the parents and guardian of child don’t want that their child should join army, navy or defence or they should become a good coach of cricket or football. But they want that they should become engineer, doctor, lawyer and many things.

This thing also happens in school. Teachers guide them for becoming good doctors or engineers and they give very less attention towards the extracurricular activities. All the students have some talents. Some of them have good brain so naturally they are very good in studies. Some have good talent in singing or dancing or somebody plays outdoor or indoor games very well. Many of them have interest towards drawing or painting or arts.

But in this modem society parents, as well as schools or institutions, consider those things as nuisance which will not bring any position for the child in future. Only studying engineering, medical, law and many more things can give them something for future, and they can earn lots
of money. For that reason the child or students who don’t have more interest towards their studies and they have interest in other activities, they don’t study their lessons. They do only by the pressure of their parents and school on private tutions.

In case of taking a good place in life or doing well in the academic year, parents give tuitions to the students they lose their leisure time and they can’t do the activities which they want to do in their leisure time and when they get free time they indulge in self-studies, or other homework. In case, they had to leave their hobby or the activities towards which they were attracted.

Many students under pressure of their studies, which they can’t tolerate, attempt suicides because their parents will not heap their words, they will give more pressure to them. So they feel more easy to attempt suicide.

So, the parents should not pressurise their children to become this or that. They will manage something for which they like to do. It is not necessary to become engineer or doctor or something, they could also become something else, other than this. A person should do the job in which he feels interested, which he likes thus the job will become a game to him.

(f) Then I was the age of 14:
Well, I was at the age of 141 felt that I was at the top of a mountain. As I go back life was very happy and nice. Well I was in class-8 when I was in the age of 14. Life was happy, there was no tension of life, no more worries. No rules in my life. Kidish as I would say is the time when I was in backwater. Life was easier with mom and daddy at my back. In my life., I had many desires many more such dreams which could not be fulfilled at that age. But now I have a dream, many more missions, a goal, destination to which I should be able to reach. A path on which I should lead my whole life.

I got that feeling about people who lived in my heart from the age of 14. Life had many more stages but this stage was the building monument in my life. The brick with which a monument would grow, a plant which would grow. Well my father died when I was at the age of two and a half years. In the age of 14 I remembered that in lunch/dinner I would see no one. My mother was in job. I would weep and weep in my life. But I made myself stiff. Stiff as a rock.

Didn’t \t ant to meet my heart for anyone. I know that if I would be weak many people would take the disadvantages about it. But still I was as lenient and polite as I can be. Life was at a stage where I didn’t have anyone to share my emotions. Well, this was the part now it’s the beginning of new goal, new’ ambition and everyday in my life brings me a new hope. A new inspiration to be brave and fight for my own good.

Question 2.
A student, at the end of Class XII, requests the Principal of his school for a certificate or testimonial which he needs for his further studies. Imagine that you are the Principal and draft a certificate, keeping the following points in mind : [20]

Duration of acquaintance -student’s academic record – student’s conduct – involvement in co-curricular and extra-curricular activities – leadership qualities – feedback obtained from teachers and any other relevant information.
Answer:

To Whomsoever It May Concern

This is to certify that Nikita Singh was a bonafide student of St Xavier School, Kolkata for eleven years. Her date of birth is June 19, 1995. Nikita joined the school in April 2000 in class I and left the school in March 2011, after completion of class XII.

Nikita has proved herself in all fields, from academic to co-curricular activities and sports. Her conduct through the years has been above reproach. She has maintained an impressive academic record. Her results in the school examinations have been commendable. In class X she passed the Indian Certificate of Secondary Education Examination with an aggregate of 90%, scoring 89% in science. In classes XI and XII she opted for science with computer. She has been a conscientious student.

Nikita has a flair for writing, which she uses to her advantage. As the Editor of the School Magazine she acquitted herself with credit. With her creative talents and innovative ideas, the magazine soared great heights.

Pursuing Bharatanatyam as an activity since the age of twelve, Nikita has evolved into a graceful dancer. She has represented the school at various Inter-school Dance competitions and won laurels, both for the school and for herself.

Nikita has been blessed with an innate artistic talent. Consequently, she studied Art as a subject. She stood first in the cartooning and Poster-Making competition held by the Indian Public Schools Conference (IPSC). She also represented the school at a competition organised by the UNICEF on child labour, where phe emerged a winner. She has also been a part of the school Badminton team. The team stood second in the West Bengal State Competition, 2008.

Nikita has always been popular with her teachers and classmates. She is a friendly and outgoing girl with excellent leadership qualities. She has been a source of inspiration and a role model for other students. She has strong moral values and principles.

Nikita intends to pursue Engineering as a career. In am sure her literary and practicality skills along with her determined attitude will help her achieve this aim.

Nikita has been an examplary student and an asset for St. Xavier. I hope to see her go from strength to strength in all her endeavours.

Signature
(S.K. Saxena)
Principal

Question 3.
Answer sections (a), (b) and (c).
(a) In each of the following items, sentence A is complete, while sentence B is not. Complete sentence B, making it as similar as possible to sentence A. Write down sentence B in each case. [10]
Example :
(0)
(A) : We must endured what we cannot cure.
(B) : What cannot be
Answer:
(0) What cannot be cured must be endured.
(1)
(A) : He knows everything about the business.
(B) : There is …………………………….

(2)
(A) : A bridge would have been built if the funds had not run out.
(B) : Had the …………………………….

(3)
(A) : As soon as winter comes, birds migrate to the south.
(B) : No sooner …………………………….

(4)
(A) : Man is exploring the sea in order to increase his resources.
(B) : The sea is …………………………….

(5)
(A) : They were the only orifices who completed the task.
(B) : Except for …………………………….

(6)
(A) : He’s the richest man I’ve ever met.
(B) : I’ve never …………………………….

(7)
(A) : I have never seen a film as bad as this.
(B) : This is …………………………….

(8)
(A) : He said, “I will definitely visit you tomorrow.”
(B) : He said that …………………………….

(9)
(A) : We should have sympathy for the less fortunate.
(B) : We should sympathise …………………………….

(10)
(A) : My praise pleased her.
(B) : What gave …………………………….

(A) Fill in each blank with a suitable word. (Do not write the sentence.) [5]
(1) The soccer player was shown a yellow card for arguing the referee.
(2) Mr Donald will call him tomorrow.
(3) The exhibition was complete sell
(4) How can she put with such indisciplined students?
(5) The man broke the cordon and rushed to the dais.
(6) We must cut on wasteful expenditure.
(7) Though I was young, my father had great confidence me.
(8) The novelty is being a celebrity wears ultimately.
(9) Anna wasn’t looking where she was going and she walked a lamp post.
(10) She is the nicest person I have come

(c) Fill in the blanks in the passage given below with the appropriate form of the verb given in brackets. Do not write the passage, but write the verbs in the correct order: [5]
After they ………………… (1) (walk) for a while, they ………………… (2) (see) an isolated cottage. They ………………… (3) (peep) through the broken window, ………………… (4) (look) for someone who ………………… (5) (guide) them back to the main road. They ………………… (6) (find) that the cottage ………………… (7) (be) dirty, cobwebs ………………… (8) (hang) across the roof and it ………………… (9) (seem) to be unoccupied. They ………………… (10) (be) disappointed.
Answers:
(a) 1. There is nothing that he does not know about the business.
2. Had the funds not run out the bridge would have been built.
3. No sooner did the winter come, birds migrated to the south.
4. The sea is being explored by man in order to increase his resources.
5. Except for them no one had completed the task.
6. I’ve never met a man as rich as he.
7. This is the worst film that I’ve ever seen.
8. He said that he would definitely Visit me the next day.
9. We should sympathise with the less fortunate.
10. What gave her pleasure was my praise.

(b) 1. with 2. on 3. out 4. up 5. out 6. down 7. in 8. out 9. to 10. across

(c) 1. walked 2. saw 3. peeped 4. looked 5. guided 6. found 7. was 8. hung 9. seemed 10. were

Question 4.
Read the passage given below and answer the questions (a), (b) and (cj that follow :

The Hidden Box

(1) I opened the iron gate and walked as softly as I could up the weed-tufted gravel drive. My mind was strangely empty. I felt no glow of pleasure and was unexcited at the prospect of becoming rich. I was occupied only with the mechanical task of finding a black box.

(2) The front door was closed and set far back in a very deep porch. The wind and rain had whipped a coating of gritty dust against the panels, showing that it had been shut.for years. Standing on a derelict flower-bed, I tried to push open the first window on the left. It yielded to my strength stubbornly. I clambered through the opening and found myself crawling along the deepest window-ledge I had ever seen. After I had jumped noisily down upon the floor, I looked up.

(3) The room was thick with dust, musty and empty of all furniture. Spiders had erected great stretchings of their webs about the fireplace. I made my way quickly to the room where the box was and paused on the threshold. It was a dark morning and the weather had stained the windows with blears of grey wash which kept the brightest part of the weak fight from coming in. The far comer of the room was a blur of shadow. I had a sudden impulse to have done with my task and be out of this house forever.

I walked across the bare boards, knelt down in the comer and passed my hands about the floor in search of the lose board. To my surprise, I found it easily. I lifted it up, laid it aside’and struck a match. I saw a black metal cash-box nestling dimly in the hole. I put my hand down and crooked a finger into the loose reclining handle, but the match suddenly flickered and went out and the handle of the box, which I had lifted up about an inch, slide heavily off my finger. Without stopping to light another match, I thrust my hand into the opening and, just when it should be closing about the box, something happened.

(4) I cannot hope to describe what it was but it had frightened me very much. It was some change which came upon me or upon the room, indescribably subtle, yet momentous. It was as if the daylight had changed with unnatural suddenness, as if the temperature had altered greatly in an instant or as if the air had become twice as rare or twice as dense as it had been in the twinkling of an eye. Perhaps all of these or other things, happened together, for all my senses were bewildered all at once and could give me no explanation. The fingers of my right hand, thrust in the opening in the floor, had closed mechanically, found nothing at all, and came up again empty. The box had gone!

(5) I heard a cough behind me, soft and natural, yet more disturbing than any sound that could ever come upon the human ear. That I did not die of fright was due, I think, to two things: the fact that my senses were already disarranged and able to interpret to me only gradually what they had perceived, and also the fact that the utterance of the cough seemed to bring with it some more awful alteration in everything. I collapsed weakly into a limp sitting-down position upon the floor. Sweat broke out on my brow and my eyes remained open for a long time without a wink.

(6) In the darkest comer of the room near the window, a man was sitting in a chair, eyeing me with a mild but unwavering interest.
(i) Given below are four words. Find the words which have a similar meaning in the passage: [4]
(1) neglected
(2) urge
(3) significant
(4) explain

(ii) For each of the words using the same word unchanged in form, but with a different meaning from that which it carries in the passage : [4]
(1) finding (Line 3)
(2) handle (Line 19)
(3) thrust (Line 21)
(4) sound (Line 31)

(6) Answer the following questions in your own words as briefly as possible :
(i) What was the narrator’s state of mind when he came to the house in search of a black box? [2]
(ii) What details show that the house had been shut for years? [3]
(iii) Why did the narrator have a feeling of uneasiness and fear when he entered the room? [2]
(iv) What was the strange thing that happened about the box? What impact did it have on the narrator? [3]

(c) Describe the narrator’s purpose behind entering the abandoned house and the strange atmosphere he encountered there. You will be required to:
(i) List your ideas clearly in point form. [6]
(ii) In about 100 words, write your points in the form of a connected passage. |6]
Answers:
(1) neglected derelict
(2) urge impulse
(3) significance momentous
(4) explain expound

(iii) 1. The committee has submitted its finding.
2. He could not handle the situation.
3. He thrust the baby into my arms and ran off.
4. A sound body has a sound mind.

(b) (i) The narrator’s mind was strangely empty and he was also not excited by the thought of becoming rich. He was just occupied with the mechanical task of finding a black box.

(ii) The wind and rain had whipped a coating of gritty dust against the panels. The room inside was thick with dust, musty and empty of all furniture and the spiders had erected great stretchings of their webs about the fireplace. All these things show that the house had been shut for years.

(iii) The narrator had a feeling of uneasiness and fear when he entered the room because the room was thick with dust, musty and empty of all furniture. He thrust his hand into the opening and just when it should be closing about the box something happened.

(iv) When the narrator saw the box, he put his hand down and crooked a finger into the loose reclining handle of the box, he had lifted it about an inch but the match suddenly flickered and the box slid heavily off his finger. When he again put his hand near the box, something unnatural happend. After this the narrator became very much frightened.

(c)
(i) Do it yourself.
(ii) The narrator’s purpose behind entering the house was to find the black hidden box. He was not excited at the prospect of becoming rich. He found the black box slid off his finger and again when he put his hand near the box a change came in the environment, as if the daylight had changed with unnatural suddenness, as if the temperature had altered greatly in an instant or as if the air had become twice as rare or twice as dense as it had been in the twinkling of the eye.

ISC Class 12 English Language Previous Year Question Papers

ISC English Literature Previous Year Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 12

Maximum Marks: 100
Time allowed: Three hours

(Candidates are allowed additional 15 minutes for only reading the paper. They must NOT start writing during this time).
Answer one question from Section A and four questions from Section B.
In Section B choose questions on at least three textbooks which may include EITHER Shakespeare’s The Tempest OR Bernard Shaw’s Candida
Note: You are required to select questions on one play only, EITHER The Tempest OR Candida in Sections A and B
The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [].

Section-A
(Answer one question)
THE TEMPEST – Shakespeare

Question 1.
Choose two of the passages (a) to (c) and answer briefly the questions that follow :
(a) Prospero: Ariel, thy charge
Exactly is perform’d; but there’s more work.
What is the time o’ th day?
Ariel: Past the mid-season.
Prospero: At least two glasses. The time’ twixt six and now
Must by us both be spent most preciously.
Ariel: Is there more toil? Since thou dost give me pains,
Let me remember thee what thou hast promised
Which is not yet performed me.

(i) Where are Ariel and Prospero? Where had Prospero sent Ariel? [1]
(ii) What account of his task does Ariel give Prospero? [2]
(iii) What had Ariel done with Alonso and his companions? [2]
(v) Which promise does Ariel remind Prospero about? What does this tell you about Ariel? [2]
(v) Why does Ariel think that he deserves what has been promised to him? What effect do his words have on Prospero? [2]
(vi) Give the meanings of the following words in the context of the passage:
(a) twixt.
(b) remember [1]
Answer:
(i) Ariel and Prospero are on an island in front of Prospero’s cell. Prospero had sent Ariel to cause a storm in the sea and to bring his enemies, Alonso. Antonio and others on the island.

(ii) Ariel (cils Prospero how he caused a storm on the sea and frightened the persons on the ship. All except the sailors deserted the ship and plunged into the sea. Now Ferdinand was sitting in one part of the island while the others were in another part. They knew nothing of what had happened to one another.

(iii) Ariel had so arranged everything by his supernatural powers that Alonso and others had been scattered on the island in small groups. While Ferdinand was sitting in one part of the island, thinking that others had drowned, others were in. different groups thinking that their companions had died in the storil.

(iv) Ariel reminds Prospero that he had promised to set him free if he performed the task given to him efficiently. it tells us that although Ariel possesses all the qualities of air. it is a spirit under the control of Prospero. It has always longed for its freedom.

(v) Ariel has carried out Prospero’s instructions with regard to the ship and its passengers. He has caused a storm on the sea and brought the passengers and the ship safel on the island. That is why, he thinks that he deserves his freedom promised to hitn by Prospero Prospero gets enraged at the words of Ariel and reminds him of his hard past when he was in the captivity of the witch Sycorax.

(vi)
(a) between
(b) remind

(b)
Antonio: Then let us both be sudden.
Gonzalo : (Waking) Now, good angels Preserve the king
Alonso: Whç how now? Ho! Awake?
Why arc you drawn?
Wherefore this ghastly looking?
Gonzalo: ‘What’s the matter?

(i) Where are the speakers? Briefly explain how they were at this place. [i]
(ii) What does Antonio mean by “Then let us both be sudden”? What does he convince Sebastian to do? [2]
(iii) What makes Gonzalo and Alonso wake up suddenly? [2]
(iv) What reason do Sebastian and Antonio give for their strange behavior? [2]
(v) Which sounds had Gonzalo heard? What did the king’s party decide to do at thè end of the scene? [2]
(vi) Give the meanings of the following words as they are used in the context of the passage: [1]
(a) sudden
(b) drawn
Answer:
(i) The speakers are in one part of the island where Ariel had left them. They liad reached here aller their miraculous escape from the storm in the sea which was caused by Ariel. They liad jumped into tite sea to escape because the ship was about to sink.

(ii) Persuaded by Antonio, Sebastian had agreed to murder his brother Alonso and Gonzalo so that he was able to succeed to Alonso’s throne. While Alonso and Gonzalo were sleeping, they had decided to execute their plan of murder. In this regard Antonio had suggested to Sebastian that they should act with promptness. Antonio had convinced Sebastian that once Alonso was killed, his daughter Claribel would not come to claim the throne. Sebastian was sure to become the king of Naples.

(iii) Seeing that Gonzalo’s life is in danger, Ariel sings a song in his ear. In this song he tells Gonzalo that while he is sleeping, the conspirator is ready to avail himself of the opportunity. So he should wake up. Gonzalo wakes up and seeing Antonio and Sebastian with swords drawn awakens Alonso also.

(iv) Questioned by Gonzalo and Alonso as to why they have drawn their swords, Antonio and Sebastian tell them that they had heard a deep and distant growl like that of bulls or lions. This had awakened them and they had drawn their swords.

(v) Gonzalo had heard a low murmuring sound which had awakened him. Actually, it was Ariel’s voice buzzing in his ear to wake him up. At the end of this scene, Alonso and his companions decide to go on in search of Ferdinand. The king and Gonzalo were sure that he must be somewhere in the island.

(vi)
(a) speedy, prompt
(b) with swords drawn, ready to attack

(c) Stephano: Put off that gown, Trinculo [Reaches for it]. By this hand, Fil have that gown.
Trinculo: Thy grace shall have it.
Caliban: dropsy drown this fool! What do you mean
To dote thus on such luggage’? Let’s alone,
And do the murder first. If he awake,
From toe to crown he’ll fill our skins with pinches
Make us strange stuff.

(i) Where are Trinculo and Stephano? What has distracted Trinculo? [1]
(ii) Which murder is Caliban referring to? Why does he want this? [2]
(iii) What temptations does he offer to make them carry out the plan? [2]
(iv) What would the two have to do first to ensure the success of the plan? [2]
(v) What does Caliban fear would happen if they fail? [2]
(vi) Give the meaning of the following words as they are used in the context of the passage:
(a) dropsy (b) crown. [1]
Answer:
(i) Trinculo and Stephano are quite near Prospero’s cell. Glistening dresses hanging on the lime tree have distracted Trinculo’s attention.

(ii) Caliban is referring to the plan of murder of Prospero which they have made. He wants this because he is unhappy with Prospero. He feels that this island belongs to him and Prospero has snatched it with the power of his magic.

(iii) Caliban assures Stephano and Trinculo that once Prospero is killed he (Stephano) would become the king of the island. Prospero’s beautiful daughter Miranda would be his wife. Trinculo, too, as Stephano says would be his viceroy. Caliban himself would be his servile bondsman.

(iv) To ensure the success of their plan Stephano and Trinculo would have to seize Prospero’s books of magic. Once his books are seized he will have no spirit at his command. It will then be easy for them to kill Prospero.

(v) Caliban is afraid lest Prospero should wake up. If he wakes up, Caliban fears, Prospero would fill their bodies with pinches from head to foot and turn them into a strange state.

(vi)
(a) a kind of disease in which the body retains fluids
(b) be attacked with

Candida – George Bernard Shaw

Question 2.
Choose two of the passages (a) to (c) and answer briefly the questions which follow

(a) Morell: (snapping his fingers) Thats nothing. Have you raised the wages ?
Burgess : (triumphantly) Yes.
Morell: What!
Burgess : (unctuously) lve turned a model employer. I dont employ no women now: they’re all sacked; and the work is done by machinery. Not a man, as less than sixpence a hour; and the skilled ands gits the Trade Union rate. (Proudly) What are you to say to me now ?
(i) Where are Morell and Burgess ? What does Morell refer to as ‘nothing’? [1]
(ii) What does Morell say about the previous meeting between Morell and Burgess? [2]
(iii) Why is Morell shocked to hear that Burgess has raised the wages? [2]
(iv) What does Burgess say to prove that he has become a model employer? [2]
(v) How does Morell react to Burgess’ words? [2]
(vi) Why has Burgess made these changes? [1]

(b) Morell: What have I done – or not done – my love ?
Candida : (With serious vexation) my own particular pet scrubbing brush has been used for blackleading. (A heartbreaking wail bursts from Marchbanks. Burgess looks round amazed. Candida hurries to the sofa) Whats the matter? Are you ill Eugene?
Marchbank: No; not ill. Only horror! horror! horror! (He bows his head on his hands).
(i) What has Marchbanks told Candida just before the quoted lines? [1]
(ii) Why does Morell ask what he had done or not done? [2]
(iii) Why does Marchbanks break into a wail of horror? [2]
(iv) How does Candida explain Marchbanks’ words of horror to Burgess? What does she go on to ask Marchbanks to give her? [2]
(v) What would Marchbanks like to give her ? [2]
(vi) How do his words affect Morell? [1]
(c) Morell: ( With proud humility) I have nothing to offer you but my strength for your
defense, my honesty for your surety, my ability and industry for your livelihood, and my authority and position for your dignity. That is all it becomes a man to offer to a woman.
Candida : (quiet quietly) And you Eugene? What do you offer?
(i) Where are the speakers in this scene? Describe the atmosphere among them. [1]
(ii) Why does Morell want Candida to choose between the two of them? [2]
(iii) What does Marchbanks offer Candida? [2]
(iv) What does Candida say after hearing Marchbanks’ offer? [2]
(v) What is the reaction of the two men as they wait for Candida to make her choice? [2]
(vi) What does Candida say ultimately? [1]
Answer:
(a)
(i) Morell and Burgess are present in the drawing-room of James Morell. Morell is angry with Burgess for paying low wages to his workers. When Burgess says that he has owned he was wrong. Morell is not satisfied. He says that it is nothing. He questions him if he has raised his wages or not.

(ii) Morell tells us that three years ago when Burgess met him. he called Morell a big fool. Burgess confesses that he did call Morell a fool.

(iii) Morell is shocked because he can’t believe that Burgess who did not pay even living wages to workers could become a model employer.

(iv) To prove that he has become a model employer Burgess says that now he does not employ women. He has dismissed them. The whole work is now done by machinery. Moreover, no worker is paid less than sixpence an hour.

(v) Morell is overjoyed to hear this. He says that if one sinner repents there is more joy in heaven than thousands who are just and God-fearing.

(vi) Burgess has made these changes because the county council that helped him to get his contract accepted, compelled him to do so.

(b)
(i) Just before these lines Marchbanks has told Candida that he will stay with them if she hands over all the rough work to him.
(ii) Morell asks this angrily because Candida has just said to him that he has not been looking after the house properly.
(iii) Marchbanks breaks into a wail of horror when he hears from Candida that her favourite brush used for cleaning utensils has been used for black leading.
(iv) Trying to explain away Marchbank’s abnormal behaviour Candida tells Burgess that his heart breaking cry was due to poetic horror. It should not be taken seriously. She asks Marchbanks to give her a new brush with an ivory back decorated with pearls.
(v) Marchbanks would like to give Candida a boat, a tiny shallop to sail away far from the world.
(vi) Morell does not like the idealistic words spoken by Marchbanks. He angrily retorts that is the utopian world visualized by Marchbanks there would be nothing to do except to be idle, selfish and useless.

(c)
(i) The speakers are in the drawing room of Morell. Morell and Eugene have agreed to ask Candida to choose either of them – Morell or Eugene. When this is conveyed to Candida she is furious at the suggestion.
(ii) Morell is so much mentally tortured by Eugene that he begins to believe that Candida has a very soft comer for Eugene. That is why he asks Candida to choose any one between the two of them.
(iii) Marchbanks offers Candida his weakness, his desolation and his heart’s need.
(iv) After hearing Marchbank’s offer Candida declares that she would give herself over to the weaker of the two – Morell and Eugene.
(v) As they wait for Candida to make her choice. Morell becomes so much frightened that he loses the power of concealing his anxiety. Eugene too becomes so much tense that he does not move a muscle.
(vi) Candida says that she will give herself to one who is the weaker of the two – Morell and Marchbanks.

Section – B
(Answer four questions on at least three textbooks which may include Either The Tempest or Candida)
THE TEMPEST – Shakespeare

Question 3.
Referring closely to the conversation between Prospero and Miranda in Act 1 Scene ii, answer the following:
(a) Narrate what Prospero tells Miranda about his past and the circumstances which brought him to the island. [8]
(b) How does Miranda react to this tale? What is Prospero’s purpose in telling her this tale?[6]
(c) What do you conclude about Prospero from this conversation? [6]
Answer:
(a) Prospero tells Miranda that he has a specific purpose in raising the storm, and that is to bring his enemies to him so that he may take his revenge. Then he tells Miranda the account of his past life. Twelve years ago he was the Duke of Milan. He became interested in the studies of magic. So he left the management of state affairs to his brother Antonio. Antonio became hungry for power. He entered into an agreement with Alonso that if he helps him oust his brother (Prospero) from dukedom he will pay him an annual tribute of money and be a subordinate to him. So one night Antonio and his men, with the help of Alonso, put Prospero and his little daughter (Miranda) into a broken boat in the hope that they would be drowned. But luck favoured them and they reached this island safely.

Prospero tells Miranda that all his enemies are in the ship. He assures her that he would not want to take their lives. He only intends to make them realize what a sinful act they had done to him.

(b) After listening to the tale of her past, Miranda is intensely moved. She feels sorry to think that she must have caused enough trouble to her father Prospero in bringing her up. She feels that her heart bleeds to think of this hard life that Prospero lived on the island. She begins to weep. She asks her father why the conspirator, her uncle, did not destroy them. Prospero tells her that he could not dare to kill them because the people of Milan loved him very much. Antonio did not want to take the risk of shedding their blood.

Prospero’s purpose in telling all this to Miranda was to acquaint her with her real identity. He knew that Miranda was likely to be attracted to Ferdinand and as he had planned, she was likely to be Ferdinand’s wife. He was thus preparing her for the coming events. His purpose was that Miranda must know her royal parentage.

(c) From Prospero’s conversation with Miranda we conclude that Prospero is basically a large hearted man. He was mentally hurt by his brother Antonio and his companions.

They ousted him treacherously twelve years ago and tried to end his life. When his enemies in a ship come near his island, he plans to take a revenge on them.

But he is not really revengeful. Had he been so he could have killed them all. He let them land on the island so that he might teach them a lesson.

He is basically kind-hearted. He assures Miranda that no harm will come to the passengers aboard of the ship. He is, of course, short-tempered. His behavior with Ariel is quite stem. He snubs him for demanding freedom as he is yet to do many things for him. He assures him that he will be freed once he accomplishes all his tasks.

Question 4.
Miranda is a perfect blend of innocence and determination. Discuss her role in the play with close reference to the text. [20]
Answer:
Miranda is a perfect blend of innocence and determination. She is a worthy daughter of Prospero, simple and charming. She is so beautiful and heavenly that Ferdinand and even his father Alonso consider her to be the goddess of the island.

Miranda is straightforward and natural in her behaviour. She has a sweet loving nature. She is deeply moved by the miserable plight of the passengers on the ship facing the fury of the storm. She feels so sympathetic towards the passengers that she asks her father, Prospero, to end the storm:

“ If by your art, my dearest father, you have Put the wild waters in this roar, ally them.”

She identifies with the passengers aboard the ship and is worried about their well-being. She reveals the nobility in her character when she remarks :

“. . . O,I have suffered
With those that I saw suffer…”

In a sense, Miranda is just a child who looks at the unusual sights and sounds on the island with wonder. She is so innocent and ignorant that she does not know that there are other men and women in the world, besides Prospero and herself. She is not aware of the existence of evil on the island. Moreover, she is incapable of coping with evil and intrigue. She is safe because she lives under the protection of his powerful father. Her spontaneous love for Ferdinand shows her trusting nature, full of generous impulses.

Miranda loves Ferdinand sincerely and affectionately. When she sees Ferdinand, she falls in love with him at first sight. She is so straightforward that she offers her hand to Ferdinand in marriage who accepts her offer. Miranda and Ferdinand provide an element of idyllic love between two simple lovers. Miranda’s love for Ferdinand is so intense that she cannot bear to see him piling logs of wood under Prospero’s command. She offers to share his hard labour. She is so tender and loving that she appeals to her father not to be so harsh to him. When Ferdinand flatters her by describing her beauty in glowing terms, she simply shows her deep attachment to him. She remarks with firm determination that she does not desire any companion other than he. She remarks :

“I am your wife if you will marry me
If not, I’ll die your maid, to be your fellow
You may deny me ; but I’ll be your servant,
Whether you will or not.

She is candid and straightforward and determined in expressing her love for Ferdinand.

In short, Miranda’s very presence in the play endows it with a rare charm. She is an integral part of the idyllic world of Prospero’s island. She is a rare specimen of simplicity, beauty and kindness.

Candida – George Bernard Shaw

Question 5.
Referring closely to the second act of the play ‘Candida’, answer the following :
(a) Give an account of the conversation between Marchbanks, Proserpine and Burgess. [8]
(b) What opinion do Marchbanks and Burgess have of Morell? [6]
(c) What does the conversation reveal about Proserpine and Burgess? [6]
Answer:
(a) Finding himself all alone in the room, Marchbanks begins to meddle with the typewriter of Proserpine just out of curiosity. When Proserpine returns to work at it, she finds that it is out of order. She at once realizes that Marchbanks has done something to it.

So she rebukes Marchbanks for the fault in the machine and asks if he wanted to type a love letter.

In turn, he asks if she writes love letters she must be in love. Proserpine get angry at his remarks. Marchbanks says that she is shy like him. People, he says, crave for love but fail to express it because of their shyness. He further elaborates the point. Only wicked people overcome their shyness and ask for love because they have none to give. The good who have love and long to mingle it with love of others fail to utter a word. Proserpine does not respond. She becomes indignant and asks him to stop talking or leave.

At this point Burgess comes and says that Eugene must be feeling bored with no one else but the typist to talk to. This infuriates Proserpine who retorts that Eugene would have the benefit of his polished conversation. When Burgess says he has not addressed his remarks to her, she loses self-control and calls him “a silly old fathead”. Burgess threatens to report this to Morell. Proserpine goes out. Left alone with Eugene, Burgess shares his belief about Morell with him. He says that his son-in-law is completely mad as in the morning he called him a scoundrel and asked him to call him a fool.

He adds that a man who could talk to him in this manner is certainly out of his head. At this stage Morell’s voice is heard calling for Proserpine. This puts an end to their conversation.

(b) When Proserpine goes out Burgess and Marchbanks are left alone. Burgess asks Marchbanks if he has noticed anything strange in Morell. Marchbanks plainly tells him that he has not noticed any oddity in Morell. Then Burgess throws a hint that Morell has gone mad. Marchbanks is shocked to hear this. Burgess then adds that Morell is as mad as a here in the month of March. With uneasiness Marchbanks says that Morell can be said to be so due to his opinions which are different. Burgess, slightly encouraged, tells him that that day Morell called him a scoundrel and then he shook hands with him. Still unbelieving Marchbanks asks him what Morell said to him. Burgess now tells him that Morell called himself a fool and Burgess a scoundrel. He asks Marchbanks if a sane man can talk in this manner. Before Marchbanks answers, Morell’s voice is heard from outside, calling for Proserpine. This puts an end to their conversation.

(c) When Marchbanks and Proserpine are busy talking to each other Burgess comes in. As soon as he comes he says that Marchbanks must be feeling bored with none else to talk to except the typist. This remark infuriates^Proserpine who does not relish this remark. She retorts immediately. She says that now Eugene would have the benefit of his polished conversation. The words are spoken satirically because Burgess is a vulgar, coarse and guzzling man. Angrily Burgess says to her that he has not addressed his remarks to her. Proserpine now loses self-control. She has a sharp tongue and ready wit. She calls Burgess “a silly old fathead”. Burgess, as it is clear at many points, looks down upon, the poor working people. He refuses to talk to Proserpine because she belongs to lower strata of life. He threatens Proserpine to report the matter to Morell. Unable to bear this Proserpine goes out of the room.

Question 6.
Miss Proserpine Garrett is a true representative of the middle class who inspires pity as well as admiration. Give your views with reference to the play. [20]
Answer:
Miss Proserpine is a woman of about thirty with a sharp tongue and ready wit. She is the true representative of the middle class who inspires pity as well as admiration. She is MorelTs typist and we later learn that she is in love with him. Like all women of lower, middle class she is efficient, industrious and very sensitive to self-respect.

Proserpine is romantic and ambitious. Like any other woman who is easily attracted by handsome men, she gets attracted by handsome Morell. Her love for Morell is derisively described as “Prossv’s complaint”. It is form Candida that we learn how much she is sacrificing to be near to her object of love. She is serving Morell on a much lower salary than what she was getting elsewhere. She even does menial work in his home. Morell himself is unaware of her love for him. Even Marchbanks fails to recognize her love as he believes that no woman can love a ‘windbag’ like Morell.

She is full of jealousy, too. She does not like MorelTs praising his wife. She tells Lexy Mill that Morell should not always talk of Candida. She is of the opinion that a man should be able to love his wife without making a fool of himself about her. She angrily remarks :

Candida here, and Candida there, and Candida everywhere. It’s enough to drive anyone of their senses to hear a woman raved about in that absurd manner merely because she’s got good hair and a tolerable figure.

She is intelligent and quick-witted. She is fully aware that Lexy Mill has no mind of his own. She points out to him that he is only imitative. She says that he tries to imitate Morell in whatever he says and does. In her encounters with Burgess she proves to be quick-witted. She does not tolerate the insulting behaviour of Burgess and calls him “a silly old fathead”.

There is no doubt that she works hard and does her best to satisfy Morell. She works without any complaint. As she belongs to the lower middle class, it is seldom that she gets a chance to enjoy good things of life. So, at the supper hosted by Burgess, she takes champagne forgetting her oath never to touch wine. It is so because a person of her class cannot afford to drink champagne. As ‘ she drinks too much, she is intoxicated and makes a fool of herself by talking incoherendy, stumbling and striking the door.

In short, Proserpine is a minor character and yet she plays crucial role in exposing some characters. She is primarily used by Shaw to air his views on the prevalent, defective system of education.

Note: Questions 7, 8 and 9 not in the syllabus

Contemplations

Question 10.
Referring closely to the essay Voice of Humanity, answer the following :
(a) Describe the poet Rabindranath Tagore’s first visit to Europe. [8]
(b) What creative activities did the poet indulge in upon his return to India? What did he do in addition? [6]
(c) What are the poet’s thoughts about humanity? [6]
Answer:
(a) Tagore’s present visit is not his first visit. In 1878 when he was only seventeen years old, his brother brought him to Europe. Though at that time his knowledge of English was not sufficient, he had heard of great poets, heroes and European literature. Italy was Tagore’s first introduction to Europe. He reached Brindisi through a steamer. He was deeply impressed by the beautiful and mysterious scenery of Brindisi, which was a small and quiet town at that time. Tagore, at that small age of seventeen, was fascinated by the ambience of Italy, i He wanted to enjoy the beauty of Italy more but his brother was worried about his studies in England. He calls England a great country but at that time he could not appreciate it. He was left alone to face the winter of England where the birds were silent and sunlight was rare. The people stared at him.

(b) Tagore returned to India after a few months. He did not like formal style of education, rather he dreamt, wrote poems, stories, plays and lived a life of seclusion on the banks of the Ganga. When Tagore was in the middle of his creative work, he was impelled to come out of his seclusion and seek life in the crowd of the people. He, therefore, invited children, in order to give them relief from the bondage of the Educational Department. He wanted to give them much-needed freedom and sympathy.

Tagore was busy doing serv ice to the children when suddenly he was possessed of an idea of pilgrimage. He received a call, “Have you been to the sacred shrine where Divinity reveals itself in the thoughts and dreams and deeds of man ?” He thought that this shrine was in Europe. His study of man reminded him that he agreed with the great poet Wordsworth that man has made the life of man miserable. Men, according to him, is the sworn enemy of man. No doubt, he was full of dejection but at the same time he was hopeful of finding the shrine where the immortal spirit of man dwelt.

(c) Tagore has a deep and great faith in humanity. This faith in humanity can be clouded but it can never be extinguished.

It is a hard fact that though human races have come closer to each other as never before yet the “baser elements” seem to be predominant. The people who are powerful, are delighted that they have a large number of their victims. They put forward strange ideology to justify their right to rule others. But such bullies cry of the past that has already disappeared. But only those races will prosper who try to strike a balance between spiritual magnanimity of mind and heart. Tagore has the faith that the spirit of the age will lead to complete human truth. Joining of all the human races will really be translated into the unity of man.

Question 11.
Referring closely to the essay, On-Going Out for a Walk, relate the writer’s belief and views on walking for “walking’s sake”. [20]
Answer:
Beerbohm in a confessional tone says that he had never gone out for a walk, though he was taken out for walks. He gives a jolt to the traditional mindset of the people who think that there is something inherently noble and virtuous in the desire to go for a walk. There are some people who have the misconception that they must impress upon others to go for a walk. He calls such people “walk-mongers”. The author has solid reasons to justify his point of view :

“People seem to think there is something inherently noble and virtuous in the desire to go for a walk. Anyone thus desirous feels that he has a right to impose his will on whomever he sees comfortably settled in an arm-chair, reading. ”

The main irritant for the essayist is the belief of “walking for walking’s sake”. Such a walk hampers the working of the brain. Many w riters and intellectuals face a lot of diversion when they are forced to leave their concentration on their creative art and are urged to go on a walk. He makes an attack on these walk-mongers when he asks an overwhelming question, “The ideas that came so thick and fast to him in any room, where are they now ?… gone is the light from his fine eyes.” The situation deteriorates when an intelligent and thinking person is accompanied by a talkative companion. The companion will indulge in extolling the person. Many times he would waste time on useless talks. A sensible man would never tolerate such a companion, especially in a walk. The poor man will definitely become mentally a wreck. After such a bitter lesson in the morning that person will never dare to think of another walk.

A man, says Beerbohm, with his reasoning faculties, would never go for a walk. Such a walk would give birth to a clash between the soul and the body. Body would push the man to march ahead but the brain would pull the body with solid reasons. The brain would ask the relevance of such an activity. The body would do it because it is a noble and grand act to go for a walk, but the brain would call it “tomfoolery”.

The author concludes the essay by saying that strenuous physical efforts are no longer required. The brain would give preference to other vehicles of exercise. Extremism in this field is not going to pay dividends. The author endorses moderation in this field of activity. Whatever the people may say, the author is not going to be swayed by them. He says,

“Even if you go to some definite place, for some definite purpose, the brain would rather you took a vehicle; but it does not make a point of this; it will serve you well enough unless you are going for a walk. ”

Question 12.
Referring closely to the essay On the Choice of a Profession, discuss the factors one must keep in mind while choosing a profession. [20]
Answer:
Stevenson addresses the youngster who has sought his advice on the choice of a profession It is not unusual for the youngsters to seek such advice. The choice of a profession is one of the “most momentous epochs in a young man’s life.” It is really an appreciable gesture on behalf of a young person to seek counsel. He says categorically that wisdom has nothing to do with the choice of a profession. The wise, in these circumstances, act upon no principle whatever. Usually the people give foolish ideas in this respect. Such people have readymade answers for career-counseling. He says :

“The world being more or less beset with Anxious Enquirers of the Socratic persuasion, it is the object of a Liberal Education to equip people with a proper number of these answers by way of passport; so they can pass swimmingly to and fro on their affairs without the trouble of thinking. ”

The modem dilemma is that mostly people, in their hectic schedule, have no leisure to know where they are going. Stevenson gives the example of a banker who does not know why he has joined a banking profession. Now the overwhelming question is, “Is a man’s business his duty ? Or perhaps should not his duty be his business ?” The sorry state of affairs is that modem man is trapped by many institutions and organizations, such as educational institutions, marriage, office etc. “Man, turned loose into this roaring world, herded by robustious guardians…”

“Bethink yourself and bestir yourself as a man. This is the time…” recommends Stevenson to the youngsters. Money has its own importance. No young man can be at peace till he stands on his own feet. A choice is almost more of a negative than a positive. When a person chooses one profession, he has to reject a thousand. The youngsters must bear it in mind they cannot excel in other professions. The youngsters have to be very clear in their preferences. In his parting advice to the youth, he rightly says:

“Most men are happy, and most men dishonest. Their mind sinks to the proper level; their honour easily accepts the custom of the trade. I wish you may find degeneration no more painful than your neighbors, soon sink into apathy, and belong spared in a state of respectable somnambulism, from the grave to which we haste. ”

Thus, the essay focuses on the idea that the choice of a profession is a subjective matter. No one can or should guide anyone as to what he should become. Young people should know their preference and follow it.

Echoes

Question 13.
Referring closely to the short story ‘To Build a Fire’, answer the following.
(a) Describe the man’s repeated attempts to keep himself warm. [8]
(b) Contrast the attitudes of the Man and his Dog towards the weather. [6]
(c) What does the man finally learn from his experience? [6]
Answer:
(a) The man and his dog depart from the main Yukon trail to reach the Henderson camp. It is very cold. The temperature is about seventy-five degree below zero. After covering a good distance the man stops for lunch, builds a fire and warms himself. The dog also sits beside the fire and feels good. Then he resumes the journey. After a while he falls into a concealed spring and wets himself up to his shins. His fingers become numb. It becomes imperative to build the fire again. He unties the moccasins. He gathers wood and builds the fire. But with his shaking the tree for twigs, the snow on the boughs falls down and blots the fire.

He decides to build the fire again. He gathers dry grasses and twigs. Then he reaches in his pocket for a piece of birch bark. He fails to catch hold of it as his fingers are numb. His hands have stopped working. He catches the match in his teeth and scratches it on his leg. As it flames he holds it with his teeth to the birch bark. But the smoke causes him to cough. When he coughs the match falls into the snow and goes out. Then he catches the whole bunch of matches between the heels of his hands and lights them simultaneously. His hands get burnt. With numb hands he tries to protect the fire but in so doing he puts out the fire.

(b) The story ‘To Build a Fire’ records the struggle of a determined man for his very survival on an extremely cold day when the temperature is 75° below zero. Trailed by his dog he continues his journey. Man and his dog face tough weather but their reaction is quitely different. If the man in the story represents intellect, the dog represents pure instinct. The story highlights these two contrasting traits.

On the metaphorical level, it contrasts instinctive knowledge with intellectuality. Jack London’s main aim in writing this story is to make us aware of the value of instincts in life, particularly in extreme situations. Instincts are the best guide for survival in the harsh Yukon. Ironically, it is the dog who instinctively knows that cold conditions in which they – the man and the dog – are traveling are dangerous, while the man doesn’t, simply because of his faith in his intellect. So in spite of many advantages – thermometers, woollen clothes, maps, matches and a thinking brain – the man perishes, whereas the dog with only its protective fur and a keen sense of smell survives.

(c) The protagonist of the story is determined and persistent. He remains undeterred by many handicaps, both physical and mental. He is overconfident of his stamina. He is indifferent to the fact that man can live within certain narrow limits of heat and cold. He is really fearless and courageous.

He does not give up easily. When he realizes that he will die, he starts running. Exhausted, he falls down, but rises again and starts running. He falls down again. Ultimately, he decides not to be foolish. He cannot escape from death. He will have to accept the inevitable. He has only been running around “like a chicken with its head cut-off”. So he stops his struggle for life. He decides to meet death with dignity. He lies down on the snow and sleeps off to death. This shows his moral victory even in his defeat. He does not give in easily. This freedom from fear of death in the last stage makes him a sort of hero in the Greek mould.

Question 14.
With close reference to the short story The Singing Lesson, describe how the lesson as it progresses, becomes an echo of Miss Meadows’ feelings. [20]
Answer:
“The Singing Lesson” reveals how the lesson as it progresses becomes an echo of Miss Meadows’ feelings. The story explains how the change in our moods affects our work. Miss Meadows is a music teacher in a school. She is in love with Basil. As she is past normal marriage age she is satisfied that now she will be able to lead a normal happy life like others of her colleagues. But she is rudely shaken by a letter from her lover expressing his inability to marry her. She is in despair and anguish, mixed with anger. She is naturally agitated.

Clad in her usual academic attire, Miss Meadows is going to teach her first singing lesson of the day. She is carrying the burden of the contents of the letter recently received from her fiance Basil, calling off the wedding. So she moves to the class “with despair – cold, sharp despaif” through the cold corridors leading to the music hall. She feels confused, bitterly lonely and unloved.

The students are making a noise. They are lively, full of fun and excitement when Miss Meadows arrives. She brings apprehension with her. Mary Beazley, her favorite student, “was turning the music stool”. That turn symbolizes the turn of the world, which stops. It is as if Miss Meadows had power to rule nature and to change the course of things.

She ignores the greetings, even the ritual by Mary Beazley of preserving the Chrysanthemum and asks the students to start singing ‘A Lament’ instead of the already chalked out lesson. The students are instructed to sing the song without expression. They sing with “mournful voices”. The lyric of the music is like that moment of life the character was passing :

“Fast! Ah, too Fast Fade the Ro-o-ses of Pleasure;
Soon Autumn yields unto Wi-i-nter Drear.
Fleetly! Ah, Fleetly Mu-u-sic’s Gay Measure
Passes away from the Listening Ear.”

The students are asked to sing without expression and the result is indeed tragic. Tension is mounting. “Every note was a sob, a groan of awful mournfulness.” While she is creating such an external disorder, Miss Meadows, undergoing internal chaos, wonders what could have happened to Basil as he had that attitude. She muses that Basil’s last letter had made her feel happy. It means that Miss Meadows is dependent on external events and on her relationship with her fiance.

As the girls sing the lament, the nature to Miss Meadows also seems to echo her sadness. “The willow trees, outside the high, narrow windows, waved in the wind.” The willow tree, as we know, is associated with the feelings of sadness and the idea of death. “They had lost half their lives. The tiny ones that clung wriggled like fishes caught on a line.” It looks as if all the leaves wanted to fall. The narrow windows, suffocating, cause anguish, as the singing lament.

The ‘Lament’ is like a funeral march. Miss Meadows gets a dark aspect – of waning moon – darkening the environment as well. She asks the girls “Make that ‘Drear’ sound as if a cold wind were blowing through it.” She utters ‘Drear’ so awfully that Mary Beazley ‘wriggled her spine’. The atmosphere is already surcharged when Miss Meadows says, “You must begin to die… to fade … until the Listening Ear is nothing more than a faint whisper.” It appears as if Miss Meadows wanted to express all the misery she was feeling. Such is the effect of the tension so created that some of the girls are ‘crimson’. One of them starts to cry. “Big spots of rain blew against the windows, and one could hear the willows whispering.”

But the situation is the opposite when Miss Meadows receives the happy telegram from Basil. She feels transformed, her mood is joyous. “On wings of hope, of love, of joy.” Miss Meadows goes back to the music hall, picks up the Chrysanthemum and raps with her baton. She turns to another page of the songbook :

We come here To-day with Flowers overladen, ‘
With Baskets of Fruit and Ribbons to boot,
To-oo Congratulate ……………..

It is spring now. Everything has to regain its agility, becoming eager. Beaming at the girls, she asks the girls to use their imaginations. Now the sun is shining inside her. The air, the voices, the sound and all the rest become light. The girls are manipulated, influenced by the teacher, who tries to touch them with joy. It is the end of the nightmare: “Don’t look so doleful. It ought to sound warm, joyful, eager.”

Miss Meadows seems to be filled with instinctive, impulsive, spontaneous infatuation. She recovers motion, passion, fervour, moved by her satisfied desire. Now her voice sounds over all the other voices – full, deep, glowing with expression. She recovers her full aspect, her lost energy is restored.

Question 15.
Referring closely to the short story The Story of the Hour, give an account of the thoughts and conflicts which go through Mrs. Mallard’s mind when she hears about the untimely and sudden death of her husband. Comment on the ending of the story. [20]
Answer:
The events in ‘The Story of an Hour’ happen so quickly that one is amazed at the turns and twists. When Mrs Mallard, a heart patient, is told gently the news of the death of her husband, her reaction is instant, unlike those of many other women. She weeps at once, in complete abandonment, in her sister’s arms. Then she goes to her room to be by herself.

In the loneliness, she looks out of the window at a world that seems alive and fresh. She sobs occasionally and then muses over the event. Then suddenly a feeling of freedom seizes her. She dreads it at first. She stops feeling bad about it. She is excited about her free body and free soul. She has a vision of a life which she will live for herself. She will not be accountable to anyone. Her vision is suddenly broken by the voice of her sister.

Accompanied by her sister she comes down, and suddenly she finds herself face to face with her ‘dead’ husband. Richards, her husband’s friend, quickly tries to screen Mr Mallard from the view of his wife, but he is too late. Mrs Mallard dies instantly. The doctors who are summoned proclaim that she “died of heart disease – of joy that kills.”

Though the ending of the story is a bit melodramatic, yet it seems to be quite satisfying. Any other way of ending it would only diminish its charm. Supposing Mrs Mallard does not die and shows her happiness on seeing her husband alive, her earlier feelings of freedom, her dream of a free, independent life, become totally meaningless.

We feel that the ending is quite appropriate in the context. It clearly underlines the importance of time in our life. In less than an hour Mrs Mallard has an idea of a whole different future, different from her ‘unhappy’ past with her husband. Her excitement about her free life is justified if we take into consideration various cues in the text about her unhappy married life. Her dream gets shattered and the blow proves to be too much. Her weak heart sinks not out of ‘joy’ on seeing the face of her ‘dead’ husband but out of the sudden realization of the death of her dream.

Thus, the ending of the story is meaningful and justified No other change can be more apt in the context.

Reverie

Question 16.
Referring closely to the poem The Darkling Thrush, answer the following:
(a) Describe the bleak picture of the day as described by the poet. [8]
(b) How does the atmosphere suddenly change ? [6]
(c) What are the poet’s feelings at the end of the poem? [6]
Answer:
(a) Thomas Hardy beautifully describes the scene in nature in his poem ‘The Darkling Thrush’. In order to make it sensuous, he employs concrete imagery. The poet, in a sad mood, is leaning upon a wooden gate. He is all alone as there is no one else visible at this time of the hour on a very cold, wintry evening. It is evening time. The light of the sun is fading fast. The thick, tangled stems of the climbing plants that line the sky seem to the poet to be like broken, useless lyres. Frost and winter, it seems, have made everyone, except the poet, go inside to seek warmth and protection.

It is important to note the use of the image of clouds hanging in the sky’ which seem to form a canopy. This dark canopy from above reminds the poet of the death of the century’ (19th century).

The land’s sharp features seemed to be
The Century’s corpse outleant,
His crypt the cloudy canopy,
The wind its death-lament.

Seeing the clouds in the sky, the poet feels that the clouds would serve as a tomb for the dead body of the present century.

The scene in nature, thus, is totally gloomy. The mood in nature corresponds to the poet’s mood. There is sadness and hopelessness within and without. Perhaps it is the poet who projects his feelings of sadness on to the scene. But the poet suddenly hears the shrill note of an aged thrush. The happy note of the thrush is surprising. It indicates that nature cannot be totally gloomy. The music of nature never dies.

(b) It is important to keep in mind the mood of the poet. The poet is in a gloomy, hopeless mood. He is thinking of the death of the nineteenth century and is perhaps worried about the new century that is going to take birth soon. In the nineteenth century all old values and beliefs had come to be disrupted and undermined by the new scientific and technological discoveries. The people were unsure of the next century. They had no hope for something positive in life. When the poet is lost in these thoughts he suddenly hears a shrill happy note of an old thrush. The aged bird whose plumes have been battered by the storm is about to die, yet it chooses to pour out its heart in a forceful manner. It reveals that the music of nature never dies. It is heard in some way in every situation. Though the poet seems to be confused as to why the bird has sounded a discordant note, we feel that there is a veiled hint that there is yet some hope and the new century (20th century) will come with some good to mankind.

(c) Nature, in whatever form it is conceived in ‘The Darkling Thrush’, seems to reflect the mood of the poet. At first, it seems there is a correspondence between the mood of Nature and that of the poet. There is utter gloom in Nature. The light of the sun is fading. Frost appears like a ghost. The clouds in the sky seem to form a canopy. The wind blowing seems to be lamenting over the death of the century.

What the poet hears suddenly and unexpectedly reveals that Nature wants to convey that nothing is permanent. The music of nature never dies. The happy shrill note of the thrush in the utter gloom reminds us that there is no real communication between man and nature. Both are perhaps indifferent to each other. If Nature seems to be gloomy it is only the projection of the gloom within the poet’s mind. The poet has failed to interpret Nature properly.

Question 17.
Describe the interaction between the Spider and the Fly in the poem The Spider and the Fly. [20]
Answer:
‘The Spider and the Fly’ by Mary Howitt tells a simple, tragic story in a straightforward manner. The spider and the fly are personified. They act and behave like humans, and are, in fact, metaphors for some kinds of people in real life.

The spider is wily and evil-minded. It wants to eat the fly that happens to come high up near his web. The spider invites the fly to come to his drawing-room, the prettiest that she has ever seen. He says that there are beautiful curtains round the room. The bed in the room has fine and delicate sheets. The fly declines the invitation saying that she knows that whoever sleeps upon his bed never wakes up.

The spider does not give up. He gives the fly a temptation to have a nice feast in his room. Says he :

“I have within my pantry, good store of all that’s nice;
I’m sure you ’re very welcome; will you please take a slice? ”

The fly in her wisdom declines the invitation once again emphatically. She says that she knows what he has in his store, and she does not have any desire to see what he has.

The spider, then, resorts to plain flattery. He addresses her as ‘Sweet creature’ and praises her for being witty and wise. He exclaims that her gauzy wings are very pretty and her eyes are very bright. He asks her to come to his drawing-room to have a glimpse of her beauty in a small looking- glass placed on a shelf there. The fly thanks the spider for what he says and then bids him farewell, saying that she will come some other day.

The spider goes into his dark cell, and is confident that the foolish fly will soon return. He weaves a web and sets a table in his room ‘to dine upon’ the fly. Then he comes out and begins to sing praising the beauty of her wings, her colours, her crest on her head, and her eyes. The foolish fly, does come back, enchanted by the flattering words, gets caught and eaten by the spider.

The end of the fly is, no doubt, tragic. But she is herself responsible for her end. She throws all cautions to the wind and is taken in by the cunning spider. Flattery proves to be fatal in her case. She knows well that it is dangerous to enter the spider’s web. Even then she comes very close to the web, so overpowered is she by the flattering words of the spider. The spider cannot be held responsible for what he does. It is the fly who proves to be foolish enough to be tricked by the wily spider. Had she not forgotten what she had heard about the spider’s ‘den’ she would not have met her doom. We all need to learn a lesson from her fate.

Question 18.
The poem Crossing the Bar is a poem of affirmation and faith. Give your views. [20]
Answer :
In the Victorian Age, new scientific discoveries had shattered people’s faith in religion and God. Many people lost faith in life beyond death. They began to agree with those who believed that death is the end of life. Such thoughts were highly upsetting to men of faith like Tennyson. For some time Tennyson remained wavering. His faith was rudely shaken, but then he was finally able to overcome all his doubts. He was able to regain his faith in the immortality of the human soul and the existence of God.

‘Crossing the Bar’ is one of Tennyson’s prominent poems. It was written when the poet was eighty-one years old after his serious illness. It may be considered his testament as well as his epitaph.

‘Crossing the Bar’ imbibes his faith in life beyond death. He takes the traditional, religious image and symbol of the journey of the soul from, and to, its real home, that is, heaven, and makes it the central metaphor in this poem. He anticipates his death and believes that his passage from this life to the next will be smooth, like a ship which easily clears the sand-bar and comes into the open sea. He wants to be calm and quiet at the time of death, free from all cares and anxieties. This is what all religions teach. Death is inevitable and inescapable. It should be accepted in a calm and cheerful mood. We should not conceive it as something bad and cruel.

The second stanza of the poem clearly visualizes the journey of the soul. It will be easy and smooth if the mind is at peace. The poet is ready for death. He wants to see no sad scenes of parting :

And may there be no sadness of farewell,
When I embark.

The last stanza embodies a fundamental Biblical belief in the immortality of the soul and meeting God face to face:

I hope to see my Pilot face to face
When I have crost the bar.

We should remember that Jesus is regarded as the Pilot of the Church and guides the Christian’s life. The image of ‘crossing’ has obvious Christian connotations. Crossing refers to ‘crossing over’ into the next world. It also refers to the act of “crossing” oneself as a gesture of religious faith and devotion. Thus, the poem built upon the image of ‘crossing’ is essentially a poem of faith.

Though the philosophical or ethical ideas of the poem are edifying, yet what appeals to us about the poem is its metaphorical structure. The central metaphor is worked out quite effectively. The images are both relevant and effective. The images of the sunset, the evening star, the twilight, the evening bell are highly suggestive. They convey the idea of old age and the end of life effectively and help build the atmosphere and the mood in a proper way. The idea of God as Pilot is quite striking. The faithful among us accept it readily.

ISC Class 12 English Literature Previous Year Question Papers

ISC Hindi Previous Year Question Paper 2016 Solved for Class 12

Section-A

Question 1.
Write a composition in Hindi in approximately 400 words on any ONE of the topics given below: [20]
निम्नलिखित विषयों में से किसी एक विषय पर लगभग 400 शब्दों में हिन्दी में निबन्ध लिखिए
(a) “भूकम्प प्रकृति का वह विनाशकारी रूप है जिसकी कल्पना भी मनुष्य-मन को चोट पहुँचाती है।”- इस कथन को ध्यान में रखते हुए उस समय का वर्णन कीजिए जब आपके नगर में भूकम्प आया, उसका आम जन जीवन पर क्या प्रभाव पड़ा? आपने तथा आपके साथियों ने राहत कार्यों में क्या योगदान दिया। विस्तार से लिखिए।
(b) अपराधी को नहीं बल्कि अपराध को समाप्त करने से एक मजबूत राष्ट्र तैयार होता है। इस विषय के पक्ष या विपक्ष में अपने विचार लिखिए।
(c) “बालश्रम समाज पर एक अभिशाप है।” इस विषय को ध्यान में रखते हुए उन बच्चों की जरूरतों और मजबूरियों पर एक प्रस्ताव लिखिए।
(d) “अहंकार से वृद्धि रुक जाती है।” इस विचार को अपने जीवन की घटना के आधार पर स्पष्ट कीजिए।
(e) “योग स्वस्थ जीवन का आधार”- विवेचन कीजिए।
(f) निम्नलिखित विषयों में से किसी एक पर मौलिक कहानी लिखि-

(i) कहानी का अन्तिम वाक्य होगा ……
इस घटना ने मेरा हृदय परिवर्तन कर दिया।
(ii) “जहाँ चाह वहाँ राह।” कहावत को आधार बनाकर
एक कहानी लिखिए।
Answer:
(a)

भूकम्प

पृथ्वी का अपनी धुरी से हिलकर कम्पन करने की स्थिति को भूकम्प या भूचाल कहा जाता है। कभी-कभी तो यह स्थिति बहुत भयावह हो जाती है। इसके परिणामस्वरूप पृथ्वी के ऊपर स्थित जड़-चेतन, हर प्राणी और पदार्थ का या तो विनाश हो जाता है या फिर वह सर्वनाश की-सी स्थिति में पहुँच जाता है। जापान के विषय में तो प्रायः सुना जाता है कि वहाँ तो अक्सर भूकम्प आकर विनाशलीला प्रस्तुत करते ही रहते हैं। इस कारण लोग वहाँ लकड़ियों के बने घरों में रहते हैं। इसी प्रकार का एक भयानक भूकम्प बहुत वर्षों पहले अविभाजित भारत के क्वेटा नामक स्थान पर आया था। उसने शहर के साथ-साथ हजारों घर-परिवारों का नाम तक भी बाकी नहीं रहने दिया था।

अभी कुछ वर्षों पहले गढ़वाल और महाराष्ट्र के कुछ भागों को भूकम्प के दिल दहला देने वाले हादसों का शिकार होना पड़ा था। प्रकृति की यह कैसी लीला है कि वह मानव-शिशुओं के घरघरौंदों को तथा स्वयं उनको भी कच्ची मिट्टी के खिलौनों की तरह तोड़-मरोड़कर रख देती है। पहले यह भूकम्प गढ़वाल के पहाड़ी इलाकों में आया था, जहाँ इसने बहुत नुकसान पहुँचाया था। थोड़े दिनों पश्चात् महाराष्ट्र के लातूर में फिर एक भूकम्प आया जिसने वहाँ सब कुछ मटियामेट कर दिया था।

26 जनवरी, 2001 को गुजरात सहित पूरे भारत ने भूकम्प का कहर देखा। भुज सहित सम्पूर्ण गुजरात में भारी जान-माल का नुकसान हुआ। 8 अक्टूबर, 2005 को पाकिस्तान के कब्जे वाले कश्मीर और उससे सटे भारतीय कश्मीर में दिल दहला देने वाला भूकम्प आया। उसमें जहाँ एक लाख से अधिक लोग काल के गाल में समा गये, वहीं लाखों लोग घायल हुए तथा अरबों रुपये की सम्पत्ति की भी हानि हुई।

भूकम्प वैज्ञानिकों का कहना है कि अभी तक ऐसा कोई उपकरण या यन्त्र विकसित नहीं हुआ है जिससे यह बात पता चल सके कि अमुक-अमुक क्षेत्रों में भूकम्प आने वाला है। भूकम्प के आते समय ‘रिक्टर स्केल’ पर सिर्फ उसकी क्षमता का ही माप लिया जा सकता है।

गुजरात के भूकम्प को देखकर वहाँ अफरा-तफरी मच गई। आँखों-देखी इस भयंकर दुर्घटना ने सभी लोगों के मन में एक प्रश्न खड़ा कर दिया कि आखिर गुजरात प्रान्त का क्या होगा? वहाँ जनहानि और धन हानि का अनुमान ही लगाना कठिन था। भूकम्प आने के बाद गुजरात प्रान्त की स्थिति एक श्मशान घाट या कब्रिस्तान की भाँति हो गई थी। हम पाँच छात्र किसी परीक्षा के लिए वहाँ गये थे। हम एक होटल में ठहरे थे। हमें जैसे ही पता लगा तो हम लोग बाहर निकल आये और उस स्थान की तरफ बढ़े जहाँ से चीख-पुकार या भयंकर शोर शराबा हो रहा था। लोग उधर दौड़े जा रहे थे। हम भी भागकर वहाँ पहुँचे और पीड़ित लोगों की मदद की। पुलिस, एम्बुलैंस और फायरब्रिगेड की गाड़ियाँ आ चुकी थीं। उस भयंकर दृश्य को देखकर प्राण सूख रहे थे। हम पाँचों छात्रों ने हिम्मत नहीं हारी और घायलों को एम्बुलैंस में बिठाया। दबे हुए लोगों को मलवा हटाकर बाहर निकाला। मृतकों के ढेर देखकर करुणा भी रोने लगी। ऐसी त्रासदी भगवान किसी देश को न दे।

ऊपरी सतह से लेकर अन्तर्भाग तक पृथ्वी कई परतों से बनी हुई है। पृथ्वी की बाहरी सतह कई कठोर खण्डों या विवर्तनिक प्लेटों में विभाजित है जो क्रमशः कई लाख सालों की अवधि में पूरे सतह से विस्थापित होती है। पृथ्वी की आन्तरिक सतह एक अपेक्षाकृत ठोस भूपटल की मोटी परत से बनी हुई है और सबसे अन्दर होता है एक कोर, जो एक तरल बाहरी कोर और एक ठोस लोहे की आन्तरिक कोर से बनी हुई है। बाहरी सतह की जो विवर्तनिक प्लेट हैं वे बहुत धीरे-धीरे गतिमान हैं।

ये प्लेट आपस में टकराते भी हैं और एक-दूसरे से अलग भी होते हैं। ऐसी स्थिति में घर्षण के कारण भूखण्ड या पत्थरों में अचानक दरारें फूट सकती हैं। इस अचानक तेज हलचल के कारण जो शक्ति उत्सर्जित होती है, वही भूकम्प के रूप में तबाही मचाती भूकम्प भूस्खलन और हिम स्खलन पैदा कर सकता है, जो पहाड़ी और पर्वतीय इलाकों में क्षति का कारण हो सकता है। भूकम्प के कारण किसी विद्युत लाइन के टूटने के कारण आग लग सकती है। भूकम्प के कारण मिट्टी द्रवीकृत हो सकती है जिससे इमारतों और पुलों को नुकसान पहुँच सकता है। समुद्र के अन्दर भूकम्प से

सुनामी आ सकती है। भूकम्प से क्षतिग्रस्त बाँध के कारण बाढ़ आ सकती है। भूकम्प से जीवन की हानि, सम्पत्ति की हानि, मूलभूत आवश्यकताओं की कमी, रोग इत्यादि होते हैं।

यह एक प्राकृतिक आपदा है। हमें इससे अपनी रक्षा के उपाय करने चाहिए। जापान आदि देशों में जहाँ भूकम्प अधिकतर आते हैं वहाँ लोग लकड़ी या बाँस के मकान बनाते हैं जिससे कि जनहानि कम होती है।

(b)

राष्ट्र विकास के लिए अपराधी नहीं,
अपराध की समाप्ति

पक्ष : अपराधी को अपराध करने से पहले अपराध का बोध होता है और उसके दण्ड का भी आभास होता है। अपनी आत्मा, समाज और कानून व्यवस्था के विरुद्ध जो कार्य किया जाता है वह अपराध की श्रेणी में आता है। कोई इन्सान अच्छा बुरा नहीं होता, बल्कि हालात उसे अच्छा या बुरा बनाते हैं। कुछ अपराध ऐसे होते हैं जो धर्म के विरुद्ध किये जाते हैं, कुछ अपराध समाज के विरुद्ध किये जाते हैं, कुछ व्यक्ति विशेष को हानि पहुँचाने के लिए किये जाते हैं और कुछ अपराध स्वयं को लाभ पहुँचाने के लिए किये जाते हैं। अपराध तो अपराध है वह चाहे किसी भी कारण से किया गया हो। कानून की दृष्टि में प्रत्येक अपराध के लिए दण्ड निहित है।

साधु-सन्तों और मनीषियों ने कहा है कि पापी से नहीं पाप से घृणा करो। कई ऐसी घटनाएँ हुई हैं जिनमें अपराधी ने अपराध छोड़कर समाज के हित में कार्य किये। अपराधी को समाज और कानून द्वारा सुधरने का अवसर प्रदान करना चाहिए। यदि वह जुर्म छोड़कर देश हित में कार्य करता है तो इससे राष्ट्र के निर्माण में सहायता मिलेगी। जो उच्चकोटि का अपराधी होता है उसमें मजबूत आत्मिक शक्ति होती है। यदि वह शक्ति देश के निर्माण में लग जाये तो कितना भला होगा राष्ट्र का। अतः अपराधी की स्थिति को समझकर उसकी कठिनाइयों को दूर करने का प्रयास करना चाहिए। उसे कानून से भी कुछ सुविधाएँ दी जायें और उसे समाज सेवा का बोध कराया जाये तो अवश्य ही उसका हृदय परिवर्तन होगा और वह जुर्म का मार्ग छोड़कर विकास के मार्ग पर चलेगा।

आजकल बड़े-बड़े डाकू तो अपने अपराध मार्ग से विरत हो गये हैं, लेकिन छोटे-मोटे अपराधी अपने गलत कार्यों में संलग्न हैं।

संत विनोबा भावे ने एक ‘भूदान’ आन्दोलन चलाया जिसमें किसानों से थोड़ी-थोड़ी जमीन लेकर भूमिहीनों को दी जाती थी। यह आन्दोलन सफल रहा। इसी दौर में डाकुओं के आत्मसमर्पण का कार्य भी तेजी से चला। जितने भी नामी डाकू थे उन्होंने अपने साथियों के साथ आत्मसमर्पण किया। कानून ने उदारता से उनका साथ दिया और अपनी सजा काटकर जब वे आये तो उन्हें गाँवों में जमीन और घर दिये गये जिससे कि वे एक साधारण नागरिक की तरह अपना जीवन व्यतीत करने लगे। यह था विनाश से निर्माण की ओर आना। भगवान बुद्ध के समय एक अंगुलिमाल डाकू हुआ था जिसने एक हजार व्यक्तियों की हत्या करने का प्रण लिया था। संख्या गिनने के लिए वह जो आदमी मारता था उसकी एक अंगुली काटकर उसकी माला बनाकर अपने गले में पहन लेता था। जनता उसके डर के मारे त्राहि-त्राहि कर उठी थी।

जिस जंगल में वह रहता था वहाँ राजा ने एक पहरेदार बैठा दिया था कि उस जंगल से होकर कोई यात्री न जाये। राजा ने भगवान बुद्ध से उसके आतंक से मुक्ति दिलाने की प्रार्थना की। भगवान बुद्ध उस जंगल में गये और अंगुलिमाल के सामने निडर होकर प्रसन्न मुद्रा में खड़े हो गये। अंगुलिमाल को यह देखकर आश्चर्य हुआ कि उसके सामने आते ही लोगों की घिग्घी बँध जाती है, लेकिन यह व्यक्ति निडर होकर खड़ा है। कहते हैं भगवान बुद्ध ने उसे उपदेश दिया जिसे सुनकर उसने अपनी कटार भगवान बुद्ध के चरणों में रख दी और उनका शिष्य बनकर अहिंसा के मार्ग पर चलने लगा। इससे हमें यह बोध होता है कि भगवान बुद्ध ने भी अपराधी को नष्ट नहीं किया, बल्कि उसके अपराध को नष्ट किया।

इसी सन्दर्भ में एक कहानी याद आती है कि एक बड़े शहर के चर्च में एक सहृदय विशप रहते थे। लोगों का भला करना ही मानो उनके जीवन का उद्देश्य था। एक दिन एक अपराधी जेल से छूटकर आया और कहीं ठिकाने की तलाश में चर्च के द्वार पर आकर बैठ गया। विशप ने जब देखा कि यह कोई दुखियारा है तो उसे अपने कमरे में ले गये। भोजन कराने के बाद उसे सोने के लिए स्थान दिया। जब विशप सो गये तो यह अपराधी उठा तो उसने चाँदी की कैण्डिल स्टिक देखी। वे चार थीं और वजन में भारी। पहले तो उसने सोचा कि विशप को मार दूं और ये कैण्डिल स्टिक ले लूँ। फिर उसके मन में विचार आया कि इस भले आदमी को क्यों मारूँ सिर्फ कैण्डिल स्टिक लेकर चलूँ। उसने ऐसा ही किया, किन्तु रात में पुलिस ने उसे पकड़ लिया और उन कैण्डिल स्टिकों को पहचान लिया।

सुबह पुलिस वाले उस चोर को पकड़कर विशप के पास लाये और उनसे पूरी बात कही। विशप समझ गये कि इस गरीब आदमी को उन चाँदी की कैण्डिल स्टिक की ज्यादा आवश्यकता है। उन्होंने पुलिस से कहा कि उस आदमी को छोड़ दें क्योंकि वे कैण्डिल स्टिक उन्होंने ही उसे दी थीं। पुलिस उसे छोड़कर चली गई। अब वह चोर विशप के पैरों में पड़ गया। उसने अब से कोई अपराध न करने की कसम खाई और वहीं चर्च में सेवा करने लगा।

इन तथ्यों से पता चलता है कि अपराधी को नहीं बल्कि अपराध को समाप्त करने से मजबूत राष्ट्र तैयार होता है।

विपक्ष : यह कथन सत्यता से कोसों दूर है क्योंकि अपराधी अपने अपराध को कभी नहीं छोड़ता। यदि ऐसा होता, तो सजा काटकर आये अपराधी फिर से अपराध नहीं करते, सजा काटकर
आया हुआ व्यक्ति और अधिक जुर्म करता है। उसका हृदय इतना – कठोर हो जाता है कि उसे बदलना मुश्किल नहीं असम्भव है।

साधु संन्यासियों की बात आज कौन सुनता और मानता है? यदि अपराध समाप्त करने से अपराधी समाप्त हो जाता तो अब तक भारत में अपराध देखने को नहीं मिलता। भारत क्या सभी देशों में आज आतंकवादी माहौल के कारण साँस लेना भी दूभर हो रहा है। क्या आतंकवादियों का हृदय परिवर्तन सम्भव है? कभी नहीं प्राचीनकाल में अपराध के कठोर दण्ड नियत थे इसलिए अपराधों की संख्या न के बराबर थी। चोरी करने पर चोर के हाथ काट दिये जाते थे। अतः लोग अपने घरों में ताले नहीं लगाते थे। अपराधी को कठोर दण्ड देने या उसे मृत्युदण्ड देने से उसके साथ-साथ उसके साथियों द्वारा किया जाने वाला अपराध भी समाप्त हो जाता है।

प्रात:काल जज साहब भ्रमण के लिए जा रहे थे तभी उन्होंने। देखा कि एक व्यक्ति ने दूसरे व्यक्ति को चाकू मार दिया और भाग गया। कुछ हफ्तों बाद उसी हत्या का मुकदमा उन्हीं जज साहब के कोर्ट में आया। जज साहब को आश्चर्य हुआ कि खून के इल्जाम में पकड़ा गया आदमी कोई और व्यक्ति है, वह व्यक्ति नहीं जिसको जज साहब ने देखा था। सारे सबूत उस पकड़े गये व्यक्ति के खिलाफ थे। जज साहब ने फैसला देने से पहले उस पकड़े गये व्यक्ति को अकेले में बुलाया और उससे पूछा कि तुम इस केस में कैसे फँस गये। खून तुमने नहीं किसी और ने किया है, लेकिन सारे सबूत तुम्हारे खिलाफ हैं। उस व्यक्ति ने शान्तिपूर्ण ढंग से उत्तर दिया कि जज साहब आप सबूतों के आधार पर अपना निर्णय दें, वह व्यक्ति जिसने खून किया है वह इस बार तो बच गया है, लेकिन आगे पकड़ा जायेगा जैसे मैं कई बार बच गया हूँ, पर इस बार पकड़ा गया। यह सुनकर जज साहब अवाक रह गये और ऊपर भगवान के न्याय की ओर देखने लगे।

यदि हम इस आशा में कि अपराधी सुधर जायेंगे, उन पर दयाकर उन्हें छोड़ दें तो यह कभी सम्भव नहीं है। हम अपना समय बर्बाद कर रहे हैं। अपराधियों के अपराध समाप्त करने के लिए उनके लिए कठोर दण्ड की व्यवस्था करनी होगी।

(c)

‘बालश्रम समाज पर एक अभिशाप है’

“बालश्रम समाज पर एक अभिशाप है।” यह कथन इस सत्य को प्रतिपादित करता है कि ‘बालश्रम’ समाज पर एक कलंक है। यह एक अपराध है जिसमें कि बच्चों को जबरदस्ती काम करने पर लगा दिया जाता है और उनको आर्थिक जिम्मेदारी बड़ों की तरह उठाने को मजबूर किया जाता है। ‘इण्टरनेशनल लेबर ऑर्गनाइजेशन’ (ILO) के अनुसार पन्द्रह वर्ष की उम्र से कम के बच्चों को धन कमाने के कार्यों में लगाना एक अपराध है। इससे बच्चे अपनी शिक्षा, स्वास्थ्य, मानसिक और सामाजिक स्वतन्त्रता से वंचित रह जाते हैं। इस प्रकार बाल श्रम के चलते हुए उनका भविष्य बर्बाद हो रहा है। इस पर दुनिया के सभी देश गम्भीरता से विचार कर रहे हैं।

बालश्रम की समस्या विकासशील देशों में अधिक पायी जाती है। विकासशील देशों में गरीबी के कारण बच्चों को कम उम्र में ही मजदूरी, घरों में काम आदि करना पड़ता है। जिसके कारण वे अपनी शिक्षा, स्वास्थ्य, सामाजिक स्वतन्त्रता तथा अपने बचपन से वंचित रह जाते हैं। दुनिया के सभी विकासशील देश इस समस्या को . सुलझाने का भरसक प्रयत्न कर रहे हैं, लेकिन चोरी-छिपे यह रोजगार धड़ल्ले से चल रहा है। समाज का बड़ा तबका बाल श्रम का भरपूर फायदा ले रहा है। लाखों बच्चे बालश्रम की चपेट में आकर अपना जीवन चौपट कर रहे हैं। ये बच्चे ही भारत का भविष्य हैं जो बिगड़ता हुआ दिखाई दे रहा है। भारतीय कानून के अन्तर्गत 15 साल से कम के बच्चों से काम लेना जुर्म है। ये जुर्म बच्चों के माता-पिता, कारखानों के मालिक, रेस्टोरेन्ट के मालिक और घर के मालिक, दुकानदार, दस्तकार, बुक बाइंडर आदि खुले रूप से कर रहे हैं। जिससे बच्चों का जीवन नष्ट हो रहा है और इसकी चिन्ता किसी को नहीं है।

बालश्रम बढ़ने के निम्न कारण हैं जो इस श्रम को कम नहीं होने देते-

1. गरीबी और बढ़ती हुई बेरोजगारी विकासशील देशों में बालश्रम को जन्म दे रही है।
2. विश्व संगठन की रिपोर्ट बताती है कि दुनिया के एकचौथाई लोग अत्यन्त गरीब हैं।
3. शिक्षा की कमी है जिसे अधिकतर बच्चे प्राप्त नहीं कर पाते।
4. विकासशील देश के लोग बालश्रम के कानून को तोड़कर बालश्रम को बढ़ावा दे रहे हैं।
5. समाज का पूर्ण नियन्त्रण खेती पर काम करने वाले बच्चों पर और घर में काम करने वाले बच्चों पर नहीं है।
6. बालश्रम करने वाले बच्चे अपने परिवार की दो वक्त की रोटी जुटाने के लिए इसे महत्व देते हैं और इसके ऊपर वे कुछ और सोचते ही नहीं हैं।
7. व्यापारिक संगठन और गृह उद्योग छोटे बच्चों को नौकरी पर रख लेते हैं, ताकि कम कीमत में ज्यादा काम ले सकें। वे बच्चों को प्रोत्साहित करते हैं और छोटे बच्चे उसी को अपना भाग्य मानकर स्वीकार कर लेते हैं।

बाल श्रम की समस्या को सुलझाने के लिए उपाय-

1. समाज में फैली इस कुप्रथा को बन्द करने के लिए हमें नये सिरे से प्रयास करने होंगे।
2. बालश्रम को समाप्त करने के लिए समाज में ऐसी इकाइयाँ बनें जो बालकों के श्रम पर ध्यान देकर बालकों को उस काम के प्रति निरुत्साहित करें और उनके पढ़ने की निःशुल्क व्यवस्था करें।
3. बच्चों के माता-पिता को उनकी पढ़ाई के लिए प्रोत्साहित करें।
4. समाज में जागृति उत्पन्न की जाये जिसका परिणाम बाल श्रम से छुटकारा हो।
5. सरकार उन गरीब परिवारों की कुछ आर्थिक सहायता करे जिनके बच्चे गरीबी के कारण बालश्रम में लग जाते हैं।
6. सरकार बालश्रम समाप्ति के लिए कड़े कानून बनाये जिसमें माता-पिता और जहाँ बच्चे काम करते हैं उनको दण्ड देने का प्रावधान हो।

भारतीय सामाजिक कार्यकर्ता कैलाश सत्यार्थी जिन्होंने बाल श्रम को रोकने के लिए अपना पूर्ण सहयोग दिया तथा इसके लिए उन्हें विश्व का सर्वश्रेष्ठ सम्मान ‘नोबेल पुरस्कार’ मिला। ये मध्य प्रदेश में पैदा हुए और अपनी शिक्षक की नौकरी त्यागकर ‘बालश्रम’ की समाप्ति के कार्य में लग गये। 1980 में इन्होंने ‘बचपन बचाओ’ आन्दोलन चलाया। 144 देशों में इन्होंने लगभग 83,000 बच्चों को बालश्रम से उबारा और उनकी शिक्षा आदि का भी सरकारों के सहयोग से प्रबन्ध किया।

बालश्रम एक बड़ी सामाजिक समस्या है। इसको माता-पिता, अध्यापक, सामाजिक कार्यकर्ता और सरकार मिलकर सुलझा सकते हैं। बच्चों को शिक्षित बनाया जाये और उनकी कमाने वाली मानसिकता को सुधारा जाये।

(d)

‘अहंकार से वृद्धि रुक जाती है’

‘अहंकार से वृद्धि रुक जाती है’ यह उक्ति अक्षरशः सत्य है। अहंकार एक ऐसा अवगुण है जो मनुष्य के हृदय और मस्तिष्क पर हावी रहता है और उसे उसका भान भी नहीं होता। वह उसके मार्ग में प्रतिपग बाधा उत्पन्न करता है। अन्य मनुष्य ही समझ पाते हैं कि अमुक मनुष्य अहंकारी है अतः वे उससे दूरी बनाकर रखते हैं। अहंकार न दिखाई देते हुए भी स्पष्ट परिलक्षित हो जाता है। अहंकार अहंकारी व्यक्ति को भरोसा दिलाता है कि उसके सब काम अहंकार के कारण ही होंगे पर होता इसके विपरीत ही है। मनुष्य का जीवन अपने आस-पास के वातावरण से प्रभावित होता है। मूलरूप से मानव के विचारों और कार्यों को उसके संस्कार, वंश परम्पराएँ ही दिशा दे सकती हैं, अहंकार नहीं। यदि उसे अच्छा वातावरण मिलता है तो वह श्रेष्ठ कार्यों को सम्पादित करता है। यदि अपने अहंकार के कारण उसे उचित वातावरण सुलभ नहीं हो पाता है तो उसके कार्य भी उससे प्रभावित होते हैं।

प्रत्येक व्यक्ति का व्यक्तित्व उसकी जीवन शैली और आचरण के रूप में प्रतिबिम्बित होता है। यदि मनुष्य का आचरण नैतिकता के अनुरूप है तो उस मनुष्य की सामाजिक प्रतिष्ठा अन्य लोगों के लिए प्रेरणा बन जाती है और वह व्यक्ति समाज में सम्मान पाता है। इसके विपरीत यदि मनुष्य का आचरण सामाजिक, सांस्कृतिक, वैधानिक, धार्मिक नियमों के प्रतिकूल और अहंकार से प्रभावित है तो वह समाज में अपमान का पात्र होता है। अतः मनुष्य का जीवन अहंकार हीन और सदाचार में अधिक महत्व रखता है। सदाचार का जीवन में विशेष महत्व है। यदि मनुष्य का आचरण सत्य पर आधारित हो तो मनुष्य, शारीरिक, मानसिक, बौद्धिक एवं भौतिक रूप से समृद्ध रहता है।

अहंकार और दम्भ मनुष्य को यह दर्शाते हैं कि वह सभी मनुष्यों से श्रेष्ठ है और अपने बलबूते पर ही सब काम कर सकता है। यह अभिमान उसके कार्यों में बाधा उत्पन्न करता है। ईश्वर भी अपने भक्तों में अभिमान के अंकुर फूटने नहीं देता। जहाँ अभिमान प्रतिष्ठापित है वहाँ ईश्वर का निवास नहीं होता;

जैसे-

“जब मैं था तब हरि नहीं, अब हरि है मैं नाहि।”

भगवान ने नारद के अभिमान को मायानगरी बनाकर नष्ट किया। बाली को अपने बल पर अभिमान था, पर श्रीराम ने उसे मारकर उसका अहंकार तोड़ दिया। एक बार गरुड़ को अपनी गति का अभिमान हुआ था। वह हनुमान जी को बुलाने गये और चाहते थे कि हनुमान जी उनकी पीठ पर बैठकर चलें तो शीघ्र रामजी के पास पहुँच जायेंगे। हनुमानजी ने उनके साथ जाने को मनाकर दिया और कहा कि ‘मैं आता हूँ।’ वापिस लौटने पर गरुड़ ने रामजी के पास जाकर देखा कि हनुमान जी रामजी से वार्ता करके लौट रहे हैं। तब वह अपनी गति के अभिमान पर लज्जित हुआ। इन प्रसंगों से पता चलता है कि अहंकार सबके कार्यों में बाधा डालता है।

मुझे भी कई बार यह अभिमान हुआ कि मैं सभी छात्रों से अधिक बुद्धिमान हूँ। इसका परिणाम यह हुआ कि मेरे मित्र भी मुझसे दूरी बनाने लगे। मुझे किसी का सहयोग प्राप्त नहीं हुआ। मैं अपनी कक्षा में भी पिछड़ने लगा। तब मेरे एक हितैषी अध्यापक ने बड़े प्रेम से मुझे समझाया कि मेरे मन में बैठा अहंकार ही मेरे मार्ग में बाधा बन गया है। मैंने धीरे-धीरे अपने अन्दर बैठे अभिमान को दूर किया और पुनः अपने मित्रों का सहयोग मुझे मिलने लगा। कहाँ तो मैं समझता था कि मुझे सब कुछ आता है, लेकिन परीक्षा में बहुत कम अंक आने पर मुझे ज्ञात हुआ कि मेरा अभिमान ही मेरे विकास में बाधा डाल रहा था। अब मैं अभिमान से रहित होकर अपने पथ पर तीव्रगति से अग्रसर हो रहा हूँ।

तुलसीदास जी ने अभिमान को पाप का मूल बताया है–

“दया धर्म का मूल है, पाप मूल अभिमान।
तुलसी दया न छोड़िये, जब लगि घट में प्रान।”

(e)

‘योग स्वस्थ जीवन का आधार है’

योग भारत की प्राचीन संस्कृति का गौरवमयी हिस्सा है जिसकी वजह से भारत सदियों तक विश्व गुरु रहा है। योग एक ऐसी सुलभ एवं प्राकृतिक पद्धति है जिससे स्वस्थ मन एवं शरीर के साथ अनेक आध्यात्मिक लाभ प्राप्त किये जा सकते हैं। योग को स्वामी रामदेव ने गुफाओं और कन्दराओं से निकालकर आम जन तक पहुँचाया है। भारतीय धर्म और दर्शन में योग का आध्यात्मिक महत्व है। आध्यात्मिक उन्नति या शारीरिक और मानसिक स्वास्थ्य के लिए योग की आवश्यकता व महत्व को प्रायः सभी दर्शनों एवं धार्मिक सम्प्रदायों ने एकमत व मुक्तकंठ से स्वीकार किया है। आधुनिक युग में योग का महत्व बढ़ गया है। स्वास्थ्य रक्षा के लिए योग रामबाण दवा है। इसके सहारे मनुष्य स्वस्थ तो रहता ही है साथ ही साथ कई बीमारियों से छुटकारा भी पाता है।

योग भारत और नेपाल में एक आध्यात्मिक प्रक्रिया को कहते हैं जिसमें शरीर, मन और आत्मा को एक साथ लाने का काम होता है। यह शब्द, प्रक्रिया और धारणा बौद्ध धर्म, जैन धर्म और हिन्दू धर्म में ध्यान प्रक्रिया से सम्बन्धित है। ‘योग’ शब्द भारत से बौद्ध धर्म के साथ चीन, जापान, तिब्बत, दक्षिण-पूर्व एशिया और श्रीलंका में भी फैल गया है और इस समय सारे सभ्य जगत में लोग इससे परिचित हैं। प्राचीन जीवन पद्धति लिए योग आज के परिवेश में हमारे जीवन को स्वस्थ और खुशहाल बना सकता है। आज के प्रदूषित वातावरण में योग एक ऐसी औषधि है जिसका कोई साइड इफैक्ट नहीं है, बल्कि योग के अनेक आसन जैसे शवासन हाई ब्लडप्रैशर को सामान्य करता है, जीवन के लिए संजीवनी है अनुलोम-विलोम कपालभाति प्राणायाम, भ्रामरी प्राणायाम मन को शान्त करता है। वक्रासन हमें अनेक बीमारियों से बचाता है।

आज कम्प्यूटर की दुनिया में दिनभर उसके सामने बैठे-बैठे काम करने से अनेक लोगों को कमर दर्द एवं गर्दन दर्द होना एक आम बात हो गई है, ऐसे में शलभासन तथा ताड़ासन हमें दर्द से छुटकारा दिलाते हैं। पवन मुक्तासन अपने नाम के अनुरूप पेट से गैस की समस्या को दूर करता है। गठिया की समस्या को मेरुदंडासन दूर करता है। योग में ऐसे अनेक आसन हैं जिनको जीवन में अपनाने से कई बीमारियाँ समाप्त हो जाती हैं और खतरनाक बीमारियों का असर भी कम हो जाता है। 24 घण्टे में से महज कुछ मिनट का ही प्रयोग यदि योग में उपयोग करते हैं तो अपनी सेहत को हम चुस्त-दुरुस्त रख सकते हैं। फिट रहने के साथ योग हमें सकारात्मक ऊर्जा भी देता है। योग से शरीर में रोग प्रतिरोधक क्षमता का विकास होता है।

यह कहना अतिशयोक्ति न होगा कि योग हमारे लिए हर तरह से आवश्यक है। यह हमारे शारीरिक, मानसिक और आत्मिक स्वास्थ्य के लिए लाभदायक है। योग के माध्यम से आत्मिक सन्तुष्टि, शान्ति और ऊर्जावान चेतना की अनुभूति प्राप्त होती है जिससे हमारा जीवन तनावमुक्त तथा हर दिन सकारात्मक ऊर्जा के साथ आगे बढ़ता है। हमारे देश की ऋषि परम्परा से प्राप्त योग को आज विश्व भी अपना रहा है। गीता में योग के बारे में लिखा है, “योग स्वयं की स्वयं के माध्यम से स्वयं तक पहुँचने की यात्रा है।”

योगासनों से कुछ निम्नलिखित लाभ हैं–

1. योग का प्रयोग शारीरिक, मानसिक और आध्यात्मिक लाभों के लिए हमेशा से होता रहा है। आज की चिकित्सा शोधों ने ये साबित कर दिया है कि योग शारीरिक और मानसिक रूप से मानव जाति के लिए वरदान है।
2. जहाँ ‘जिम’ आदि से शरीर के किसी खास अंग का ही व्यायाम होता है, वहीं योग से शरीर के समस्त अंग-प्रत्यंगों, ग्रन्थियों का व्यायाम होता है जिससे अंग-प्रत्यंग सुचारु रूप से काम करने लगते हैं।
3. योगाभ्यास से रोगों से लड़ने की शक्ति बढ़ती है। बुढ़ापे में भी स्वस्थ बने रह सकते हैं। त्वचा पर चमक आती है, शरीर स्वस्थ, निरोग और बलवान बनता है।
4. जहाँ एक तरफ योगासन माँसपेशियों को पुष्ट करता है जिससे दुबला-पतला व्यक्ति भी ताकतवर और बलवान बन जाता है वहीं दूसरी ओर योग के नित्य अभ्यास से शरीर से फैट भी कम हो जाता है इस तरह योग कृश और स्थूल दोनों के लिए लाभदायक है।
5. योगासन के नित्य अभ्यास से माँसपेशियों का अच्छा व्यायाम होता है जिससे तनाव दूर होकर अच्छी नींद आती है, भूख अच्छी लगती है, पाचन सही रहता है।

योग आज एक थैरेपी के रूप में भी उपयोगी सिद्ध हो चुका है। हर एक रोग के लिए विशेष आसन है। रोग विशेष के उपचार के लिए विशेष आसन है। कई ऐसे रोग जिसके उपचार से डॉक्टर जवाब दे देता है उसके लिए भी योग लाभदायक हो सकता है। आसन करना किसी दक्ष व्यक्ति से ही सीखना चाहिए। रोगों से लड़ने के लिए हमारे शरीर में भी प्रतिरोधात्मक शक्ति होती है तथा इस शक्ति को योगासन द्वारा बढ़ाया जा सकता है।

(f) (i)

इस घटना ने मेरा हृदय परिवर्तन कर दिया

भारतीय इतिहास में अनेक ऐसे प्रसंग मिलते हैं जिनमें किसी घटना से प्रभावित होकर व्यक्ति का हृदय परिवर्तन हो गया। हृदय परिवर्तन किसी सद्मार्ग पर चलने के लिए हुआ हो या अपने को परोपकार में लगाने के लिए हुआ हो या फिर दान आदि के द्वारा धार्मिक प्रोत्साहन के लिए हुआ। मनुष्य का हृदय अत्यन्त कोमल, दयापूर्ण, प्रेम से भरा और मनोबल से परिपूर्ण होता है।

मनुष्य के मनोभावों के साथ ही हृदय की क्रिया रहती है। मनुष्य का कोई दृढ़ संकल्प उसके हृदय को परिवर्तित कर देता है। महर्षि वाल्मीकि अपनी युवावस्था में डाकू रत्नाकर के नाम से जाने जाते थे। एक बार ऋषियों ने अपने उपदेश से उनका हृदय परिवर्तन कर दिया और अपने कल्याण के लिए ‘राम-राम’ जपने का उपदेश दिया। वे ‘रामराम’ का उल्टा ‘मरा-मरा’ जपने लगे और आगे चल कर महर्षि वाल्मीकि हुए जिन्होंने संस्कृत में वाल्मीकि रामायण लिखी। इनके बारे में एक चौपाई इस प्रकार हैं

“उल्टा नाम जपा जग जाना। वाल्मीकि भये ब्रह्म समाना।”

दूसरा उदाहरण है सम्राट अशोक का जिन्होंने ‘कलिंग’ देश के युद्ध में भीषण नरसंहार के बाद बौद्ध भिक्षु के उपदेश से अपना हृदय परिवर्तन कर लिया और आगे युद्ध न करने की प्रतिज्ञा की। उन्होंने अपनी तलवार रख दी और फिर कभी उसे नहीं उठाया। यह भी मानवता के कल्याण में किया गया ‘हृदय परिवर्तन’ था।

एक दिन छमाही परीक्षा के बाद मैंने बाजार में घूमने का निश्चय किया और अपनी साइकिल उठाकर बाजार की तरफ चल दिया।

तभी मुझे याद आया कि पिताजी की कुछ दवा लेनी थी। इमरजैन्सी के पास एक मेडीकल की बड़ी दुकान है। मैं वहाँ जाकर खड़ा हुआ तो देखा कि गाँव का एक वृद्ध व्यक्ति डॉक्टर का पर्चा लेकर दुकान पर आया और बताया कि उसके बेटे का ऑपरेशन हो रहा है इसलिए उसे शीघ्र इन दवाइयों की आवश्यकता है।

दुकानदार ने दवा निकालकर दे दी और पैसे माँगे। उस वृद्ध के पास 50 रुपये कम थे। इस पर दुकानदार ने दवा वापस लेकर एक तरफ रख दी। वृद्ध गुहार करता रहा कि वह पैसे बाद में दे जायेगा इस समय ऑपरेशन चल रहा है। मुझे उस पर दया आई और उसके शब्दों में सत्यता का आभास हुआ। दवा लेकर जाना उसके लिए कितना आवश्यक था यह समझ में आ रहा था। उसने कातर दृष्टि से देखा पर किसी ने उसकी तरफ ध्यान नहीं दिया। वह रुआँसा हो गया। मैंने दुकानदार से कहा कि वह उसको दवा दे दे बाकी के पैसे मैं दे दूंगा। दुकानदार ने उसे दवा दे दी। उसने धन्यवाद सूचक दृष्टि से देखा और चला गया। मैंने अपनी जेब देखी तो उसमें उतने पैसे नहीं थे। अतः मैंने अपने हाथ की घड़ी उतारकर दुकानदार को दी। __ उसने आश्चर्य से मुझे देखा और घड़ी लेकर एक लिफाफे में रख दी। मैंने उससे कहा कि रुपये देकर घड़ी ले जाऊँगा।

मैं घर आ गया और यह घटना पिताजी को सुनाई। वे मेरे इस कृत्य पर बहुत खुश हुए और हर्ष के मारे मुझे गोद में उठा लिया। वे बड़े सहृदय हैं और इस प्रकार की मदद करते रहते हैं। मैंने पिताजी से 1050 रुपये माँगे। उन्होंने तुरन्त ही ग्यारह सौ रुपये मुझे दे दिये और यह भी नहीं पूछा कि किसके लिए रुपये चाहिए।

इस घटना ने मेरे हृदय को झकझोर दिया था कि किसी जरूरत के समय पैसा न होने से किस संकट से गुजरना पड़ सकता है। मैं उसी मेडीकल की दुकान पर गया और पचास रुपये देकर अपनी घड़ी वापस ली।

फिर उस दुकानदार को विश्वास में लेकर एक हजार रुपये उसके पास जमा कराये कि इस प्रकार का परेशान कोई भी व्यक्ति उसकी दुकान पर दवा लेने आये और उसके पास रुपये कम हों तो इन रुपयों में से उसकी पूर्ति कर दे। उसने हर्षित होकर मुझे धन्यवाद दिया। मैंने उसको अपना मोबाइल नम्बर दिया कि रुपये समाप्त हो जायें तो मुझे फोन कर दे। मैं तुरन्त ही पैसे जमा करा दिया करूँगा। इस प्रकार यह छोटी-सी मदद मेरी तरफ से चलती रहेगी।

इस घटना ने मेरा हृदय परिवर्तन कर दिया।

(ii)

‘जहाँ चाह वहाँ राह।’

मनुष्य के सभी कार्य मन से ही संचालित होते हैं। मन में मनन की शक्ति है। मननशीलता के कारण ही मनुष्य को चिन्तनशील प्राणी कहा जाता है। संस्कृत में एक कहावत है- ‘मन एव मनुष्याणां कारणं बन्धमोक्षयो’ अर्थात् मन ही मनुष्य के बन्धन और मोक्ष का कारण है। यदि मन न चाहे तो मनुष्य बड़े-से-बड़े बन्धनों की उपेक्षा कर सकता है। मन के चाहने से ही राह बनती है। शंकराचार्य ने कहा है ‘जिसने मन को जीत लिया, उसने जगत को जीत लिया।’ मन की संकल्पशक्ति से व्यक्ति को राह मिल जाती है अर्थात् वह अपने कार्य में सफल हो जाता है। अनेक ऐसे उदाहरण मिलते हैं जिसमें मन की संकल्पशक्ति के द्वारा व्यक्तियों ने अपनी हार को विजय में परिवर्तित कर दिया। महाभारत के युद्ध में पाण्डवों की जीत का कारण था कि श्रीकृष्ण ने उनके मनोबल को दृढ़ कर दिया था। नचिकेता ने चाहा कि वह मृत्यु पर विजय प्राप्त करे और आत्मा का रहस्य जान सके।

यमराज के द्वारा उसे आत्मा का रहस्य समझाया गया। सावित्री ने अपने मनोबल की चाह से यमराज से अपने मरे हुए पति की आत्मा को वापस प्राप्त कर लिया। महाराणा प्रताप ने अपनी दृढ़ मनःशक्ति से अकबर की सेना से लोहा लिया। तेनसिंह चाहता था कि वह एवरेस्ट की चोटी पर चढ़कर विजय प्राप्त करे। उसने कोशिश की और एवरेस्ट की चोटी पर विजय प्राप्त कर ली।

मेवाड़ का इतिहास वीरता से भरा पड़ा है। वहाँ का क्रूर शासक बनवीर निष्कंटक राज करना चाहता था। उसने यह योजना बनाई कि शहर में एक रात दीपदान और नाच-गान के उत्सव का आयोजन करवाया जाये। उसका लक्ष्य था कि जब जनता इस उत्सव में व्यस्त होगी तब वह महाराणा और मेवाड़ के उत्तराधिकारी बालक उदयसिंह को मार देगा और निष्कंटक राज्य करेगा। शहर में यह उत्सव चल रहा था और लोग आनन्द में व्यस्त थे।

इधर राजमहल में उदयसिंह की धाय ‘पन्ना’ उसकी रक्षा और देखभाल के लिए थी। वह एक देशभक्त क्षत्राणी थी। वह बनवीर की क्रूरता से परिचित थी। पन्ना धाय का बेटा चन्दन उदयसिंह की आयु का ही था और वे दोनों उसी राजमहल में पन्ना की देखरेख में रहते थे। पन्ना को शक था कि दीपदान के उत्सव में बनवीर कुछ काण्ड कर सकता है। तभी एक दासी ने उसे बताया कि बनवीर ने महाराणा का कत्ल कर दिया है और वह उदयसिंह के महल की तरफ आ रहा है। पन्ना प्राणपण से उदयसिंह को बचाना चाहती थी। उसने अपने पुत्र चन्दन को उदयसिंह के राजसी वस्त्र पहनाकर कुँवर उदयसिंह के पलंग पर सुला दिया। तभी कीरत बारी एक बड़ी टोकरी लेकर जूठी पत्तल उठाने के लिए आया। वह भी मेवाड़ को बहुत प्रेम करता था।

पन्ना ने उससे कहा कि वह मेवाड़ के कुँवर की रक्षा करे। तब पन्ना ने सोते हुए उदयसिंह को कीरत की टोकरी में रख दिया और ऊपर से पत्तलों से ढक दिया तथा उसे बताये हुए स्थान पर मिलने को कहा। महल के बाहर अनेक सैनिक तैनात थे, लेकिन कीरत को किसी ने टोका नहीं और वह वहाँ से आसानी से निकल गया। उसके बाद बनवीर हाथ में तलवार लेकर आया और पन्ना को लालच देकर उदयसिंह के बारे में पूछा। पन्ना ने उससे बहुत गुहार लगाई, लेकिन वह नहीं माना। तब पन्ना ने उँगली के इशारे से पलंग की ओर संकेत किया जिस पर उसका पुत्र चन्दन सो रहा था। बनवीर ने एक ही बार में उस बालक का काम तमाम कर दिया। पन्ना चीत्कार करके वहीं गिर पड़ी। उसका ऐसा बलिदान इतिहास में स्वर्ण-अक्षरों में लिखा गया।

फिर पन्ना उस स्थान पर पहुँची जहाँ कीरत को पहुँचने को कहा था। फिर वह कुँवर उदयसिंह को लेकर पड़ोसी मित्र राज्य में चली गई जहाँ उदयसिंह का पालन हुआ। पन्ना ने सच्चे मन से जो चाहा वह पूरा हुआ। अतः हम कह सकते हैं-

‘जहाँ चाह वहाँ राह।’

Question 2.
Read the following passage and briefly answer the questions that follow :
निम्नलिखित अवतरण को पढ़कर, अन्त में दिये गए प्रश्नों के संक्षिप्त उत्तर लिखिए-

विनम्रता तथा सरलता ऐसे गुण हैं जो हमें सच्चे अर्थों में मनुष्य बनाते हैं। विनम्रता मानव को उसके दिव्य स्वभाव से जोड़ती है। उसे दूसरों के प्रति सहृदय बनाती है। वह सरलता से प्रेरित होकर विपत्ति में पड़े मनुष्यों की मदद करता है। स्वयं अभाव में रहकर भी दूसरों की यथासंभव सहायता करता है। विनम्र व्यक्ति की वाणी बड़ी मधुर होती है। इनके मृदुवचन मन की कटुता को समाप्त करते हैं। वाणी की मिठास के कारण इनके अनेकानेक मित्र बन जाते हैं। लोग इस प्रकार के व्यक्तियों से चाहे जितने भी क्रोध में बात करें, विनम्रता का जादू क्षणभर में क्रोध को शांत कर देता है। अतः इस प्रकार विनम्रता बड़ी सहजता से क्रोध जैसे बड़े मनोविकार पर भी विजय प्राप्त कर लेती है। ये व्यक्ति समाज के लिए मार्गदर्शक बन जाते हैं। इनकी सरलता में जो स्वाभाविकता होती है वह लोगों को सहज ही अपनी ओर आकर्षित करती है। इनका अनुकरण करने का प्रयास सभी करते हैं। जिससे वे भी विनम्रता को अपने जीवन में अपनाकर अपना जीवन सफल बना सकें। ईर्ष्या, द्वेष, घृणा जैसे मनोविकार को पराजित कर पाएं।

अनेक महान विभूतियों का जीवन सरलता तथा विनम्रता का प्रत्यक्ष उदाहरण है। विश्वप्रसिद्ध दार्शनिक सुकरात शक्ल से अत्यंत ही कुरूप थे। एक दिन अकेले में वे दर्पण हाथ में लेकर अपना मुंह देख रहे थे, तभी उनका प्रिय शिष्य आया और सुकरात को दर्पण देखता पाकर बहुत आश्चर्य में पड़ गया। वह कुछ बोला नहीं मात्र मुस्कुराने लगा। सुकरात ने उससे कहा “शायद तुम सोच रहे हो कि मुझ जैसा असुंदर व्यक्ति आखिर शीशा क्यों देख रहा है?” सुकरात ने उसे समझाया “वत्स शायद तुम नहीं जानते कि मैं यह शीशा क्यों देखता हूँ? मैं कुरूप हूँ। इसलिये प्रतिदिन शीशा देखता हूँ। शीशा देखकर मुझे अपनी कुरूपता का ज्ञान होता है। मैं अपने रूप को जानता हूँ। इसलिए प्रतिदिन प्रयत्न करता हूँ कि ऐसे, अच्छे कार्य करूँ जिनसे मेरी यह कुरूपता ढक जाए।” यह सरलता शिष्य के हृदय को छू गई। उसे गहरा जीवन दर्शन बड़ी आसानी से उसके गुरु ने सिखा दिया।

हमें भी अपने जीवन में इस अच्छे गुण को अपनाना चाहिए। यह एक बहुत बड़ी शक्ति है। इससे हम अपने केन्द्र से जुड़ते हैं। हमारी जीवनदृष्टि विशाल तथा भव्य बनती है। हम मानवता को नई ऊँचाई प्रदान करते हैं। हमारी विनम्रता तथा सरलता एक स्वस्थ समाज को जन्म देती है।

Questions.
(a) विनम्रता किस प्रकार मनुष्य के स्वभाव को दिव्यता प्रदान करती है? [4]
(b) सरल तथा विनम्र मनुष्यों की वाणी की विशेषता तथा प्रभाव का वर्णन करें। [4]
(c) सामान्य लोग सरल और विनम्र लोगों का अनुसरण करने का प्रयास क्यों करते हैं? [4]
(d) सुकरात की प्रतिदिन शीशा देखने वाली घटना का वर्णन अपने शब्दों में कीजिये।
(e) इस गद्यांश से आपको क्या शिक्षा मिलती है? [4]
Answer:
(a) विनम्रता सच्चे अर्थ में मनुष्य को श्रेष्ठ बनाती है। वह मनुष्य को उसके दिव्य स्वभाव से जोड़ती है। विनम्र व्यक्ति में ही सहृदयता आती है जिससे वह दूसरे मनुष्यों की सहायता करता है। विनम्र व्यक्ति का कोई शत्रु नहीं होता। वह सबको अपना प्रिय बना लेता है। विनम्रता मनुष्य का सर्वश्रेष्ठ गुण है। विनम्र व्यक्ति ही सबका चहेता होता है।

(b) सरल तथा विनम्र मनुष्यों की वाणी मधुर होती है। वे सामने वाले व्यक्ति के अनुरूप ही सद्व्यवहार करते हैं। सरल व्यक्ति किसी से धोखाधड़ी नहीं करता। विनम्र व्यक्ति सरल हृदय तो होता ही है साथ-साथ वह अपनी मधुर वाणी से सुनने वाले को सन्तोष और सुख प्रदान करता है। उसके मृदुवचन मन की कटुता को समाप्त करते हैं। वाणी की मधुरता के कारण इनके अनेकानेक मित्र बन जाते हैं। विनम्र व्यक्ति की मधुर वाणी क्रोधी व्यक्ति के क्रोध को भी शान्त कर देती है।

(c) सामान्य लोग सरल और विनम्र लोगों का अनुसरण करने का प्रयास इसलिए करते हैं क्योंकि वे भी उन लोगों की तरह विनम्रता को अपनाकर अपने जीवन को महान और सफल बना सकें। विनम्रता से ईर्ष्या, द्वेष, घृणा जैसे मनोविकार धीरे-धीरे समाप्त हो जाते हैं और मनुष्य सद्गुणों की ओर प्रेरित होता है।

(d) विश्वप्रसिद्ध दार्शनिक सुकरात शक्ल में अत्यन्त कुरूप थे। एक दिन वे दर्पण में अपना मुख देख रहे थे। तभी एक शिष्य वहाँ आया तो उसे आश्चर्य हुआ कि कुरूप होते हुए भी गुरुजी अपना मुख दर्पण में क्यों देख रहे हैं? लेकिन वह कुछ बोला नहीं। गुरु ने उसके मन के विचारों को जानकर उससे कहा कि वत्स मैं कुरूप हूँ इसलिए शीशा देखकर मैं यह प्रयत्न करता हूँ कि ऐसे अच्छे कार्य करूँ जिससे मेरी कुरूपता ढक जाये। संसार में रूप का नहीं बल्कि विद्वता और सत्कर्मों का ही महत्व है। शिष्य की समझ में यह बात आ गई।

(e) इस गद्यांश से हमें यह शिक्षा मिलती है कि हमें अपने जीवन में अच्छे गुणों को अपनाना चाहिए। इससे हमारी जीवनदृष्टि विशाल तथा भव्य बनती है। हम मानवता को नई ऊँचाई प्रदान करते हैं। हमारी विनम्रता तथा सरलता एक स्वस्थ समाज को जन्म देती है। हमारे जीवन में सद्गुणों का विकास होता है और सत्पुरुषों का संग मिलता है।

Question 3.
(a) Correct the following sentences, [5]
निम्नलिखित वाक्यों को शुद्ध करके लिखिए
(i) मुझे आपसे अनेकों बात करनी हैं।
(ii) हमें अपनी मातृभूमि पर अहंकार है।
(ii) मेरी बात राकेश हँसी से टाल गया।
(iv) जो काम करो वह पूरा जरूर करो।
(v) यह सारा कार्य मैंने करा है।

(b) Use the following idioms in sentences of your own to illustrate their meaning- [5]
निम्नलिखित मुहावरों का अर्थ स्पष्ट करने के लिए वाक्यों में प्रयोग कीजिए-
(i) आँच न आना।
(ii) कान खड़े होना।
(iii) घी के दीये जलाना।
(iv) चेहरे का रंग उड़ना।
(v) राई का पहाड़ बनाना।
Answer:
(a) (i) मुझे आपसे अनेक बातें करनी हैं।
(ii) हमें अपनी मातृभूमि पर गर्व है।
(iii) मेरी बात राकेश हँसी में टाल गया।
(iv) जो काम करो उसे पूरा जरूर करो।
(v) यह सारा कार्य मैंने किया है।

(b) (i) आँच न आना-कोई नुकसान न होना।
प्रयोग शेयरों की उलटफेर में करीब-करीब सभी को घाटा हुआ, लेकिन रमेश भाग्यशाली रहा कि उसको कोई आँच न आई।

(ii) कान खड़े होना–सावधान हो जाना।
प्रयोग– जब से सुशील को चाँदी के काम में घाटा हुआ है तब से उसके कान खड़े हो गये और अब वह सावधानी से चलता है।

(iii) घी के दिये जलाना- बहुत खुशी मनाना।
प्रयोग– व्यापार में उम्मीद से ज्यादा मुनाफा होने पर सेठ लक्ष्मीचन्द के यहाँ घी के दिये जल रहे हैं।

(iv) चेहरे का रंग उड़ना-घबरा जाना।
प्रयोग-चोर ने चोरी के माल को ऐसी जगह छिपा दिया कि किसी को पता न चले; लेकिन जब पुलिस ने उसको पकड़ लिया तो उसके चेहरे का रंग उड़ गया।

(v) राई का पहाड़ बनाना-बड़ा-चढ़ा कर कहना।
प्रयोग-रमेश की तो आदत है कि वह हर घटना को राई का पहाड़ बनाकर बताता है।

Section B is not given due to change in Present Syllabus.

ISC Class 12 Hindi Previous Year Question Papers

ISC Maths Previous Year Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12

Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

(Candidates are allowed additional 15 minutes for only reading the paper. They must NOT start writing during this time.)

• The Question Paper consists of three sections A, B and C.
• Candidates are required to attempt all questions from Section A and all questions either from Section B or Section C.
• Section A: Internal choice has been provided in three questions of four marks each and two questions of six marks each.
• Section B: Internal choice has been provided in two questions of four marks each.
• Section C: Internal choice has been provided in two questions of four marks each.
• All working, including rough work, should be done on the same sheet as, and adjacent to the rest of the answer.
• The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].
• Mathematical tables and graph papers are provided.

Section – A
(All questions are compulsory in this part)

Question 1.
(i) If the matrix \(A=\left[\begin{array}{rrr}{6} & {x} & {2} \\ {2} & {-1} & {2} \\ {-10} & {5} & {2}\end{array}\right]\) is a singular matrix, find the value of x. [3]
(ii) Solve: \(\cos ^{-1}\left[\sin \left(\cos ^{-1} x\right)\right]=\pi / 3\) [3]
(iii) Show that the liney = x + √7 touches the hyperbola 9x² – 16y² = 144. [3]
(iv) Evaluate: \(\lim _{x \rightarrow \pi / 2}\left[x \tan x-\frac{\pi}{2} \sec x\right]\) [3]
(v) Evaluate: \(\int \frac{x}{(x+1)^{2}} d x\) [3]
(vi) Evaluate: \(\int_{-3}^{3}|x+2| d x\) [3]
(vii) A fair die is thrown once. What is the probability that either an even number or a number greater than three will turn up? [3]
(viii) If the regression equation of x on y is given by mx – y + 10 = 0 and the equation ofyonx is given by -2x + 5y = 14, determine the value of ‘m’ if the coefficient of correlation between x and y is \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{10}}\) [3]
(ix) If 1, ω, ω² are the three cube roots of unity, then simplify: (3 + 5ω + 3ω²)² (1 + 2ω + ω²) [3]
(x) Solve the differential equation: cosec³x dy – cosec y dx = 0 [3]
Answer:

Question 2.
(a) By using properties of determinants, prove that the determinant \(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}{a} & {\sin x} & {\cos x} \\ {-\sin x} & {-a} & {1} \\ {\cos x} & {1} & {a}\end{array}\right|\) is independent of x. [5]
(b) Using matrix method, solve the following equations: [5]
5x + 3y + z = 16
2x + y + 3z = 19
x + 2y + 4z = 25
Answer:

Question 3.
(a) Using Rolle’s theorem, find a point on the curvey = sinx + cos x – 1, \(x \in\left[0, \frac{\pi}{2}\right]\) tangent is parallel to the x- axis. [5]
(b) Find the equation of the parabola whose focus is (-1, -2) and the equation of the directrix is given by 4x – 3y + 2 = 0. Also find the equation of the axis. [5]
Answer:

Question 4.
(a) Prove that: [5]
\(\sin \left[2 \tan ^{-1} \frac{3}{5}-\sin ^{-1} \frac{7}{25}=\frac{304}{425}\right]\)
(b) x, y and z represent three switches in an ‘ON’ position and x’ y ‘and z’ represent the same three switches in an ‘OFF’ position. Construct a switching circuit representing the polynomial (x + y) (x’ + z) + y(y’ + z’).
Using the laws of Boolean Algebra, show that the above polynomial is equivalent to xz + y and construct an equivalent switching circuit. [5]
Answer:

Question 5.
(a) Using a suitable substitution, find the derivative of \(\tan ^{-1} \sqrt{\frac{a-x}{a+x}}\) with respect to x. [5]
(b) A closed right circular cylinder has volume \(\frac{539}{2}\) cubic units. Find the radius and the height of the cylinder so that the total surface area is minimum. [5]
Answer:

Question 6.
(a) Evaluate: [5]
\(\int \frac{2 \sin 2 \theta-\cos \theta}{6-\cos ^{2} \theta-4 \sin \theta} d \theta\)
(b) Draw a rough sketch of the curve y = x² – 5x + 6 and find the area bounded by the curve and the x-axis. [5]
Answer:

Question 7.
(a) Find the equations of the two lines of regression for the following observations: [5]
(3, 6), (4, 5), (5, 4), (6, 3), (7, 2)
Find an estimate of y for x = 2.5
(b) Calculate Spearman’s coefficient of rank correlation from the following data and interpret the result: [5]

Answer:

Question 8.
(a) Akhil and Vijay appear for an interview for two vacancies. The probability of Akhil’s selection is \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\) and Vijay’s selection is \(\frac { 2 }{ 3 }\). Find the probability that only one of them will be selected. [5]
(b) There are two bags. One bag contains six green and three red balls. The second bag contains five green and four red balls. One ball is transferred from tire first bag to the second bag. Then one ball is drawn from the second bag. Find the probability that it is a red ball. [5]
Answer:

Question 9.
(a) Solve the differential equation: (y + log x) dx – x dy = 0, given that y = 0, when x = 1. [5]
(b) Find the locus of a complex number z = x + iy, satisfying the relation |3z – 4i| ≤ |3z + 2|. [5]
Illustrate the locus in Argand’s plane.
Answer:

Section – B

Question 10.
(a) Find the value of λ for which the four points with position yeptors \(2 \hat{i}+5 \hat{j}+\hat{k},-\hat{j}-4 \hat{k}\), \(3 \hat{i}+\lambda \hat{j}+8 \hat{k} \text { and }-4 \hat{i}+3 \hat{j}+4 \hat{k}\) are coplaner, then find λ. [5]
(b) In any ∆ABC, prove by vector method that \(\cos B=\frac{c^{2}+a^{2}-b^{2}}{2 c a}\) [5]
Answer:

Question 11.
(a) Find the shortest distance between the lines whose vector equations are:
\(\vec{r}=(4 \hat{i}-\hat{j}+2 \hat{k})+\lambda(\hat{i}+2 \hat{j}-3 \hat{k}) \text { and } \vec{r}=(2 \hat{i}+\hat{j}-\hat{k})+\mu(\hat{3} \hat{i}+2 \hat{j}-4 \hat{k})\)
(b) Find the equation of the plane passing through the line of intersection of the planes x + 2y + 3z – 4 = 0 and 3z – y = 0 and perpendicular to the plane 3x + 4y – 2z + 6 = 0. [5]
Answer:

Question 12.
(a) A factory has three machines A, B, C producing 1500, 2500 and 3000 bulbs per day respectively. Machine A produces 1.5% defective bulbs, machine B produces 2% defective bulbs and machine C produces 2.5% defective bulbs. At the end of the day, abulb is drawn at random and is found to be defective. What is the probability that this defective bulb has been produced by machine B? [5]
(b) Five bad eggs are mixed with 10 good ones. If three eggs are drawn one by one with replacement, find the probability distribution of the number of good eggs drawn. [5]
Answer:
(a) Total daily production of bulb = 1500 + 2500 + 3000 = 7000 units
E₁, E₂, E₃ be the events of selecting a bulb produced by the three machine A, B and C

Section – C

Question 13.
(a) A company produces two types of items, P and Q. Manufacturing of both items requires the metals gold and copper. Each unit of item P requires 3 gms of gold and 1 gm of copper while that of item Q requires 1 gm of gold and 2 gms of copper. The company has 9 gms of gold and 8 gms of copper in its store. If each unit of item P makes a profit of Rs 50 and each unit of item Q makes a profit of Rs 60, determine the number of units of each item that the company should produce to maximize profit. What is the maximum profit? [5]
(b) At the beginning of each quarter, a sum of Rs 1,500 is deposited into a savings account that pays 12% per annum compounded quarterly. Find the amount in the account at the end of four years. [5]
Answer:

Question 14.
(a) A bill of exchange for Rs 722 was drawn on the 3rd April 2009, payable three months after date. It was discounted on 15th April 2009 at 4.75% per annum. What was the discounted value of the gift? [5]
(b) The average cost function AC for a commodity is given by \(\mathrm{AC}=x+5+\frac{36}{x}\) in terms of output x. Find the:
(i) Total cost and the marginal cost as the functions of x. [5]
(ii) Output for which AC increases.
Answer:

Question 15.
(a) The index number for the following data, for the year 2008, taking 2004 as the base year was found to be 116. The simple aggregate method was used for calculation. Find the numerical values of x and y if the sum of the prices in the year 2008 is Rs. 203. [5]

(b) Consider the following data: [5]

Calculate three days moving averages and display these and the original figures on the same graph.
Answer:

ISC Class 12 Maths Previous Year Question Papers

ISC Biology Previous Year Question Paper 2013 Solved for Class 12

Part-I
(Attempt All Questions)

Question 1.
(a) Give one significant difference between each of the following : [5]
(i) Implantation and Parturition.
(ii) Active absorption and passive absorption.
(iii) Haemodialysis and Peritoneal dialysis.
(iv) Simple Suit and Aggregate fruit.
(v) Auricles and Ventricles.

(b) Explain what would happen if: [5]
(i) Excess fertilizers are added to the soil.
(ii) Blood clots in the coronary artery.
(iii) Beta cells in the islets of Langerhans are damaged.
(iv) Silicon emulsion is applied over the surface of leaves.
(v) Magnesium element is deficient in the soil.

(c) Each of the following questions/statements have four suggested answers. Rewrite the correct answer in each case: [3]

(i) The cell division in the tunica region of shoot apex is:
(A) Periclinal
(B) Horizontal
(C) Anticlinal
(D) Radial

(ii) The dark coloured dead wood present in the central region of old trees is :
(A) Springwood
(B) Heartwood
(C) Sapwood
(D) Cambium

(iii) Dwarfism accompanied by mental retardation is due to hypo-secretion of:
(A) Growth hormone
(B) Thyroxine hormone
(C) Parathormone
(D) Adrenalin hormone

(iv) Oxygen is released in photosynthesis by:
(A) Photophosphorylation
(B) Photolysis of water
(C) Photorespiration
(D) Photons

(v) The spinal nerve is:
(A) A mixed nerve
(B) A sensory nerve
(C) Amotornerve
(D) A cranial nerve

(vi) The cells of the areolar tissue which produce heparin are:
(A) Fibrocytes
(B) Mast cells
(C) Macrophages
(D) Chondrocytes

(d) Mention the most significant function of the following :
Answer:
(a)

Implantation	Parturition
It is the attachment of blastocyst in the endometrium of the uterus.	It is the act of expelling out of full-term foetus from the uterus at the end of gestation.
Active absorption	Passive absorption
Water is absorbed against DPD gradient, using metabolic energy.	Water is absorbed along the gradient or due to force developed by transpiration pull.
Simple fruit	Aggregate fruit
These are formed from a single simple carpel or more but fused carpels of a flower.	It develops from several ovaries of free carpels of a flower.

(b) (i) Excess fertilizers will form a hypertonic solution in the soil. Exosmosis will then occur in the root hair cells resulting in plasmolysis ultimately the plant will die due to loss of water.
(iv) Silicon emulsion over the surface of leaves will block the stomata and hence stomatal and cuticular transpiration will be reduced.

(c) (ii) The dark coloured dead wood present in the central region of the old tree is heartwood.
(iv) Oxygen is released in photosynthesis by photolysis of water.

(d) (iii) Parenchyma remains turgid and helps to provide mechanical support and maintains the shape of the plant body. They play an important role in the storage of food and wound recovery and regenerate.
(v) Guard cells regulate the opening and closing of stomata.

(e) (i) Munch – gave the Mass Flow Hypothesis.
(ii) Ronald Ross – described the life cycle of Plasmodium in the mosquito.
(iii) Gave Hall’s process.
(iv) Introduced the term ‘New systematics’.

(f) (ii) Follicle Stimulating Hormone.
(iii) Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome.
(iv) Dichloro diphenyl trichloroethane.

Part-II (50 Marks)
Section-A
(Answer any three questions)

Question 2.
(a) Give four differences between root apex and shoot apex.** [4]
(b) Explain the development of the different types of endosperms in angiosperms. [3]
(c) Explain briefly : [3]
(i) Capillary water
(ii) Osmosis
(iii) Aeroponics
Answer:
(b) Formation of endosperm is initiated by mitotic division of primary endosperm nucleus, which is triploid and is formed by triple fusion of two polar nuclei or secondary nucleus (2n) with male gamete (n). Endosperm is formed before the division of zygote.

In angiosperms, endosperm development is of the three types :
(i) Nuclear type : It is the most common type of endosperm formation. In this type, the primary endosperm nucleus divides repeatedly and gives rise to a number of free nuclei which remain as peripheral layer and a large central vacuole appears in the embryo sac. Cell wall formation takes place later leading to the formation of cellular endosperm e.g., Coconut, Areca. In coconut, central part remains free nuclear.

(ii) Cellular type : In this type, first and subsequent divisions of primary endosperm nucleus are accompanied by wall formation, hence endosperm is cellular from the very beginning e.g., Petunia, Datura.

(iii) Helobial type : It is an intermediate type between the nuclear and cellular types. The first division of endosperm nucleus is followed by wall formation but the subsequent divisions are free nuclear. The chamber towards the micropylar end of embryo sac is much larger. A large number of nuclei are formed in it by free nuclear divisions while the nucleus of chalazal chamber divides to form a fewer, free nuclei or may not divide at all e.g., Drimya.

(c) (i) Capillary water is present in the spaces between the soil particles as a thin film. It is readily available to plants. It is held in the soil against the forces of gravity.
(ii) Osmosis is the process in which water molecules move through a semi-permeable membrane from their higher concentration to their lower concentration.
(iii) In aeroponics, roots of plant are suspended into a plastic vessel and sprayed with oxygenated nutrient rich water. This technique allows the roots to absorb nutrients much faster causing rapid growth and more yield.

Question 3.
(a) Explain the C4 cycle of photosynthesis. [4]
(b) State three advantages and three disadvantages of vegetative reproduction. [3]
(c) Mention one role and one deficiency symptom of the following elements in plant nutrition.** [3]
(i) Phosphorus
(ii) Iron
(iii) Chlorine
Answer:
(a) Steps involved in C₄ pathway of photo synthesis : This pathway mostly takes place in monocot plants and in some dicot plants. In this pathway, the first product of CO₂ fixation is a 4 carbon compound, oxaloacetic acid hence it is called C₄ pathway.

The anatomy of leaves of C₄ plants is different from leaves of C₃ plants (Calvin cycle). Pali-sade cells are absent in the mesophyll tissues. There is bundle sheath around the vascular bundles. In the bundle sheath cells, large chloroplasts without grana or less developed grana are present whereas in mesophyll cells, there are similar chloroplasts with well-developed grana. This type of anatomy is called Kranz anatomy.

In C₄ pathway, CO₂ absorbed from the atmosphere is accepted by phosphoenol pyruvic acid present in the chloroplast of mesophyll cells, leading to the formation of a 4 carbon compound oxaloacetic acid. This is converted into malic acid (4 carbon compound) which enters into the chloroplast of bundle sheath cells. Here the malic acid dissociates into pyruvic acid and CO₂. Pyruvic acid re-enters mesophyll cells and regenerates phosphoenol pyruvic acid. CO₂ after reacting with RuBP gives rise to sugars and other carbohydrates in bundle sheath cells according to the Calvin cycle. There is no photo-respiration in these plants.

(b) Advantages of vegetative propagation :

1. Plants produced by vegetative reproduction are genetically similar to parental type. Thus, the best varieties of potatoes, oranges, apples, etc., can be preserved by vegetative reproduction without loss of their fine quality. In this way, pure lines of desired types can be selected and propagated all over the world.
2. This is quick method and by this method flowers and fruits can be produced early.
3. This is more sure method of producing new plants than that of seed reproduction.
4. It is more economical for the plant because no energy is wasted in producing large and showy petals, nectar, fruits, seeds, etc. as in sexual reproduction.

Disadvantages of vegetative propagation :

1. Due to overcrowding of large number of plants near the parent plants, there is severe competition between the members of the same species. Thus, many plants become weak and stunted.
2. Over the time there may be degeneration of species due to lack of sexual stimulus.
3. Due to absence of genetic Variability in vegetative reproductive structure, there may not be evolution of new species.

** Answer is hot given d.c to cha.e In the present syllabus.
Question 4.
(a) What are tropic hormones? Describe the feedback control of tropic hormones with an ex-ample. [4]
(b) Explain the conduction of nerve impulse through a nerve fibre. [3]
(c) Draw a labelled diagram of the T.S. of bone. ‘ [3]

Question 5.
(a) Explain the role of pancreas in digestion of various food materials.** [4]
(b) Briefly describe the stages in clotting of blood.** [3]
(c) Define: [3]
(i) Reparative regeneration**
(ii) Capacitation
(iii) Menarchy.
Answer:
(c) (ii) Before fertilizing the ovum, the sperm prepares itself for the act of fertilization and undergoes many changes. These changes in a sperm just prior to fertilization are called capacitation.
(iii) It is the onset of menstruation in a young female at the age of about 12-13 years.

Question 6.
(a) State four differences between transpiration and guttation. [4]
(b) Give an account of the secretory phase of menstrual cycle. [3]
(c) Define: [3]
(i) Radial vascular bundle
(ii) Rigor mortis**
(iii) Root pressure
Answer:
(a) Transpiration:

1. Water is lost in the form of vapours.
2. It mainly occurs through the stomata.
3. Only pure water is lost out.
4. Mostly it occurs during the day when stomata are open in light.

Guttation:

1. Water is lost in liquid form.
2. It occurs through the hydathodes.
3. Water moving out contains minerals dissolved in it.
4. It occurs at night or early morning hours.

(b) Secretory Phase : The secretory phase of the menstrual cycle extends from 12-14 days. The production of LH continued in secretory phase in which a yellowish body called the corpus luteum is developed from empty ruptured follicle. Progesterone released by corpus luteum together with estrogen produced by the ovaries, produces changes in the secondary sex organs to prepare the body for pregnancy. Since these changes are due to the progesterone, this phase is also known as progesterone phase or luteal phase. Secretory phase is associated with following changes in uterus and ovary.

(1) Changes in uterus : In this phase, thickness of endometrial progressively increases. The arteries of the endometrium become coiled and glycogen content of the endometrial epithelium increases. Towards the end of the secretory phase, the endometrium is thick, soft and richly supplied with .blood. These changes are the obvious preparation for providing a suitable environment for fertilized ovum. The uterine glands become active and are filled with secretions and uterine movements are reduced so that uterus may not contract. However, in the absence of pregnancy, these measures are abortive.

(2) Changes in ovary : In case, the ovum is not fertilized, progesterone level decrease as the corpus luteum undergoes degeneration and the thickened endometrium is shed in the form of a menstrual flow and once again initiating the menstrual cycle.

(c) (i) In this type of vascular bundles, xylem and phloem occur alternately on different radii e.g., in roots.
(iii) Root pressure is the pressure exerted by the liquid contents of the fully turgid cortex cells of the root, forcing some of it into the xylem vessels and up through the stem. It is a vital phenomenon and depends upon the activity of the living cells of root.

Section – B
(Answer any two questions)

Question 7.
(a) Differentiate between apes and man with respect to the following characteristics : [4]
(i) Posture
(ii) Cranium
(iii) Brow ridges
(iv) Locomotion

(b) Define: [3]
(i) Vestigial organs
(ii) Variations
(iii) Neo-Darwinism

(c) Give three differences between Natural Selection and Artificial Selection.[3]
Answer:
(a) Apes:

1. Posture – Semi erect
2. Cranium – flattened with cranial capacity under 650 cm3.
3. Brow ridges – Prominent.
4. Locomotion-walk semi-erect on the outer edges of the feet and knuckles of hands, soles do not lie flat on the ground.

Man:

1. Fully erect.
2. Rounded with a cranial capacity of about 1450 cm₃.
3. Brow ridges-inconspicuous.
4. Walk fully erect on the soles of feet which lie flat on the ground while walking.

(b) (i) Vestigial organs are the organs which are non-functional in the possessor but were functional in their ancestors and in related animals. It is evidence of organic evolution. e.g. in human eye, nictitating membrane, vermiform appendix.
(ii) Variation is a process by which closely related organisms come to differ amongst them-selves. Genetic drift, mutation, recombination, gene flow, migration, selection are some sources of variation.
(iii) According to Neo-Darwinism adaptations are caused due to many forces, natural selection being one of them and that characters are not inherited as such but there are character determiners which control their development.

Natural selection

• Nature selects the best or most’ favourable adaptation.
• It causes great diversity in nature.
• It takes hundreds of years for a new species to evolve.

Artificial selection:

• Man selects the characteristics it desires in an organism.
• It has led to the evolution of a few economically important plants and animals only.
• It leads to the formation of new species within a few months or years.

Question 8.
(a) State four characteristics of the Cro-Magnon man. , [4]
(b) Explain the basic postulates of Darwinism. [3]
(c) Archaeopteryx is a connecting link between reptiles and birds. Justify the statement by giving two characteristics of each group. [3]
Answer:
(a) Cro-Magnon man or Homo sapiens fossils lived about 50,000 years ago and became extinct about 20,000 years ago.

It’s characteristic features are :

• Height was about 180 cm with sturdy body.
• Cranial capacity was about 1666 cm₃.
• Face was perfectly orthognathous with a narrow, and elevated nose, arched and broad forehead, moderate brow ridges.
• Jaws were strong with man-like dentition and a well-developed chin.
• He was a cave dweller and hunter.
• He knew the art of painting and carving. He made tools and carved ornaments from ivory, made finely chipped stone arrows and spearheads.
• Used animal skin to sew crude garments.
• Used fire.
• Had some religious beliefs and elaborate burial customs.
• He neither practised agriculture nor animal domestication.

(b) Basic postulates of Darwinism :
(i) Enormous Power of Fertility : Every living organism has the power to reproduce rapidly. Hence there is a danger of population explosion, causing the shortage of the food and other facilities. As a result, there are chances of elimination of a number of individuals because the available resources are less and that resulted in competition among organisms where every individual tries to be fit better than the other. Darwin suggested that population of each species remains more or less constant because most of off springs die before themselves becoming capable of reproducing.

(ii) Struggle for Existence : Overpopulation resulted in struggle which Darwin called the struggle for existence.

It is of three types :
(a) Intra-specific Struggle : The struggle within the species.
(b) Inter-specific Struggle : The struggle between different groups of animals, e.g. carnivorous animals eat the lower herbivore animals.
(c) Environment Struggle : Struggle with the adverse environment conditions. Such as extreme temperature, lack of sunlight, water, nutrients, etc.

(iii) Variations and Heredity : During competition, every individual tries to survive and become better fitted and shows variation. But all the variations are not significant from evolutionary point of view-some may be useful and some harmful. The useful variations are inherited in progeny of those organisms in which they arose and, therefore, the progeny have better chances of survival.

(iv) Survival of the Fittest or Natural Selection : During struggle for existence, only useful variations are selected by the organisms, and are adopted. Darwin stated that the variations are sorted out and selected naturally. Therefore, the organisms which possess such selected variations are said to be fittest.

(v) Origin of Species : Due to above facts, Darwin concluded that the struggle for existence leading to the survival of the fittest tend to successive generations to become better adapted to their environment. Thus, these forms are identified as new species.

(c) Reptile-like characteristics of Archaeopteryx :

• Tail was long with free caudal vertebrae.
• Teeth present in jaws.
• A weak and keel-less sternum.

Bird-like characters of Archaeopteryx :

1. Presence of feathers on the body.
2. Forelimbs modified into wings.
3. Four toes in the foot adapted for perching.

Question 9.
(a) Persons suffering from G-6PD deficiency are resistant to malaria. Explain. [4]
(b) Define: [3]
(i) Genetic Erosion
(ii) Bioinsecticides
(iii) Antigen
(iv) Psychosis
(c) Define Biofortification. [3]
Answer 9.
(a) G-6PD is an enzyme glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase which decomposes H₂C₂ formed during metabolism. The deficiency of this enzyme is an inborn error of metabolism controlled by specific gene. When persons suffering from malaria are given Primaquine it causes haemolysis because H₂O₂ produced during metabolism is not decomposed due to the deficiency of G-6PD enzymes. This H₂O₂ haemolysis the blood. The haemoglobin of haemolysed blood collects on cell membrane and RBC’s are deformed. In such distorted RBC’s, malarial parasite fails to survive and multiply. It means persons suffering from G-6PD deficiency are resistant to malaria. Such persons are, therefore, favoured by natural selection in area infested with malarial parasite. For this reason, G-6PD deficiency is found in 50% Negroes living in areas with malarial infection in African countries.

(b) (i) Genetic erosion is the loss of genes from gene pool due to deforestation, urban expansion, damage to ecosystem, etc.
(ii) Bioinsecticides are living organisms like other insects, bacteria etc., which themselves or their products are used to control insect pests.
(iii) Antigen is a substance which when introduced into a vertebrate body, provokes an immune response leading to acquired immunity.
(iv) Psychosis is a kind of mental illness in which the person has no idea about his condition, loses contact with reality and cannot function in society.

(c) Biofortification is the process of breeding staple crops to have higher levels of essential nutrients such as vitamins and minerals either through selective breeding or genetic modification. e.g., biofortification of wheat with zinc.

Question 10.
(a) List the activities of Community Health Services.**[4]
(b) Give three early diagnostic symptoms of cancer.[3]
(c) Define:[3]
(i) Carrying capacity
(ii) Implant
(iii) Carcinoma.
Answer:
(b) Early diagnostic symptoms of cancer are :

1. Painful and persistent cough.
2. Unaccustomed indigestion, constipation or diarrhoea.
3. Abdominal pain and pain or difficulty in urinating.
4. A lump, where the cancer is near the surface.

(c) (i) Carrying capacity is the maximum population that a given environment can support for an indefinite period or on a sustainable basis.
(ii) An implant is a tissue or organ inserted surgically into the human body to replace a defective one.
(iii) Carcinomas are tumours made-up of mainly epithelial cells that cover or line the body organs e.g., breast cancer.

ISC Class 12 Biology Previous Year Question Papers