ISC Psychology Question Paper 2016 Solved for Class 12

ISC Psychology Previous Year Question Paper 2016 Solved for Class 12

Maximum Marks: 70
Time allowed: Three hours

  • Candidates are allowed additional 15 minutes for only reading the paper. They must NOT start writing during this time.
  • Answer Question 1 from Part I and five questions from Part II,
  • The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Part – I (20 Marks)

Answer all questions.
(Compulsory)

Question 1. [20]
Answer briefly all the question (i) to (xx) :
(i) What is meant by phobia ?
(ii) Who put forward the Two Factor Theory of Intelligence ?
(iii) What are projective techniques ?
(iv) Mention any two personality types put forward by Sheldon.
(v) What is primary cognitive appraisal of stress ?
(vi) Define personality, according to All port.
(vii) What are social norms ?
(viii) Explain the pre-conventional stage of morality.
(ix) What is meant by the term Counselling Psychology ?
(x) Mention one way to resist prejudice.
(xi) What is meant by the term person positivity bias ?
(xii) Mention any one characteristic of passive- aggressive personality disorder.
(xiii) Explain the term counter transference.
(xiv) What is meant by the term projection ?
(xv) Who put forward the theory of Cognitive development ?
(xvi) Explain self-actualization.
(xvii) What is meant by the term internals, according to Julian Rotter ?
(xviii) Explain the term mood disorder.
(xix) Mention any two central dimensions of personality according to Costa and McCrae.
(xx) State any one use of GATB.
Answer:
(i) Irrational fears of specific things causing intense emotional distress and interfering significantly with everyday activities.

(iii) Method used in the study of personality and social motives in which a subject is presented with a relatively ambiguous stimulus and asked to describe it in a meaningful way or to tell a story about it.

(v) Primary Cognitive appraisal – The evaluation of a situation whether it is threatening or not.

(vii) Social norms are standards of behavior agreed upon by group members which exert a powerful influence on social behavior or rules indicating how individuals are expected to behave in specific situations are called social norm.

(viii) As the first stage in moral development, preconventional morality is essentially the approach to right and wrong taken by children. Children often make moral decision based on how it will impact on them. Actions that lead to rewards are perceived as good or acceptable, once that lead to punishment are seen as bad or unacceptable/or example.

(ix) Counselling Psychology is a broad field of psychology that emphasizes helping and advising persons with various problems of day to day life, relating to education, occupation, career, mild mental problems like mild depression, marriage and marital problems, family related problems and professional problems etc.

(x) One way to resist prejudice is breaking the cycle to prejudice, Making positive value, reducing stereo type.

(xi) It is our tendency to evaluate individuals more positively than we evaluate groups, including the groups to which those individuals belong. Thus, we may have a prejudice against a group, we find that it applies to the group rather than to individual members of the group.

(xii) Specific characteristics of passive aggressive personality disorder include :

  • Procrastinates
  • Unreasonably criticize or scorns people in position of authority. (any one)

(xiii) Counter transference is a situation in which a therapist, during the course of therapy, develops positive or negative feelings toward the patient. These feelings may be the stirred up during therapy which the therapist directs toward the patient.

(xiv) The term projection is a defense mechanism in which conflict is dealt by ascribing one’s own anxiety – provoking motives to someone else; blaming others.

(xv) Jean Piaget put forward the theory of cognitive development.

(xvi) Self-actualization represents a concept derived from Humanistic psychological theory and specifically, from the theory created by Abraham Maslow self-actualization is the stage of personal development in which individuals reach their maximum potential/fullest potential or peak experience is called as self-actualization.

(xvii) According to Julian Rotter, individuals who believe that they exert considerable control over the outcomes they experience are called internals. Individuals with strong internal locus of control, believe events in their life derive primarily from their own actions.

(xviii) A psychological disorder in which the individuals experience swings in their emotional states that are more extreme and prolonged than most people.
Their highs are higher and lows are lower and they spend more time in these states than most people.

(xix) The two central dimensions of a personality according to Costa and McCrae are :
Extra version : A dimension ranging from energetic, enthusiastic, sociable and talkative at one end to retiring, sober, reserved, silent and cautions at the other.
Agreeableness : A dimension ranging from good-natured, cooperative, trusting and helping at one end to irritable, suspicious and uncooperative at the other.

(xx) General Aptitude Test Battery : GATB is a range of aptitude tests,

  • They are the backbones of the guidance services.
  • They can be safely used for the purpose of educational and vocational selection (Any one)

Part – II (50 Marks)

Section – A
Answer any two questions

Question 2.
(a) Describe Stern berg’s Triarchic Theory of Intelligence. [5]
(b) Explain how Stanford Binet test can be used to measure intelligence. [5]
Answer:
(a) Theorist-Robert Stern berg.
Triarchic theory – He gave three basic types of intelligence.
Componential or Analytical: The ability to think critically and analytically, people high on this type, scores well on standard academic tests or prove to be excellent students. Example – professors, teachers are high on this one.

Experiential or Creative : Insight and ability to formulate new ideas, people high on this type excel on zeroing in on what information is crucial in a given situation and/or combining seemingly unrelated facts. Example any inventions like minting coins, printing press.

Contextual or Practical : They have high adaptive sense or are street smart. They are adaptable at solving problems of every day life. Example – carrying the baby on the back while doing work.

(b) The Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales is an individually administered intelligence test that was revised from the original Binet-Simon scale by Lewis M. Terman, a psychologist in Stanford University. It is a cognitive ability intelligence test that is used to diagnose developmental or intellectual deficiencies in young children. The test measures five factors and consists of both verbal and non-verbal subtests. The five factors being tested are knowledge, quantitative reasoning, visual- spatial processing working memory and fluid reasoning.

The MA/CA ratio yields the Intelligence Quotient (IQ), a concept proposed by psychologist William Stern in 1912. If two children both obtain an MA of 5 years on an intelligence test, but one child is 4 years and the other is 6, obviously the younger child is developing intellectually at a much faster rate. To express this fact in the form of IQ’s, we take the ratio of MA to CA and multiply by 100 to eliminate decimals.
ISC Psychology Question Paper 2016 Solved for Class 12 1
Thus, the bright child mentioned above earns an IQ of 125 and the slower child earns an IQ of 83. If the individual’s MA or CA are equal and the IQ of 100 was obtained. This is considered to be an average score. IQ above 100 indicated that the person’s intellectual age was greater than his/her CA. Numbers below 100 indicated that individual was less intelligent than his/her peers.

Uses : School placement, determined presence of learning disability or development delay, tracking intellectual development included in neuro psychological testing to assess the brain function of individual with neurological impairment.

Question 3.
(a) What is meant by achievement test ? Discuss any four uses of achievement test. [5]
(b) Explain the basic concepts of Karen Homey’s theory of personality. [5]
Answer 3.
(a) Achievement refers to what a person has acquired or achieved after the specific training or instructions have been imparted to him.

Achievement test is also known as proficiency test, in which one measures the extent to which the person has acquired or achieved certain information on proficiency as a function of instruction or training.

The four uses of achievement test are:
1. Achievement tests are an effective way to check any weakness in the instructions or even slackness on the part of the examine. If weakness is found in the instructor, the instructor or the teacher may be asked to improve his instructions so that it may include the subsequent instructions.

2. It is also effective in the formulation of education boards and provides a very easy means of critical examination of the content and method of instruction.

3. It also helps in adapting the instruction to the individual need of the learner. The performance on the achievement test directly reveals the need for further guidance to be given to each learner and accordingly the instruction can be modified to suit the individual’s need.

4. Special achievement tests meant for measuring the achievement of the pupils in some selective areas may conveniently be grouped into two distinct groups. The diagnostic test and standardized end of course examinations. The diagnostic tests are the test whose primary function is to identify the educationally retarded pupils and to suggest remedial programmes. Such tests are available in special areas like in reading skills and mathematical skills.

The standard end course examinations are the series of the achievement tests for different subjects taught at either schools or college level. Since these are the coordinated series of the achievement test in different subjects they provide one system of comparable norms for all tests and thus a direct comparison of scores obtained in different subjects by the same tastee is possible.

So far as jobs are concerned, results of various achievement test indicated whether after education a person has been able to achieve in certain areas which are required for a particular job. A lot of human energy and resource can be saved if people are selected for jobs, promoted and transferred on the basis of their scores in achievement test/ vocational selection.

(b) Karen Homey argued that “Penis envy” was not a normal development in females but rather an unusual and pathological occurrence. She also countered that some of her male patients envied women their capacity for pregnancy, child birth, motherhood, breast development and suckling. Two major components of her person psychology were the notion of basic anxiety and basic hostility.

Basic Anxiety : It is what arises in childhood when the child feels helpless in a threatening world. Children leam that they are relatively weak and powerless, dependent on their parents for safety and satisfaction. Having and reliable parents can create a feeling of security and erratic indifferent or rejecting parents may sharpens the child’s sense of helplessness and vulnerability.

Basic hostility : It is what usually accompanies basic anxiety and grows out of resentment over the parental behavior that leads to anxiety in the first place. Because hostility cannot be expressed directly to parents, it is typically repressed, which only increases the child’s anxiety. Children dependent on their parents, anxious because their parents and unable to express their true feelings directly depend on the three modes of social behavior.

First mode: Moving towards others, involves excessive compliance/ passive.

Second mode : Moving against others, involves pursuit of satisfaction through ascendance and domination of others/ aggression.

Third mode : Moving away from others – is self-protection by withdrawal.

Homey believed that normal people use all three modes of social interaction at times but in a relatively balanced and flexible manner, adjusting their approach to situational demands. Neurotic people, she urged, allow one approach to dominate their social interactions and thus rigidly gets them into trouble.

Question 4,
(a) Discuss Sigmund Freud’s view about the structure of personality. [4]
(b) Explain MMPI as a tool to assess personality. [6]
Answer:
(a) The structure of personality : Freud suggested that personality consists largely of three parts the Id, the ego and the super ego. The id consists of all our primitive, innate urges. These include various bodily needs, sexual, desire and aggressive impulses. According to Freud, the id is totally unconscious and operative in accordance with what he termed the pleasure principle. It demands immediate, total gratification and in . not capable of consideration the potential costs of seeking this goal.

The second structure of personality is the ego. The ego’s task is to hold the id in check until conditions allow for satisfaction of its impulses. Thus, the ego operates in accordance with the reality principle. It takes into account external conditions and the consequences of various action and directs behavior so as to maximize pleasure and minimize pain. The ego is partly conscious but not entirely; thus, some of its actions – for example, its eternal struggle with the id – are outside our conscious knowledge or understanding.

The final aspect of personality described by Freud is the Super ego. It too seeks to control satisfaction of id impulses, but, in contrast to the ego, it is concerned with morality – with whether various ways that could potentially satisfy id impulses are right or wrong. The super ego permits us to gratify such impulses only when it is morally correct to do so – not simply when it is safe or feasible, as required by ego. So, for example, it would be the super ego, not the ego, that would prevent a stock broker from altering a computer program and thereby transferring funds from his clients’ accounts into his own account, even though he knew he could get away with this action.

Freud feel that this constant struggle among id, ego and super ego plays a key role in personality and in many psychological disorders. Moreover, he suggested that the struggle was often visible in everyday behavior in what have come to be known as Freudian Slips errors in speech that in fact betray unconscious thoughts or impulses.

(b) The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) developed in 1930. Current version MMPI – 2 (567 items).

  1. Contains 10 clinical scales and several validity scales.
  2. Clinical scales relate to various psychological disorders and its associated personality validity scales determine whether the respondent is faking the answer.

Depending on the scores it can be identified as relatively high or low on a particular personality trait.
MMPI-2 is designed to measure many aspects of personality related to psychological disorders :
ISC Psychology Question Paper 2016 Solved for Class 12 2

A set of statements is true or false about themselves in extent to whether they agree or disagree with various sentences which of a pair of activities they prefer. The subject has to classify these questions into three categories – True, False and Can’t say.

This inventory is used with adults who are 18 and above. The current inventory has 567 items all in true or false format and takes one or two hours to complete depending on their reading level. The chief criterion of validity was the prediction of clinical cases against the diagnosis of a hospital staff. There are four unusual scores obtained in addition to the diagnostic classification. These four are ‘validity scores’ (F), a Tie score’ (L), a ‘questions score’ and a K-score.

Section – B
Answer any three questions.

Question 5.
(a) Discuss the Formal Operational Stage as given by Piaget. [5]
(b) Explain the relative contribution of heredity and environment in the context of a child’s development. [5]
Answer 5.
(a) Formal Operational Stage as suggested by Piaget : At about the age of twelve Piaget suggested, most children enter the final stage of cognitive development – the stage of formal operations, During this period, major features of adult thought make their appearance. While children in the earlier stage of concrete operations can think logically, they can do so only about concrete events and objects. In contrast, those who have reached the stage of formal operations can think abstractly; they can deal not only with the real or concrete but with possibilities – events or relationships that do not exist, but can be imagined.

Hypothetical thinking : With formal operations, boys and girls moved from the actual world to the hypothetical world. They can still think about the way things are, but they become much more skilled at thinking about how things might be if certain changes took place. Such thinking allows adolescents to judge the ‘reasonableness’ of a purely hypothetical line of reasoning.

Deduction and induction : Hypothetical and abstract thinking make sophisticated deduction and induction possible. Deduction is reasoning from abstract, general principles to specific hypothesis that follow from these principles. Induction thinking is the complementary process of observing a number of specific events or instances and inferring an abstract general principle to explain those instances. The two processes can be seen in the adolescents reasoning about nature, science and even social problems.

Inter-propositional logic : The formal operations involve the ability to judge whether propositions are logically connected to one another, regardless of whether the propositions are true. This is called inter propositional logic.

Reflective thinking : This allows the formal operational person to be his or her own critic, to evaluate a process, idea of solution from the perspective of an outsider and to find errors or weak spots in it. The reflective thinker can then sharpen plans, arguments or points of view-making them more effective, more powerful.

(b) According to Pinter (1931) ‘The potency of environment is not merely so great as commonly supposed. A child’s abilities are determined by his ancestors and all that the environment can do is to give the opportunity for the development of his potentialities”. We can claim our calculations agree perfectly with the hypothesis that intelligence is inherited in the same way as physical characteristics are inherited.

Thus heredity is more important than environment in growth and development. Several experiment findings also emphasize importance of heredity in individual differences. Pearson (1904) found a remarkable resemblance among members of the same family in color of eyes, ratio of width and length of head and the physical traits which are by and large affected by environmental influences. Interestingly, he noted that the effect of heredity upon mental characteristics is the same as upon physical characteristics.

Contribution of Environment to child’s development: The effect of changed environment upon mental traits – two studies concluded by Chicago University group headed by Freeman (1925) and Stanford University group headed by Burks (1928) are notable. Both these investigations emphasized some what different methods, through the purpose was same i.e., to study the influence of home environment upon the development of mental traits in children. Freeman agrees with Burk’s view that heredity is a force in the determination of mental ability by the side of which all other forces are dwarfed in comparison. Both the studies agree upon the influence of heredity in shaping mental ability.

Both the groups show a general agreement on the role of environment in the development of individual intelligence. But the Chicago group seems to give greater emphasis to environment than to heredity. Watson has strongly emphasized the importance of environment in the development of human personality. If an individual’s abilities, efficiency and traits of personality would have bears exclusively influenced by genetic factors, environment, training and learning would have no value. Similarly, if training and education is considered as a sole factor influencing personality differences then favorable environmental opportunities are everything and potentialities and gifted qualities have no implications for personality development.

It seems more reasonable to say that both nature and nurture, heredity and environment have important roles to pay in the development of human being. But their relative importance differs in the development of various traits of personality.

Similarly, environment has the upper hand in the development of personality traits like sociability, amiability, honest, dominance, submission, introversion-extroversion, interests and several others socially desirable, undesirable traits. Regarding the mental activities, there are sufficient evidences to believe that heredity factors determine the potential level of physiological limit of development which an individual achieves at the maximum. Within this limit, the environment factors influence the level of development that really occurs.

Hence, neither nature nor nurture alone can explain one’s personality development. Heredity and Environment cooperatively and coordinately help in the growth and development of child’s behavior and personality.

Question 6.
(a) Explain the distress cycle. [5]
(b) Discuss briefly any five ways in which health of an individual can be affected by stress. [5]
Answer:
(a) Psychological distress is a general term used to describe unpleasant feelings or emotions that impact your level of functioning. In other words, it is psychological discomfort that interferes with your activitive of daily living. Psychological distress can result in negative views of the environment, others, and the self. Sadness, anxiety, distraction, and symptoms of mental illness are manifestations of psychological distress.
ISC Psychology Question Paper 2016 Solved for Class 12 3
(b) Ways in which health of an individual can be affected by stress : Stress has been implicated in the occurrence of heart disease, high blood pressure, hardening the arteries, ulcers and even diabetes. It interferes with efficient operation of our immune system, this elaborate internal mechanism through which our bodies recognize and destroy potentially harmful substances and intruders, such as bacteria, viruses and cancerous cells. Prolonged exposure to stress seem to disrupt this system.

Studies of the effect of stress on animals and humans suggest that a variety of stressors, including disruptions in interpersonal relationships, loneliness, academic pressure, daily hassles and the lack of social support, can interfere with our immune systems. Persons who are divorced or separated from their spouses often experience reduced functioning in certain aspects of their immune system, compared to individuals who are happily married.

Diabetes : When stressed, the blood sugar level rises. Stress hormone like cortisol and epinephrine are released as they raise blood sugar to help boost energy when it is needed the most. Both physical and emotional stress can prompt and increase these hormones resulting in an increase in blood sugar.

Ulcer and High Blood Pressure (Hyper-tension) : Stress causes psycho-physiological (mind-body) illness. This illness which include certain forms of hypertension, ulcers and headaches, are not caused by known physical disorders. Instead, the culprit is stress. In people with reactive temperaments chronic stress produces various changes. If there is prolonged resentment, anger or anxiety may stimulate an excess of digestive acids that eats away parts of the lining of the stomach or small intestine, creating ulcers. Another person under stress may retain excess sodium and fluids which together with construct the arteries cell walls, contributes to increased blood pressure.

Stress and cancer : Several investigators report that people are at risk for cancer a year or so after experiencing depression, helplessness or bereavement. Cancer occur more often than usual among those who are widows, divorced or separated. Alan Justice notes that stress does not create cancer cells, rather it affects their growth by weakening the body naturally defuses against a few proliferating malignant cells.

Stress and heart attack : Friedman and Raseman measured the blood cholesterol level and clotting speed of 40 US tax accountants from January to March, both of these coronary warning indicators more completely normal. Then, as the accountants began scrambling to finish their tax returns before April 15th filing deadline, their cholesterol and clotting measures rose to dangerous levels in May and June with the deadlines past the measures returned to normal. The researches launch had paid off. Stress predicted heart attack risk. Type A people more prone to heart attacks. They smoke more, sleep less and drink milk and more caffeinated drinks. All contribute to coronary risk.

Question 7.
(a) Discuss the biological, psychological and socialcultural perspectives of viewing abnormal behavior. [5]
(b) Explain the main features of Client Centered Therapy. [5]
Answer:
(a) The biological model emphasized the role of the nervous system in mental disorder. This approach seeks to understand such disorders in terms of malfunctioning of portions of the brain imbalances in various neuro-transmitters and genetic factors. Disorder of CNS, ANS or endocrine system, either inherited or caused by some excess destruction of brain tissue.

  • Neurotransmitter and abnormal imbalance in brain, imbalance of neurotransmitter.
  • Genetic vulnerability, depression, schizo-phrenia and alcoholism only manifest in later life. Teen or adulthood temperament.
  • Chromosomal abnormalities – Down’s Syndrome.

It is seen that many mental disorders show a high degree of concordance among close relatives. If one family members develops a disorder, other are at increased risk for developing it too. The biological model has becomes increasingly influential in recent years as advances in neuroscience have revealed more and more about the role of various portion of the brain in many aspects of behavior, and as techniques for observing the functioning of the brain (e.g. magnetic resonance imaging, PET scans.) have improved.

Psychological factors too can be important. The psychological perspective emphasizes the role of basic psychological process in the occurrence of mental disorders. For instance, many psychologists believe that learning plays a key role in many disorders. An example, phobias, or excessive fears of objects or situations.

The psychological perspective also emphasized the role of cognitive factors in mental disorders. For instance, many theories of depression suggest that long lasting negative feelings often stem firm faulty patterns of thoughts. The psychological perspective also takes account of unconscious forces and conflicts within individuals the factors also vividly emphasized by Freud and his followers.

Social cultural factors do play a role in mental disorder. Psychologists and other mental health professionals believe that they do, and print to the important role of such social variable as poverty, unemployment, inferior education and prejudice, as potential causes of at least some mental disorders. In other words, the socio-cultural perspective emphasizes the fact that external factors such as negative environments, a disadvantaged position in society and cultural tradition can play a role in mental disorders. Rapid technological advancements may increase stress.

(b) The most influential humanistic approach in client centered therapy developed by Carl Rogers. Rogers strongly rejected Freud’s view that mental disorders stem from conflicts over the expression of primitive instinctive urges. On the contrary, he argued such problems arise mainly because clients efforts to attain self-actualization, growth and development are thwarted early in life by judgments and ideas imposed by other people.

According to Rogers, these judgments lead individuals to acquire what he terms unrealistic condition of worth. That is they learn that they must be something other than what they really are, in order to be loved and accepted to be worthwhile as a person.

It focuses on eliminating such unrealistic conditions of worth through evaluation of a psychological climate in which clients feel valued as persons. Client centered therapists often show unconditional positive regard or unconditional acceptance, of the client and his or her feelings, a high level of empathetic understanding and accurate reflection of the clients feelings and perception. In this warm, caring environment, freed from threat of rejection, individuals can come to understand their own feelings and accept even previously unwanted aspects of their own personalities.

As a result, they come to see themselves as unique human beings with many desirable characteristics. To an extent, such changes occur, Rogers suggests, many mental disorders disappear and individuals can resume their normal progress towards self-fulfillment.

Question 8.
(a) Explain Mil gram’s Experiment on Obedience. [5]
(b) Describe the process through which people try to understand the reasons for others behavior. [5]
Answer 8.
(a) Mil gram’s Experiment on Obedience : Obedience refers to situations in which the agent has the legitimate right to influence the Focal Person (FP) and the FP has the obligation to obey. Such reciprocal role relationships are most clearly demonstrated when the agent has a higher status than the FP and the roles are part of a social system in which a higher status clearly defines influence over a lower status, such as ranks in the military.

Subject of Mil gram’s experiments were men who responded to newspaper ads and were paid $4.50 for coming to the laboratory. The situation was described as a learning experiment in which one person, the teacher, would shock another person, the learner, after each mistake while learning a list of paired words.

On the basis of a rigged drawing, the subject was always assigned the role of teacher, while male confederate of the experimenter was assigned the role of learner.

The learner was strapped into an electric chair, while the real subject was taken into another room where the electric shock apparatus was located. Actually, no shocks were administered, but the elaborate equipment led the subject to believe he would be administering painful shocks to the learner. The shock apparatus contained 30 switches indicating levels of shock from 15 to 450 volts, with labels such as Single shock, Moderate shock, danger, severe shock, and finally ‘XXX’. The teacher was to shock the learner for each mistake made in learning, and the level of shock was to increase one increment with each error. As the experiment progressed, the learner responded appropriately, with occasional mistakes.

At several points as the shock level increased, the learner would cry out because of the shock was getting painful, or he could be heard kicking the wall. At 300 volts, he stopped giving answers, while the teacher was instructed by the experimenter to continue increasing the level of shock. If the subject showed any reluctance, the experimenter prodded him to continue, saying it was necessary or required by the experiment. Obedience was measured by the amount of shock the subject was willing to administer to the learner.

Before conducting this experiment, Mil gram described it to several groups of people, all of whom predicted that very few, if any, of the subjects would follow the experimenter’s commands and give shocks up to 450 volts. Contrary to expectations, however, 26 of his 40 subjects (65 percent) continued to give shocks up to the 450 volt level, even though they believed they were hurting another person and showed signs of a great deal of tension-trembling, stuttering, nervous laughter. ’

Why do people show high levels of obedience in these laboratory studies because in many tragic real-life situations too several factors seem to play a role. First, the experimenter began by explaining that he is not the participant, would be responsible for the learner’s well-being. Second, the experimenter possessed clear signs of authority; and in most societies, individuals learn that persons holding authority are to be obeyed (Bushman, 1984, 1988) Third, the experimenters commands were gradual in nature.

He did not request that participants jump to the 450 volt shock immediately; rather he moved towards this request one step at a time. In sum, several factors probably contributed to the high levels of obedience observed in Mil gram’s research and related studies. To gather, these factors produced a powerful force – one that most persons found difficult to resist.

This does not imply that the commands of authority figures cannot be defied. Important factors include clear evidence that the persons in authority are pursuing purely selfish goals (saks, 1992), feelings of increased person responsible for the outcome produced on the part on the part of those who disobey (Hamilton, 1978) and exposure to disobedient models – persons who led others by taking the first, dangerous steps (e.g. Rochat and Modigliani, 1995). When such conditions exist, persons in authority may lose their capacity to command, and may quickly find themselves on the outside looking in.

(b) Attribution : The process through which we seek to determine the causes behind other’s behavior is known as attribution. We examine others behavior for clues as to the causes behind what they say and do, then reach our decision. The kind of information we consider depends on the specific question we want to answer. For instance, one basic issue is: Did another person’s actions stem from internal causes (e.g, their own traits, intentions, or motives) or from external causes (e.g. luck or factors beyond their control in a given situation). To answer this question, we often focus on information about

  1. Consensus – whether other people behave in the same way as the person we’re considering;
  2. Consistency – whether this person behaves in the same manner over the time; and
  3. Distinctiveness – whether this person behaves in the same way in different situations.

If very few people act like this person (consensus is low), this person have behaved in the same way over time (consistency is high), and this person behaves in much the same manner in many situations (distinctiveness is slowly), we conclude that the behavior stems from internal causes.

This is the kind of person the individual is and will probably remain. For instance, we would probably draw this conclusion about a student who got up and criticized a professor harshly in class if no other student did this, if this student criticized the professor on other occasions, and if this student also criticized other professors, waiter persons in restaurants and so on. In contrast, if all three factors (consensus, consistency and distinctiveness) are high, we are more likely to conclude that people behave as they do because of external causes – for instance, that they may have no choice, (Kelly, 1972). We’d reach this conclusion if many other students also criticized the professor, if this student criticized the same professor on other occasions and if the student did not criticize other professors.

Question 9.
Write notes on any two of the following :[5 x 2]
(a) Role of psychology in facilitating learning in schools.
(b) Career counselling.
(c) How does the knowledge of psychology help in preventing crime ?
Answer:
(a) Five ways to facilitate learning are:

  • To provide opportunities to students to discover, develop and improve their interest and abilities.
  • To arrange for remedial work when required.
  • To help students to develop good study habits.
  • To make students aware of the need of educational planning.
  • To give information about higher education and stimulate them to consider this carefully.

(b) Career counseling:
Career counselling is the process of helping the candidates to select a course of study that may help them to get into job or make them employable. A career counselor helps candidates to get into a career that is suited to their aptitude, personality, interest and skills. So it is the process of making an effective correlation between the internal psychology of a candidate with the external factors of employ ability and other courses.

Career counselors work with people from various walks of life, such as adolescents seeking to explore career options, or experienced professionals contemplating a career change. Career counselors typically have a background in vocational psychology or industrial/organisational psychology.

Career Testing : An objective form of career counselling is through an aptitude test, or a career test. Career testing is now usually done online and provides insightful and objective information about which jobs may be suitable for the test taker based on combination of their interests, values and skills. Career tests usually provide a list of recommended jobs that match the test takers attributes with host of people with similar personalities who enjoy are successful at their jobs. There are various ways to test an individual for which field he is suitable, psychometric testing being one among them.

Psychometric Testing : Different test companies have their own methods of testing. Usually, there are multiple sets of questions relating to personality type, how the test taker would handle aspects of work and home life, what his or her goals are for the future and his or her strengths and weaknesses. Currently more than 500 tests of personality of different types are in use. These tests have now become very scientific, refined and comprehensive compared to earlier tests.

Intelligence Tests : Various intelligence tests are applied to detect one’s intelligence. While, average intelligent and intelligent persons can be selected for any common job, below average intelligent persons are advised to take up repetitive and jobs requiring less skills. Besides these main tests there are other testes like achievement tests, general aptitude tests, special aptitude tests and various types of special ability tests. Tests are essential for any selection, recruitment, counselling, training and even at the time of promotion.

A general answer tracing the testing of a student (aptitude, personality, intelligence, ability and achievement); Explaining test results and achievability of goals; handling the admission process to courses (prerequisites for a course, presentation at interviews etc.) and finally finding the right for the student.

(c) In a legal sense, person of 21 years and above convicted by the court of law for violating the provisions of IPS and CPC is labelled a criminal in our country and the illegal act for which he is convicted is known as crime. Any behavious like pick-pocketing, gambling, burglary, robbery, theft, dacoity, rape, kidnapping and abduction attempts at suicide, murder, riots, destroying another’s property, sexual assault, prostitution, cheating, counterfeiting, failure to deposit taxes and revenue, etc. are termed criminal behaviour. Prevention : The remedy for criminal behaviour demands preventive measures.

The preventive measures involve improve-ment of social factors and environmental conditions that are responsible for the germination and perpetuation of criminal behaviour. The problem is a gigantic one and needs the cooperation of parents, members of the family, neighbourhood, community, school or college authorities, religious heads, police and government officials responsible for the social and psychological environment of the inhabitants of a society.

The following measures may be fruitful in the prevention task:
Since today’s delinquents are tomorrow’s criminals, maximum efforts should be made for the prevention, control and treatment of the identified delinquents.

There is great need for social reforms and breaking social and caste barriers.

The task narrowing the gulf between the rich and the poor, linguistic groups and religious sects should be given priority.

The importance of moral values should be inculcated. There should be an end to the crisis of character threatening the existence of the moral base and legal codes of our society.

The system of education and national planning need re-thinking and re-modification for minimising economic difficulties of our youth and adults.

The problem of unemployment has to be checked and the professional dissatisfaction as well as frustration effecting the vast population of the younger generation should be curbed.

Attempts should be made to minimize undesirable influence of literature, films and other mass media.

The parents, elders, government authorities, social, religious, educational and political leaders should be such that they become ideals of socially desirable behavior.

The society should feel the necessity of providing social and legal justice to its citizens. In case of environmental deprivations and hazards of life, the affected individual should be helped, protected and rehabilitated. Thus, there is a need for modifying the environmental conditions so that one does not fall victim to social and emotional maladjustment or lured by the criminals and drifted by instinctive behavior to commit crimes.

ISC Class 12 Psychology Previous Year Question Papers

ISC Home Science Question Paper 2015 Solved for Class 12

ISC Home Science Previous Year Question Paper 2015 Solved for Class 12

Maximum Marks: 70
Time allowed: Three hours

  • Candidates are allowed additional 15 minutes for only reading the paper. They must NOT start writing during this time.
  • Answer Question 1 from Part I and five questions from Part II,
  • The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Part-I (20 MARKS)
Answer all questions

Question 1. [10 x 2 ]
(i) List two advantages of pressure cooking.
(ii) State two ill effects of using baking soda while cooking vegetables.
(iii) What is the effect of germination on the iron content of pulses and cereals?
(iv) State any two safety measures to be adopted to prevent accidents in the kitchen.
(v) List two ways of storing eggs to retain their freshness.
(vi) State two advantages of using blues in laundry.
(vii) List one negative and one positive impact of . advertisements on consumers.
(viii) Enumerate any two factors to be kept in mind while choosing clothes for infants .
(ix) List any two ways of increasing life expectancy.
(x) State two main objectives of meal planning.
Answer:
(i) Two advantages of pressure cooking are as follows:

  1. Pressure cooking cooks food faster than any other cooking method and saves energy.
  2. Food is cooked at a temperature above the normal boiling point of water which kills most micro-organisms.

(ii) Two ill effects of using baking soda while cooking vegetables are:

  1. It destroys vitamin B complex and thiamine content.
  2. It results in loss of vitamin C.

(iii) Iron (which is generally found in bond form and not easily available) gets loosened and becomes easily available to the body on germination of cereals and pulses.

(iv) Two safety measures to be adopted to prevent accidents in the kitchen are :

  1. Sharp cleaning objects should be kept away from children’s reach.
  2. Matchboxes and lighters should be kept in locked cabinets.

(v) To retain freshness of eggs :

  1. Bring eggs which have been refrigerated and keep them in the refrigerator until used.
  2. While storing eggs, keep the broad portion upwards and the narrow end downward, thus, preventing the movement of air cells towards egg yolk.

(vi) Two advantages of using blues in laundry are:

  1. Blue being a complementary colour to yellow, diminishes the yellowish tinge of fabrics and makes them appear whiter.
  2. It is used as the last rinse to white cellulosic fabric to restore their bright whiteness after bluing.

(vii) Positive impact of advertisements on consumers is that advertisements inform the consumer about the availability, use and special features of a particular product and gives correct information about it. Negative impact of advertisements on consumers is that advertisements persuade the consumers to buy the things which they actually don’t want to and sometimes incorrect and insufficient information about the product given by the advertisers misleads the consumer.

(viii) While choosing clothes for infants (0-2 years), factors which should be kept in mind are as follows :

  1. Choose soft and smooth fabrics.
  2. Choose light-weight fabrics.
  3. Choose according to the season.
  4. It should be easy to wash and dry.
  5. No fasteners, only ribbons/tapes.

(ix) For increasing the life expectancy, one should regularly indulge himself in physical activities such as brisk walking, yoga or exercise, Eat a healthy and a balanced diet, quit smoking and alcohol and stay happy and . optimistic.

(x) The main objective of meal planning is to create a ‘Balanced Diet’ for a family so that it can get as much nutrients as possible. The meal is planned to provide the necessary nutrients is within the budget

Part-II (50 Marks)
Answer any five questions.

Question 2.
Suitable cooking methods based on scientific principles are being used to get maximum food value. In this context, explain :
(a) The changes in the texture of food while cooking. [5]
(b) Two recent developments in cooking and their advantages. [5]
Answer:
(a) Cooking brings about chemical changes in food. The texture and taste changes when the food is cooked. Boiling makes food soft, tasty and easy to digest while stewing is a slow method which makes it tender. Steaming makes the food light and easy to digest while frying hardens the outer surface of the food thereby preventing loss of flavor and juices. For example :

Meat and eggs are good sources of protein. The protein molecules change shape as a result of the heat energy they absorb. This is called denaturing and it is permanent. Denaturing causes changes in the appearance and texture of the meat and eggs when they are cooked, therefore when cooked, proteins shrink, lose moisture and become firm.

Potatoes are a good source of carbohydrate. Raw potato is hard and has an unpleasant taste but it becomes softer and easier to digest when cooked.

The texture of fats can range from firm to liquid. For example, oils are just fats that stay liquid at room temperature. Fats melt when heated, soften or liquefied

When sugar is exposed to heat, it melts, but as the temperature continues to rise, the sugary syrup gradually turns yellow and then brown, imparting a rich, delicious flavor. The process is known as caramelisation

Every food has some amount of water in it. As any food is heated, the water begins to evaporate, resulting in the food drying, as it is cooked.

(b) Two recent developments in cooking are explained as follows;
Microwave Cooking : Today almost every home has a microwave oven that is used frequently to thaw, reheat, and cook food. It is efficient, cost effective and convenient. Using microwave oven is of recent origin. Here, food is heated and cooked by electromagnetic waves. It can be used for cooking rice, vegetables, flesh etc. But food like cakes and pastries do not bake easily in microwave ovens.
Advantages:

  1. Microwave oven cooks a variety of food in about l/4th of the time required on a gas burner. Thus, it saves energy and fuel.
  2. It saves time in heating frozen foods. Thawing can be done in minutes or seconds.
  3. The oven or the utensil does not get heated along with the food inside it except, under prolonged heating periods.
  4. Flavor and texture do not change when reheated in a microwave oven.
  5. Loss of nutrients is minimized. ((3-carotene and vitamin C are better retained by microwave cooking as compared to pressure cooking and saucepan cooking.)
  6. After cooking in a microwave oven, washing dishes is much easier as food does not stick to the sides of the vessels.
  7. Food gets cooked uniformly.
  8. It preserves the natural color of vegetables and fruits.
  9. No fat or low-fat cooking can be done easily.

Solar Cooking : Solar cooking is a form of outdoor cooking and is often used in . situations where the danger of accidental fires is high or minimal fuel consumption is important. At a basic level, solar cooking relies on the principle of concentrating sunlight, converting light to heat and then trapping it. Food is prepared in the same way as in an oven or a stove top. However, food placed inside a solar cooker is usually cut into smaller pieces, because food cooks faster when it is in smaller pieces, For very simple cooking, a lid may not be needed and the food may be placed on an uncovered tray or in a bowl. If several foods are to be cooked simultaneously, then they are placed in different containers.

Food that cooks quickly can be added to the solar cooker later. Depending on the size of the solar cooker and the quantity of cooked food, a family may use one or more solar cookers. A solar oven is turned towards the sun and left until the food is cooked. Unlike cooking on a stove or over a fire, which may require more than an hour of constant supervision, food in a solar oven is generally not stirred or turned over, both because it is unnecessary and because opening the solar oven allows the trapped heat to escape and thereby slows the cooking process. The cooking time depends primarily on the equipment being used, the amount of sunlight at the time and the quantity of food that needs to be cooked. Air temperature, wind, and latitude also affect the performance of a solar cooker.
Advantages :

  1. High-performance parabolic solar cookers can be used to grill meats, stir-fry vegetables, make soup, bake bread, and boil water in minutes.
  2. Conventional solar box cookers can sterilise water or prepare most foods that can be made in a conventional oven or stove, including bread, vegetables and meat over a period of hours.
  3. Solar cookers use no fuel. This saves cost as well as reduce environmental damage caused by fuel use.
  4. Solar cookers have large economic and environmental benefits by reducing deforestation.
  5. Any type of cooking may evaporate grease, oil and other material into the air, hence requiring less cleaning.

Question 3.
Food preservation prevents wastage of food. In this context, explain :
(a) The principles of food preservation. [5]
(b) Dehydration and use of chemicals to preserve food. [5]
Answer:
(a) Any food item can be kept for certain period of time under normal conditions of temperature and humidity. Food items are fresh, cheap and available in abundance during the seasons. If these are not properly preserved for off seasons consumption, they will get spoiled. Thus, preservation of food items prevents the wastage.

The principles of food preservation are described below:
Use of Low Temperature : It involves storing the food items at a temperature below normal room temperature. The action of micro¬organisms and chemical activity slows down at lower temperatures and as such, the putrefaction or process of decay is delayed and food items can be preserved for periods more than the normal.

Home refrigeration : If can be done by using refrigerator, ice box etc. The perishable food items like fruits, vegetables, fish, meat, egg, milk , curd and leftover food can be preserved for some additional period.

Freezing : The growth of micro-organisms’ enzymatic activity and chemical reactions are extremely slow at a temperature below ice point and the food items can be preserved for weeks together.

Use of High Temperature: Pasteurisation and Canning are examples that utilise high temperature methods for preservation of food. Heating at high temperature destroys all microorganisms and enzymes.

Pasteurization : This generally refers to preserve milk either by holding process or flash process. In holding process, the milk is heated to 65° C and kept at this temperature for 30 minutes and then cooled down. In flash process, the milk is heated to 75° C, only for 15 seconds. This process is also called high temperature for short time (HTST). The milk is cooled and packed in bottles and kept in deep freezer till distribution.

Canning : Vegetables, fruits and meat are preserved by this method. The items are prepared, packed in tins, sealed and then heated to high temperature to destroy the micro-organisms. This process is termed as ‘Sterilisation’. The seal of the tin prevents any contamination of food and thus food is preserved for a long period of time.

Drying : Drying of food items by evaporating the moisture from it prevents the growth of micro-organisms and hence, prevents food from getting spoiled. Drying in sun is very cheap and effective. The vegetables are cleaned, washed, cut and dipped in boiling water for 10 minutes and then sundried.

Use of preservatives : Certain chemicals also prevent the growth of micro-organisms. Pickles, jams, murabbas are preserved by using chemicals like salt, vinegar, sugar, spices etc. Sodium benzoate or potassium meta- bisulphite are used as preservatives for squashes, ketchup etc.

Use of radiation : The ultra violet or gamma rays are allowed to pass through packaged food to sterilize it. This is rather a recent technique and not much in use.

(b) Dehydration is a modern development of smoking and drying, the process is quickened by using a heated oven with a pressure lower than the atmospheric pressure, which prevents the food from spoiling. It is a method of food preservation in which food is dried (dehydrated or desiccated). Drying inhibits the growth of bacteria, yeast and mould through the removal of water. Different kinds of food can be prepared by dehydration. Fruits change characteristics when dried completely.

Plum becomes a prune, the grape a raisin when dries. Figs and dates are also transformed into new, different products that can either be eaten as they are or rehydrated. Home drying of vegetables, fruit and meat can be carried out with electrical dehydrators (household appliance) or by sun-drying. Industrial food dehydration is often accomplished by freeze drying. In this case, food is flash frozen and put into a reduced-pressure system which causes the water to sublimate directly from the solid to the gaseous phase. Although freeze¬drying is more expensive than traditional dehydration techniques, it also mitigates the change in flavour, texture and nutritional value.

Chemical food preservatives are applied to foods as direct additives during processing or they themselves develop it during processes such as fermentation. Certain preservatives have been used for centuries and include sodium chloride (common salt), sugar, acids, alcohols and components of smoke. In addition to preservation, these compounds contribute to the quality and identity of the product and are applied through processing procedures such as salting, curing, fermentation and smoking. Two of the chemicals allowed for preservation are sulphur dioxide and benzoic acid. Both of these substances prevent bacterial activity.

The amount of preservative that can be added to the foodstuff is strictly controlled by law. For domestic use, potassium meta-bisulphate and sodium benzoate are favoured chemicals. These chemicals prevent the growth of micro¬organisms. Pickles, jams, murabbas are preserved by using chemicals like salt, vinegar, sugar, spices etc. Sodium benzoate or potassium meta-bisulphite are used as preservatives for squashes, ketchup etc.

Question 4.
(a) How can a meal be made economical through planning ? [5]
(b) Discuss the impact of skipping meals on the health of an individual. [5]
Answer:
(a) The money available decides what is purchased for the family. When the budget available per day is low, it is necessary to have a good knowledge of less-expensive food, which has high nutritive value.

Few points by which a meal is made economical are :

  • Plan the meal for several days or at least for a week.
  • Make an accurate shopping list, including quantity and quality of goods you need, also check supplies in stock.
  • Purchase from market after comparing prices.
  • Seasonal food can be preferred as it is cheaper and has immediate nutritional value.
  • Choose food from each food group which has low cost but same nutritive value.
  • Avoid wastage of food, whether it is raw or cooked. It adversely affects the economy.
  • Avoid ‘impulsive buying’ as it is hazardous for your budget.
  • Meals cooked at home are cheaper, healthier and better than that brought from the market.
  • If possible, grow fruits and vegetables in your own garden.
  • Menu adjustment saves time, money and energy.

(b) Impact of skipping meals on the health of an individual:

  • Skipping meals makes the individual dull, both mentally and physically.
  • It reduces the overall working ability and stamina of the individual.
  • Due to the essential need of energy in the human body, skipping meals can also cause diabetes and many such health-related issues.
  • Diseases such as anaemia, weakening of bones, low immunity and deteriorating dental health are all results of skipping meals.
  • Having just a meal a day results in burning fewer calories than required in the human body per day which may cause internal malfunctioning of the body.

Question 5.
(a) Any five factors that lead to stress in adolescents. [5]
(b) What is the influence of the family during the stage of adolescence ? [5]
Answer:
(a) Adolescence is a short period of dramatic physical, mental and emotional development. For few, the switching to adulthood is an easy transition, while for most, it is a period of stress.

Various factors that lead to stress in adolescents are:
Physical changes : They undergo many important physical changes in their bodies. The rapid growth in the body can lead to nutritional deficiencies if balanced diet is not taken. Teens must accept the changes as they develop mentally, physically and emotionally.

Social pressure : Social pressure is another common cause of stress for adolescents. Most of the teens try to fit in the friends group around them and under peer pressure they struggle a lot to socialize with their friends and classmates in order to win their approval. They might also fall under the trap of peer pressure or social pressure and end up indulging in activities such as drinking alcohol, smoking, consuming drugs, etc., just to be accepted in the society.

Academic burden : School and academic concern are the biggest cause of creating stress for.most of the adolescents. The academic work pressure such as completion of homework, scoring well in examinations, participating in co-curricular activities and sports are the greatest causes of stress for teens. They might also feel stressed due to parental expectation of high scores.

Family environment : Family issues such as unhealthy environment within the family, domestic violence, parents separating or divorcing, death or illness in the family can cause more stress in the teen’s life. Lack of understanding between siblings or parents contributes to increased stress levels.

Peer Pressure : Adolescents may have a big group of friends still they undertake a lot of stress which causes a negative effect on them. Popularity is important for them and a lack of it can create feelings of loneliness and depression.

(b) With the stage of adolescence, the need for recognition crops up among youngsters. In the family circle, they want to be recognized and heard in important family decisions.

In families where adolescents are treated like friends, there are less chances of them choosing wrong paths. Positive and supportive family environment creates transparency in relations. Restrictive family environment results in less transparency among family members, leading to adolescents making wrong choices like smoking and drinking.

Question 6.
(a) Explain any five salient features of the Food Adulteration Act. [5]
(b) List two foods that are generally adulterated with metanil yellow. State its ill effects. [5]
Answer 6.
(a) Food Adulteration Act, 1954 is an act formulated by the government aiming at the avoidance of adulteration of food which may affect unhealthy living conditions. The act also intends to penalise the dealers who are engaged in production anr sale of contaminated food substance.

Salient features of Food Adulteration Act are :

  • If the article sold by vendor is not of the nature, substance or quality demanded by the purchaser.
  • If the article contains any other substance which affects the substance or quality there of.
  • If any inferior or cheaper substance has been substituted wholly or in part for the article so as to affect the nature, substance or quality of the product.
  • If any constituent of the article has been wholly or in part, extracted to affect the quality there of.
  • If the article consists wholly or in part any filthy, putrefied, rotten decomposed or diseased animal or vegetable substance or is insect-infested or is otherwise unfit for human consumption.

(b) Foods that are generally adulterated with metanil yellow are arhar dal, moong washed chana, ice candy, faluda etc. Ill effects :
Metanil yellow is highly carcinogenic in effect. Intake of this colour produces various abnormalities of bones, eyes, skin, lungs, ovaries, testicles, mental retardation, anaemia and accumulation of lead in the body and blood. Food colorings have also been linked to an increase in hyperactive behaviour

Question 7.
(a) Suggest two ways to prevent falls at home. [5]
(b) How can electrical equipment be used safely at home ? [5]
Answer 7.
(a) For safety purpose, check whether rooms and hallways have no obstacles for safer movements. Busy areas should be cleared of things such as newspapers, electrical goods, boxes, phone cords, furniture and plants. All the household items such as bed covers and clothing material should be stored at a place where one can reach comfortably.
Two ways to prevent falls at home are : Bathroom Safety :

  • While moving in bathroom area, in and out of the tub or shower, be sure to be safe by drying the area.
  • Don’t forget to remove the build up of soap in tub or shower.
  • It is necessary to place non-slip strips/treads in the bathing area.
  • Adjustable shower heads should be installed.

Kitchen Safety :

  • Items such as dishes, food items and others which are used frequently should be kept in easy-to-reach locations.
  • While using a step stool, make sure it has a bar at the top to hold on to.

Question 8.
(a) Explain each step involved in the laundering of woollen garment. [5]
(b) What are the different methods of laundering ? Explain them in brief. [5]
Answer:
(a) Steps involved in the laundering of woollen garment are as follows : .
Preparation : Examine the garments for tears, holes, stains or foreign particles and then treat them accordingly. For knitted woollens, tracing their outline on elasticity is important which further increases when it is wet. So, the knitted woollen fabrics invariably lose their shape. The tracing helps to restore the cloth to original shape.

Steeping : Steeping of woollen garment is ‘ generally avoided because wool is a weak and
elastic fabric. If required, they should not be soaked for more than 5-10 minutes in cold water. Do not use hot/Lukewarm water as it can cause dyes to run and damage the wool fibres.

Washing : Wool is a protein fibre and is highly sensitive to alkalis. Washing it with even mild soaps may harm it. Only neutral soap or reetha should be used for washing woollens.

Rinsing : Extra soap is gently squeezed out from the woollen fabric by pressing it between flat palms and then rinsing off several times in water.

Drying : Because of its low strength, it cannot be wrung tightly to remove excess water. It is therefore rolled tightly in a towel and squeezed so that extra water is absorbed by the towel without straining the wool fibre. Then it is spread flat within the outline marked for its original shape and is allowed to dry in shade.

Pressing : Knitted woollens being highly elastic, tend to lose their shape on ironing therefore they are not ironed but simply pressed. A moist, thin muslin cloth is spread over woollen cloth and then it is pressed with hot iron.

(b) Generally there are two broad categories of laundering. These are wet method and dry method.
Wet Method:
There are four method, of wet washing which are given as follows :
By friction : Cotton cloth, curtain line etc. . are washed by rubbing with hands or brush or on scrubbing board. Small clothes are rubbed with hands whereas excessively dirty clothes are cleaned by rubbing with a brush or on a scrubbing board.

By light pressure : Silken and woollen clothes should be washed by light pressure. Clothes with delicate laces are washed with light hands after applying soap. In this way, clothes are cleaned without being damaged.

By application of suction : This is done by suction washer. It is available in two sizes—small and big. It is made up of non¬. rusting metal. In this method, the clothes are
dipped into a tub containing soap solution. The suction machine is moved on it and the dirt is removed.

By Washing machine : These machines are commonly used these days. These are of three types of washing machine. Manual washing machine, Semi-automatic machine and fully automatic machines.

Dry Method : Dry cleaning is any cleaning process for clothing and textiles using a chemical solvent other than water. It is used to clean delicate fabrics that cannot withstand the rough and tumble wash of a washing machine and cloth dryer. It can also eliminate labor-intensive hand washing. The process of dry cleaning is based on the fact that the dirt sticks to the clothes by grease. When grease is removed, the dirt too gets removed by itself.

Dry cleaning agents :
Absorbents : These are dry powders which absorbs the grease from the fabric. Some of the substances used as dry cleaning powders are fuller’s earth, chalk powder, talcum powder, bran, salt, bread crumbs, french chalk and powdered sulphur.

Solvents : There are certain liquids like petrol, benzene, kerosene, carbon tetrachloride, ether etc. which dissolve grease from the fabric and release the dirt from it.

Question 9.
Write short notes on any two of the following :
(a) Inclusion of seasonal fruits and vegetables in the diet. [5]
(b) Standardisation marks and their significance. [5]
(c) Modification in the diet for the elderly. [5]
Answer 9.
(a) Inclusion of seasonal fruits and vegetables in the diet increases the immunity power and gives the following benefits :
It is healthier : When product is grown in its proper season, under the appropriate growing conditions, it exhibits all of its natural nutrients. Seasonal fruits and vegetables don’t have to endure as much travel, so they don’t lose those vital nutrients.

Cost effective : Effective Food is easier to grow in its proper season, making it more abundant, less time-intensive, and more affordable for consumers.

Greater variety of ingredients : If fruits and vegetables are seasonal you’ll find huge variety of them.

Environment friendly : Seasonal eating greatly reduces the need for practices like carbon footprint. A reduced carbon footprint is good for the environment, has health benefits, and reduces cost which are all great reasons to eat seasonally. The flavours are stronger and more developed.

(b) Standardisation marks are marks given to a product which meets certain standards with respect to the quality of the product in terms of material used, method of manufacturing, labelling, packaging, sales and performance.

Wool mark : It was established in 1949. It promotes pure wool, products. It makes it necessary for manufacturer to mention the amount and identity of other fibres used along with pure wool on the label of wool and woollen garments.

ECO Mark : It has been launched recently by the BIS. It is given to those products which not only meet ISI standards but also saves energy i.e. they are environment-friendly and reduce environmental pollution. Examples: Edible oil, tea/coffee etc.

FPO : All manufactures of fruits and vegetable products acquire a license of their production and sale, after meeting the FPO standards. Example: Pickle, jam, ketchup, canned fruits etc.

ISI Mark : Used for industrial products, the mark certifies the product as up to Indian standard, given by the national standard body of India, Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS).

AGMARK : It is given to the agricultural, horticultural, forest and livestock products. Example: Wheat flour, rice, pulses, ghee, honey, egg etc.

(c) While planning a diet for elderly, the following points should be kept in mind :

  • Provide about 1 litre of milk in the form of milk, curd, buttermilk etc.
  • An egg a day is good for them.
  • One citrus fruit like orange grapes it.
  • Cereals, thrice a day in the form of chapati, dalia, rice etc.
  • Seasonal foods should be included.
  • Serve vegetables thrice a day including green leafy vegetables.
  • For non-vegetarians, serve meat, fish etc., once or twice a week. For vegetarians serve pulses and nuts.
  • The food should be well-cooked and fresh.
  • Use less fat and spices.
  • Serve small meals at frequent intervals.
  • Serve palatable and interesting meals.
  • Do not overlook the psychological needs of the aged. Provide an atmosphere of love and security.

ISC Class 12 Home Science Previous Year Question Papers

ISC Psychology Question Paper 2017 Solved for Class 12

ISC Psychology Previous Year Question Paper 2017 Solved for Class 12

Maximum Marks: 70
Time allowed: Three hours

  • Candidates are allowed additional 15 minutes for only reading the paper. They must NOT start writing during this time.
  • Answer Question 1 from Part I and five questions from Part II,
  • The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Part – I (20 Marks)

Answer all questions.
(Compulsory)

Question 1. [20]
Answer briefly all the questions (i) to (xx) :
(i) Define personality, according to Eysenck.
(ii) State the formula for calculating the IQ of an individual.
(iii) Give the full form of SCII.
(iv) What is meant by the term fixation according to Freud ?
(v) Briefly explain what is meant by gender identity.
(vi) What is obsessive compulsive disorder ?
(vii) Explain the term aptitude.
(viii) Define depression.
(ix) What is meant by automatic vigilance ?
(x) Explain the term object permanence.
(xi) What is burnout ?
(xii) Explain the term free association.
(xiii) What is meant by matching individuals to their jobs ?
(xiv) Who put forward the Structure of Intellect Model of intelligence ?
(xv) What is meant by disorganized attachment ?
(xvi) Briefly explain oral stage of psycho sexual development.
(xvii) What is meant by group test of intelligence ?
(xviii) Who are delinquents ?
(xix) What is meant by secondary cognitive appraisal ?
(xx) Explain the term development.
Answer:
(i) According to Eysenck (1971), “Personality is the more or less stable and enduring organisation of a person’s character, temperament, intellect and physique, which determine his unique adjustment to the environment.”

(ii) \(\mathrm{IQ}=\frac{\mathrm{M} \mathrm{A}}{\mathrm{CA}} \times 100\)
where IQ = Intelligence Quotient
MA – Mental Age
CA – Chronological Age.

(iii) The full form of SCII is Strong Campbell Interest Inventory.

(iv) Fixation: Excessive investment of psychic energy in a particular stage of psycho- sexual development; this results in various types of psychological disorders.

(v) Gender identity is defined as personal conception of oneself male or female and is an important aspect of the developing self concept of coregender identity is usually formed by age three. It is the ability to label themselves appropriately and consistently.

(vi) Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) is an anxiety disorder defined by the occu-rrence of unwanted and intrusive obsessive thoughts or distressing images; usually accompanied by compulsive behaviors performed to neutralize the obsessive thoughts and images.

(viii) Depression is a mood disorder which is marked by the feelings of extraordinary sadness and dejection, or display of loss of interest in pleasurable activities,

(ix) Automatic vigilance is the strong tendency to pay attention to undesirable or negative information.
Leon, Oden and Anderson (1973) in com-parative judgments of criminal offenses found that more serious crimes (rape, murder) has more extreme weight than less serious crime (forgery, fraud).

(x) Object Permanence is the understanding or realization of an infant that an object or person continues to exist even when out of sight. It develops between third and sixth sub-stage of the sensori-motor stage. This development in many cultures can be seen in the game of peek-a-boo.

(xi) “Burnout” is a complete physical, emotional and mental or attitudinal exhaustion caused by excessive prolonged stress. It is a worn out state because of repeated to encounter with stress.

(xii) Free association is a technique of Psycho-dynamic psychotherapy in which an individual must speak-out whatever comes into his or her mind regardless of how personal, painful or seemingly irrelevant it may seem to the client. The purpose is to thoroughly to explore the contents of the pre-conscious mind.

(xiii) Through job analysis, job characteristics i.e. the components of each job are known. Then through application of psychological tests the characteristics of the person are traced. Then these two are thatched. This is known as matching individuals with jobs. If matching is hundred percent, then the person is best suited for the job.

(xiv) J. P. Guilford put forward the structure of Intellect model of Intelligence.

(xv) Babies with disorganized attachment often shows inconsistent contradictory behaviour. They greet their mothers bright when she returns after separation for sometime but they turn away or approach without looking at her. They seem confused and afraid. This is the least secure pattern and is most likely to occur in babies whose mothers are insensitive, intensive or abusive.

(xvi) Oral stage is the initial psychosexual stage during which the developing infant’s main concerns are with oral gratification. The oral phase in the normal infant has a direct bearing on the infants activities during the first 18 months of life. Freud said that through mouth the infant makes contact with the first object of libido, the mother’s breast. Oral needs are also satisfied by thumb-sucking, other objects like dolls, toys or blankets into the mouth. Freud believed that by the end of first year oral phase begins to shift towards anal region.

(xvii) Group tests of intelligence are test which can be administered to many individuals at the same time. It is not costly in terms of administration and time. No trained examiners are required to administer the test e.g.,

  1. Army alpha test (group verbal test)
  2. Army beta test
  3. Raven’s Progressive matrices (Group Non-verbal test)

(xviii) Delinquents are adolescents who engage in violent and anti-social behavior and have ‘ a “rule-breaking” tendency. It is associated with various interacting risk factors like ineffective parenting, school failure, peer or neighborhood pressures, low social economic status. The children may get pay off for such anti-social behavior. However
most delinquent do not become adult criminals.

(xix) Secondary cognitive appraisal, as proposed by Lazarus, is the assessment of one’s coping abilities and resources that whether they are sufficient to meet the harm, threat or challenge of the event. When harm and threat is high and coping abilities are low, substantial stress is felt. When coping ability is high, stress may be minimal.

(xx) Development refers to a progressive series of changes in an orderly coherent pattern. Progress signifies that the changes are one- directional-that they lead forward rather than backward. Orderly and coherent suggests that there is a definite relationship between the changes taking place and those that proceeded or will flow with them.

Part-II (50 Marks)

Section – A
Answer any two questions.

Question 2.
(a) Describe the theory of Multiple Intelligence. [6]
(b) Who are gifted children ? Give any six characteristics of gifted children. [4]
Answer:
(a) Howard Gardner challenged the motion of general intelligence. He tried to give a broad base to the concept of intelligence and its measurement by providing a multiple frame. According to him, intelligence can be best described as an individuals multiple abilities, talents and multiple skills. His theory first appeared in the frames of mind (1983).

He proposed seven independent types of intelligence that grow and develop differently in different people. They are as follows.

Linguistic intelligence : It includes linguistic competence, talents and skills such as written or oral expression and understanding. It includes syntax, semantics and Pragmatics. It is visible in professionals like lecturer, writers, lyricists.

Logical mathematical intelligence : It is responsible for all types of abilities, talents and skills in areas related to logic and mathematics. The various components are inductive reasoning, deductive reasoning, scientific logical problem solving. It is exhibited in professionals like mathematicians, physicians.

Spatial intelligence : It is responsible for abilities, talents and skills involving the representation and manipulation of spatial configuration and relationship. It is visible in professionals such as painters, architects and navigators.

Musical intelligence : It covers abilities, talents and skills pertaining to the field of music, like production of music through per-formance and composition various components are pitch, discrimination, sensitivity to rhythm, timbre. It is visible in professionals like musicians and composers.

Bodily-kinesthetic intelligence : It is concerned with the abilities, talents and skills involved in using one’s body or its various parts to perform skillful and purposeful movements. It is visible in professionals like dancers, athletes and gymnasts.

Inter-personal intelligence : It consists of the abilities to understand other individuals and one’s relation to others. It includes the ability to act productively, based on understanding of others. It is needed mostly in social interactions in day-to-day life.

It is exhibited in professionals like psychotherapists, sales person and politicians. Intra-personal intelligence : It is the individual’s ability to know himself, providing an insight into the total behavior. It includes the knowledge and understanding of one’s cognitive strength and style, one’s range of emotions and feelings. It is demonstrated in yogis, saints.

Gardner’s theory provided a broad and comprehensive view of human abilities. However the last four types of intelligence have been subject of great controversy as to whether they should be categorized as separate types of intelligence.

(b) According to Marland report (1972), “the gifted are those who possess outstanding abilities or potential in the areas of general ‘ intellectual capacity, specific academic aptitude, creative or productive thinking, leadership ability, visual or performing arts and psycho-motor activity”.

Characteristics of gifted children are as follows:
Physical characteristics : Their developmental milestones are observed way earlier than average children. An appropriate correlation is found between height and weight.

Mental or intellectual characteristics : They have special ability of analysis and logic. They have a good ability to understand abstract ideas. They have original thinking.

Educational characteristics : They take interest in reading reference books, newspaper, journals. They obtain good marks with less efforts than normal. They are systematic in their study.

Personality characteristics : They have a well balanced temperament and a high ability of adjustment. They are goal oriented, self-confident and have good conduct.

Social characteristics : They have special ability of leadership, they are trustworthy, like to play with children of older age group than themselves, high moral thinking and empathy and more tolerance ability.

Negative characteristics : Negative characteristics include stubbomess, shyness, demanding, poor handwriting, tend to question laws, rules authorities, over active physically and mentally, absent-minded.

Question 3.
(a) Explain the measurement of personality through Rorschach Ink blot Test. [6]
(b) Discuss the levels of consciousness put forward by Freud. [4]
Answer:
(b) Freud divided human consciousness into three levels of awareness : The conscious, preconscious and unconscious. Each of these levels corresponds and overlaps with Freud’s ideas of the id, ego, and super ego. The conscious level consists of all the things we are aware of, including things we know about ourselves and our surroundings. The preconscious consists of things we could pay conscious attention to if we so desired, and is where many memories are stored for easy retrieval . Freud saw the preconscious as comprised thoughts that are unconscious at the particular moment in question, but that are not repressed and are therefore available for recall and easily capable of becoming conscious.

The unconscious consists of things that are outside of conscious awareness, including many memories, thoughts, and urges of which we are not aware. Much of what is stored in the unconscious is thought to be unpleasant or conflicting for example; sexual impulses that are deemed unacceptable. While these elements are stored out of our awareness, they are nevertheless thought to influence our behavior.

Question 4.
(a) Describe the type theory of personality put forward by Hippocrates. [5]
(b) Give an account of Thurstone’s theory of Primary Mental Abilities. [5]
Answer:
(a) Type theories advocate that human potentialities can be classified into a few clearly defined types and each person can be described as belonging to a certain type.
Greek physician, Hippocrates gave a classification on the basis of dominant fluids. According to him, the human body consists of four types of humors or fluids — blood, yellow bile, phlegm (mucus) and black bile. The predominance of one of these four types of fluids in one’s body gives him unique temperamental characteristics leading to a particular type of personality classification is as follows-

Sanguine personality (Blood : Predominant fluid in the body): Light hearted, carefree, optimistic, easy-going, hopeful, accommo-dating, happy, responsive, sociable, talkative, lively, has leadership qualities.

Choleric personality (Yellow bile : Predo-minant fluid in the body) : Irritable, restless, aggressive, impulsive, excitable, active, angry but passionate, strong with active imaginatic , touchy, flexible.

Phlegmatic personality: (Phlegm/Mut c : Predominant fluid in the body): calm, tempered, controlled, reliable, slow/sluggish, indifferent, thoughtful, peaceful, passive, careful.

Melancholic personality (Black bile : Pre-dominant fluid in the body): Pessimistic, rigid, unsociable, bad-tempered, sad, deplorable, self-involved, dejected, anxious, moody, reserved.

(b) According to American psychologist L. L. Thurstone (1938), intelligence comprises of nine distinct primary mental abilities. According to him, there is no factor common to all intellectual activity. However there are a number of groups of mental abilities, each having its own primary factor.

The description of the factors is as follows :
Verbal factor : It is concerned with comprehension of verbal relations, words and ideas.

Spatial factor : It is involved in any task in which the subject manipulates an object imaginatively in space.

Numerical factor : It is concerned with the ability to do numerical calculations rapidly and accurately.

Memory factor : It involves the ability to memorize quickly.

Word-fluency factor: It is involved whenever the subject is asked to think of isolated words at a rapid rate.

Inductive reasoning factor : It is the ability to draw inferences or conclusions on the basis of specific inferences.

Deductive reasoning factor : It is the ability to make use of generalized results.

Perceptual factor : It is the ability to perceive objects accurately.

Problem solving factor : It is the ability to solve problems with independent efforts.

There stone assembled a battery of tests to measure these abilities. This Primary Mental Abilities test (PMA) is still widely used.

The weakest part of the group factor theory was that it discarded the concept of common factor.

Section – B
Answer any three questions

Question 5.
(a) Describe the concrete cognitive development during childhood. [5]
(b) Discuss the motor milestones of development in infancy. [5]
Answer:
(a) In Piaget’s theory, a stage of cognitive development occurring roughly between the ages of seven and eleven, is the stage of concrete operations. According to Piaget, a child’s mastery of conservation marks the beginning of this stage. Logical thought emerges in this stage. The key developments at this stage are as follows :

Conservation : Children at this stage under-stand that physical entities (weight, length, amounts) remain fixed so long as nothing is added or taken away from it, though it might appear different. Understanding of this nature’s constant is known as conservation. The various kinds of conservation are :

Conservation of substance: Two identical clay balls are presented. The subject admits that they have equal amounts of clay. If one ball is deformed into the shape of a “sausage”, the subject will still say that both contains equal amounts of clay at this stage.

Conservation of length : Two sticks are aligned in front of the subject and he admits their equality. Now if one of the sticks is moved to the right, and the subject is asked whether they are of the same length, the subject will admit that they are still of the same length.

Conservation of members : Two rows of clay balls are placed in one-to-one correspondence subject admits that both rows have equal number of balls. Now, one of the rows is elongated or contracted and subject is asked whether both the rows still have the same number of balls. They admit equality.

Conservation of liquids : Two beakers are filled to the same level with water. The subject sees that they are equal. Now, liquid of one container is poured into a tall tube. The subject is asked whether each contains the same amount. At this stage, They agree that each contains the same amount.

Conservation of area : In two identical cardboard’s same number of identical wooden blocks are placed in identical portions. Then the subject is asked whether each cardboard has the same amount of space remaining. The experimenter then scatters the blocks on one of the cardboard’s. The subject is asked the same question. In both the cases, the subject admits that same amount of space is left.

Reversibility : In this stage, children can solve the questions mentally. They do not need to measure or weigh objects. For example — In the famous Muller-Lyer illusion :

In the figure, in step 1, a child agrees that stick A and stick B are equal. In step 2, stick B appears longer than stick A. But children in the concrete stage are capable of mentally reversing the arrows shafts to its original configuration, would admit it to be the same as stick A.

Categorization : This includes abilities such as ‘seriation’, ‘transitive inference’ and ‘class inclusion’.

  • Seriation : It refers to the ability to arrange items along a dimension such as weight (lightest to heaviest) or colour (lightest to darkest).
  • Transitive inference : It refers to the ability to recognize a relationship between two objects by knowing the relationship between each of them and a third object.

For example : Amenda is shown three sticks — a yellow, red and green. She has been told that the yellow stick is longer than red one and the red one is longer than the green one, then without physically comparing the yellow with the green one, she can tell that the yellow stick is longer than the green one.

Class inclusion : Class inclusion is the ability to see the relationship between the whole and its parts. For example—A bunch of ten flowers (seven roses and three carnations) is shown to the children at this stage and asked whether there are more roses or more flowers. They realize that roses are a sub-class of flowers and therefore there cannot be more roses than flowers.

Spatial thinking : Children at this stage can understand spatial relationship, i.e., they have a clear idea how far it is from one place to another and how long it takes to get there. They have the ability to use maps and models.

Inductive and deductive reasoning :
Children at this stage use inductive reasoning, rather than deductive reasoning. It refers to that type of logical reasoning that moves from particular observation about members of a class to a general conclusion about the class.

For example : My dog barks, so does Jerry’s dog and Melissa’s dog. So, it looks as if all dog’s barks.

The children at this stage, however, cannot very clearly think of hypothetical propositions. Also, they cannot understand the broad meaning of abstract concepts such as freedom, integrity. Intellectual growth, is still incomplete.

(b) Physical growth is rapid during infancy. If provided with good nutrition, infants almost tripple in weight and increase in body length by about one-third, during the first year.

Reflexes : At birth, new borns possess several simple reflexes (inherited responses to stimulation in certain areas of the body). The reflexes which new boms show at birth and very shortly thereafter are as follows :

  • Blinking : Baby closes eyes in response to light.
  • Rooting : When cheek is touched or stroked, baby turns toward touch, moves lips and tongue to suck.
  • Sucking : When nipple or other object placed in mouth, baby sucks.
  • Tonic neck : When baby is placed on back with head turned to one side, baby stretches out arm and leg on side baby is facing.
  • Moro : Baby throws out arms and fans fingers, extends neck and cries in response to loud noise or sudden drop of head.
  • Babinski : When baby’s foot is stroked from head to toe, toes fan out.
  • Grasping : When palms of hands are stroked, baby closes fingers around the object in a strong grasp.
  • Stepping : Baby makes stepping motions if held upright so one foot just touches a surface.

Locomotor development:
Birth — Fetal posture
One month — Lifts head
Six weeks — When held upright, holds head erect and steady
Two months — Lifts chest; Lifts self by arms; Rolls from side to back
Three months — Grasps cube; reach and miss
Four months — Rolls from back to side
Four months — sits with support
Seven months — Sits alone; crawls
Eight months — Stands with help; Pull to stand
Nine months — Plays pat-a-cake
Eleven months — Stands alone; crawls up stairs
Twelve months — Walks alone
Sixteen months — Walks up stairs with help
Twenty three months — Jumps in place
Thirteen months — Builds tower of two cubes
Fourteen months — Scribbles vigorously

Question 6.
(a) What’is meant by positive stressor ? Explain any two situational causes and any two dis positional causes of stress. [5]
(b) Explain the wellness cycle of stress. [5]
Answer:
( a) Positive stressors refer to any situation or circumstance that a person finds motivating and inspiring.
For example : Falling in love, meeting a star. The situations are enjoyable, yet accompanied by biochemical, physiological, cognitive and behavioral changes.

Two situational causes of stress are :
Stressful life events : These range from cataclysmic events such as death of one’s spouse or being fired from a job. This also includes events such as childhood sexual abuse, rape, man-made or natural disasters such as world trade centre attack.

Daily hassles : Daily hassles have a cummulative impact on health and illness such hassles include being stuck in a traffic jam, waiting in line, doing household chores, living in poverty, being in a bad relationship or maintaining a high stress job.

Two disposition causes of stress are :
Negativity, Pessimistic explanatory style : Some people are predisposed by their personalities to experience stressful events as especially stressful. This line of research has focused on the psychological state called negative affectivity, i.e., a pervasive negative mood marked by anxiety, depression and hostility.
While some people characteristically explain the negative events of their lives in terms of internal, stable and global qualities of themselves. This is known as pessimistic explanatory style.

Psychological sense of control : This refers to the feelings that one can exert control over stressful events. Perceived control is the belief that one can determine one’s own behavior, influence one’s environment and bring about desired outcomes. Perceived control is more closely related to self-efficacy, i.e., one has the ability to enact the necessary actions to obtain a specific outcome in a specific situation. The more the psychological sense of control, less stress is reported to be experienced and better coping occurs.

(b) Any physical environmental and social causes of the stress state is termed as stressors. Some examples of stressors are as follows:
Physical stressors — related to problems in one’s body.
Social stressors — demands of the society, in the form of rigid social norms.
Work stressors — demands of the job, or role conflict or work overload.
Environmental stressors — Adverse climatic . conditions, noisy neighborhood, traffic jams
Decision stressor — Inability to take decision because of certain conflicts.
Change stressor — Change in job, school or relocating to a new place/city.

When an individual reacts to a stress or in an adaptive manner, i.e. the person has developed effective ways of coping, it leads to the Wellness cycle. There are certain health-promoting lifestyle responses that leads to wellness and helps in combating stress, which are as follows :

Immediate techniques and skills :
Adaptive behavioral responses : This includes techniques such as assertiveness and time management strategies.

Adaptive physical responses : This includes having nutrition’s diet, regular exercise and adequate relaxation (may be through relaxation training).

Adaptive cognitive and emotional responses : This includes cognitive restructuring which leads to changes in the belief structure, influencing perception of events as well as stress inoculation, i.e. developing an adaptability or resistance to stressful situation.

Cognitive and emotional development : They tend to have improved mental health and thus a resistance to future stressors. This in turn leads to increased productivity, increased enjoyment and increased intimacy.

Long-term effects : When the health promoting techniques and skills are practiced for a long period of time, it leads to changes in the internal resources and thus leads to an adaptive personality. Some of the long-term effects are as follows :

  • Behavioral developments : It leads to increased self-esteem, self-confidence and self-respect.
  • Physical development : It leads to improved health and resistance to diseases.

ISC Psychology Question Paper 2017 Solved for Class 12 1

Question 7.
(a) Explain the five axes of DSM IV. [5]
(b) Discuss the basic nature of schizophrenia and specify its symptoms. [5]
Answer:
a) A multiaxial system involves an assessment on . several axes, each of which refers to a different domain of information, that may help the clinical plan treatment and predict outcomes. There are five axes which are as follows :
Axis I : Clinical disorders, other condi-tions that may be a focus of clinical attention. This would include deliriums, dementia and annestic and other cognitive disorders. Subtance-related disorders schizophrenia and other Psychotic disorders mood disorders, Anxiety disorders, somatoform disorders, Eating disorders, sleep disorders.

Axis II : Personality disorders; Mental Retardation Axis II is for reporting Personality disorders and mental retardation. It may also be used for noting prominent maladaptive personality features various personality disorders are as follows :

  • Histrionio Personality Disorder.
  • Narcissistic Personality Disorder.
  • Borderline Personality Disorder.
  • Antisocial Personality Disorder.
  • Dependent Personality Disorder.
  • Avoidant Personality Disorder.

Axis III : General Medical Condition Axis III is for reporting current general medical conditions that are potentially relevant for the understanding and management of the individual’s mental disorder.

Axis IV : Psychosocial and Environ¬mental Problems. A psychosocial or environ¬mental problem may be a negative life event, an environmental difficulty or deficiency, a familial or interpersonal stress. The various categories are as follows :

  • Problems with primary support group
  • Problems related to the social environment
  • Educational problems
  • Occupational problems
  • Housing problems
  • Economic problems
  • Problems with access to health care services.

Axis V : Global Assessment of function-ing Axis V is for reporting the clinician’s judgement of the individual’s overall level of functioning. This information is useful in planning treatment and measuring the impact and in predicting outcome.

The reporting of overall functioning on Axis V can be done using the Global Assessment of Functioning (GAF) scale. The GAF scale is divided into 10 ranges of functioning. The scale has two components : The first part covers symptom severity and the second part covers functioning.

(b) Schizophrenia is a serious psychotic condition. The name is coined after the two Greek work : ‘Schizo’ meaning ‘split’ and ‘phrenia’ meaning ‘mind’. Thus, Schizo-phrenia means split on Fragmentation of mind or personality. Approximately one percent of the population suffers from this disorder at some point of time in their life. Such persons typically have problems with attention, perception, thinking, social-relationship, motivation and emotion.
E.g. they hear voices that are not there, speak a language that others doesn’t understand, laugh when there is nothing numerous and do not have touch with reality.

Positive Symptoms : It is disturbances that are “added” to the person’s personality.
Delusions — false ideas-individuals may believe that someone is spying on him or her, on that they are someone famous (or a religious figure, movie star or president).

Hallucinations — seeing, feeding, tasting, hearing or smelling something that really does not exist. The most common experience is hearing imaginary voices that given commands, or comments to the individual.

Disordered Thinking and Speech : Moving from one topic to another, in a nonsensical fashion. Individuals may also make up their own words or sounds, rhyme in a way that doesn’t make sense, or repeat words and ideas.

Dis organised Behavior : This can range from having problems with routine behaviours . like hygiene or chosing appropriate clothing for the weather, to unprovoked outbursts, to impulsive and uninhabited actions. A person may also have movements that seem anxious, agitated, tense or constant without any apparent reason.

Negative Symptoms are capabilities that are “cost” from the persons personality.

  • Social withdrawal
  • Extreme apathy
  • Lack of drive or initiative
  • Emotional platness.

Question 8.
(a) What is conformity ? Explain Solomon Asch ’s study on conformity. [5]
(b) Explain the concept of social learning, realistic competition and stereotyping, as factors causing prejudice. [5]
Answer:
(a) Conformity is defined as a tendency to change one’s beliefs and behaviors in ways that are consistent with group standards. Conformity also involves yielding to group pressures. These pressures can be implicit or explicit, real or imagined. Thus, it is going along with the group or behaving in a way that is consistent with majority.

Solomon Ash’s Study on Conformity : Asch in his experiment, took five male students who participated in a study on perception, where they sat around a table and had to judge the length of lines. They were shown a card where three lines of varying length are drawn and a second card where only one line was drawn.

Social Comparison : The five male students had to judge which line on the first card was most similar to the line on the second card in terms of length. One of the lines was exactly the same length. The five subjects each uttered their responses aloud. The judgement’s were easy and there were no disagreements
ISC Psychology Question Paper 2017 Solved for Class 12 2
Social Disapproval : Then a second set of line was presented and finally a third. At this point the experiment was quite dull. On the third trial, the first subject gave an answer which was wrong. The second, third and fourth subject also followed. When it was time for the fifth subject, he was disturbed and it was clearly visible that the answer were wrong.

Need to be liked and accepte : Under this circumstances, people sitting in the fifth position sometime gave a wrong answer even though they knew which was the right answer.

Thus people conform even though doing so means contradicting their own perceptions of the world. In many cases, the individuals continue to believe that their private judgments are correct and the group is wrong. Nevertheless, when they are asked to respond publicly they give the same wrong answers that other give.

(b) Prejudice refers to negative evaluations of a group or of the members of a group without considering them as individuals. The various causes of prejudice are as follows :
Social learning : Children are not bom with prejudices. They leam them from their family, peers, media and society around them. Socialization refers to the process by which children leam the conventional social norms of their surroundings. Prejudice can be learned inside or outside the home. It can take place through the standard social learning mechanisms.

For example: Children may simply initiate the prejudices of adults and friends, they may be positively reinforced by using derogatory ethnic humour; or simply learn to associate particular minority groups with poverty, crime, dirtiness and other negative characteristics. For e.g., : While North Americans have historically tended to be more prejudiced against those who originally came from Africa, Asia and Latin America, than against those who came from Western Europe.

Realistic competition : Prejudice also stems from inter group competition. This idea begins with the assumption that society is composed of groups that differ in power, economic resources, social status and other desirable attributes.

Dominant groups are motivated to maintain their privileged positions and subordinate groups are motivated to reduce that inequality. The competition produces inter group conflict and therefore prejudice.

Realistic group conflict theory views prejudice as an inevitable consequence of competition among groups for resources or power.

For example : Prejudice may stem from competition between blacks and Latinos for blue-collar jobs, or between whites and minorities for admission to selective colleges.

Stereotyping : Stereotypes are beliefs (cognitive component) about the personal attributes shared by people in a particular group or social category. Nineteenth century stereotypes of Native Americans described them as dirty, cruel and warlike savages. Twentieth century stereotypes tend to depict them as silent , passive, drunken and lazy. Stereotypes form the basis of prejudice, which is the effective component of group antagonism. Thus prejudices are a result of stereotypes present in an individual.

Question 9.
Write short notes on any two of the following : [5 x 2]
(a) Any five ways in which Psychology helps in school environment.
(b) Rehabilitation.
(c) Role of a counselor in dealing with families and with groups.
Answer:
(a) School environment refers to the environment in which the learner finds himself and in which the learning process takes place. The contribution of psychology in school environment is as follows :

To understand individual differences :
No two individuals are alike in the world. The teacher has to face a class of 30 to 50 students which have a great range of individual differences. The teacher with the help of the knowledge of the kind of individual differences may adjust his teaching to the needs and requirement of the class. This may be helpful in creating a conclusive environment.

To understand effective teaching methods : It gives us the knowledge of appropriate methods of teaching. It helps in developing new strategies of teaching- Valid psychological principles not only suggests new techniques of teaching- learning but also eliminates many traditional practices. Use of audio-visual aids makes the difficult concepts more clear and definite and learning is more lasting. It is the contribution of educational psychology that teacher make use of various types of audio-visual aids in class in class¬room teaching. Now subjects are included in the time table keeping in mind their difficulty level.

Curriculum construction : Psychological principles are also used in formulating curriculum for different stages. No two difficult subjects are taught in successive periods. Needs of the students, their development characteristics learning patterns and needs of the society are all incorporated in the curriculum.

Measurement of learning outcomes : Psychological tools help the teacher to assess the learning outcomes of the students. It also helps to evaluate the teaching methods in the light of performance of students.

Development of positive attitude : Teacher’s training program aim to develop positive attitude of teachers towards teaching profession. They help to develop confidence in trainees to face the problems and adaptability to deal with unexpected problems in daily classroom teaching. Earlier teachers used to give undue importance to theoretical subjects in school. Activities like debates and drama or sports were considered a waste of time. Nowadays, these activities are given their due importance for the harmonious development of personality.

(b) Types of Rehabilitation is the action of restoring someone to health or normal life though training therapy after imprisonment, addiction or illness. Rehabilitation denotes a wide range of interventions designed to help people with disabilities caused by mental illness, improve their functioning and quality of life by enabling them to acquire the skills and support needed to be successful in usual adult roles and in the environment of their choice.

Normative adult roles include living independently, attending school, working in competitive jobs, relating to family, having friends and having intimate relationship. Psychiatric rehabilitation emphasizes indepen-dence rather than reliance on professionals.

Vocational rehabilitation : Impairment of vocational role performance is a common complication related to schizophrenia. Vocational rehabilitation has always been a centerpiece of psychiatric rehabilitation.

Social skills rehabilitation : Psychiatric patients have difficulty fulfilling social roles, such as worker, sponse and friend and have difficulty meeting their needs when social interaction is required, (e.g., negotiating with merchants, requesting assistance to solve problems).

Cognitive rehabilitation : Increased recognition of the prevalence and importance of new cognitive deficits has stimulated increasing interest in remediation strategies. Effect of medication is small and does not have meaningful impact on neurocognitive functioning in community.

As a result, a parallel interest has arisen in the potential for rehabilitation or cognitive remediation. Psycho social rehabilitation does not attempt to cure serious mental disorders, rather it seeks to help persons with such disorders live as close to a normal life in the community as possible. The key goals of rehabilitation are as follows :

To help such persons understand their disorders so that they can cope with them more effectively. For instance, patients may be taught to recognize. For early warning signs of deterioration. Those with schizophrenia can be taught to recognize the hallucinations that often precede psychotic breaks.

Psycho social rehabilitation focuses on teaching patients the practical skills they need to live in the community how to use public transportation, shop for groceries, prepare meals.

Efforts are made to have a single professional coordinate to help the patients. Efforts with respect to employment, housing, nutrition medical care and finance. Such case management help to ensure that patients get all the help available to them and do not “slip between the cracks.”

Psycho social rehabilitation helps keep persons with serious mental disorders from having relapses or from experiencing serious problems with the law. Such programs are most beneficial if the continue on a regular basis.

(c) Counselling is an interactive process conjoining the counselee,who needs assistance and the counselor, who is trained and educated to give assistance. The function of a professional counselor is to render help and advice to any individuals for solving of their personal problems. The counseling service may be individual or group, depending on the purpose of the case. So, it may include sessions of both individual and group counseling.

Family therapy : Family therapy began with the finding that many people who had showed marked improvement in individual therapy—often in institutional settings had a relapse when they returned home.

Family based treatment approaches are designed to reduce high levels of criticism and family tension. Family therapy encourages change and development and the combined resolution of family conflicts and problems. The therapists aims is to engage the family in beneficial solutions, seeking constructive ways for family members to support each other through direct participation.

Family therapy may begin with one family member being referred for treatment but family therapist often label this individual “the identified patient”, thus implying that all members of the family are “patients”. Family members meet as a group to discuss problems, family background and family relationship. These discussions and interactions helps the therapists find out the patterns of communication, power plays, techniques of control and reinforcement contingencies within the family.

Family therapists may emphasize on psycho dynamics, that is to uncover the underlying motives and conflicts within the family and stimulate insight into them. Other family therapists may use humanistic- existential approaches and still others use a behavioral framework. Therapists using behavioral approaches to family therapy aim to assess and modify harmful reinforcement contingencies in the family.

These therapists may also analyze and try to reconstruct undesirable modelling patterns. A special strength of many behavioral approaches is their emphasis on behavioral exchange. The behavior that each family member would like to see in others are pinpointed explicitly; that information is then used to enhance the rewards of family life for each member, not just the identified patient.

Group therapy : Like family therapy, group therapy is intended to capture some of the essence of “real life” in a social context. It is sometimes a supplement to individual therapy, sometimes a substitute for it.

Group therapies can help people open up areas of thought and feeling that were previously sealed off, enhance their personal growth and deepen their relationship. The aim is to support the individual in solving their emotional difficulties. The combination of past experiences and experiences outside the therapeutic group, with the interaction between group members and therapists, becomes the material through which the therapy is conducted.

The groups usually consisting of about 5 to 15 people have one or two leaders, or trainers, as the therapist are sometimes called. The leaders generally try to create an atmosphere in which emotions and feelings are stressed. Group leaders must be highly skilled in dealing with the difficult interpersonal problems that can arise when so many people are responding all at once. They must be sensitive to the anxiety that can develop in some members and capable of protecting those who are fragile.

People thinking about joining such a group should investigate to make sure that the group objectives fit their own and that the group is being conducted by competent leaders.

Clinical psychologists have effectively used group therapy for many clinical problems, especially substance-abuse disorders. The methods used are mainly talking, psychodrama, constellation work.

ISC Class 12 Psychology Previous Year Question Papers

ISC Specimen Papers for Class 11 Sociology 2020, 2019, 2018

Download ISC Specimen Papers 2020 Solved for Class 11 Sociology and Marking Scheme PDF. Here we have given ISC Sociology Question Papers 2020 Solved. Students can view or download the Specimen Papers for ISC 2020 with Answers Class 11 Sociology for their upcoming examination.

These ISC Board Sample Papers are useful to understand the pattern of questions asked in the board exam. Know about the important concepts to be prepared for ISC Class 11 Sociology board exam and Score More marks.

Board – Indian School Certificate Examinations (CISCE), www.cisce.org
Class – Class 11
Subject – Sociology
Year of Examination – 2020, 2019, 2018, 2017.

ISC Class 11 Sociology Question Papers Solved

www.cisce.org ISC Sample Papers for Class 11 Sociology are part of ISC Specimen Papers Solved for Class 11 Here we have given ISC Class 11 Sociology Sample Question Papers for Class 11 Sociology.

Year of Examination ISC Sociology Question Paper
2019 Download PDF
2018 Download PDF

The above ISC Model Paper for Class 11 Sociology is the official sample paper released by ISC Board as per latest syllabus of Class 11 Indian Certificate of Secondary Education, India.

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ISC Specimen Papers for Class 11 Business Studies 2020, 2019, 2018

Download ISC Specimen Papers 2020 Solved for Class 11 Business Studies and Marking Scheme PDF. Here we have given ISC Business Studies Question Papers 2020 Solved. Students can view or download the Specimen Papers for ISC 2020 with Answers Class 11 Business Studies for their upcoming examination.

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Board – Indian School Certificate Examinations (CISCE), www.cisce.org
Class – Class 11
Subject – Business Studies
Year of Examination – 2020, 2019, 2018, 2017.

ISC Class 11 Business Studies Question Papers Solved

www.cisce.org ISC Sample Papers for Class 11 Business Studies are part of ISC Specimen Papers Solved for Class 11 Here we have given ISC Class 11 Business Studies Sample Question Papers for Class 11 Business Studies.

Year of Examination ISC Business Studies Question Paper
2019 Download PDF
2018 Download PDF

The above ISC Model Paper for Class 11 Business Studies is the official sample paper released by ISC Board as per latest syllabus of Class 11 Indian Certificate of Secondary Education, India.

We hope the ISC Specimen Papers for Class 11 Business Studies, help you. If you have any query regarding ISC Class 11 Business Studies Question Papers Solved, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

ISC Specimen Papers for Class 11 Economics 2020, 2019, 2018

Download ISC Specimen Papers 2020 Solved for Class 11 Economics and Marking Scheme PDF. Here we have given ISC Economics Question Papers 2020 Solved. Students can view or download the Specimen Papers for ISC 2020 with Answers Class 11 Economics for their upcoming examination.

These ISC Board Sample Papers are useful to understand the pattern of questions asked in the board exam. Know about the important concepts to be prepared for ISC Class 11 Economics board exam and Score More marks.

Board – Indian School Certificate Examinations (CISCE), www.cisce.org
Class – Class 11
Subject – Economics
Year of Examination – 2020, 2019, 2018, 2017.

ISC Class 11 Economics Question Papers Solved

www.cisce.org ISC Sample Papers for Class 11 Economics are part of ISC Specimen Papers Solved for Class 11 Here we have given ISC Class 11 Economics Sample Question Papers for Class 11 Economics.

Year of Examination ISC Economics Question Paper
2019 Download PDF
2018 Download PDF

The above ISC Model Paper for Class 11 Economics is the official sample paper released by ISC Board as per latest syllabus of Class 11 Indian Certificate of Secondary Education, India.

We hope the ISC Specimen Papers for Class 11 Economics, help you. If you have any query regarding ISC Class 11 Economics Question Papers Solved, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

ISC Political Science Question Paper 2014 Solved for Class 12

ISC Political Science Previous Year Question Paper 2014 Solved for Class 12

Maximum Marks: 80
Time allowed: Three hours

  • Candidates are allowed additional 15 minutes for only reading the paper. They must NOT start writing during this time.
  • Answer Question 1 (Compulsory) from Part I and five questions from Part II, choosing two questions from Section A, two questions from Section B and one question from either Section A or Section B.
  • The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Part—I
(Compulsory)

Question 1.
Answer briefly each of the questions (i) to (xv): [15 x 2]
(i) Why is Aristotle’s classification of States considered to be inadequate even from the traditional point of view ?
(ii) Define Oligarchy.
(iii) How is a federation formed ?
(iv) What is the difference between a constitutional law and an ordinary law ?
(v) How is flexibility achieved in the British Constitution ?
(vi) Under what circumstances is a coalition government formed ? Give an example of a coalition government.
(vii) Write any one criterion required for a political party in India to be recognized as a National Party.
(viii) State any two factors that have contributed to the recent growth in the powers of the Executive.
(ix) The House of Commons is more powerful than the House of Lords in its financial powers. Give two reasons in support of the given statement.
(x) What is the suspensory veto of the President of USA. ?
(xi) State the semi-judicial function of the civil services in present times.
(xii) Distinguish between judicial activism and judicial restraint.
(xiii) What is Public Interest Litigation ?
(xiv) Give two examples of Separatist Movements in India.
(xv) What is regional imbalance ?
Answer 1.
(iii) A federation is a state with one central government which is very powerful and several state governments existing side by side with the former acting for the whole territory and all the people of the state, and the latter acting within their respective areas. A federation comes into existence when several sovereign states combine to form a big state.
Example — India, U.S.A., Canada and Australia.

(viii) The two factors that have contributed to the recent growth in the powers of the executive are as follows :

  • Rise of delegated legislation.
  • Increased burden of work in the legislature.

(x) The President of U.S.A. can return a bill, to the congress before the expiry of 10 days, excluding Sundays, taken from the date on which it is submitted to him for his signature. In this event, the two houses of the congress have to repass it by 2/3rd majority. In case, the bill fails to get this majority, it stands rejected. However in case it qualifies this requirement, it becomes a law and the President has to sign it. The power of returning the bill to the congress and forcing its passage by 2/3rd majority is known as the suspensory veto power of the President.

(xi) The disputes involving the grant of permits and licences and tax concessions, quotas etc. are examples of some semi judicial functions of the civil servants in present times.

Part-II
Section—A

Answer two questions

Question 2.
(a) Enumerate the merits and demerits of a unitary government. [8]
(b) Explain the various factors that make the central government more powerful even in a federation. [6]
Answer:
(a) Merits:

  • It is a source of strong, stable and all powerful government.
  • It ensures a single uniform administration for the whole of the state.
  • The system deserves special praise for its simplicity and less expensiveness.
  • The administration of a unitary state is flexible and can easily adopt itself to the changing social needs and environment because the central government can amend the constitution as and when required.
  • This system is very suitable for small countries, because it establishes organisation and unity after ending all differences.
  • It is very suitable for meeting emergencies because, being an all powerful government, the central government can take all necessary decisions quickly and implement them with full force.

Demerits:
The unitary state provides for the creation of an all powerful central government with full centralization of powers. It involves a possibility for central despotism over local areas.

The central government often behaves inefficiently because of being overloaded with all the work. It often finds itself not fully capable of meeting the pressure of work resulting from the social economic cultural functions that it has to perform as an agent of the modem welfare state.’

A unitary government, because of being located at the centre and faced with pressing national problems, very often fails to satisfy local needs.

The unitary system is suitable only for small and homogeneous states. For big states or states with racial, linguistic, cultural, religious and regional diversities, a federal system alone can be suitable.

A unitary government is more bureaucratic. The existence of a single political executive and legislature for the whole state makes way for the dominance of the administration by the bureaucracy.

It kills local initiative. It further discourages popular interest in public affairs.

(b) It is the most suitable system for every big state. It alone provides strength to the idea of the world state. The federal system gives more power and authority to the central government.

In a federal system all important departments lie in the jurisdiction of the central government. Like in India all the issues or subjects are divided into three categories the union list, the state list and the concurrent list. All vital issues or important departments like defense, currency regulation, railways etc., lie in the control of the central government. The national list which contains all the important subjects is only controlled by the central government which make it more powerful than all the federating units or states.

The national government concentrates upon the task of satisfying the common national needs and goals of development and the state governments concentrate upon the satisfaction of local needs. The central governments makes it possible for the states with social, cultural, linguistic, religious and regional diversities to maintain themselves as states. Thus the central government constitutes the best means for harmonizing these diversities with the need for national unity. Thus the central government plays a very crucial and pivotal role thus making the central government more powerful in a federation.

Question 3.
(a) What is a constitution ? State any six qualities of a good constitution. [8]
(b) Give three merits and three demerits of a flexible constitution. [6]
Answer:
(a) The constitution is the supreme and fundamental law of the state. The government is organised and it performs all its functions according to the constitution of the state. It lays down the nature of relations between the people with their government. A modern constitution necessarily involves a charter of the rights and duties of its citizens.

The six qualities of a good constitution are as follows:

  • A constitution must be systematically written and it should incorporate the constitutional law of the state.
  • It should have the ability to develop and change in accordance with the changes in the environment in which it operates.
  • It should be neither unduly rigid nor unduly flexible.
  • It must include a chapter on fundamental rights and freedom of the people and provide a constitutional guarantee to it.
  • It should clearly define the organization, powers and functions of the government of the state, its three organs, their inter-relationship and the limitations on its powers.
  • The constitution must clearly reflect the sovereignty of the people and should itself enjoy the status of the supreme law of the state.

(b) A flexible constitution is one which can be easily amended. Merits and demerits of flexible constitution are as follows :
Merits of Flexible Constitution :
A flexible constitution can easily be changed in accordance with the changes in the social and political environment of the society.

A flexible constitution enables the government to undertake all steps deemed essential for meeting situation at the time of an emergency.

Since the flexible constitution keeps on changing with time, it always continues to be popular and remains fresh. It effectively mirrors the historical developments which take place in the society it serves.

Demerits of Flexible Constitution :
Flexible constitution is a source of instability. It enables the government in power to amend the constitution in order to fit its narrow interests.

In federation type of government, a flexible constitution can lead to undesirable changes in the constitution by the federal government, so it is not suitable for a federation.

A flexible constitution can be successful only when there are certain conditions present in the environment, otherwise it becomes a source of instability and trouble. For example, it demands honest and mature leadership, otherwise flexibility of the constitution will lead to pursuing selfish and narrowly conceived goals.

Section—B
Answer three questions

Question 4.
(a) How did Montesquieu explain the theory of separation of powers ? To what extent is the theory followed in the constitutions of USA. and India ? [8]
(b) What role does a political party play in a democratic country ? [6]
Answer:
(b) The role of the parties can be examined through an analysis of the functions performed by them:
Formulation of Public Opinion : The first and the most important function of political parties is to give coherence and meaning to the ideas, desires and ambitions of public upon various issues and problems. They are the instruments for clarifying public opinion and thereby for making it possible for the Government of the state to base or change its policies on the basis of public opinion.

Agencies of Political Education and Political Socialization : Political parties play an important role as agencies of political education. Along with other agencies like family, school and mass media, the political parties transmit the values of the political system to the people. Mostly, it is through political parties that people learn and act out their roles as citizens and voters. Political parties play a vital role in the integration of an individual with his political community.

Recruitment : Political parties are the essential and ideal channels for recruiting leaders. In all political systems, democratic as well as totalitarian, leaders emerge through political parties. These provide necessary leadership education and training to their members, some of whom emerge as leaders.

Interest Articulation : However, interest articulation is mostly a function of the interest groups, yet political parties, as the organised political structures working in the environment of the political systems, always play an important role in interest articulation. These help the people to sort out, clarify and specify their claim demands. In a political system with a single party system, the political party in-built groups act as the agency of interest articulation. To some extent, it is also true of single party dominant multi-party systems.

Interest Aggregation : Political parties are the main agencies of aggregation. These are specialized aggregation structures of modem societies. The articulated interests are aggregated into a set of policy proposals or alternatives by the political parties. They take these to the Government for approval.

Question 5.
(a) Discuss the advantages of a bicameral legislature. [8]
(b) Explain the powers and functions of the House of Representatives of U.S A. [6]
Answer:
(a) The main advantages of bicameral legislature are as follows :
Second Chamber is a Safeguard against the Despotism of a Single Chamber : The second chamber is essential for preventing the first House from becoming arbitrary and despotic. As such a single chamber with all the legislative power can become corrupt and despotic. The second chamber is needed for keeping the first chamber in balance and away from tyrannical tendencies. It is an essential means for safeguarding ourselves against the arbitrariness of the legislature with a single chamber.

Second Chamber is Essential for Preventing Hasty and Ill-considered Legislation : With a view to satisfy mass passions and demands, the single chamber can commit the mistake of passing ill-considered measures in a haste, which can subsequently be a source of big harm to the national interests. The second chamber, with a composition different from the first chamber, can prevent or at least considerably limit such chances. The directly elected lower chamber is liable to be swayed with popular passions resulting into half-baked expediency based on ill-considered laws.

Second Chamber acts as a Revising Chamber : The legislative work in the modern welfare state has become highly complex and technical. It demands a deep and carefully examination of all aspects of the measures which are to be enacted into laws. A single chamber can be guilty of both omission of desired laws and ‘commissions of errors’. There is, therefore, full justification for having a second chamber performing the role of a reviser. Second Chamber Lessens the Burden of the First House .A modem legislature has to pass a large number of laws covering all aspects of social relations. Under the circumstances a legislature with a single chamber is most likely to be found wanting and unable to meet the heavy rush. Two Houses can together share the legislative work and handle the entire work systematically. The division of work between the two Houses can go a long way to increase the ability of the legislature to cope with the rush of work and to ensure efficiency in handling it.

Two Houses Better Represent Public Opinion : A single House can grow out of tune and fail to keep in pace with public opinion. The second House chosen at a different time can help the legislature in overcoming the above defect and in keeping continuous contact with the public opinion. Essential for giving Representation to Special Interests : The second chamber provides a convenient means for giving representation to different classes and interests which need representation but which, for want of proper organisation or disinclination for contesting elections or other reasons, do not get such representation in the lower House. Laborers, women, scientists, artists, teachers, intellectuals, writers, special interest groups can be given suitable and necessary special representation in the upper House.

Delay is Useful : The passing of laws by two Houses instead of a single House, leads to some delay. However, this delay is a very useful interval as it helps the crystallization of public opinion on all bills before they become laws. The existence of second chamber, “interposes delay between the introduction and final adoption of a measure and thus permits time for reflection and deliberation.” Bicameralism is a Source of Independence for the Executive : The two Houses of the legislature act as checks on each other. The authority and role of each House has a balancing effect on the other. This feature helps the executive to act with more and needed independence.

(b) House of Representatives is the lower, popular and directly elected House of the U.S. Congress. It represents the people of the United States and is directly responsible to them. We can describe it as the “National representative House which directly reflects the national public opinion.

Composition : The House of Representatives consists of 435 directly elected representatives of the people. It is generally agreed that the strength of 435 is adequate to represent the people of the U.S .A. The Constitution lays down that no representative shall represent less than 30,000 citizens, but a state must be represented by at least one representative even if its population is less than 30,000.

Legislative Powers : In the sphere of law-making, the House of Representatives has legally an equal share with the Senate. Any bill in respect of any Federal subject can be introduced in it. After getting passed from it, the bill goes to the Senate. In case the Senate also passes it, the bill goes to the President for his signatures. In case, the President signs it or if he does not sign it and 10 days elapse, it becomes an act. In case, however, the President returns the bill within 10 days and with or without proposals for changes, the two Houses have to repass it by 2/3rd majority. Failure to get 2/3rd majority in any House, means the rejection of the bill. In case there develops a conflict between the House of Representatives and the Senate, and it remains unresolved, the two Houses appoint a six- member (3 from each House) conference committee which gives the final verdict regarding the fate of the bill.

Financial Powers : Money bills can originate only in the House of Representatives. The budget too is first introduced in this House. The Money bills and the budget are first passed by it. Thereafter, these go to the Senate which has the power to make any change in them. As such the Senate determines the final shape of money bill. The priority given to the House of Representatives in respect of the introduction of the money bill, in fact acts as a limitation because it gives to the Senate the opportunity to take the final decision.

Constituent Powers : The passing of an amendment by the Congress requires approval by 2/3rd majority in both the Houses. House of Representatives as such has equal role in initiating amendments to the Constitution. The Houses together and not the Senate or the House separately can undertake the initiation of amending executive functions. The House of Representatives has only minor executive functions. It can appoint investigation committees for investigating the working of various Government departments. The Congress i.e., the House of Representatives and the Senate together, have power to declare war. Senate cannot do it individually, besides, the House of Representatives has not been assigned any role in the executive sphere.

Judicial Functions : The House of Representatives, acting along with the Senate has the power to create new Federal courts and decide their jurisdictions. It shares.with the Senate, the power to impeach the President, Vice President, the Judges of Supreme Court and other high Federal officials.

Question 6.
(a) Discuss the powers of the President of U.S A. [6]
(b) What are the powers of the Prime Minister of India ?
Answer:
(a) The powers of the President of U.S.A.:

  • The U.S. has adopted the presidential form of government and as such the U.S. President is both the real as well as the nominal head of the government.
  • The President of U.S. holds a permanent tenure of four years and he is not responsible to the legislature .
  • The President of U.S. can nominate and by and with the consent of the Senate shall appoint ambassadors, other public ministers and consuls, Judges of the Supreme Court and all other officers of the United State powers.
  • The President has almost unhindered authority to remove persons he disapproves of as executive members.
  • The President not only formulates foreign policy but also conducts foreign relations of the U.S .A.
  • All executive actions are taken by the President or under his authority and in his name by his secretaries and civil
  • U.S. President is the head of the state. As the head of the state, he performs all such ceremonial functions which are performed by heads of states of all other countries.
  • The U. S. President is the single most powerful leader of the American nation, upon whom the whole nation depends for their peace, security and development needs.

(b) The powers and functions of the Prime Minister can be briefly discussed as under :
Formation of the Council of Ministers : The task of formation of the ministry begins with the appointment of the Prime Minister by the President. The leader of the majority in the Lok Sabha gets appointed as the Prime Minister. After the appointment of Prime Minister, the President appoints all the ministers on the advice of Prime Minister (Article 75). Prime Minister submits the list of persons who are to be appointed as ministers in the Council of Ministers. He is free to determine the strength of his ministry. He decides the proportionate strength of the ministers from each House of the Parliament. Conventionally, most of the ministers are drawn from Lok Sabha. He decides who amongst them shall be the Cabinet Minister or Minister of State or a Deputy Minister. He can, if he desires, even have one or two Deputy Prime Ministers in his Council of Ministers.

Allocation of Portfolios : It is an undisputed privilege of the Prime Minister to allocate portfolios to his ministers. Which particular department shall be entrusted to which minister is determined by him. Any minister objecting to such an allotment only invites the wrath of the Prime Minister and can get completely ignored for the ministry.

Reshuffling of Portfolios : The Prime Minister has the power to shuffle and reshuffle his ministry at any time. It is his privilege to make changes in his ministry. He can make any change if in his judgement it is required for bringing effectiveness, efficiency and discipline in the administration. He has the unfettered right to review, from time to time, the allocation of portfolios and make changes whenever and wherever desirable.

Chairman of the Cabinet : The Prime Minister is the leader of the Cabinet. He presides over its meetings. He decides the agenda of its meetings. In fact, all matters are decided in the Cabinet with the approval and consent of the Prime Minister. It is up to him to accept or reject items, issues and proposals for discussions in the cabinet. All ministers conform to his views and policies. There is scope for deliberations and discussions but not for dissension and opposition. Any minister, not finding his policy acceptable, has no choice except to submit his resignation.

Removal of Ministers : The Prime Ministers can demand resignation from any minister at any time and the latter has always to accept the wishes of the former. However, if at any time a minister does not resign even on the asking of the Prime Minister, he can either get him dismissed by the President or can submit his own resignation which in fact, means the resignation of his whole Council of Ministers. He being still the leader of the majority party, can again be invited by the President to form his ministry and obviously he can drop that minister from his new team. No one can remain a minister against the wishes of the Prime Minister.

Chief Link between the President and the Cabinet : The Prime Minister is the main channel of communication between the President and the Cabinet. He communicates to the President all decisions that arrive at in the Cabinet, and puts before the Cabinet the views of the President. Prime Minister keeps the President informed of all affairs of the Government. This is the sole privilege of the Prime Minister and no other minister can, on his own convey the decisions or reveal to the President the nature or summary of the issues discussed in the Cabinet.

Coordinator-in-Chief : The Prime Minister acts as the general manager of the state and the chief coordinator. It is his responsibility to co-ordinate the activities of all the departments and to secure co-operation amongst all departments. He resolves the differences, if any, among the ministers and ensures the working of each ministry without coming into conflict and clash with other ministries. If there is any crisscross of functions, he irons out the differences. He ensures mutual understanding and team spirit among ministers. The Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) always acts under the authority of the Prime Minister.

Leader of the Parliament : The Prime Minister, as the leader of the Lok Sabha, is also the leader of the Parliament. It is he who decides, in consultation with the Speaker of . the Lok Sabha, the complete agenda of the House. The summoning and the proroguing of Parliament is in fact decided upon by him. The President acts upon his advice.

Question 7.
(a) Explain any eight salient features of the judiciary in U.K. [8]
(b) Explain any six steps that should be taken to ensure the independence of the judiciary. [6]
Answer:
(b) Judiciary is the most important organ of the government. Lord Bryce says that if the lamp of justice goes off, we cannot imagine how much the darkness would be. The independence of judiciary is the essential condition for the success of democracy. Following are the steps for ensuring the independence of judiciary.

The appointment of judges should be free from political interference. It should be done on the basis of merit through a well laid down and transparent procedure.

The salary and other perks of members of judiciary should not be subject to approval of political authority. It should not be liable to be reduced to their disadvantage.

The process for removal of judges should be difficult and it should not be in the hands of political executive. Usually, judges are removed by impeachment motion passed with special majority in the legislature.

The fixed and long tenure of judges also ensures their independence.

The judiciary should have full control over the judicial administration, which carries out its responsibility.

The judiciary should have the power to determine the rules of procedure to conduct its business.

Judiciary should be vested with the power to punish the guilty for the contempt of court. The orders of judiciary should be given full respect, throughout the country.

The judges should not be allowed to hold any official position after their retirement.

Question 8.
(a) Explain the caste and gender based inequality in India. What is the impact of these social inequalities on the Indian democratic system ? [8]
(b) Discuss any six forms of political violence in India. [6]
Answer:
(a) The challenge of social inequality can be analyzed in two parts

  • Caste based Social Inequality and
  • Gender Inequality.

Caste based Social Inequality : Indian society has been a caste-based society and social inequality exists as inequality between the upper castes or swam caste Hindus and the so called low caste Hindus. Indian social system stands still divided into two broad divisions : High castes and Low castes. Some parts of India like Bihar and UP still have caste wars. The Constitution of India has granted and guaranteed the fundamental right to equality which clearly lays down that there shall be no discrimination on the basis of caste, colour, creed, religion, place of birth and sex. Untouchability stands constitutionally prohi-bited and now this evil practice has become a crime punishable by law.

Single uniform citizenship, equal rights and freedoms, Universal Adult Franchise and single electorate, have been the foundational principles of Indian Democracy. Further, Indian state has been directed to take special steps for the protection of the interests of weaker sections of society. A system of reservations of seats in the legislatures, and admissions in educational institutions, and Government and private sector for the people belonging to Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward Classes (OBC’s) has been in operation for the last six decades. Originally, Indian society got stratified in 4 basic castes : Brahmin, Kshatriya, Vaishya and Shudras. Later on, these got divided into a very large number of castes and sub-castes based on family and characterized by the so called higher and lower divisions involving rigid and violent inter¬actions. Till today, Indian society continues to be a caste ridden society.

The most unfortunate development has been caste based violence. Atrocities are committed on caste grounds. Each year several thousand cases of atrocities against the people belonging to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Dalits) are committed. There are caste based political parties, caste interest groups, caste- based voting, and caste-based selection of candidates for contesting elections, caste-based policies and decisions, caste violence, caste discrimination’s, continuous menace posed by the illegal and inhuman practice of untouchability.

Gender Inequality : Indian Society continues to be a male dominated society in which women continue to live with certain inequalities and exploitation’s. The Constitution of India grants equal fundamental rights to all the citizens, both men and women, and holds that there is to be no discrimination on the basis of gender. Women are to enjoy equal opportunities for development as are enjoyed by men. Article 39 of the Constitution of India calls upon the state to provide adequate means of livelihood to men and women.

Article 51 A makes it a duty of every citizen to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women. There is to be equal pay for equal work. The state has been also directed to take special steps for protecting the interests of weaker sections of society, women and children. The state has in fact passed several laws for ensuring a better protection and development of women e.g., Special Marriage Act, 1954, Hindu Code Bill 1955, Indian Succession Act 1956, Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Bill 1956, Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961, The Criminal Law Amendment Act, 1983 and Suppression of Immoral Traffic Act.

The 73rd and 74th Amendment Acts have given 30% reservations to women in Panchayati Raj and Urban Local Government institutions. In 2006, the state enforced an act aimed at preventing domestic violence against women. All Five Year Plans have been giving special attention for securing the objective of empowerment of women.

However, unfortunately, women in India continue to face several types of discrimination’s. Female foeticide represents the ugliest face of this type of discrimination.

(b) Various forms of violence in India are as follows:
Linguistic Violence : Love for one’s language, which symbolises love for one’s culture, is something very natural as well as an essential feature of human thinking. However, a blind and aggressive love for one’s language involving national faith in its superiority always acts as a potent source of violence. Unfortunately linguistic violence has been continuously present in Indian politics. Hindi agitations, English Vs. Hindi agitations, violent agitations for securing the creation of linguistic states and opposition to the development of Hindi as a national language, have been present in Indian polity. These agitations have been a source of violence.

Caste Conflict and Violence : In some of the states of India, particularly in Bihar and U.P. several caste-based groups and organisations have been in existence. These have been engaged in violent activities. Some high caste organisations have been committing violence against the so called low caste groups and in retaliation the latter have been doing the same. The politics of reservations Vs. anti-reservations has been a source of violence in Indian politics. Caste has been a major factor of Indian society and politics and it has been a source of caste conflict and violence.

Politics of Violent Agitations : Several Political parties and interest groups have been actively present in Indian politics. Unfortunately however, these resort to direct action means like strikes, dharnas, bandhas and public demonstrations. Quite often their agitations have been taking the form of violent agitations. Burning of trains, platforms, public property and even private property is often used by them as a means of protest against the government.

Social Violence : In general, caste violence, communal violence and infact all other forms of violence come under the category of social violence because all the violent activities take place in the social environment. Several evil social customs have been acting as a source of violence against women. Indian women continue to be a weak class. In the family, the girl child faces discrimination and even violence. In the name of some ancient traditions, some fundamentalist religious and caste groups have been even supporting the cases of discrimination and violence against women. Social violence always act as a potent source of political violence.

Political Violence : Indian politics has been living with violence. Murder of political leaders and opponents has been a sad reality. Two Prime Ministers of India had to face deaths inflicted by political violence. It has been indeed very unfortunate that in the land of Buddha, Nanak and Gandhi, violence continues to live. The criminalisation of politics due to entry of criminals in politics as well as due to the adoption of violence as means by some unscrupulous political leaders has been a major reason behind the increasing presence of violence in politics.

6. Electoral Violence : The International Foundation for Eelctoral Systems (IFES) defines electoral violence as any harm or threat of harm to any person or properly involved in the election process, or the process itself, during the election period. Several political parties have been continuously involved in electoral politics and the struggle for power. However, unfortunately, along with the popularity of elections in India, the emergence of electoral violence has been a sad development. Violence against the contesting candidates and their supporters has come to be a grim reality. On the polling day, despite the presence of security forces in large number, electoral violence takes place.

ISC Class 12 Political Science Previous Year Question Papers

ISC History Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 12

ISC History Previous Year Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 12

Maximum Marks: 80
Time allowed: Three hours

  • Candidates are allowed additional 15 minutes for only reading the paper. They must NOT start writing during this time.
  • Answer Question 1 (Compulsory) from Part I and five questions from Part II, choosing two questions from Section A, two
  • questions from Section B and one question from either Section A or Section B.
  • The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Part-I (20 Marks)
Answer all questions

Question 1. [20 x 1]
(i) What is the significance of 8th August, 1942, in the history of India’s struggle for freedom ?
(ii) Why did Subhash Chandra Bose resign from the post of Congress President at the Tripuri Session in 1939 ?
(iii) Name the activist who undertook an epic fast unto death for a separate Andhra State.
(iv) Who succeeded Lai Bahadur Shastri as the Prime Minister of India, in 1966 ?
(v) Name two important leaders of the Naxalite Movement in Bengal.
(vi) What was the fundamental difference between the demands of the Khalistan Movement and that of the Assam Movement ?
(vii) In the context of the Non-Aligned Movement, what was India’s stance during the Korean War ?
(viii) What was the primary objective of the ‘Sampoorna Kranti Movement’ (Total Revolution) led by Jayprakash Narayan ?
(ix) Why did Dalai Lama seek asylum in India ?
(x) Name any one organisation that campaigned against the evils of the dowry system in the 1970s.
(xi) Define the term appeasement in the context of the causes of the Second World War.
(xii) What was the objective of Operation Overlord launched by the Allied Powers on 6th June, 1944 ?
(xiii) In the context of Mao Tse Tung’s agricultural policy, what is meant by the term Communes ?
(xiv) What is the most important reason for the downfall of Kwame Nkrumah ?
(xv) Mention one example to show that the thaw in the Cold War was partial.
(xvi) Name the first Chancellor of United Germany (1990) since the Second World War.
(xvii) Mention any one important international organisation that condemned Apartheid.
(xviii) What is the full form of :
(a) NOW
(b) ERA
(xix) Name the signatories of the Sykes-Picot Agreement.
(xx) By which treaty (1993) did Israel and the PLO formally and mutually recognize each other ?
Answer:
(i) On 8th August, 1942, All India Congress Committee passed the Quit India Resolution. Mahatma Gandhi then launched the Quit India Movement in Bombay for freedom from British rule and persisted despite arrests and intense repression. Leaders, women and students from all sections of society participated in the movement. This compelled the British officials to start a dialogue with the Indian parties for a possible transfer of power.

(ii) Subhash Chandra Bose won the elections for the President of Indian National Congress (INC) at the Tripuri Session in 1939 by defeating Gandhiji’s candidate Pattabhai Sitara-maiyya. Following this, Gandhiji and other members in his support made it impossible for Subhash Chandra Bose to work efficiently in the committee. Problems began in the formation of the Working Committee. Subhash Chandra Bose had to ultimately resign from the post of Congress President. He thus formed Forward Bloc in May, 1939.

(iii) Potti Sreeramulu undertook an epic fast unto death for a separate Andhra State out of Northern Portion of Madras State.

(iv) Gulzarilal Nanda succeeded Lai Bahadur Shastri as the Acting Prime Minister of India in 1966. His term was however very short and he was succeeded by Indira Gandhi who became the Prime Minister later in the same year.

(v) Two important leaders of the Naxalite Movement in Bengal were Charu Majumdar and Kanu Sanyal.

(vi) The Khalistan Movement wanted to create a separate Sikh country while the Assam Movement was a popular movement against undocumented immigrants in Assam.

(vii) During the Korean War (1950), India backed the US by endorsing the United Nations resolution that condemned North Korea’s attack on South Korea. Jawaharlal Nehru, who coined the term Non-Alignment, believed that Indian freedom struggle was a part of the world wide struggle for freedom and progress.

(viii) Total Revolution movement (Sampoorna Kranti movement) initiated by students in Bihar in 1974 and led by veteran Gandhian socialist, Jayprakash Narayan, was against the misrule and corruption being practised in the Bihar Legislative Assembly.

(ix) China, under the leadership of Mao-Tse Tung was determined to assert her right of suzerainty over Tibet. China overran and occupied Tibet in 1959. The religious leader Dalai Lama and thousands of Tibetan refugees sought asylum in India which was granted to them by Nehruvian government.

(x) An organisation that campaigned against the evils of the dowry system in the 1970s was the Progressive Organization of Women of Hyderabad.

(xi) Appeasement is a “diplomatic policy of making political or material concessions to an enemy power to avoid war”. The Anglo- French appeasement policy was largely repsonsible for the outbreak of the Second World War. Anglo-French failed to intervene during Japan’s attack on China, Italy’s aggression on Abyssinia and Germany’s occupation of Prague. The appeasement policy encouraged Hitler again and again, and jeopardized the balance of power in Europe, which led to the Second World War.

(xii) Operation Overlord or D-Day was launched on 6th June, 1944, when 3 million allied troops from US, Britain and Canada landed on five beacheads of Normandy Beach. The German forces offered strong resistance. The main objective was to liberate northern France from Germany and Brussels and Antwerp in Belgium from the Axis forces.

(xiii) Mao Tse Tung introduced the ‘Communes’ where people ran their own collective farms and performed the function of the local government under an elected Council. In the Commune, each family received a share of profits from the sale of produced.

(xiv) The most important reason for the downfall of Kwame Nkrumah was probably because he began to abandon parliamentary government in favour of a one-party state and personal dictatorship.

(xv) The thaw in the Cold War was partial. This could easily be observed from the policy of Khrushchev. Sometimes, he followed concilatory policy and sometimes a policy that seemed to threaten the Western Bloc. He did not show any interest in reducing Russian control over the satellite states. When the Hungarians revolted in Budapest against the Communist government, the movement was crushed by Russian tanks.

(xvi) Helmut Kohl became the first Chancellor of United Germany since the Second World War.

(xvii) The United Nations organisation (UNO) condemned Apartheid.

(xviii) (a) NOW: National Organisation for Women
(b) ERA : Equal Rights Amendment

(xix) Sykes-Picot Agreement, also known as the Asia Minor Agreement was a secret convention made during the First World War between Great Britain and France, with assent of Russian Empire, for the division of the Ottoman Empire among the Allied Powers.

(xx) The Oslo Accords are a set of agreements between the Government of Israel and the Palestine Liberation Organisation (PLO) through which they formally and mutually recognized each other.

Part—II (60 Marks)

Answer five questions in all, choosing two questions from Section A, two questions from Section B and one question from either Section A or Section B.

Section—A

(a) Outline the main features of Provincial Autonomy under the Government of India Act of 1935. [6]
(b) Critically assess the working of the Congress ministers from 1937 to 1939. [6]
Answer:
(a) The main features of Provincial Autonomy under the Government of India Act of 1935 were:

This Act established a ‘Federation of India’ consisting of British Indian Provinces and Indian states and provided for provincial autonomy with a government responsible to the elected legislature in every province. The ministers would control the departments and would remain responsible to the legislatures.

The Federal structure of the government of India was to comprise the Governor-General and a Council of Ministers. Governors were to be aided and advised by the Council of Ministers.

The Federal Legislature was to be a Bicameral Legislature the Council of States and the House of Assembly. The ministers were to be selected by the Governor-General and they were to hold office during his pleasure. In the Council of States, the representatives of the native states were to be chosen directly by the rulers.

The Department of Foreign Affairs and Defence were reserved exclusively for the Governor-General. The other Federal subjects would be administered by the Governor- General with the assistance and suggestions of a Council of Ministers. Thus, Diarchy was introduced at the Centre.

The voting right was based on property qualifications. Separate electorate and the system of weight age were retained.

(b) The Congress committed to release all the political prisoners. Through the intervention of Gandhiji, 1,100 detenues of Bengal were released. In Uttar Pradesh, many prisoners, including the Kakori prisoners were released.
The Congress also worked for removing restrictions on political exiles but were not successful. The prisoners who were imprisoned by Central Government could not be released from Andaman jails. Suspension order on the political parties and similar organisations were repealed.

The major achievements of the Congress Ministers were 1. Reduction of the salaries of the ministers 2. Welfare scheme for the tribals

Jail reforms and 4. Declaration of fundamental rights. The Congress however formed ministries in different provinces but failed to introduce land reforms. The zamindars and the landowners, especially from interior regions, had influence on the Congress Party. The Congress did not want to lose the support of these zamindars and landowners.

In Uttar Pradesh, most of the talukdars were Muslims. Land reforms might have affected their interests and Congress feared that they would join and support the Muslim League. Congress needed support from all sections, especially the landed aristocracy. Therefore, they did not take much action in Uttar Pradesh.

The Congress ministers could not rule for long and resigned in November 1939 on the war issue. Congress claimed that the Viceroy had involved India in Second World War without consulting the Central Legislature and the Provincial governments.

Question 3.
The first General Election in India (1952) was a landmark event in the history of independent India. Discuss. [12]
Answer:
India’s first General Election of 1952 became a landmark in the history of democracy all over the world. The following were the features of general elections of 1952 :

The elections took place according to the new constitution. The success reflected the faith of the Indian leaders in democracy.

Inspite of having a large illiterate population, Jawaharlal Nehru had granted voting rights to all the adults through Adult Franchise.

Sukumar Sen, the first Election Commi¬ssioner of India, along with 10 lakh government officials managed the entire election process with great care and caution.

14 national parties, 53 regional parties and numerous independent candidates contested for 489 Lok Sabha and 3283 State Assembly seats. 98 Lok Sabha seats and 669 Assembly seats were reserved for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.

Congress won with huge majority with 75% seats in Lok Sabha and 68.5% seats in State Assembly. It had got absolute majority in most states except Madras, Travancore-Cochin, Orissa and PEPSU. It also formed coalition with smaller parties and independent candidates, and formed government in few states. There was no tradition of any leader of opposition then.

The next winning party was the Communist Party of India and its allies. It won 23 seats in the Lok Sabha and 147 seats in the Assembly.

Jan Sangh, Hindu Mahasabha and Ramrajya Parishad won only 10 seats in the Lok Sabha.

Besides the above mentioned parties, former royals and big landlords performed well in certain regions of the country.

In spite of achieving absolute power, the Congress followed democratic norms and encouraged the development of democratic ideas in the nation. The Opposition leaders participated in debates and gave constructive feedback for government policies.

Full freedom was enjoyed by the press, the political parties, trade unions and other organisations. They could voice their opinions.

Several leaders, such as Dr Shyama Prasad Mukherjee, Rammanohar Lohia, J.B. Kriplani, A.K. Gopalan, etc. shared their valuable ideas on the working of the Central Government

Question 4.
(a) Critically review the Assam agitation. [6]
(b) What was the Centre’s response to the Assam agitation? [6]
Answer:
During the Golap Barbara Ministry (March 1978-August 1979), emergence of students .union became prominent. All Assam-fStudents’ Union or AASU was the strongest organisation and their main demand was deportation of foreigners from Assam.

AASU spearheaded the movement against undocumented immigrants in Assam. When Hiralal Patwari died in 1978 and a by-election was required in Mangaldoi Lok Sabha Constituency to fill his seat, it was realised that there was a substantial increase in number of registered voters.

AASU wanted the names of foreign nationals to be identified and deleted from electoral rolls. Therefore, they demanded for the elections to be postponed. This initiated Assam Agitation or the Assam Movement (1979-1985).

The AASU and All Assam Gana Sangram Parishad (AAGSP) developed a strategy of protests and demonstrations to force the government to identify and deport the illegal immigrants.

The two groups together on 27 November 1979, called for the closure of all educational institutes, and picketing began in state and central government offices. Filing of nomination papers for the elections was stopped in the Brahmaputra Valley. A statewide bandh was declared on the last date of filing the nomination papers.

Though the agitation was mostly peaceful and non-violent, there was a massacre in Nellie and it turned violent.

The government introduced curfew in many parts of the state, including Guwahati. As a result, Illegal Immigrants Act was passed in October 1983.

(b) With the situation turning violent day by day the Parliament had to take some stringent measures.

The Parliament passed the Illegal Immigrants (Determination by Tribunals) Act (IM-DT) in October 1983 and put it into effect in Assam.

There were negotiations between the government and AASU-AAGSPO during the later parts of 1984 and early 1985. Official talks began in May 1985′, where the Home Secretary led the central government team. Several rounds of talks were held in various months.

In the beginning, the Assam coalition government wanted the immigrants from the 1961-71 war to be removed to other parts of the country. However, by August 1985, it was decided that all the illegal immigrants who had entered Assam till January 1966 were to be identified, deported and defranchised for 10 years.

This agitation finally came to an end in August, 1985 with ‘Assam Accord’, which was signed by the leaders of AASU-AAGSP and the Government of India in the presence of the Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi.

Question 5.
(a) Give an account of the main features of the course of the JP Movement which led to the declaration of Emergency on 25th June, 1975. [6]
(b) What were the main features of the Emergency declared on 25th June, 1975 ? [6]
Answer:
(a) A movement was started by the students of Bihar in 1974 under the Veteran Gandhian socialist Jayprakash Narayan, popularly known as JP, against misrule and corruption practised by the Bihar Government.

Several Students’ political groups, such as Akhil Bharatiya Vidyarthi Parishad (ABVP) Samajwadi Yuvajan Sabha (SYS), and All India Student Federation (AISF) joined various political parties to participate in the movement.

Eight young students were killed in Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh in police firing as a means of protest against participation in JP movement. Bihar Chhatra Sangharsh Samiti (BCSS) was formed to spearhead the agitation. Their demand was related to education and food in hostels.

During the course of the movement, BCSS tried to gherao Bihar Legislative Assembly, blocked roads to the Assembly, damaged government buildings including the Telephone Exchange and set the residence of former Education Minister on fire. Protests continued at colleges and universities. Three students died in police firing. JP agreed to lead the movement when BCSS approached him. A state wide strike was declared on 23 March.

Indira Gandhi attacked JP on 1 April, 1974 for demanding to outcast the elected government. 12 students died in police firing in Gaya while trying to paralyze the government programme. The students and people organisations kept persuading for dissolution of the Bihar Assembly but failed.

JP turned the movement into Sampurna Kranti Movement. Exams were boycotted, several MLAs resigned, and appeal was made to the people to outcast Congress government of Indira Gandhi. Indira Gandhi decided to drag this to election arena. JP realized this and encouraged and appealed to opposition parties, following which the Janata Party was formed. He started traveling all over the country encouraging people to join the opposition and defeat the Congress Party.

When Indira Gandhi was removed from the Parliament seat on the grounds of electoral malpractice, she approached the Supreme Court. She imposed a nationwide Emergency on the night of 25 June 1975, when JP opposed her move and asked her to resign.

(b) The main features of the Emergency declared on 25th June, 1975 are as follows :

Indira Gandhi imposed Emergency on 25th June, 1975 to safeguard her own position.

JP and many opposition leaders, such as Kriplani, Morarji Desai, Atal Bihari Vajpayee, Lai Krishna Advani were arrested. Members in her own party who opposed her were also arrested. Opposition party organisations, such as Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangha (RSS) and the Communist Party of India (Marxist) were banned and leaders were

arrested. JP was detained at Chandigarh. In Tamil Nadu, M.K. Karunanidhi government was dissolved and his son M.K.

Stalin was arrested under Maintenance of Internal Security Act.

Only Communist Party of India (CPI) supported the Emergency.

Press was censored. Several other atrocities, such as forced mass-sterlisation was carried out by Sanjay Gandhi, Indira Gandhi’s son. The administration’ used police forces across the country to detain large mass of protestors and demonstrators

People were detained by police without charge or notification of families. According to Amnesty International, 1,40,000 people had been arrested without trial during twenty months of Indira Gandhi’s Emergency. Detainees and political prisoners were abused and tortured. Public and private media institutions were used for government propaganda.

Question 6.
(a) Trace the circumstances that led to the outbreak of the Indo-China war in 1962. [6]
(b) What were the consequences of this war? [6]
Answer:
(a) India and Tibet had very good relations since the ancient times when Buddhism started to spread to Tibet, during British period. The government found it difficult to establish and maintain trade relations. With Tibet. Finally Colonel Younghusband, was able to start the trade relation with Tibet. Tibet agreed to open three trade marts to the British.

China had established herself as a powerful Communist state. Under the leadership of Mao- Tse Tung, she asserted her suzerainty over Tibet and occupied it in 1959.

While Nehru’s government remained only a passive spectator, it supported Dalai Lama and the thousands of Tibetans who entered India as refugees. This act was not taken positively by China and it aggravated her into making strategic attack plans against India.

China forcibly occupied the Indian territories of Long in the North Eastern Frontier and Ladakh in the Himalayan region in 1959. Without any warning or any intimation, China made an aggressive attack on the Northern and Eastern frontiers of India in 1962.

The main cause of this war was the conflict over the sovereignty of the widely separated Aksai Chin and Arunachal Pradesh border regions. While India claimed Aksai Chin as part of Jammu and Kashmir, China demanded it as part of their Xinjiang province. Aksai Chin had an important road that connected the Chinese regions of Tibet and Xinjiang and its construction was one of the major causes of conflict.

(b) Consequences of Indo-China war in 1962 were as follows :

China was able to retain de facto control of Aksai Chin. India abandoned the Forward Policy and the de facto borders along the Line of Actual Control. This gave China sole control on its western sector.

Drastic changes took place in the military system. Defense Minister Krishna Menon resigned for he was blamed for the unpreparedness of the army. Sweeping changes were made in Indian Military system to prepare it for similar conflicts in future. The main aim was to modernize the Indian military system and be prepared for the future.

Soon after the war, the Government of India passed the Defense of India Act in December 1962, which allowed arresting any person with a Chinese surname, drop of Chinese blood or a Chinese spouse. Thousands of Chinese-Indians were therefore deported or forced to leave India.

Section—B
Answer any two questions.

Question 7.
(a) State the aims of Hitler’s foreign policy and his plans to fulfil those aims. [6]
(b) Give an account of the Anschluss with Austria with reference to Hitler’s aggressive policy. [6]
Answer:
(a) Hitler wanted to make Germany into a great power. He aimed to achieve this by :

destroying the hated Versailles settlement;

building up a strong army;

reclaiming lost territories such as the Saar and the Polish Corridor; and

bringing together all the Germans inside the Reich, which would involve annexing Austria, and capturing territories from Czechoslovakia and Poland, both of which had large German minorities because of the peace settlement.

Some historians however believed that Hitler aimed to achieve more than this. It was his.aim to take over entire Poland and Czechoslovakia and then occupy Russia, as far east as the Ural Mountains. This was supposed to help Hitler to achieve Lebensraum to provide food for the German people, and area for the German supposed to people to settle down. This was also destroy communism.

(b) Hitler suffered a setback in July 1934 when his ambition of an Anschluss (union) between Germany and Austria met with constraints.

The Austrian Nazis were encouraged by Hitler to revolt and murder the Chancellor, Engelbert Dollfuss, who had been supported by Mussolini.

When Mussolini advanced his troops to the Austrian frontiers and warned the Germans off, the revolt subsided. Hitler realised that Germany was not strong enough to force the concern.

Hitler also denied responsibility for the actions of the Austrian Nazis’.

When Hitler saw that his intervention in Spain had not been resisted by the powers, he came forward to fulfill his plan of uniting of Austria with Germany. Thus Nazi agitation was encouraged within Austria and the Austrian Chancellor was compelled to agree to conduct foreign affairs at Germany’s direction and also to appoint a Nazi minister. .

Finally on 14 March, 1938, Hitler poured troops into Austria and incorporated Austria within German Empire. In this way ‘Anschluss’ was complete. The annexation of Austria was a prelude to the annexation of Czechoslovakia in near future.

Question 8.
In the context of the rapid growth of African nationalism and decolonization in Africa, discuss :
(a) Kenya’s struggle for freedom under the leadership ofJomo Kenyatta. [6]
(b) The initial achievements of Kwame Nkrumah in the field of internal and external affairs of Ghana. [6]
Answer:
(a) Kenya, in Africa, was a British colony from 1920 to 1963.

In 1947, Jomo Kenyatta was elected the President of the Kenya African Union.

Kenyatta was arrested and imprisoned on charges of anti-colonial movement during the Mau Mau uprising. Emergency was declared on 2 October, 1952. When emergency was lifted in January 1960, there was public demand for his release. He was released in August 1961.

The number of white settlers in Kenya was huge. They resented the black majority rule and

refused to negotiate with Kenyatta and his Kenya African Unity Party (KAU). Kenya was a difficult area to negotiate with for freedom.

The white settlers turned aggressive thinking that the struggle of African Party would weaken. The British government was in great pressure from both the sides as these white settlers were backed by few big business houses of Britain.

KAU was not able to make much progress because only six Africans were allowed to join the Legislative Council of fifty-four members.

The agitated and irritated Kenyan people started terrorist attacks on European-owned farms. These attacks were organised by the Mau Mau secret society. Their members were mainly from the Kikuyu tribes, who lost their best lands to the white settlers. The British authority deployed huge forces to suppress the terrorists and arrested and imprisoned the national leaders and Kenyatta. Over the next eight years, approximately ten thousand Africans were killed and number of people in jail. It was no better than a concentration camp.

The terrorists were defeated by 1960 but the Britishers were able to analyse the expense of this entire anti-terrorist campaing by themselves. Kenya became independent in 1963 and Kenyatta was made the Prime Minister of Kenya. Once in power, he gradually changed from radical nationalist to a conservative bourgeois politician.

(b) Kwame Nkrumah was the first Prime Minister of Ghana and ruled from 1957 till his removal by the army in 1966.

  1. Nkrumah was the first person to organise the workers and peasants in a mass movement for independence.
  2. He had a socialist outlook and wanted better living conditions for his people and industrialization.
  3. Under his struggle and efforts, Ghana became a Commonwealth country.
  4. He tried to establish a welfare state.
  5. Cocoa was Ghana’s mainly exported product and its production doubled under his reign. Forestry, fishing and cattle-breeding expanded. It had modest deposits of gold and bauxite, which were effectively exploited. Dam was built across Volta River to arrest water for irrigation and hydro-electric power.
  6. Village people built roads and schools from the Government funds received for village projects.
  7. Nkrumah also was known internationally for his movement for the Africans across the globe. He supported the Organization of African Unity, set up in 1963, maintaining ties with Russia and China, and “keeping Ghana under Commonwealth group of nations.

Question 9.
With reference to break-up of the USSR, answer the following questions :
(a) To what extent was the failure of Mikhail Gorbachev’s economic reforms responsible for the end of the Soviet Union ? [6]
(b) Briefly discuss the coup of August 1991. [6]
Answer:
(a) Though Mikhail Gorbachev’s economic policy was positive in all aspects, it failed to bring about changes in the society. The stagnant economic growth in 1988 and 1989 and the previous years disillusioned the people. The national income fell in 1990 and continued to fall by about 15% in 1991.

The major cause of crisis is said to be the Law on State Enterprises. The wages were dependent on output, and as output was measured by its value in roubles, the factories were not interested in increasing overall output. It concentrated on production of more expensive goods and reduced output of cheaper goods.

This increased the wages and government was forced to print more money. This led to inflation and deficit in government budget. Production of essentials goods reduced, were in short supply and the queues in the towns for it was endless.The workers in the biggest coal mining area in the USSR went on strike as they did not even have soaps to wash themselves. They were disciplined and well-organised, and put forward their demands, which included better living and working conditions, proper and adequate supply of food, share in profits, and more local control over the mines.

The government considered many of their demands and made a promise to reorganise the industrial sector.

However, the economic situation was so grave that by early 1990, about a quarter of the population was living below the poverty line. The large families, the unemployed and the pensioners were worst affected.Economic crisis was one of the major reasons for the break down of Soviet Union.

(b) With the poor economic conditions of USSR and resentment of the people for the poor living and working conditions,

the political scenario of the nation turned troublesome.

Gorbachev lost control and many of the republics started demanding independence. Massive demonstrations were held. He held a conference with the leaders of fifteen republics and encouraged them to form a new voluntary union in which they would be independent of Moscow at large.

Gorbachev was under house arrest by the Conservative section led by Gorbachev’s Vice President Gennady Yanayev. This was the coup of August 1991. After the coup, Gorbachev dissolved the Communist Party and resigned from his post. Boris Yeltsin became the new General Secretary.

On 8 December, 1991, Yeltsin met the leaders of other republics and related the dissolution of USSR and decided to form Commonwealth of Independent States (CIS) of fifteen republics.

Question 10.
Give an account of the Anti-Apartheid Movement in South Africa and its transition to black majority rule. [12]
Answer:

In the Union of South Africa, the white people dominated the political and economic life of the country. The Natives or the black people were discriminated and not allowed to vote. They had to live in a reserved area and could not hold skilled jobs or hold a strike. Their movements were controlled by a system of Pass Laws by the government.

Apartheid was introduced by Dr. Malan as the whites were against racial equality. Thewhites considered themselves the master race and the non-whites primitive and inferior .

Apartheid mean complete separation both socially and politically. There were separate buses, coaches, trains, cafes, toilets, parks, benches, hospitals, beaches, church, etc. Black children had to attend separate schools and were given much inferior education.

The blacks had no representation in the parliament, had to carry documents all the time so that their movement could be checked, and marriage between whites and non-whites was forbidden.

Nelson Mandela was a South African who was imprisoned for 25 years for revolting against-apartheid movement.

The African National Congress (ANC) had a difficult time fighting against discrimination. Anyone who voiced against this policy was labeled a communist and punished. Albert Luthuli, an ANC leader started protest movements and there began a systematic breach of laws. The Africans stopped working on certain days, entered shops and other places reserved for whites. Luthuli was jailed and 8000 blacks were arrested.

ANC formed a coalition with Asian and Coloured Groups in 1955 and formed the Freedom Charter at Kliptown near Johannesburg. This charter became the main ANC programme.

All the programmes and protests like boycott was met with strict punishments and police firing. Thousands of innocent blacks were killed.

Anti-Apartheid Movement (AAM) continued outside the country too. It scored its major victory when South Africa was forced to leave Commonwealth in 1961. The UN and OAU condemned apartheid. The UN in 1962 passed a resolution for all members to have a trade boycott against South Africa. However, most nations did not follow the same in reality and it was not successful.

South Africa was suspended from the 1964 Tokyo Olympics for racism. AAM was instrumental in introducing academic boycott of South Africa. It was signed by 496 university professors and lecturers.

Some changes were introduced in Apartheid when P.W. Botha became the Prime Minister in 1979. Though he was not willing to consider ANC’s major demands, he allowed the blacks to joint trade unions, go on strikes, marriages between whites and non-whites could were allowed. The non-whites elect their own local township councils, form a new consitution with one house for Coloured and one for Asians in the Parliament; and Pass Law was abolished.

In 1990, Nelson Mandela was released from prison after 25 long years and became the leader of the ANC. Discussions began in 1991 between the government and ANC to work out a new constitution for full political rights to the blacks.

With these discussions, a transition began to pass on the rule to the black majority. A general election was held and Nelson Mandela became the first Black President and F.W. De Klerk, the Deputy President of South Africa. Africa was able to transform the Apartheid rule to a black majority rule without a civil war because of the two wonderful personalities.

Question 11.
In the context of the Arab-Israeli conflict in the Middle East, discuss the following:
(a) The role of Anwar Sadat in the signing of the Camp David Acccord (1979). [6]
(b) The circumstances that led to the Oslo Peace Accords (1993), its terms and impact. [6]
Answer 11.
(a) After the Yom Kippur War of 1973, the Egyptian President Anwar Sadat realised the power of Israel and was convinced that they could not be destroyed by force. He understood that negotiations and peace settlement with Israel were necessary.

He wanted to win back the Support of America for the Arabs. It was America who could talk and convince Israel to make peace with Arabs.

He was the first Arab to meet the Israelis face to face for a peace talk. It took him immense courage to do so as he knew that such PLO and the other aggressive Arab states, Iraq and Syria would be against him for taking such a step. However, he took the bold step to meet them at Knesset, the Israeli Parliament.

The Israelis were suffering from economic problems due to their immense defence expenditures and partly because of world recession. The Arabs also were facing similar problems. America was pressurising Israel to settle disputes with some Arab states.

When Sadat offered to visit Israel, they accepted. Sadat visited Israel in November 1977, and the Israeli Prime Minister, Menahem Begin visited Egypt the following month.

US President, Jimmy Carter took the initiative for a formal negotiation between the two countries at a place called Camp David near Washington. The treaty was signed in March 1979 following ten days of secret negotiations.

(b) Camp David Accord (1979) was condemned by PLO and most of the Arab states except Sudan and Morocco.

President Sadat was assassinated by some extremist Muslim soldiers. They believed the Arabs had been betrayed by him by signing the Camp David Accord with Israel and trying to make peace with them. However, Sadat’s successor Hosni Mubarak also decided to continue with the Camp David Accord.

Iraq-Iran war occupied the Arabs for few years and Arab-Israeli feud got overshadowed.

Tensions arose one again when there was massive demonstration by the Palestinians who lived as refugees along Gaza Strip and the West Bank. They protested against repressive Israeli rules and policies and the brutal behaviour of the Israeli army in the refugee camps in the occupied territories. Israelis tried to clamp down the unrest with tough measures but it earned them condemnation from the UN and rest of the world.

America kept pressuring both the nations to settle for peace. Situations changed after
election in Israel in June 1992. Yitzhak Rabin, the new Prime Minister of Israel and PLO leader Yasser Arafat both agreed for lasting peace.

This led to the Oslo Peace Accord of September 1993. The main terms of this treaty were: –

  • Israel formally recognized PLO.
  • PLO recognized Israel and committed , to give up terrorism.
  • The Palestinians were to be given limited self-rule in Jericcho, on the West Bank and in part of the Gaza Strip, areas that were occupied by Israel since the 1967 war. Israeli troops would be withdrawn from these areas. The areas would be ruled by a Parliament or Palestinian Council of 88 members that were to be elected in 1966 by all West Bankers and Arab residents of Jerusalem aged over 18.
  • Around 6000 Palestinian prisoners held by Israel were to be released in three phases.

The leaders of different countries welcomed this bold attempt and hoped that it would bring peace.

There were many extremists of both sides, who were ashamed of this treaty and claimed that the leaders were guilty of this surrender. Yitzak Rabin, the Prime Minister of Israel was assassinated by a right wing extremist.

King Hussein of Jordan made an official visit to Israel for the first time, 1200 Palestinian prisoners were released, and talks went on between Syria and Israel.

Elections were held as promised. Yasser Arafat became the Palestinian President with huge majority.
However, tensions continue between the Arab states and Israel and there are often bomb shelling and attacks.

ISC Class 12 History Previous Year Question Papers

ISC Physics Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12

ISC Physics Previous Year Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12

Maximum Marks: 70
Time allowed: 3 hours

  • Candidates are allowed additional 15 minutes for only reading the paper. They must NOT start writing during this time
  • Answer all questions in Part I and six questions from Part II, choosing two questions from each of the Sections A,B and C.
  • All working including rough work, should be done on the same sheet as, and adjacent to, the rest of the answer.
  • The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].
  • Material to be supplied: Log tables including Trigonometric functions
  • A list of useful physical constants is given at the end of this paper.

Part-I
(Answer all questions)

Question 1.
A. Choose the correct alternative A, B, C or D for each of the questions given below : [5]
(i) Electric field intensity ‘E’ at a point P (Figure 1) at a perpendicular distance ‘r’ from an infinitely long line charge X’X having linear charge density λ is given by :
(A) \(E=\left(\frac{1}{4 \pi \mathcal{E}_{0}}\right) \frac{2 \lambda}{r^{2}}\)
(B) \(E=\left(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}}\right) \frac{2 \lambda}{r}\)
(C) \(\mathrm{E}=\left(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}}\right) \frac{\lambda}{r^{2}}\)
(D) \(E=\left(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}}\right) \frac{\lambda}{r}\)
ISC Physics Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12 1
(ii) A moving coil galvanometer can be converted into a voltmeter by connecting
(A) a low resistance in series with its coil.
(B) a low resistance in parallel with its coil.
(C) a high resistance in parallel with its coil.
(D) a high resistance is series with its coil.

(iii) The loss of power in a transformer can be reduced by :
(A) increasing the number of turns in primary.
(B) increasing ac voltage applied to primary.
(C) using a solid core made of steel.
(D) using a laminated core of soft iron

(iv) Which equation represents the emission of a beta particle by a radioactive nucleus :
(A) \(_{0}^{1} n \rightarrow_{1}^{1} \mathrm{H}+_{-1}^{0} e+\overline{v}\)
(B) \(\gamma \rightarrow_{1}^{0} e+_{-1}^{0} e\)
(C) \(4 \frac{1}{1} \mathrm{H} \rightarrow_{2}^{4} \mathrm{H} e+2_{1}^{0} e\)
(D) \(_{2}^{4} \mathrm{He}+_{7}^{14} \mathrm{N} \rightarrow_{8}^{17} \mathrm{O}+_{1}^{1} \mathrm{H}\)

(v) An important component of Michelson’s method to determine speed of light is :
(A) a NICOL prism.
(B) a bi prism.
(C) a grating.
(D) an octagonal mirror.

B. Answer all questions briefly and to the point: [15]
(i) In an electric dipole, what is the locus of a point of zero potential ?
(ii) What is the resistance of a carbon resistor whose coloured bands are shown in Figure 2.
ISC Physics Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12 2
(iii) A part of an electric circuit is shown below (Figure 3):
ISC Physics Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12 3
Using Kirchhoff’s 2nd Law, find the current I flowing through the 4 Ω resistor.

(iv) Figure 4 below shows a graph of emf ‘e’ generated by an ac generator versus time ‘t’.
ISC Physics Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12 4
What is’the frequency of the emf ?

(v) Arrange the three types of magnetic materials, i.e. para magnetic, diamagnetic and ferromagnetic materials, in decreasing order of their magnetic susceptibility.

(vi) Which electromagnetic wave is longer than X ray but shorter than light wave ?

(vii) Calculate the critical angle for glass and water pair. (The refractive index for glass is 1.50 and the refractive index for water is 1.33).

(viii) Name an optical device, which, when used with a spectrometer, can determine the wavelength of the given monochromatic light.

(ix) Young’s double slit experiment was performed with monochromatic light of blue color. The experiment was then repeated, first with light of red color and then, with light of yellow color. Which color produces interference pattern with maximum fringe separation (i.e. fringe width) ?

(x) Calculate dispersive power of glass, accurately upto three decimal places, from the following data:
Refractive index of glass for red colour = 1.60
Refractive index of glass for yellow colour =1.61
Refractive index of glass for violet colour = 1.62

(xi) De Broglie wavelength of electrons of kinetic energy E is λ. What will be its value of kinetic energy of electrons is made 4E ?

(xii) How much energy will be created if 1 g of matter is destroyed completely ?

(xiii) Complete the following nuclear reaction:
\(\frac{1}{0} n+_{6}^{12} \mathrm{C} \rightarrow_{5}^{-12} \mathrm{B}+\ldots .\)

(xiv) State one important use of a Zener diode.

(xv) Draw a labelled graph of voltage versus time for a signal voltage used in digital circuits.
Answer:
A. (i) The correct choice is B i.e. \(E=\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{2 \lambda}{r}\)

(ii) D, i.e. a high resistance in series with the coil.

(iii) D, by using a laminated iron core.

(iv) The correct choice is A.

(v) D, an octagonal mirror.

B. (i) A straight line passing through the center of the dipole and perpendicular to its axis.

(ii) 24 x 10° = 24 Ω (according to color code)

(iii) Since, there is no battery in the closed mesh
ABC, therefore Σir = 0
∴ Applying second law to the mesh ABCA, we get
\(\begin{aligned} 3 \times 2+\mathrm{I} \times 4-6 \times 2 &=0 \\ 4 \mathrm{I} &=6 \\ \mathrm{I} &=\frac{6}{4}=1.5 \mathrm{A} \end{aligned}\)

(iv) If study the (e. t) curve it is quite evident that to produce one cycle of a.c., the time taken is 0.10 s
∴ T = 0.1 s
∴ Frequency v = 1/T = 1/0.1 = 10 Hz

(v) Ferromagnet, paramagnetic and diamagnetic.

(vi) Ultraviolet rays

(vii) Given here is 1.5
ISC Physics Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12 5
(viii) Diffraction grating.

(ix) Since the fringe width is directly proportional to the wavelength of light, the fringe width will be maximum with red light.
ISC Physics Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12 6
(xii) According to Einstein relation

(xiii) The completed nuclear reaction is \(\frac{1}{0} n+_{6}^{12} \mathbf{C} \rightarrow_{5}^{11} \mathbf{B}+_{1}^{2} \mathbf{H}\)

(xv)
ISC Physics Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12 7

Part- II
(Answer six questions in this part, choosing two questions from each of the Sections A, B and C)

Section-A
(Answer any two questions)

Question 2.
(a) An isolated 16 μF parallel plate air capacitor has a potential difference of 1000 V (Figure 5a). A dielectric slab having relative permittivity (i.e. dielectric constant) = 5 is introduced to fill the space between the two plates completely (Figure 5 b). Calculate : [2]
(i) the new capacitance of the capacitor.
(ii) the new potential difference between the two plates of the capacitor.
ISC Physics Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12 8
(b) An electron revolves around the nucleus of hydrogen atom in a circular orbit of radius 5 x 10-11 m. Calculate: [4]
(i) intensity of electric field of the nucleus at the position of the electron.
(ii) electrostatic potential energy of the hydrogen nucleus and electron system

(c) (i) What is Peltier effect ? State one difference between Peltier effect and Seebeck effect. [3]
(ii) Explain the statement: ‘Temperature coefficient of resistance of a metal is 4 x 10-3 /°C.
Answer.
(a) Here C0 = 16μF, K = 5
(i) When the dielectric of dielectric constant K is introduced between the plates of the capacitor, the capacity increases K times, new capacity = KC0 = 5 × 16 = 80μF,
v0=1ooov
(ii) The new potential difference V is given by
\(\mathrm{V}=\frac{\mathrm{V}_{0}}{\mathrm{K}}=\frac{1000}{5}=200 \mathrm{V}\)

(i) \(\text { Here } r=5 \times 10^{-11} \mathrm{m},+\mathrm{e}=1.6 \times 10^{-19} \mathrm{C}\)
Electric intensity at the position of the electron
ISC Physics Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12 9
ISC Physics Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12 10
(ii) Electrostatic potential energy
ISC Physics Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12 11
(c) (i) It is the phenomenon of evolution or absorption of heat at the two functions of a thermo couple when a current is passed through it from an external source. In Peltier effect electrical energy is being converted into heat where as in Seebeck effect, heat is converted into electrical energy.
(ii) It means that the resistance of a metal of resistance IΩ increases by 4 x 10-3 ohm for every one degree centigrade rise of temperature.

Question 3.
(a) In the circuit shown (Figure 6), PQ is a uniform metallic wire of length 4 m and resistance 20 Ω. Battery B has an emf of 10V and internal resistance of 1 Ω. J is a jockey or slide contact. Resistance of the ammeter A and connecting wires is negligible.
(i) When the jockey J does not touch the wire PQ, what is the reading of ammeter A ?
(ii) Where should the jockey J be pressed on the wire PQ so that the galvanometer G shows no deflection ?
ISC Physics Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12 12
(b) What is ‘current density’ ? Write the vector equation connecting current density J with electric field intensity E, for an ohmic conductor. [2]

(c) A small magnetic needle NS having magnetic dipole moment \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{P}}_{m}\) is kept in two uniform and perpendicular magnetic fields \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}_{f}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}_{H}\) as shown below (Figure 7):
(i) What is the effect of each of the magnetic fields \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}_{f}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}_{H}\) on the needle ?
(ii) When the needle is in equilibrium, obtain an expression for angle θ made by the needle with \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}_{H}\) in terms of \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}_{f}\)and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}_{H}\) only.
ISC Physics Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12 13
Answer:
ISC Physics Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12 14
(b) Current density at a point is defined as the current passing through a unit area which is held perpendicular to the direction of current. If a current I flows through an area S, then current
ISC Physics Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12 15
(c) (i) We know that whenever a magnetic needle is placed in a uniform magnetic field it experience a torque, which tries to set the dipole in the direction of the magnetic field. This torque is given by MB sinθ, where M is the magnetic dipole moment and θ the angle between M and B. Here there, are two fields, therefore the magnetic needle experiences two torques
1. MBH sin θ due to the field BH and
2. MBF sin (90° – θ) = MBH cosθ due to the magnetic field BF trying to set the dipole in the direction of BF.
(ii) The magnetic needle will point neither in the direction of BH, nor in the direction of BF. It will come to equilibrium in a position making an angle θ with the direction of BH such that the two torques are equal and opposite i.e. when.
ISC Physics Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12 16
Question 4.
(a) Figure 8 shows two very long conductors PQ and RS kept parallel to each other in vacuum at a distance of 20 cm. They carry currents of 5 A and 15 A, respectively, in the same direction, as shown. Find the resultant magnetic flux density BR at a point M which lies exactly midway between PQ and RS. [3]
ISC Physics Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12 17
(b) With the help of a neatly drawn labelled diagram, prove that the magnitude of motional emf ‘e’ is given by e = Blv, where l is the length of a metallic rod and ‘v’ is the velocity’ with which it is pulled in a transverse magnetic field ‘B; [3]

(c) Plot a labelled graph showing variation in impedance Z of a series LCR circuit with frequency f of alternating emf applied to it. What is the minimum value of this impedance ? [3]
Answer:
ISC Physics Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12 18
ISC Physics Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12 19
ISC Physics Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12 20
(b) When the conductor PQ is moved with a velocity v in the direction perpendicular to both its length and magnetic field, these takes place a change of magnetic flux and hence an induced emf is produced. Let the conductor PQ be moved through a small distance dx in a small time dt.
Then change in magnetic flux dB is given by
ISC Physics Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12 21
ISC Physics Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12 22
ISC Physics Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12 23
ISC Physics Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12 24

Section-B
(Answer,any two questions)

Question 5.
(a) On the basis of Huygens’s wave theory, show that when light is incident on a plane mirror obliquely, angle of reflection is equal to angle of incidence. [3]

(b) (i) What is a continuous emission spectrum ? Name one source of light which produces such a spectrum.
(ii) Explain in brief why dark lines are observed in the solar spectrum. [3]

(c) An equiconvex lens of glass, having focal length of 10 cm is split into two identical plano-convex lenses each having focal length f1 as shown below (figure 9): [3]
ISC Physics Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12 25
Answer.
(a) In the fig. is shown a wave front AB on a reflection surface. According to Huygens’s wave theory every point on the wave front is a source of secondary wavelets which travel in all directions with the velocity of light in the medium. The forward, locus of the secondary wavelets gives us the position of the reflected wave front. In the fig, the wavelets from B strike XY at A’ such that BA’ = c × t. With A as center and radius ct, draw an arc AB’ = ct. From A, draw a tangent to this arc to meet it at B’. Then A’B’ is the reflected wave front. Produce the ray forwards to meet XY at P. From P, draw PD’ and PN ⊥ B’A’ and BA’ respectively. Then A’B’ will be a true reflected wave front of
ISC Physics Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12 26
ISC Physics Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12 27
(b) (i) Continuous emission spectra : This spectrum is emitted by incandescent solids or by dense luminous gases heated to a high temperature. It consists of a number of continuous, unbroken bands of colors ranging from red to violet. There is no discontinuity or gap. It consists of all the wavelengths from one end to the other end. The intensity of a band is maximum at one end and then goes on decreasing. Since there is no demarcation between different colors it is called a continuous spectrum.
(ii) The interior of the sun is at a very high temperature of the order of 1070C and emits a continuous spectrum. In the chromosphere certain elements are present. These elements, in accordance with Kirchhoff’s law absorb those very radiations which they are capable of emitting when they are heated. Corresponding to these elements dark lines appear in the solar spectrum. Thus dark line helps us to identify the element present in the chromosphere.

(c) According to lens maker’s formula
ISC Physics Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12 28
ISC Physics Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12 29
Question 6. .
(a) An illuminated point object O is kept 20 cm from a thin convex lens L1 of focal length 15 cm as shown below. A thin diverging lens L2 of focal length 25 cm is kept co-axial with the first lens and 3 5 cm from it, as shown in Figure 10.
ISC Physics Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12 30
Find the position of the final image formed by this combination of lenses. [4]

(b) (i) What are coherent sources ? [2]
(ii) In Young’s double slit experiment, what is the path difference between the two light waves forming 5th bright band (fringe) on the screen ?

(c) State one similarity and one difference between interference of light and diffraction of light. [2]
Answer:
ISC Physics Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12 31
ISC Physics Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12 32
ISC Physics Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12 33
(b) (i) Coherent sources are sources which emit light of the same frequency, wavelength, amplitude and of the same phase or a constant phase difference. These sources are usually derived from the same source.
(ii) For bright fringes we know that
p =nλ = 5λ

(c) in both the interference and diffraction, alternate dark and bright regions are formed due to the superposition of waves. In interference, two coherent sources are required. Diffraction is interference between the light waves starting from the two halves of a single wave front.

Question 7.
(a) A ray EF of monochromatic light is incident on the refracting surface AB of a regular glass prism (refractive index = 1.5) at an angle of incidence of i = 55° (Figure 11). If it emerges through the adjacent face AC, calculate the angle of emergence ‘e’. [3]

(b) (i) In case of polarized light, what is meant by the ‘plane of polarization’ ? [2]
(ii) Find refractive index of glass if its polarizing angle is 60°.

(c) (i) Explain the statement: “Angular magnification of a compound microscope in normal use is 30.” [3]
(ii) State how the resolving power of an astronomical telescope can be increased.
Answer:
ISC Physics Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12 34
ISC Physics Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12 35
(b) (i) Plane of polarization is the plane in which no vibration of the electric vector exist. It is perpendicular to the plane of vibration.
(ii) Here, ip=60°
we know that μ = tan ip = tan 60°= 1.732

(c) (i) When we say that angular magnification of a compound microscope is 30, it implies that the size of the final image as seen through the microscope is 30 times the size of the object when both are situated at the least distance of distinct vision.
(ii) The resolving power of a microscope can be increased by :

  1. Increasing the aperture of the objective.
  2. Decreasing the wavelength of light.

Section-C
(Answer any two questions)

Question 8.
(a) In Millikan’s oil drop experiment, the two plates are 2 cm apart. When a potential difference of 2355 V is applied between them, an oil drop of radius 1 pm is found to remain suspended. Calculate the number of excess electrons on the drop. [3]
[Density of oil = 900 kg / m3 Density of air may be ignored]

(b) Figure 12 below shows a simple X ray tube. P1 and P2 are power supplies which generate 6V and 40,000 V respectively. Show how you will connect these power supplies to the X ray tube so that is starts producing X rays. [2]
ISC Physics Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12 36
(c) (i) Write a balanced equation showing nuclear fission of Uranium \(\left(\begin{array}{cc}{235} & {\mathrm{U}} \\ {92}\end{array}\right)\)nucleus.
(ii) In a nuclear reactor, what is the function of:

  1. Cadmium rods?
  2. Graphite rods ?

Answer:
ISC Physics Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12 37
(b) The necessary connections are as shown :
ISC Physics Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12 38
(c) (i) The required balanced equation in given below :
\(_{92}^{235} \mathrm{U}+_{0}^{1} n \rightarrow_{56}^{141} \mathrm{Ba}+_{36}^{92} \mathrm{Kr}+3_{0}^{1} n+\mathrm{Q}\)
(ii) 1. The function of the cadmium rods is to control the speed of the reaction. Cadmium is a good absorber of neutrons.
2. Graphite rods : The main function of the graphite rod is to slow down the neutrons. The fission of uranium takes place with slow neutrons. The neutrons produced in fission have high kinetic energy and hence have to be slowed down.

Question 9.
(a) Starting with \(N=N_{0} \mathrm{e}^{-\lambda t}\) obtain a relation between disintegration constant ‘λ’ of a radioactive element and its half life (T). Various terms have their usual meaning. [2]

(b) On an energy level diagram of hydrogen, show by a downward or an upward arrow, a transition which results in : [3]
(i) emission line of Bahner series.
(ii) emission fine of Lyman series
(iii) absorption line of Lyman series. [3]

(c) Calculate:
(i) mass defect of Helium \(\left(\begin{array}{l}{4} \\ {2}\end{array} \mathbf{H} \mathbf{e}\right)\) nucleus and
(ii) its binding energy in MeV.
Mass of a proton = 1.007276 u
Mass of a neutron = 1.008665 u
Mass of \(\left(\begin{array}{l}{4} \\ {2}\end{array} \mathbf{H} \mathbf{e}\right)\) He nucleus = 4.001506 u
Answer:
ISC Physics Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12 39
(b) The required transition are as shown in the fig.
(i) Balmer series is emitted when transition take place  from higher level to n = 2.
(ii) For lyman series, transition take place from higher level to the first level i.e., n = 1.
(iii) For absorption of Lyman’ series, the transition take place from n1= 1 to higher levels.
ISC Physics Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12 40
(c) \(_{2} \mathrm{He}^{4} \) nucleus contains two protons and two neutrons
Mass of two protons = 2 × 1.007276 = 2.014552 u
Mass of two neutrons = 2 × 1.008665 = 2.017330 u
Sum of the masses of two protons and two neutrons = 4.031882 u
Mass of the helium nucleus = 4.001506 u
∴ Mass defect = 4.031882 – 4.001506 = 0.030376 u
∴ Binding energy=0.030376 × 931 = 28.28 MeV [ ∵1 u = 931 Mev]

Question 10.
(a) Draw a labelled diagram of a common emitter amplifier. What is the phase angle between the input and output voltages ? [3]
(b) Threshold wavelength of a certain metal is 792 nm. What is the maximum kinetic energy of photo-electrons emitted by this metal if it is exposed to ultraviolet light of wavelength 396 nm? [3]
(c) The following combination of gates acts as a logic gate. With the help of a truth table, find out which logic gate the combination represents : [2]
ISC Physics Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12 41
ISC Physics Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12 42
ISC Physics Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12 43
Answer:
ISC Physics Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12 44
ISC Physics Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12 45
ISC Physics Question Paper 2010 Solved for Class 12 46

ISC Class 12 Physics Previous Year Question Papers

ISC Geography Question Paper 2018 Solved for Class 12

ISC Geography Previous Year Question Paper 2018 Solved for Class 12

(Maximum Marks: 70)
(Time allowed: Three hours)

(Candidates are allowed additional 15 minutes for only reading the paper.They must NOT start writing during this time.)

  • Answer Section A and B from Part I which are compulsory.
  • Answer any four questions from Part II.
  • Sketch maps and diagrams should be drawn wherever they serve to illustrate your answer.
  • The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

PART – I (30 Marks)
Answer all questions.
SECTION – A

Question 1. [10 x 2]
(i) Give two reasons to explain why India is considered to be a subcontinent.
(ii) The figure below represents a topographic section from the Himalayas to the Peninsular region. Identify any two of the features marked A, B, C and D.
ISC Geography Question Paper 2018 Solved for Class 12 - 1
(iii) With reference to river Godavari, name the following :
(a) The State where it originates.
(b) The State where it forms its delta.
(iv) What is urban forestry ? Mention any two of its objectives.
(v) State two reasons to explain why irrigation is necessary in India.
(vi) Briefly explain any two problems caused by Green Revolution with respect to Indian agriculture.
(vii) State any two important aspects of environmental management.
(viii) Mention two ways in which hydroelectric power is better than nuclear power.
(ix) Give two advantages of transportation by roadways.
(x) Mention two major challenges faced by the tourism industry in India today.
Answer:
(i) India is called a subcontinent because of its :

  1. Vast size.
  2. Diversity like : The Thar desert, The icecovered lofty Himalayas in the north, Vast Indo-Gangetic plains to its south, The Deccan plateau, The high temperature and heavy rains of the tropical monsoon climate.

(ii) A – Shivaliks or outer Himalayas.
B – Bhabar.
C – Bhangar.
D – Khadar.

(iii) (a) Godavari originates in the Nashik district of Maharashtra.
(b) Godavari forms its delta before joining Bay of Bengal in Andhra Pradesh.

(iv) Urban forestry pertains to raising and management of trees on public and privately owned lands in and around urban centres. It includes green-belts, road side avenues, parks etc. Its main objectives are :

  1. Reduction of environmental pollution.
  2. Recreation and improving aesthetic values.

(v) Irrigation is necessary in India because of :

  1. Uneven distribution of rainfall. Rainfall is confined to short duration of 3-4 months in the rainy season. The rest of the year is more or less dry. Provision of irrigation can make multiple cropping possible.
  2. High yielding variety of crops require regular moisture to increase farm production-Crops like rice, jute, sugarcane require large amounts of water, which can be met only through irrigation.

(vi) Two problems of Green Revolution are :

1. Inter-crop Imbalances : Though all the crops like wheat, rice, jowar, bajara and maize have gained from Green Revolution, it is wheat which has benefited the most. The HYV seeds for pulses and oilseeds have not been developed so far at all. The result is an excess of production in two main food grains-wheat and rice and shortages in most other like oilseeds and pulses.

2. Regional Disparities : Green Revolution affected only those areas which were already better placed from an agricultural point of view like Western U.P., Punjab and Haryana in the north and Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh in the south. It has hardly touched Eastern India, Assam, Bihar, West Bengal and Odisha.

(vii) Important aspects of environmental management are :

  1. To create a pollution free environment and to establish co-ordination between government and non-government organisations.
  2. To educate people at all levels.
  3. To develop long-term and short-term plans for the conservation of environment.
  4. To protect bio-diversity of the world.

Hydroelectric Power

  1. Hydroelectric power is cheaper and does not produce any waste while generating power.
  2. It does not cause pollution.

Nuclear Power

  1. Nuclear power is a bit more costlier and produces radioactive waste which is very difficult and expensive to dispose off.
  2. The process of mining and refining uranium causes pollution

(ix) 1. Roads can navigate high gradients and sharp turns which railways cannot do.
2. Road transport system establishes easy contact between farms, fields, factories and markets and provides door-to-door service.

(x) Challenges faced by the tourism industry in India today are :

  1. Unplanned, unrestricted growth of tourism in India deprives the tourists of the original charm and beauty and ultimately proves disastrous.
  2. The development of tourism depends upon the development of infrastructure of national highways, railways, ports, airports, hotels and other services. Inadequacies of such infrastructural facilities adversely affect tourism.

SECTION – B

Question 2. [10]
On the outline map of India provided :
(a) Mark and name the southernmost point of the Indian mainland.
(b) Mark and name the highest peak of the Trans Himalayas.
(c) Mark and name the Vindhyas.
(d) Mark and name the Chota Nagpur Plateau.
(e) Print HP over an area experiencing high pressure during the winter season.
(f) Trace the course and label river Kaveri.
(g) With the help of an arrow show the direction and name the wind that brings rainfall over the Gangetic Plains during the monsoon season. (h) Shade and name the State with the highest rural population.
(i) Mark and name the State which has the highest sex ratio.
(j) Locate and label the southernmost port city in the west coast.
Note : All the map work, including legend (Index) should be done on the map sheet only.
Answer:
ISC Geography Question Paper 2018 Solved for Class 12 - 2

PART – II (40 Marks)
Answer any four questions.

Question 3.
(a) Give three differences between the Western and the Eastern Himalayas. [3]
(b) Explain the following : [2]
(i) The Himalayan rivers are typical examples of antecedent drainage.
(ii) Jaisalmer receives very less rainfall annually.
(c) Study the climatic data provided in the table below for a city A in India and answer the questions that follow : [2]
ISC Geography Question Paper 2018 Solved for Class 12 - 3
T = Mean monthly temperature in degree Celsius (°C).
R = Average monthly rainfall in millimetres (mm).
(i) What is the cause of low rainfall in station A ?
(ii) Calculate the range of temperature of this station.
(d) (i) State how rainfall and temperature influence the vegetation type in India. [2]
(ii) Why are tropical evergreen forests not very important economically ? [1]
Answers:
(a) Differences between the Western and the Eastern Himalayas

Western Himalayas

  1. The Western Himalayas lie to the west of 86°W longitude, between the Indus and the Kali rivers.
  2. It rises gradually in a series of ranges.
  3. The average rainfall is less than 100 cm.
  4. Vegetation is mainly alpine and coniferous.

Eastern Himalayas

  1. The Eastern Himalayas lie to the east of 88°E longitude, between Tista and Brahma putra rivers.
  2. It rises abruptly from the plains of Bihar and West Bengal.
  3. The average rainfall is more than 200 cm.
  4. Vegetation is mainly dense evergreen.

(b) (i) Antecedent drainage is a river system originating before a period of uplift and folding of the land as a result of earth movements. The Himalayan rivers like Indus, Satluj and the Brahmaputra continue to cut down their valley at approximately the same rate as the uplift of the land and so maintain the general pattern and direction. So these rivers are known as Antecedent drainage.

(ii) The Aravali’s alignment is parallel to the rain-bearing SW monsoon winds, so Jaisalmer does not receive any rain from the Arabian Sea branch of SW monsoon. It is also located in the rain shadow region of the Bay of Bengal branch of SW monsoon. So it does not receive
any rain from the Bay of Bengal branch too.

(c) (i) Rain shadow region.
(ii) (18°C) – (-8°C) = 26°C.

(d) (i) Climate : Rainfall and temperature influence the vegetation to a great extent. In India, regions receiving rainfall over 200 cm with high temperatures have tropical evergreen type of vegetation commonly. Regions with average temperature of 24° C 27°C and rainfall ranging between 150 cm 200 cm have tropical deciduous forests. Regions with moderate rain of 50 cm have thorn and scrub type of vegetation.

(ii) Tropical evergreen forests are not very important economically because :

  1. The trees are not found in pure stands thus, commercial exploitation proves to be very expensive.
  2. These are hardwood trees, i.e., they do not float on water.
  3. Its warm and wet climate throughout the year paves way for a thick vegetation so, there is a lack of transport facilities. Thus, these forests do not encourage the exploitation economically.

Question 4.
(a) Why is the dependency ratio higher in rural areas than in urban areas ? State two reasons. [3]
(b) Distinguish between metropolis and megalopolis.
(c) With reference to the linear rural settlement pattern, answer the following: [2]
(i) How does this pattern develop ?
(ii) Name any two areas where this pattern is found in India.
(d) Define density of population. What is India’s density of population as per the 2011 census ? [2]
(e) The graph below shows the percentage decadal growth rate of India for a period from 1971 to 2011. [2]
ISC Geography Question Paper 2018 Solved for Class 12 - 4
(i) What is the unique characteristic of growth during this period ?
(ii) Explain the reason causing this uniqueness.
Answer:
(a) Dependency ratio is higher in rural areas because :

  1. Birth rates are higher in rural areas.
  2. Large numbers of adults migrate to urban areas in search of jobs.
  3.  Adults who migrate return to their rural homes after retirement.

(b) Metropolis
Metro cities are cities with a population of more than 1 million. e.g., Allahabad, Kanpur, Pune, Kochi.

Megalopolis
Mega cities are those with a population of over 5 million. e.g., Mumbai, Delhi, Kolkata, Chennai, Bengaluru, Hyderabad.

(c) (i) Linear rural settlements develop along a stream, inhabited by different tribal groups or the fishing villages in the coastal areas.
(ii) Manipur, Balaghat in M.P., Raigarh district in Chhattisgarh.

(d) Density of population is a ratio of total population to the total area of the country or a part of it.
ISC Geography Question Paper 2018 Solved for Class 12 - 5
India’s density of population as per the 2011 census is 382 persons per sq. km.

(e) (i) The unique characteristic of the growth during this period is the period of high growth up to 1981, has definite signs of slowing down of growth rate of population after 1981.
(ii) This declining trend of growth rate of population is a positive indicator of the official efforts of birth control and people’s own inclination to opt for smaller families.

Question 5.
(a) Mention any two drawbacks of land use pattern in India. Suggest any one measure to improve it. [3]
(b) (i) What is fallow land ? [1]
(ii) Suggest two farming practices which will help to reduce the extent of fallow land ?
(c) Mention two reasons why the modern methods of irrigation are preferred over traditional methods of irrigation, in India. [2]
(d) State two dangers of overwatering. [2]
Answer:
(a) The two drawbacks of land use pattern in India are :

  1. Division of agricultural land into small and fragmented holdings. It is a serious problem in densely populated and intensively cultivated states of Kerala, West Bengal, Bihar and Eastern Uttar Pradesh.
  2. Cultural Waste : The land was used in the past for agriculture, but has been abandoned for reasons like lack of water, salinity or alkalinity of soil, soil erosion, water logging, etc.

Measures to improve it :

  1. Consolidation of holding of land. Reallocation of holdings which are fragmented.
  2. Cooperative farming.
  3. Cultivable wasteland can be brought under cultivation by reclaiming the land. In the interest of long-term conservation and maintenance of Eco balance, this land should be put under afforestation and not under crop farming.

(b) (i) Land which was used for cultivation but is temporarily out of cultivation.
(ii) Farming practices which will help to reduce the effect of fallow land :

  1. Crop rotation.
  2. Crop combination.
  3. Proper irrigation facilities.
  4. Proper dose of fertilizers.

(c) Wells, tanks and inundation canals are called primitive methods of irrigation which are inefficient, uneconomical and inconvenient. Only limited area can be irrigated while tubewell is capable of irrigating about ten times more the area as compared to an ordinary well. Perennial canal is much better than inundation canals because it can irrigate larger areas and provides regular irrigation throughout year. Overwatering leads to serious problems of soil salinity and alkalinity.

  1. With intensification of canal irrigation, water table rises sufficiently and once the water table is within 2 metres, it is likely to act as a continuous source of soluble salts in the soil profile.
  2. Overwatering has brought about devastation in large tracts of land. The sandy soils become alkaline and the loamy soils become saline-alkaline.

Question 6.
(a) (i) What is intensity of cropping ? [2]
(ii) Explain why there is a variation of cropping intensity in Punjab and Rajasthan.
(b) (i) Name the largest cotton producing state in India. [2]
(ii) What are the geographical conditions required for the growth of cotton?
(c) What are the three advantages that Japan has over India with respect to marine fishing ? [2]
(d) Name the largest producing state for each of the following minerals and also give one use of each of these minerals : [2]
(i) Manganese
(ii) Mica
Answer:
(a) (i) “Intensity of cropping” refers to the number of crops raised on a field during an agricultural year. The total cropped area as a percentage of the net sown area gives a measure of cropping intensity.
ISC Geography Question Paper 2018 Solved for Class 12 - 6
(ii) Punjab is a densely populated state with good irrigation facilities, fertile soil and moderate rainfall. So the cropping intensity is high. Rajasthan receives very low rainfall, has not so fertile soil and irrigation facilities are absent. So the cropping intensity is low.

(b) (i) Gujarat.
(ii) Temperature : 20°C to 30°C.
Rainfall : 50 cm to 100 cm.

  1. 200 frost free days in a year for its successful cultivation.
  2. Black soil and alluvial soil.
  3. A lot of human labour.

(c) Marine Fishing in Japan

  1. The meeting of warm Kuroshio and cold Oyashio current provides plankton, which is ideal for fish.
  2. Big corporations with modernised ships and equipments, help the people to go in the open ocean.
  3. There are many gulfs, bays, estuaries with large number of ports providing a larger coast line helping in better opportunities in marine fishing in Japan.

Marine Fishing in India

  1. There is no cold and warm ocean current confluence along the Indian coast. So plankton is not available.
  2. Most of the fishermen use non-mechanised boats. They normally do not go beyond 10 km.
  3. The Indian coasts do not have many gulfs, bays, estuaries and backwaters and also not many ports leading to a lesser coast-line and thereby reducing the opportunities in marine fishing in India.

(d) (i) Manganese : Largest producer Maharashtra.
Use : Used in making iron and steel, acts as a basic raw material for manufacturing its alloy.
(ii) Mica : Largest producer-Andhra Pradesh.
Use : Used in the electrical and electronic industry because it can withstand high voltage and low power loss factor.

Question 7.
(a) State any two advantages of railways in India.
(b) With reference to the Jawaharlal Nehru Port, state the following : [3]
(i) Its hinterland.
(ii) Two items of export.
(iii) Two items of import.
(c) (i) Name the city which has the oldest artificial harbour on the east coast of India. [1]
(ii) State two geographical problems faced by this harbour. [2]
(d) State any two ways in which cinema can be considered as powerful means of mass communication. [2]
Answer:
(a) Advantages of Railways in India :
(i) It forms a major employment sector as lakhs of people are dependent on railways for their livelihood.
(ii) Railways serve as the cheapest mode of transport for bulky products over long distances.
(iii) Railways serve as the principle mode of transport for both freight and passengers.

(b) (i) Jawaharlal Nehru Port has a vast hinterland covering the whole of Maharashtra and large parts of M.P, Gujarat, Rajasthan, Delhi and some parts of Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
(ii) Exports : Cotton textiles, leather, tobacco, chemical goods.
(iii) Imports : Crude oil, superior quality raw cotton, latest machines, instruments and drugs.

(c) (i) Chennai.
(ii) 1.Severe tropical cyclones in the month of October – November which frequently originate in the Bay of Bengal, pose serious threat to fishermen.

2. The port is ill-suited for large ships because of the lesser depth of water near the coast.
(d) Ways in which cinema can be considered as a powerful means of mass communication are :

  1. Cinema entertains millions of people everyday throughout the country.
  2. It provides useful information and variety of entertainment. It is the only source of entertainment and information in rural and remote areas.
  3. It helps the spread of a particular message or idea.
  4. It contributes in social relationships and promotes cultural unity.

Question 8.
(a) Mention any three factors that determine the location of an industry. [3]
(b) (i) What are industrial clusters ? [3]
(ii) Identify one industrial cluster from Northern India. State two reasons for its growth.
(c) Explain the following : [2]
(i) Weight losing raw material.
(ii) Integrated steel plant.
(d) State any two negative impacts of tourism on the environment. [2]
Answer:
(a) Three factors determining the location of an industry are :

(i) Raw Material : Industries which use heavy and bulky raw materials in their primary stage in large quantities, are usually located near the supply of the raw material, to bring down the cost of production e.g., Iron and Steel industry.

(ii) Power : Regular supply of power is a prerequisite for the localisation of industries. Tata Iron and Steel Company at Jamshedpur, Aluminium Plant at Korba in Chhattisgarh and Renukoot in U.P., Copper smelting plant at Khetri, Rajasthan are near the sources of power and raw material.

(iii) Transport : Transport by land or water is necessary for the assembly of raw materials and for the marketing of finished products. The location of many industries around Kolkata, Mumbai and Chennai is due to the development of railways in India, connecting the port towns with their hinterlands.

(b) (i) Industries tend to be concentrated in a few pockets because of certain favourable factors. The pockets having high concentration of industries are known as industrial clusters.
(ii) Gurgaon-Delhi – Meerut industrial region. Two reasons for its growth are :

  1. It owes its development and growth to hydro-electricity from Bhakra-Nangal complex and thermal power from Harduaganj, Faridabad and Panipat.
  2. It is one of the fastest growing market oriented industrial cluster adjoining Delhi.

(c) (i) Raw materials which lose their weight in the process of manufacture are known as weight losing raw materials, e.g., sugar industry, iron and steel industry, aluminium industry.
(ii) Integrated Steel Plant : All three processes from melting of iron ore in the blast furnace to steel making followed by shaping of the metal by rolling is carried out under one complex.

(d) (i) The unplanned and unchecked growth of tourist centres deprives the tourists of the original charm and ultimately proves disastrous. e.g., Darjeeling, Mussoorie, Shimla.
(ii) The area around a tourist spot is covered by commercial constructions and even by industries. Such unplanned growth tarnishes the image of the concerned spot. e.g., The Meenakshi Temple at Madurai, The Palace of Udaipur in Rajasthan.

Question 9.
(a) What is meant by development ? What is the geographer’s perspective to development ? [2]
(b) Apart from the Central Level Planning, what are the other levels in the multilevel planning ? [2]
(c) With reference to Haldia Port, answer the following questions : [3]
(i) Location of the port.
(ii) Hinterland.
(iii) Reason for its development.
(d) With reference to mining in Chhattisgarh, name the following : [3]
(i) The largest coal field.
(ii) The largest iron-ore mine.
(iii) A bauxite mining centre.
Answers:
(a) Development implies overall improvement in economic, social and political conditions of a society. It is not only area specific but also time specific. Geographer’s conceptualization of development is much more comprehensive. It considers economic progress, social advancement, political development and environmental preservation. It is an integrating discipline and offers a unique synthesis of development of natural and human resources.

(b) 1. State level planning.
2. District level planning.
3. Block level planning.
4. Panchayat level planning.

(c) (i) Haldia port is located at the confluence of rivers Hooghly and Haldi about 105 km downstream from Kolkata.
(ii) Hinterland covers a vast area including almost the whole of eastern and north-eastern parts of the country, West Bengal, Bihar, Jharkhand, Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram, Meghalaya, Tripura and northern parts of Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh
(iii) Haldia port has been developed to release congestion at Kolkata port.

(d) (i) Korba.
(ii) Bailadia mine.
(iii) Surguja, Raigarh, Bilaspur.

ISC Class 12 Geography Previous Year Question Papers

ISC Chemistry Question Paper 2017 Solved for Class 12

ISC Chemistry Previous Year Question Paper 2017 Solved for Class 12

Maximum Marks: 70
Time allowed: 3 hours

  • Answer all questions in Part I and six questions from Part II, choosing two questions from Section A, two from Section B and two from Section C.
  • All working, including rough work, should be done on the same sheet as, and adjacent to, the rest of the answer.
  • The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].
  • Balanced equations must be given wherever possible and diagrams where they are helpful.
  • When solving numerical problems, all essential working must be shown.
  • In working out problems use the following data:
    Gas constant R = 1.987 cal deg-1 mol-1 = 8.314 JK-1 mol-1 = 0.0821 dm3 atm K-1 mol-1. 1L atm = 1 dm3 atm = 101.3 J. 1 Faraday = 96500 Coulombs.
    Avogadro’s number = 6.023 × 1023

Part – I (20 Marks)
Answer all questions.

Question 1.
(a) Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word/words from those given in the brackets: [5]
(iodoform, acetaldehyde, positive, greater, acidic, acetone, disaccharide, negative, increases, glucose, decreases, chloroform, polysaccharide, lactose, lesser, basic, cationic hydrolysis, anionic hydrolysis)
(i) Calcium acetate on heating gives ………. which gives ……… on heating with iodine and sodium hydroxide solution.
(ii) On dilution of a solution, its specific conductance ……….. while its equivalent conductance ……….
(iii) Sucrose is a ………… and yields upon hydrolysis, a mixture of ………. and fructose.
(iv) More ………. the standard reduction potential of a substance, the ……… is its ability to displace hydrogen from acids.
(v) An aqueous solution of CH3COONa is ………. due to …………

(b) Complete the following statements by selecting the correct alternative from the choices given: [5]
(i) In a face-centred cubic lattice, atom (A) occupies the comer positions and atom (B) occupies the face centre positions. If one atom of (B) is missing from one of the face-centred points, the formula of the compound is:
(1) A2B5
(2) A2B3
(3) AB2
(4) A2B

(ii) The half-life period of a first-order reaction is 20 minutes. The time required for the concentration of the reactant to change from 0.16 M to 0.02 M is:
(1) 80 minutes
(2) 60 minutes
(3) 40 minutes
(4) 20 minutes

(iii) For a spontaneous reaction ΔG° and E° cell will be respectively:
(1) -ve and +ve
(2) +ve and -ve
(3) +ve and +ve
(4) -ve and -ve

(iv) The conjugate acid of \(\mathrm{HPO}_{4}^{2-}\) is:
(1) H3PO3
(2) H3PO4
(3) \(\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{PO}_{4}^{-}\)
(4) \(\mathrm{PO}_{4}^{3-}\)

(v) The polymer formed by the condensation of hexamethylenediamine and adipic acid is:
(1) Teflon
(2) Bakelite
(3) Dacron
(4) Nylon-66

(c) Answer the following questions: [5]
(i) Why the freezing point depression (ΔTf) of 0.4 M NaCl solution is nearly twice than that of 0.4 M glucose solution?
(ii) Identify the order of reaction from each of the following units of rate constant (k):
(a) mol L-1 sec-1
(b) mol-1 L sec-1
(iii) Specific conductivity of 0.20 M solution of KCl at 298 K is 0.025 S cm-1. Calculate its molar conductivity.
(iv) Name the order of reaction which proceeds with a uniform rate throughout.
(v) What are the products formed when phenol and nitrobenzene are treated separately with a mixture of concentrated sulphuric acid and concentrated nitric acid?
(d) Match the following: [5]

(i) Diazotisation (a) Bakelite
(ii) Argentite (b) Nernst equation
(iii) Thermosetting plastics (c) Aniline
(iv) Electrochemical cell (d) Ethylenediamine
(v) Bidentate ligand (e) Froth floatation process

Answers:
(a) (i) acetone, iodoform
(ii) decreases, increases
(iii) disaccharide, glucose
(iv) negative, greater
(v) basic, anionic hydrolysis

(b) (i) (1)
(ii) (2)
(iii) (1)
(iv) (3)
(v) (4)

(c) (i) This is because Van’t Hoff factor for NaCl is 2 and for glucose, it is 1.
(ii) (a) – Zero
(b) – Two
\(\begin{aligned}(\text {iii}) &=\frac{k \times 1000}{\text { Molarity }} \\ &=\frac{0.025 \times 1000}{0.20} \\ \Lambda_{m} &=125 \mathrm{S} \mathrm{cm}^{2} \mathrm{mol}^{-1} \end{aligned}\)
(iv) Zero
(v) 2, 4, 6 – Trinitrophenol
m – Dinitrobenzene

(d) (i) – (c)
(ii) – (e)
(iii) – (a)
(iv) – (b)
(v) – (d)

Part – II (50 Marks)

Section – A
Answer any two questions.

Question 2.
(a) (i) Determine the freezing point of a solution containing 0.625 g of glucose (C6H12O6) dissolved in 102.8 g of water. [2]
(Freezing point of water = 273 K, Kf for water = 1.87 K kg mol-1, at. wt. C = 12, H = 1, O = 16)
(ii) A 0.15 M aqueous solution of KCl exerts an osmotic pressure of 6.8 atm at 310 K. [2]
Calculate the degree of dissociation of KCl. (R = 0.0821 Lit. atm K-1 mol-1).
(iii) A solution containing 8.44 g of sucrose in 100 g of water has a vapour pressure 4.56 mm of Hg at 273 K. If the vapour pressure of pure water is 4.58 mm of Hg at the same temperature, calculate the molecular weight of sucrose. [1]
(b) (i) When ammonium chloride and ammonium hydroxide are added to a solution containing both Al3+ and Ca2+ ions, which ion is precipitated first and why? [2]
(ii) A solution of potassium chloride has no effect on litmus whereas, a solution of zinc chloride turns the blue litmus red. Give a reason. [2]
(c) How many sodium ions and chloride ions are present in a unit cell of sodium chloride crystal? [1]
Answer:
ISC Chemistry Question Paper 2017 Solved for Class 12 image - 1
ISC Chemistry Question Paper 2017 Solved for Class 12 image - 2
(b) (i) Al3+ ions are precipitated first as Al(OH)3 because Ksp for Al(OH)3 is lower than that of Ca(OH)2.
(ii) This is because KCl does not undergo hydrolysis in water and the aqueous solution is neutral whereas ZnCl2 undergoes hydrolysis in water to give an acidic solution which turns blue litmus solution red.
\(\begin{array}{rl}{\mathrm{Zn}^{2+}+2 \mathrm{C} \mathrm{I}^{-}+2 \mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}} & {\rightleftharpoons \mathrm{Zn}(\mathrm{OH})_{2}+2 \mathrm{H}^{+}+2 \mathrm{Cl}} \\ {\mathrm{or}} & {\mathrm{Zn}^{2+}+2 \mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O} \rightleftharpoons \mathrm{Zn}(\mathrm{OH})_{2}+2 \mathrm{H}^{+}}\end{array}\)

(c) Number of Na+ ions = 4
Number of Cl– ions = 4

Question 3.
(a) (i) Lead sulphide has a face-centred cubic crystal structure. If the edge length of the unit cell of lead sulphide is 495 pm, calculate the density of the crystal. [1]
(at. wt. of Pb = 207, S = 32)
(ii) For the reaction: \(2 \mathrm{H}_{2}+2 \mathrm{NO} \rightleftharpoons 2 \mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}+\mathrm{N}_{2}\), the following rate data was obtained: [3]
ISC Chemistry Question Paper 2017 Solved for Class 12 image - 3
Calculate the following:
(1) The overall order of a reaction.
(2) The rate law.
(3) The value of rate constant (k).
(b) (i) The following electrochemical cell is set up at 298 K: [2]
\(\begin{array}{c}{\mathrm{Zn} / \mathrm{Zn}^{2+}(\mathrm{aq})(1 \mathrm{M}) / / \mathrm{Cu}^{2+}(\mathrm{aq})(1 \mathrm{M}) / \mathrm{Cu}} \\ {\text { Given } \rightarrow \mathrm{E}_{Z n^{2+} / 2 \mathrm{n}}^{\circ}=-0.761 \mathrm{V}, \mathrm{E}_{\mathrm{Cu}^{2+} / \mathrm{Cu}}^{\circ}=+0.339 \mathrm{V}}\end{array}\)
(1) Write the cell reaction.
(2) Calculate the emf and free energy change at 298 K.
(a) Answer the following: [2]
(1) What is the effect of temperature on the ionic product of water (Kw)?
(2) What happens to the ionic product of water (Kw) if some acid is added to it?
(c) Frenkel defect does not change the density of the ionic crystal whereas, Schottky defect lowers the density of ionic crystal. Give a reason; [2]
Answer:
ISC Chemistry Question Paper 2017 Solved for Class 12 image - 4
ISC Chemistry Question Paper 2017 Solved for Class 12 image - 5
ISC Chemistry Question Paper 2017 Solved for Class 12 image - 6
(ii) (1) Kw for water increases with the increase in temperature due to the increase in the degree of ionisation of water.
(2) Kw remains unchanged.
(c) This is because in Frenkel defect no ions are missing from the crystal lattice site whereas, in case of Schottky defect, an equal number of positive and negative ions are missing from the crystal lattice, hence density decreases.

Question 4.
(a) (i) Name the law or principle to which the following observations confirm: [3]
(1) When water is added to a 1.0 M aqueous solution of acetic acid, the number of hydrogen ion (H+) increases.
(2) When 9650 coulombs of electricity is passed through a solution of copper sulphate, 3.175 g of copper is deposited on the cathode (at. wt. of Cu = 63.5).
(3) When ammonium chloride is added to a solution of ammonium hydroxide, the concentration of hydroxyl ion decreases.
(ii) What is the difference between the order of a reaction and its molecularity? [2]
(b) (i) Explain why high pressure is required in the manufacture of sulphur trioxide by the contact process. State the law or principle used. [2]
(ii) Calculate the equilibrium constant (Kc) for the formation of NH3 in the following reaction: [ 1]
\(\mathrm{N}_{2}(\mathrm{g})+3 \mathrm{H}_{2}(\mathrm{g}) \rightleftharpoons 2 \mathrm{NH}_{3}(\mathrm{g})\)
At equilibrium, the concentration of NH3, H2 and N2 are 1.2 × 10-2, 3.0 × 10-2 and 1.5 × 10-2 M respectively.
(c) Explain the following: [2]
(i) Hydrolysis of ester (ethyl acetate) begins slowly but becomes fast after some time.
(ii) The pH value of acetic acid increases on the addition of a few drops of sodium acetate.
Answers:
(a) (i) (1) This is due to the increase in the degree of ionisation of CH3COOH.
(2) W = ZQ
\(=\frac{63.5}{2 \times 96500} \times 9650\)
W = 3.175 g
(3) This is due to the common ion effect (NH4+ ions are common)
(ii)

Order of a reaction Molecularity
1. It can be zero.
2. It can be the whole number or fractional.
3. It is defined for simple as well as com­plex reaction.
4. It is determined experimentally.
1. It is never zero.
2. It is always a whole number.
3. It is defined only for simple reactions.
4. It is a theoretical concept.

ISC Chemistry Question Paper 2017 Solved for Class 12 image - 7
This is because the forward reaction is accompanied by a decrease in volume.
The principle used is i.e., Chatelier’s principle.
It states that when a system in equilibrium is subjected to stress, (i.e., change of concentration, temperature pressure etc.), the equilibrium tends to shift in a direction so as to undergo the effect of applied stress.
ISC Chemistry Question Paper 2017 Solved for Class 12 image - 8
(c) (i) This is because of H+ ions produced during hydrolysis act as a catalyst.
(ii) This is due to the common ion effect. As a result of (H+) decreases.

Section – B
Answer any two questions.

Question 5.
(a) Write the formula of the following compounds: [2]
(i) Potassium trioxalatoaluminate (III).
(ii) Hexaaquairon (II) sulphate.
(b) Name the types of isomerism shown by the following pairs of compounds: [1]
(i) [CU(NH3)4] [PtCl4] and [Pt(NH3)4] [CuCl4]
(ii) [Co(Pn)2Cl2]+ and [Co(en)2Cl2]+
(c) For the coordination complex ion [Co(NH3)6]3+ [2]
(i) Give the IUPAC name of the complexion.
(ii) What is the oxidation number of cobalt in the complexion?
(iii) State the type of hybridisation of the complexion.
(iv) State the magnetic behaviour of the complexion.
Answers:
(a) (i) K3[Al(C2O4)3]
(ii) [Fe(H2O)6] SO4

(b) (i) Coordination isomerism
(ii) Linkage isomerism

(c) (i) hexaamminecobalt (II) ions
(ii) x + 6(0) = +3
x = +3
No. of Co in complex ion = +3
(iii) d2sp3
(iv) [CO(NH3)6]3+
Co3+ has no unpaired electron.
Hence, [Co(NH3)2]3+ is diamagnetic.

Question 6.
(a) Give balanced equations for the following reactions: [3]
(i) Potassium permanganate is heated with concentrated hydrochloric acid.
(ii) Lead sulphide is heated with hydrogen peroxide.
(iii) Ozone is treated with potassium iodide solution.
(b) Discuss the theory involved in the manufacture of sulphuric acid by the contact process. [2]
Answers:
ISC Chemistry Question Paper 2017 Solved for Class 12 image - 9
ISC Chemistry Question Paper 2017 Solved for Class 12 image - 10

Question 7.
(a) (i) What are the types of hybridisation of iodine in interhalogen compounds IF3, IF5 and IF7, respectively? [3]
(ii) Draw the structure of xenon hexafluoride (XeF6) molecule and state the hybridisation of the central atom.
(b) Give the balanced equations for the conversion of argentite (Ag2S) to metallic silver. [2]
Answers:
ISC Chemistry Question Paper 2017 Solved for Class 12 image - 11

Section – C
Answer any two questions.

Question 8.
(a) How can the following conversions be brought about:
(i) Acetaldehyde to propan-2-ol. [1]
(ii) Nitrobenzene to p-aminoazobenzene. [1]
(iii) Acetic acid to methylamine. [2]
(iv) Aniline to benzene. [1]
(b) (i) How will you distinguish between primary, secondary and tertiary amines by Hinsberg’s test? [1]
(ii) Why do alcohols possess higher boiling points as compared to those of corresponding alkanes? [1]
(c) Identify the compounds A, B and C: [3]
ISC Chemistry Question Paper 2017 Solved for Class 12 image - 12
Answer:
ISC Chemistry Question Paper 2017 Solved for Class 12 image - 13
(b) (i) With Hinsberg’s reagent:
Primary amines give N-alkyl benzene sulphonamide soluble in alkali.
Secondary amines give N, N-dialkyl benzene sulphonamide insoluble in alkali.
Tertiary amines have no action with Hinsberg’s reagent.
(ii) This is because in alcohols there are intermolecular H-bonds which are stronger than Van der Waals forces of attraction in alkanes.
ISC Chemistry Question Paper 2017 Solved for Class 12 image - 14
ISC Chemistry Question Paper 2017 Solved for Class 12 image - 15

Question 9.
(a) Give balanced equations for the following name reactions: [3]
(i) Friedel-Crafts reaction (alkylation)
(ii) Williamson’s synthesis
(iii) Aldol condensation
(b) Give the chemical test to distinguish: [3]
(i) Ethyl alcohol and sec-propyl alcohol
(ii) Acetaldehyde and acetic acid
(c) (i) Deficiency of which vitamin causes the following diseases: [4]
(1) Scurvy
(2) Night blindness
(ii) Write two differences between globular and fibrous proteins.
Answers:
ISC Chemistry Question Paper 2017 Solved for Class 12 image - 16

(b) (i) Victor Meyer’s test: Ethyl alcohol gives blood red colouration but sec-propyl alcohol gives deep blue colouration.
(ii) Acetic acid gives CO2 gas (effervescence) with NaHCO3 solution but acetaldehyde does not.

(c) (i) (1) Vitamin C
(2) Vitamin A
(ii)

Globular proteins Fibrous proteins
1. They have spherical shapes.
2. These are soluble in water.
3. These are sensitive to small changes in temperature and pH.
1. They have thread-like structures.
2. These are insoluble in water.
3. These are not affected by small change in temperature and pH.

Question 10.
(a) An aliphatic unsaturated hydrocarbon (A) when treated with HgSO4/H2SO4 yields a compound (B) having molecular formula C3H6O. (B) on oxidation with concentrated HNO3 gives two compounds (C) and (D). Compound (C), when treated with PCl5, gives compound (E). (E) when reacts with ethanol gives a sweet-smelling liquid (F). Compound (F) is also formed when (C) reacts with ethanol in the presence of concentrated H2SO4. [4]
(i) Identify the compounds A, B, C, D, E and F.
(ii) Give the chemical equation for the reaction of (C) with chlorine in the presence of red phosphorus and name the reaction.
(b) Answer the following: [3]
(i) What is the common name of the polymer obtained by the polymerisation of caprolactam? Is it addition polymer or condensation polymer?
(a) Name the two organic compounds which have the same molecular formula C2H6O. Will they react with PCl5? If they react, what are the products formed?
(c) Give balanced equations for the following reactions: [3]
(i) Methyl magnesium bromide with ethyl alcohol.
(ii) Acetic anhydride with phosphorus pentachloride.
(iii) Acetaldehyde with hydroxylamine.
Answer:
(a) (i) \(\mathrm{A}-\mathrm{CH}_{3}-\mathrm{C} \equiv \mathrm{CH}, \text { propyne }\)
B – CH3COCH3, Acetone
C – CH3COOH, Acetic acid
D – HCOOH, Formic acid (or CO2 + H2O)
E – CH3COCl, Acetyl chloride
F – CH3COOC2H5, Ethyl acetate
ISC Chemistry Question Paper 2017 Solved for Class 12 image - 17

ISC Class 12 Chemistry Previous Year Question Papers

ISC Business Studies Question Paper 2018 Solved for Class 12

ISC Business Studies Year Question Paper 2018 Solved for Class 12

Maximum Marks: 80
Time allowed: Three hours

  • Candidates are allowed additional 15 minutes for only reading the paper. They must NOT start writing during this time.
  • Answer Question 1 (Compulsory) from Part I and five questions from Part II, choosing two questions from Section A, two questions from Section B and one question from either Section A or Section B.
  • The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Part-I (30 Marks)
Answer all questions

Question 1.
Answer briefly each of the questions (/) to (xv): [15 x 2]
(i) What is meant by unsolicited applications ?
(ii) State the significance of conducting refresher training.
(iii) Define remuneration.
(iv) Name any four non-monetary incentives that may be used in an organisation.
(v) Briefly explain any two qualities of a good leader.
(vi) Differentiate between upgrading and dry promotion.
(vii) Give one benefit each of voluntary retirement scheme to employee and to the employer.
(viii) Bring out the significance of using grapevine as a channel of communication in an organisation.
(ix) Explain the meaning of internal communication. Name its two types.
(x) What is a Dictaphone ?
(xi) Briefly explain what is meant by letter of inquiry. Which letter is written in response to it ?
(xii) With reference to written internal communication, explain the term office order.
(xiii) Explain cross referencing, in the context of report writing.
(xiv) Explain the term 1 motion’ in the context of company meetings.
(xv) With reference to Post Office, expand the following:
(a) VPP
(b) PIN
Answer:
(i) Unsolicited applications are those applications applied by the person in search of employment carry their resume and certificates. When suitable jobs are available for them then they may be contacted and considered.

(ii) Refresher training is provided to update the knowledge and improve the employees’ working skills. It also makes the employees more efficient in the use of advanced technology.

(iii) Remuneration refers to the wage or salary paid to workers in cash or kind in consideration of the services rendered by them. Wages help the business to attract, retain and motivate efficient workers. A good system of remuneration should be simple, equitable, economical and flexible.

(iv) The following are the non-monetary incentives given below :

  • Status symbols
  • Appreciation of work
  • Healthy competition
  • Opportunity for growth

(v) A good leader should posses following qualities :

  • Self-confidence : A leader should be willing to listen to others and to absorb new ideas,
  • Vision and foresight: A leader should be able to anticipate or visualize the future course of events.

(vi) Difference between upgrading and dry promotion.

Upgrading Dry Promotion
It means movement from one lower scale to higher scale. It is one where one has to pass through the minimum requirements of promotion criteria.

(vii) Under this scheme, the employee may be allowed to retire before attaining the retirement age with full benefits of retirement due to disease or disability and the retirement benefits to employer may give a recruiting advantage.

(viii) Grapevine is an informal channel of communication which should be used judiciously to supplement the official channels. It is utilized when the official channels are slow and insufficient. It is built around interpersonal relations between people working in an organisation. It spreads throughout the organisation with its branches going out in all directions going out in all directions irrespective of levels of authority.

(ix) Internal communication refers to all communication within an organisation. It helps to create mutual understanding and cooperation between different parts of an organisation. Internal communication is of two types: Horizontal Communication and Vertical Communication.

(x) A Dictaphone is an electronic device which records speech so that the typist may playback the recording and transcribe it on the typewriter. It permits speedy and accurate recording of lengthy debates or proceedings. Telephonic conservation, interviews etc. can be recorded immediately along with notes for follow up action.

(xi) When a buyer wants information about the quality, price, availability etc. of goods to be purchased or about the terms of sale etc. he writes a letter of inquiry to the seller. While drafting a letter of inquiry, specify the quantity you want to buy, ask for samples or demonstrations if required etc. Quotation letters are written in response to it.

(xii) Office order is a means of downward communication. It is used to communicate matters related posting, promotion, transfer, suspension, disciplinary proceedings etc. It also carries a stamp of authority and people working at lower levels are bound to accept it.

(xiii) Cross referencing means making a mention at one place in the report about some other point of the report. It helps to save time and facilitates task of the person who are to read and use the report whenever necessary, cross-referencing should be done in a report. .

(xiv) A motion is a proposal moved by a member for the purpose of discussion at the meeting. The motion must be in writing and it must relate to the items placed on the agenda. An amendment is a motion proposed with a view to make some alterations in the original motion which is
under discussion. A motion become a resolution when it is duly adopted in a meeting.

(xv) (a) VPP: Value Payable Post
(b) PIN: Postal Index Number i

Part – II (70 Marks)
Answer any Jive questions

Question 2.
(a) Explain any three points of difference between training and education. [6]
(b) With reference to selection process, explain the significance of the following : [8]
(i) Preliminary Interview
(ii) Application Blank
(iii) Medical Examination
(iv) Final Interview
Answer:
(a) Difference between Training and Education.

Basis Training Education
(i) Nature

(ii)Contents

 

(iii)Cost paid

It is practical.

Training involves knowledge and skills in a particular job.

Training cost is paid by the employer.

It is theoretical.

Education involves general knowledge and intelligence.

 

Education cost is paid by the Government and the individual.

(b) Preliminary Interview : Preliminary interview is the first occasion when candidates comes into contact with the company’s officials. The job seekers are received at the reception counter of the enterprise. The purpose of preliminary interview is to ascertain the minimum qualifications, experience, age etc. of the candidates.

Application Blank : The candidates who succeed in the preliminary interviews, are required to fill in a specially drafted weighted application form. The application form provides a written record of the name, address, age, qualifications etc. of the candidate. It should be designed carefully so as to secure all relevant information about the candidate. There is no standard application form for all jobs or all firms.

Medical Examination: A physical examination of the candidates is necessary to ensure that they are physically fit for the job. Company must protect it self against the risk of claims for compensation from individuals who are afflicted with disabilities. It should record a complete medical history, current physical capabilities.

Final Interview: After a candidate has cleared all the hurdles in the selection procedure, he is formally appointed by issuing him an appointment letter. Candidates are appointed on probation of one or two years. Candidates who give satisfactory performance during the probationary period, are made permanent.

Question 3.
(a) Write a short note on the Halsey Plan of Incentive. [6]
(b) List any four factors that influence morale. Clearly explain how they boost or lower the morale. [8]
Answer:
(a) Halsey Plan : This plan was developed by F.A. Halsey and was first introduced in the Weir Engineering Works, England. Under this plan, a worker who completes his job within or more than the standard time is paid on guaranteed time wage. For example:
ISC Business Studies Question Paper 2018 Solved for Class 12 1
(b) Following are the factors that influence morale :

Nature of Work : Meaningful and satisfying job helps to improve employee morale. Morale tends to be low when the job provides no challenge and satisfaction and job standards are considered very high. .

Inter Personal Relations: The confidence of an employee in fellow employees influence morale. When a worker is confident, his morale is likely to be high and when worker is not loyal and confident then, the morale is low.

Working Conditions: When the wages are fair, job is secure and more opportunities for promotion, job satisfaction and morale is high but if the working conditions are not favorable then it will decrease the morale.

Personal Factors : The age, education level and family life affect the morale. High status employee tends to have high morale whereas low status employee leads to low morale.

Question 4. .
(a) Explain the first three needs as per the Mas low’s Hierarchy of Human Needs. [6]
(b) Discuss any four purposes of performance appraisal. [8]
Answer:
(a) Following are the first three needs as per the Mas low’s Hierarchy of human needs :

Physiological Needs : These needs are essential for survival of human life. It includes the food, drink, sex, sleep, clothing, shelter etc. Reasonable satisfaction of physiological needs is essential for the preservation and efficient operation of the human body. These are the basic or fundamental needs.

Safety Needs: These needs consist of physical safety or protection against murder, fire, accident etc. and economic security against unemployment, old age, sickness, disability etc. An organisation can influence safety needs by providing job security, pension plans, insurance plans etc.

Social Needs: Social needs include needs for love and affection, association with and acceptance by various social groups. Every person should made meaningful relationship with others.

(b) Following are the four purposes of performance appraisal:

  • To provide a record of each employee’s performance for deciding wage increments and rewards.
  • To identify the weaknesses of employees so that suitable training and development programmes may be required to remove such weaknesses.
  • To judge whether the employees are performing their jobs at the desired levels.
  • To make employees aware of their performance so as to motivate their self development.

Question 5.
(a) Briefly explain any three leadership styles. [6]
(b) What is staff transfer ? Explain any four types of transfers. [8]
Answer:
(a) Following are the leadership styles :

Autocratic Leadership: An autocratic leader is one who likes to run the show himself. All decision making power is centralized in the leader. He holds out threats of punishment or uses his powers to distribute rewards on the assumption that people are lazy. It also provides strong motivation and satisfaction to the leader.

Democratic Leadership: A democratic leader makes decisions jointly with his followers. He decentralizes authority and allow the group to share his power. It increases the cooperation between management and workers. It facilitates the development of future leaders. It is based on the assumption that the leader drives his power by consent of the followers who are mature and can be creative.

Free-Rein Leadership : Affeerein leader gives complete freedom to his followers to establish their own goals and policies. There is maximum opportunity for development of subordinates. There is also complete freedom to subordinates to improve their motivation and morale.

(b) Staff transfer means moving a person from one factory, branch or office to another without changing status, salary and power. This will ensure uniformity of treatment and avoid transfers for petty reasons. It should indicate the executive responsible for initiating and approving the transfers. The benefits of staff transfer are given below :

  • Improve employee skill
  • Remedy for faulty placements
  • Develop employee for future promotion
  • Greater job satisfaction

Various types of transfers are :

Production Transfers: Such transfers are made when there is need for more personnel in one branch. Production transfer helps to prevent lay-offs and stabilize employment. Employees are transferred from the over staffed unit to the unit where the staffs are less.

Shift Transfers: Employees may be transferred from one shift to another for personal reasons like marriage, old parents etc.

Versatility Transfers : Such transfers enable the organisation to develop talent for filling up higher jobs. It is made to develop all round proficiency among employee. They are shifted from one job to another to increase the job knowledge.

Remedial Transfers : These transfers are made to rectify errors in selection and placement of employees. It also permits better use of human resources in the organisation through proper matching of job requirements and qualification of employees.

Question 6.
(a) Name and explain any three types of interviews. [6]
(b) With reference to company meetings, explain the following terms: [8]
(i) Point of order
(ii) Statutory Meeting
(iii) Proxy
(iv) Agenda
Answer:
(a)Recruitment Interview: It is taken to assess the suitability of candidates for a job. The interview can be used to provide the necessary information about the organisation and job. The interviewer and the candidate both must be well-prepared for the interview so that a good decision can be taken.

Appraisal Interview: Appraisal interview gives both the employer and the employee an v opportunity to know each other and helps in improving employer-employee relations. ‘ It is useful for finding out the conditions, morale etc. of employees through face to face.

Disciplinary Interview: Discipline is important for the success of every organisation. It helps to locate the cause of indiscipline. During the disciplinary interview, the approach of the superior manager should be constructive. Appropriate counselling may be used to assist and the employee in overcoming his problems and in modifying his behaviour.

(b) Point of Order: A point of order is a question regarding the procedure of a meeting. Any number can raise a point of order to draw the attention of the chairman to some irregularity in the procedure of the meeting.

Statutory Meeting: According to Section 165, every public company limited by shares or limited by guarantee and having a share capital must hold a statutory meeting within a month but not more than six months from the date on which the company is entitled to commence business. The purpose of statutory meeting is to enable the members to get acquainted with the affairs of the company.

Proxy: Proxy is a representative of a member who is unable or unwilling to attend the meeting in person. Unless the articles provide otherwise, a member of a company not having share capital cannot appoint a proxy. The proxy cannot speak at the general meeting, nor can he cast a vote unless there is a poll. There are two types of proxies i.e., special proxy and general proxy. A proxy may be revoked at any time.

Agenda: Agenda refers to the various items of business to be transacted at the meeting. It is in the form of a statement specifying the order in which the various matters are to dealt with. The secretary is in charge of the Agenda and he prepares the agenda in consultation with the chairman of the board of directors. The preparation of agenda in advance of the meeting helps in the systematic conduct of the meeting. Agenda may be drafted on a loose sheet of paper or there may be a special ‘Agenda Book’.

Question 7.
(a) Explain the process of report writing. [6]
(b) What are statistical tables ? Explain any three advantages of tabulating data. [8]
Answer:
(a) The various steps involved in the process of report are.

  • Introduction : It involves the purpose and name of the report.
  • Headings : It includes headings and sub-headings which make report useful.
  • Address : The report should be addressed to a definite person.
  • Table Contents: In case of lengthy report, the topics or chapters along with their page numbers should be givep.
  • Finding : This part of the report contains the findings along with tables, charts and figures.
  • Recommendations : This section contains the conclusions and suggestions of the reporter.
  • Summary: In case of long reports, a brief summary of the report should be given.
  • Appendix: It consists statistical data or tables, graphs etc.
  • Signature and Date: The report should be dated and signed by reporter.

(b) According to Tuttle a statistical table is the logical listing of related quantitative data in vertical columns and horizontal rows of numbers with sufficient explanatory and qualifying words, phrases and statements in the form of titles, headings and notes to make clear the full meaning of the data and their origin.

The following are the advantages of tables:
Simplification : Tables enable an analyst to present a huge mass of data in an orderly manner within a minimum of space. Data become easily understandable and avoiding unnecessary details.

Comparison: The table is divided into parts and each part contains total and sub-total. This will help to easily understand, compare and studied.

Patterns: Tabulation reveals patterns within, cannot be seen in a narrative form. It also facilitates the summation of the figures.

Question 8.
(a) State any six advantages of centralized handling of mail in an organisation. [6]
(b) Draft an application letter for the post of an Assistant Manager (Sales) at a reputed retail firm in response to a newspaper advertisement. An appropriate bio-data of the applicant should be prepared and enclosed with the application. [8]
Answer:
(a) Centralization of mailing work offers the following advantages:

  • All the mailing work can be systematized leading to reduction in delays and errors.
  • Various labor saving devices such as letter opening, folding and sealing machines can be used economically.
  • Trained persons can be employed. It leads to greater accuracy, speed and efficiency in mailing operations.
  • Centralized mailing allows new employees to get training in the routines of the office.
  • Centralization will ensure better control of use of postage stamps and their proper accounting.
  • Careful opening and prompt distribution of inward mail help to improve the efficiency of operations.

(b) Application letter for the Post of Assistant Manager
The Manager, Human Resources :
ABC Company, Ltd.
7, Nariman Point
Mumbai
Sir,
With reference to your advertisement in The Hindustan Times dated 15 April, 2018.1 hereby apply for the post of Junior Executive in your company. The particulars of my qualifications and the other personal details are given below :
Name : M.K. Sareen
Address : C-6,TilakNagar, Phase I, Delhi
Date of Birth : April 6,1987
Marital Status : Unmarried
Physique : Height 165 cm; Weight 60 kg
Education: (i) 90% marks in Commerce stream.
(ii) B.Com. (H) from Shri Ram College of Commerce with 85% marks.
(iii) PGDBM from Jagan Institute of Management Studies.

Extra Curricular Activities and Sports:

  • House captain in school.
  • Secretary, Commerce society in College.
  • Member of the college Cricket Team.

References: (i) Principal, Shri Ram College of Commerce, University of Delhi.
I look forward for an interview.
Yours faithfully
M.K. Sareen

ISC Class 12 Business Studies Previous Year Question Papers