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ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Chapter 17 Towards Partition of India (1944-1947) Solutions

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Very Short Questions

Question 1: Name the members of the Cabinet Mission Plan.
Answer: (i) Lord Patrick Lawrence (ii) Sir Stafford Cripps (iii) A. V. Alexander.

Question 2: What was the purpose of the Cabinet Mission?
Answer: The purpose of the Cabinet Mission was to hold consultations with the Indian leaders with the object of setting up complete self-government in India.

Question 3: In what way did the Cabinet Mission Plan try to preserve the unity of India?
Answer: The Cabinet Mission Plan tried to preserve the unity of India by providing the grouping of Muslim-majority provinces.

Question 4: What was finally accepted in the Cabinet Mission Plan by the Congress?
Answer: The Congress accepted the long-term plan but rejected the proposal for an Interim Government.

Question 5: What was finally accepted in the Cabinet Mission Plan by the Muslim League?
Answer: The Muslim League accepted the Cabinet Mission Plan entirely and asked the Viceroy to constitute an Interim Government.

Question 6: Who refuse to implement the Interim Government Plan as proposed in the Cabinet Mission Plan?
Answer: The Viceroy refused to implement the Interim Government Plan as proposed in the Cabinet Mission Plan.

Question 7: Which day was observed as the Direct Action Day by the League?
Answer: 16th August 1946.

Question 8: What is said about Princely States in Mountbatten Plan?
Answer: In the Mountbatten Plan it is stated that the Princely States would have the option to join either of the two dominions of India or Pakistan.

Question 9: What is stated about the Princely States in the Indian Independence Act 1947?
Answer: In the Independence Act 1947 the Princely States were given the choice to join either of the Dominions or to retain their independence.

Question 10: To whom was the power to be transferred according to the Mountbatten Plan?
Answer: According to the Mountbatten Plan the transfer of power in India could be on the basis of the partition of the country. Power would be transferred to one whole or more States.

Question 11: What last effort did Gandhiji make in order to prevent the partition of the country?
Answer: Gandhiji was against partition. He said, ‘Even if the whole of India is in flames, it will not bring Pakistan, Pakistan would be over my dead body’. But, Jinnah was adamant.

Question 12: Who was elected as the President of the Constituent Assembly in 1946?
Answer: Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

Question 13: Who replaced Lord Wavell as the Viceroy of India?
Or
Name the last British Viceroy of India.
Answer: Lord Mountbatten replaced Lord Wavell as the Viceroy of India.

Question 14: What were the views of the, Congress on partition of the country?
Answer: Congress was against the partition of the country.

Short Questions – I

Question 1: In what way did the outcome of the general elections in 1945-46 strengthen Jinnah’s demand for partition?
Answer: Jinnah’s demand for partition strengthened after the general elections in 1945-46 because the Muslim League could not form the Government in any province, inspite of its victories in the elections.

Question 2: Mention two proposals of the Wavell’s Plan.
Answer: Two proposals of Wavell’s Plan are:
(i) The Viceroy’s Executive Council would have representatives from the two main communities i.e., the Hindus and the Muslims.
(ii) A British High Commissioner would live in India to represent Great Britains Commercial and other interests.

Question 3: What was the reaction of Muslim League on the proposal of Lord Wavell.
Answer: The Muslim League accepted the proposal because the Hindus and the Muslims were to be equally represented in the Viceroy’s Executive Council, but it insisted that the right to appoint Muslims on the Executive Council of the Viceroy should entirely rest with the Muslim League.

Question 4: On what grounds did the Cabinet Mission reject Jinnah’s demand for partition of India?
Answer: The Cabinet Mission rejected Jinnah’s demand for partition of India on the ground that partition would involve dislocation of communication network and would involve division of armed force and service personnel.

Question 5: Give any two salient features of the Cabinet Mission Plan.
Answer: (i) India would be a federation of British provinces and the Indian States.
(ii) The Federal Government would deal with defence, foreign affairs and communication. All other subjects would be under the control of the provinces.

Question 6: What was the view of the Congress and Muslim League on the grouping of the provinces as proposed in the Cabinet Mission Plan?
Answer: The Congress view on the grouping of the provinces was that it should have the option to join any group. The Muslim League were not prepared to compromise on the compulsory grouping of the provinces.

Question 7: What were the recommendations of the Cabinet Mission Plan regarding the Princely States?
Answer: The recommendations of the Cabinet Mission Plan regarding Princely States were that they would not be under the direct control of the Union and they would themselves decide as to what powers they were to surrender.

Question 8: What was mentioned in the Cabinet Mission Plan regarding provincial Autonomy?
Answer: The provinces would be free to from regional unions to which they would surrender some powers by mutual consent. There were to be 3 groups of provinces and each would have its
separate Constitution and if any province wanted to opt out of the group after the first general electrion they could do so.

Question 9: What were the views of the Sikhs and Scheduled Castes on the proposals of the Cabinet Mission Plan?
Answer: The Sikhs found the proposals of the Cabinet Mission Plan unacceptable because they were included in the North-Western Muslim Bloc. The Scheduled Castes were of the opinion that these proposals were illusory because no seats were reserved for scheduled castes and also because only one seat was offered to them in the Interim Government.

Question 10: Why did the Congress reject the League’s claim of having the exclusive right for nominating members of the Muslim quota in the Interim Government?
Answer: The Congress rejected the League’s claim of having the exclusive right for nominating members of the Muslim Quota in the interim Government because it did not want to accept an artificial party with the Muslim League in the formation of a National Government.

Question 11: What is referred to as the ‘Great Calcutta Killing’?
Answer: On the ‘Direct Action Day’ 16th August, 1946 a section of the people in Calcutta went on a rampage, arson, looting and murder. Nearly 5,000 people were killed and 15,000 injured. This violence continued for four days. The situation was encouraged by the Muslim League and the British administration remained paralyzed. This episode is known as the ‘Great Calcutta Killing’.

Question 12: How did Jinnah justify his stand to resort to ‘Direct Action’?
Answer: Jinnah justified his stand to resort to ‘Direct Action’ by stating that British had machine guns to enforce their will, the Congress had the weapon of civil resistance, therefore, the Muslims should also prepare for self-defence and self-preservation by ‘Direct Action’.

Question 13: What were the two proposals related to the Princely states in the Mountbatten Plan.
Answer: The two proposals related to princely states in Mountbatten plan were:
(i) All treaties in agreements between the British Government and rulers of Indian States will lapse.
(ii) They would be free to associate themselves in either of the Dominions i.e., India or Pakistan or to remain Independent.

Question 14: How were the borders of the two new Dominions to be demarcated according to the Indian Independence Act of 1947?
Answer: According to Indian Independence Act, Pakistan was to comprise the territories of Sind, British Baluchistan, North-West Frontier Province, the West Punjab and the East Bengal. The exact boundaries were to be determined by a Boundary Commission.

Question 15: State any two reasons to justify why the Congress accepted the Mountbatten Plan?
Answer: The Congress accepted the Mountbatten Plan out of concern for integrity and unity of India. According to Sardar Patel if it (Congress) would not have done so, India would have fallen to bits and pieces and completely ruined. Further communal riots compelled the Congress to accept the plan to avoid further bloodshed.

Short Questions – II

Question 1: What was the reaction of the Congress to the Wavell’s plan.
Answer: This plan of the-Muslim League was not acceptable to the Congress. It was the basic claim of the Congress that it represented both the Hindus and the Muslims Nationals of India, even those living outside India in any part of the world as Indian Nationals. Although Jinnah said, ‘a final examination and analysis of the Wavell Plan we found it was a snare’, yet the Congress agreed to the proposals. Gandhiji remarked, ‘The plan was sincere in spirit and contained the seeds of independence.’

Question 2: Give the reasons for the Muslim League’s acceptance and later rejection of the Cabinet Mission plan.
Answer: The League accepted it in its entirety on June 6, 1946, because it felt that the grouping of Muslim majority provinces in a way meant the formation of Pakistan. The league asked Wavell, the Viceroy, to constitute an Interim Government.
Election to the Constituent Assembly were held in July 1946, in which the Congress obtained two-third majority. The Congress had an overwhelming majority in the Constituent Assembly. The League fearer that it would be out votes in the Assembly. It also feared that the British withdrawal from India would mean transfer of power to the Hindus, who were in a majority in India.

Question 3: Why did the Cabinet Mission Plan reject the demand for Pakistan?
Answer: The Cabinet Mission Plan rejected the demand for Pakistan because:
(i) The partition as claimed by the Muslim League would not solve the communal problem.
(ii) A small Pakistan would not be viable if it is in two halves: One in the East the other in the West.
(iii) Partition would involve dislocation of communications network as well as division of armed forces and service personal along communal lines.

Question 4: In terms of the Independence Act of 1947 Bengal and Punjab were also to be divided If the people so desired. In this connection explain what was done to determine the choice of the people.
Answer: According to the provisions of the partition, the Provincial Assemblies of Bengal and Punjab would meet representing the Hindu majority and the Muslim majority districts and decide through majority vote whether they wanted the division of the province or not. In Sylhet district of East Bengal a plebiscite would be held to determine the choice whether to join India or Pakistan.

Question 5: Why the Muslim League earlier rejected and later participated in Interim Government.
Answer: On 13th October, 1946 Jinnah wrote to the Viceroy informing him that the Muslim League had decided to join the Interim Government and changed its previous stand. Accordingly, on 25th October, 1946, the representative of the League were also inducted into the Government under Jawaharlal Nehru. But very soon there were arguments regarding the interpretations of the Cabinet Missions Plan. This resulted in the Muslim League creating an unpleasant situation. At this stage the Muslim League joined the Interim Government but did not join the Constituent Assembly.

Question 6: The Muslim League decided to observe the Direct Action Day on 16th August, 1946. In this context briefly discuss about its result.
Answer: The League fixed August 16,1946 as the day for observing the Direct Action Day throughout the country. There were clashes and communal riots all over the country.
Nearly 5,000 lives were lost, over 15,000 persons were injured and many became homeless. Property worth crores of rupees was destroyed. All these incidents widened the gap between the Muslim League and the Congress and even between the Hindus and the Muslims.

Question 7: By pursuing Direct Action Plan, the Muslim League resorted to violent activities. Discuss.
Answer: The communal violence that erupted as a result of ‘Direct Action Day’ was the worst of its kind ever seen in the history of India. Muslims organised demonstrations, strikes and processions. The city of Calcutta witnessed riots and scenes of barbarity of worst kind. Over 5000 people died in violence and three times this number were wounded besides loss of property. The communal violence later also spread to Noakhali, some parts of Bihar and even Punjab.

Question 8: What did congress leaders do when the Muslim League resorted to violent activities after pursuing Direct Action plan. How worst was the communal violence?
Answer: The Congress leaders like Gandhiji went on foot from place to place in Noakhali. He even undertook 24 hour fast on the very night when transfer of power took place. Jawaharlal Nehru even though busy in Delhi with transfer of power took time off and went to Bihar to personally supervise the actions of Congress ministry in Bihar. Other Congress leaders were also there but the Chief Minister Mr. Suhrawardy in Bengal did nothing to check communal violence. Some Government officials even supported the perpetrators of violence.

Question 9: Describe briefly the events that led to Mr. Clement Attlee’s announcement of 20th February, 1947. With reference to this brief about the formation of Interim Government by the Congress on 2nd September, 1946.
Answer: In Calcutta, on 16th August, 1946, the Muslim League held demonstrations, hartals and also hoisted Muslim League’s flag. But their activities soon took a violent shape. There were riots, looting and killing in and around Calcutta. The Muslim League ministry could not control the situation. There was extreme loss of life and property. Meanwhile, the Congress formed the Interim Government on 2nd September, 1946. The Muslim League observed it as a day of mourning. Most of the Muslims all over the country were asked to display black flags. The result was that violence broke out in Bombay, Bengal, Bihar and also in Punjab. Gandhiji said, ‘we are not in midst of Civil War but we are nearing it.’

Question 10: Prime Minister Attlee’s announcement on February 20, 1947, was attempted to end the deadlock in India and marked the last fe w months of British Rule. In this context write short notes on Attlee’s announcement of 20th February, 1947.
Or
Mention any three salient features of the Atlee’s announcement.
Answer: The Congress and the Muslim League could not work together for long. The Muslim League went on harping on its demand for division of India. Jinnah said, ‘We shall resist anything that militates against the Pakistan demand’. The British Government watched the situation with utmost vigilance, was then compelled to change its policy of saving India from its division into two. The Prime Minister of England, Mr. Clement Attlee, announced on 20th February, 1947.
(i) Britain would withdraw from India and transfer power to responsible Indians by June 1948.
(ii) If no agreement was arrived, Britain would still withdraw and hand over power to one or more than one Government.
(iii) Lord Mountbatten was to replace Lord Wavell as the new Viceroy of India.

Question 11: What was the place of Princely States in Mountbatten Plan.
Answer: The Indian Independence Act 1947 stated that on the withdrawal of the British Empire, the Indian Princely States would become independent. Each Princely State shall be at liberty to join either India or Pakistan. His Majesty’s Government and the rulers of Indian States or any authority in tribal areas shall lapse from 15th August, 1947. The words Emperor of India shall be omitted from the Royal Style and Titles.

Question 12: How were the people of Punjab and Bengal affected by the communal riots?
Answer: The people were badly affected by communal riots. Thousands of innocent people both in Punjab and Bengal started moving from one dominion to the other. Lakhs of people thus became refugees both in India and Pakistan. Fear and hatred gripped both the nations.

Question 13: In reference to the Indian Independence Act of 1947, discuss what happened to Princely States.
Answer: In terms of the Independence Act 1947 the Princely States became independent. All the powers which vested in British were terminated. Some Princely States on their own initiative joined Indian Union. In some cases there was some military intervention to make them agree to democratic aspirations of people.

Question 14: What was achieved by this ‘Treaty’of Peace without War’?
Answer: By this Treaty, India won its freedom. There was partition of the country and a new nation Pakistan was born. The British officers and British Army left India. As a result new problems arose. There was unprecedented communal violence. Though peace was achieved, several thousand people died and lakhs of refugees had to migrate to Indian side as a result of communal violence. Yet the Independence Act was a milestone in the history of India marking a new phase of ‘Self Government’ which India as a whole had never witnessed in its history.

Question 15: Lord Samuel described the Indian Independence Act as Treaty of Peace without War’. In this connection state why did Lord Samuel say so?
Answer: The Indian Independence Act was the only one of the many acts which both Congress and Muslim League signed with the British. Never in the history had Britain voluntarily abdicated a Colonial territory without bloodshed or war. So the Indian Independence Act was described as ‘unique’ in history. It is this what Lord Samuel called ‘Treaty of Peace without War’.

Picture Based Questions

Question 1: With reference to the picture given answer the following:

(i) Identify the Viceroy in the picture.
(ii) Why was he sent to India?
Answer: (i) Lord Mountbatten.
(ii) Lord Clement Atlee sent Lord Mountbatten as the Viceroy of India to resolve the communal violence in India. He was given powers to negotiate with the leaders of different communities and help the two major parties, that is, the Indian National Congress and The Muslim League, reach an agreement.

Question 2: With reference to the picture given answer the following:

(i) Identify the event in the above picture. Name the lady seen in the given picture.
(ii) Mention the year when the event took place.
Answer: (i) The event in the given picture is the swearing ceremony of Jawahar Lal Nehru as the Prime Minister of Independent India. The lady seen in the picture is Lady Mountbatton, the wife of Lord Mountabaton the first Governor General of India.
(ii) The event took place in 1947.

Question 3: In the above historic photograph, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru is seen giving his famous speech in the Constituent Assembly on August 14, 1947. In this context, mention the Provisions of the Indian Independence Act of 1947 regarding the Constituent Assemblies.

Answer: The Constituent Assembly which was set up under the Cabinet Mission according to which there would be 385 members, of whom 292 would be representatives from the provinces and 93 would represent Indian states. They would frame the provincial constitutions for their groups and then would finally meet to frame the Union Constitution. The Muslim League initially accepted the proposal but later rejected it.
The government drafted the Indian Independence Act (1947). According to this India was to be divided into two dominions with their boundaries defined. The provisions of the Constituent Assembles in the Indian Independence Act were:
(i) The Constituent Assemblies would draft the Constitutions of the two Dominoions separately and decide whether to stay with the Commonwealth or not.
(ii) The Constituent Assembly of each dominion would exercise the power of Central Legislatures and would make laws for that dominion.

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ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Chapter 5 The State Judiciary (The High Court) Solutions

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Very Short Questions

Question 1: How many High Courts are there in India?
Answer: There are 18 High Courts in India at present.

Question 2: Who appoints the Chief Justice of a High Court?
Answer: The President appoints the Chief Justice of a High Court on the advice of the Chief Justice of Supreme Court and the Governor of the concerned State.

Question 3: Who determines the strength of the Judges of a High Court?
Answer: The President determines the strength of the Judges of a High Court.

Question 4: How are the other Judges of High Court appointed?
Answer: The other Judges of the High Court are appointed by the President of India after the consultation with the Chief Justice of High Court and the Governor of the State concerned.

Question 5: Can a Senior Advocate of a High Court become a Judge of a High Court?
Answer: Yes, a Senior Advocate of a High Court can become a Judge of a High Court if he has worked in a High Court in India for continuously ten years.

Question 6: What is the number of the Judges of a High Court?
Answer: There is no fixed number of Judges for a High Court.

Question 7: What is the age of retirement of a Judge of a High Court?
Answer: ‘The Judge of a High Court retires at the age of 62 years.

Question 8: Name the Union Territory, which has a High Court of its own.
Answer: Delhi has a High Court of its own.

Question 9: Where is the seat of Rajasthan High Court?
Answer: The seat of the Rajasthan High Court is at Jodhpur and bench at Jaipur.

Question 10: Where are the salaries of the Judges charged?
Answer: The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of the State.

Question 11: Who determines the pension, leave, etc., of the Judges?
Answer: The Parliament determines the pension, leave, etc., of the Judges.

Question 12: Who administers an oath of office to the Chief Justice and the Judges of a High Court?
Answer: The Governor administers the oath of office to the Chief Justice and the Judges of a High Court.

Question 13: How many Judges can the President appoint?
Answer: The President may appoint as many Judges as he deems necessary.

Question 14: Which is the competent authority that can alter the Constitution or organization of the High Court?
Answer: The Parliament can alter the Constitution or organisation of the High Court.

Question 15: Who can transfer the Judges of a High Court?
Answer: The President can transfer the Judges of a High Court to another, with his consent.

Question 16: What is the relationship of all the High Courts with the Supreme Court?
Answer: All the High Courts are directly under the Supreme Court, since all of them are a part of a single Judiciary.

Question 17: Which Courts have Original Jurisdiction in all civil and criminal cases?
Answer: The Presidency High Courts have Original Jurisdiction in almost all civil and criminal cases.

Question 18: Explain whether the High Court can declare any Central law to be constitutionally invalid.
Answer: No, the High Court cannot declare any Central law to be constitutionally invalid.

Question 19: What is meant by every High Court is a court of record?
Answer: Because its judgement and orders are preserved as record to be produced in any court as precedent.

Question 20: Name the Tribunal over which the High Court do not have the Power of Superintendence.
Answer: Armed Forces.

Question 21: In which two ways the Constitution has ensured the independence of the High Courts?
Or
Mention two Constitutional provisions that ensure the independence and impartiality of the High Courts.
Answer: (i) By Security of Service, and (ii) Security of pay and allowances.

Question 22: Name the courts that are empowered to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
Answer: The Supreme Court and the High Court are empowered to issue writs for the enforcement of Government Rights.

Question 23: Name the write issued by the High Court, which provides a remedy for a person who has been unlawfully detained in prison.
Answer: Habeas Corpus.

Short Questions – I

Question 1: How are the Judges of a High Court appointed?
Answer: The Chief Justice of High Court is appointed by the President under his own hand and seal while appointing the Chief Justice, the President consults the Chief Justice of Supreme Court and the Governor of the State concerned. In case of the appointment of other judges, the President consults the Chief Justice of concerned High court and the Governor of the concerned state.

Question 2: Name the States which are served by the Guwahati High Court.
Or
Name the High Court which has jurisdiction over several States? Also mention the name of such States.
Answer: Guwahati High Court has the jurisdiction over seven States. They are:
(i) Arunachal Pradesh, (ii) Assam, (iii) Meghalaya, (iv) Mizoram,
(v) Manipur, (vi) Tripura, (vii) Nagaland.

Question 3: Mention, how the High Court keeps control over the Legislature and the Executive?
Answer: Like the Supreme Court, a High Court also acts as a Guardian of the Constitution. If it finds any Law, executive order or any ordinance to be inconsistent with the provisions of the Constitution, it can declare it null and void. Thus it controls both the Legislature and the Executive.

Question 4: What is ‘Revisional Jurisdiction’?
Answer: The High Court may call for the record of any case which has been decided by a subordinate court, if a High Court is of the opinion that a case pending in a court, involves a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution and the determination of which is necessary for the disposal of the case.

Question 5: Mention any two administrative functions of a High Court.
Or
Mention one of the administrative function of High court.
Answer: (i) The High Court is empowered to frame rules and regulations for Subordinate Courts.
(ii) The High Court has power to issue order to its Subordinate Courts in the interest of better judicial service of the people.

Question 6: How does the High Court protect the Fundamental Rights of individuals?
Answer: The High Court protects the Fundamental Rights from being eroded, infringed upon or abridged by any individual or a group of individuals or the State itself by issuing different writs like Habeas Corpus to the offending parties.

Question 7: What is the ‘Appellate Jurisdiction’ of the High Court?
Answer: In the ‘Appelate Jurisdiction’ the High Court takes up both civil and criminal cases. It also extends to take up civil cases tried by District Judge and criminal cases decided by Sessions or Additional Sessions Judges.

Question 8: Why the Judge of High Court cannot practice law in the same Court after his retirement?
Answer: The Judge of a High Court cannot practice law in the same court after his retirement so that the former colleagues and associates do not get influenced by his/her presence while making decisions. He can practice in the Supreme Court or any other Court in which he has not been a Judge (in other State).

Short Questions – II

Question 1: Many provisions of the Constitution are intended to secure independence and impartiality of the High Courts. In this context explain the significance of each of the following provisions:
(i) Security of Tenure. (ii) Salaries and allowances of the Judges.
Answer: (i) Security of Tenure: A Judge can remain in office till he has attained the age of 62 years. He: can be removed by the President on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity on an address of each House of Parliament. Such an address (request) should be supported by a majority of the total membership of the House and by two-thirds of the members present and voting.
(ii) Salaries and allowances of the Judges: Judges salaries, allowances, etc., shall not be varied to their disadvantage during their term of office. Moreover, they are charged on the Consolidated Fund of the State and are not subject to vote of the Legislature. The salaries of the Judges cannot be reduced except during periods of financial emergency.

Question 2: State the term of office of the Judges of the High Court. Explain when and how the Judges can be removed from office.
Answer: A Judge of a High Court shall hold office until they attains the age of sixty-two or they themselves resign their office. Neither an additional nor an acting Judge can hold office beyond the age of sixty-two years.
A Judge of High Court cannot be removed from office except by an order of the president on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. Such an order is passed after an address by each House of Parliament supported by a majority of the total membership of that house and by a majority of not less than 2/3rd of the members of the House present and voting for such a removal.

Question 3: Mention three cases in which the High Court enjoys Original Jurisdiction.
Answer: The Original Jurisdiction extends to those cases which High Court has authority to hear and decide in the first instance.
(i) The cases regarding wills, divorce, marriage Admiralty, Company Law and Contempt of Court can be taken up by the High Court directly.
(ii) The cases involving the violation of Fundamental Rights and other rights can be directly initiated in the High Courts. The High Court has the power to issue various Writs for the enforcement of these rights.
(iii) The Constitutional cases could be taken up under the Original Jurisdiction of the High Court. Every High Court has the power to interpret the Constitution. This is known as the power of Judicial Review.

Question 4: The Constitution of India provides that there shall be a High Court in each State. With reference to the Jurisdiction of High Courts, write short notes on the following:
(i) Power to issue Writs, (ii) Court of Record.
Answer: (i) Power to issue Orders or Writs: All the High Courts have the power to issue Writs to a person or an official. The Writs comprise the writs of Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Quo Warranto, and Certiorari. These Writs are issued to protect the Fundamental Rights or for any other purpose.
(ii) The Court of Record: All the proceedings and decisions of the High Court are kept as records for future references. The Subordinate Courts of the High Court itself decide similar cases in future in the light of the judgments passed by the High Courts of different States.

Long Questions

Question 1: Explain the composition of a High Court. State the qualifications required to become a Judge in the High Court.
Answer: The Constitution provides for a High Court for each State. Parliament may, however, establish a common High Court for two or more States/Union Territories. This depends on the area and the population to which a High Court has to serve and the amount of work it has to handle.
Composition: Each High Court consists of a Chief Justice and such other Judges as the President of India may appoint from time to time.
Besides, the President has the power to appoint:
(i) Additional Judges for a temporary period not exceeding two years, for the clearance of arrears of work in a High Court;
(ii) an acting Judge when a permanent Judge (other than the Chief Justice) is temporarily absent or unable to perform his duties or is appointed to act temporarily as Chief Justice. The acting Judge holds office until the permanent Judge resumes his office.
Qualifications: According to the Constitution, a person shall be qualified for appointment as a Judge of a High Court under the following conditions:
(i) He should be a citizen of India.
(ii) He should not be over 62 years.
(iii) He has held a judicial office in the territory of India for at least ten years.
Or
He has been an advocate of a High Court for at least ten years.

Question 2: Explain any four conditions of service of a Judge of a High Court.
Answer: The conditions of service of the Judges are as follows:
(i) Every Judge of a High Court shall hold office until he attains the age of 62 years. He may resign from his office at anytime by submitting his resignation to the President.
(ii) After retirements a Judge of the High Court can plead only in the Supreme Court He can’t do the legal practice in other courts or indicial tribunals.
(iii) The allowances and pension of a Judge of High Court can not be varied to his disadvantage after this appointment.
(iv) He can be removed from office by the President on the ground of proven misbehaviour or incapacity.

Question 3: Under which jurisdiction can a High Court accept an appeal against the decision of the district court?
Answer: Under Appellate Judgement (both civil and criminal) the High Courts can accept appeals against the decisions of the lower courts. In civil cases the High Courts hear the appeals against the decisions of District Judges. In Criminal cases Appellate jurisdiction consists of appeals:
(i) Against the judgmenet of a Sessions Judge or an Additional Sessions Judge, where the sentence of imprisonment exceeds seven years.
(ii) Against the judgements of Assistant Sessions Judge, the Chief Metropolitan Magistrate or: other Judicial Magistrates, where the sentence of imprisonment exceeds four years.
Also,the High Courts have the following powers with respect to appeals: (a) A sentence of death must be confirmed by the High Court before it can be carried out; and (b) Appeals by the State also lie to the High Court, when the order of acquittal is passed by a Sessions judge.

Question 4: In the context of the High Court, discuss the power of superintendence.
Answer: Power of Superintendence: The High Court enjoys the power of Superintendent over all Courts within their territorial jurisdiction. In this regard the High Court exercises the following powers:
(i) Detailed report as the working of the Courts can be called for.
(ii) Rules can be formed for regulating the practice and proceeding of the Courts.
(iii) The appointment, posting and promotion of District Judges shall be made by the Governor in consultation with the High Court.
(iv) The High Court can prescribe form in which book, entries and account shall be kept by the Court.

Question 5: Discuss the norms governing the appointment and transfer of a Judge.
Answer: Discretion of the Executive and that of the Chief Justice of India has been reduced in Appointments and Transfers of Judges: The President can transfer any Judge from one High Court to another. But it requires these conditions to be fulfilled. First, orders for transfer can be issued after consulting the Chief Justice of India. Second, the Chief Justice of India’s recommendation must be made in consultation with four senior most Judges of the Supreme Court. Third, the views of the Chief Justices of the High Courts—one from which the transfer is taking place and another to which the transfer is to be effected must also be obtained. Fourth, when a Judge has been transferred, he shall be entitled to compensatory allowance in addition to his salary.

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ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Chapter 12 Formation of the Muslim League Solutions

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ICSESolutions.com provides ICSE Solutions for Class 10 History and Civics Chapter 12 Formation of the Muslim League for ICSE Board Examinations. We provide step by step Solutions for ICSE History and Civics Class 10 Solutions Pdf. You can download the Class 10 History and Civics ICSE Textbook Solutions with Free PDF download option.

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Question 1: When was the All India Muslim League formed?
Answer: The All India Muslim League was formed on 30th December 1906.

Question 2: Who presided over its session at Dacca?
Answer: Waqar-ul-Mulk presided over the Dacca session of the Muslim League.

Question 3: Why did the British rulers treat the Muslims with suspicion after the Revolt of 1857?
Answer: The British rulers treated the Muslims with suspicion after the Revolt of 1857, because they felt that the Revolt was led by the Muslims.

Question 4: Who established the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College at Aligarh?
Answer: Sir Syed Ahmed Khan established The Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College at Aligarh.

Question 5: Why did the British encourage separatist tendencies among the minority community?
Or
Why did the British believe in the policy of Divide and Rule in India?
Answer: The British believed in the policy of Divide and Rule because they realized that if both the communities fight one against the other, the British could go on ruling India.

Question 6: Give a reason for the establishment of the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental Defence Association in 1893.
Answer: The Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental Defence Association was established in order to counter the growing influence of the Congress.

Question 7: Name the Viceroy who was responsible in 1909, for granting separate electorates on the basis of communal representation.
Answer: Lord Minto was the viceroy who was responsible in 1909 for granting separate electorates on the basis of communal representation.

Question 8: Who started the Ahrar Movement?
Answer: Maulana Mohammad Ali, Hakim Ajmal Khan and Mazhar-ul-haq started the Ahrar Movement which was assertive and national.

Question 9: On whose persuasion was the Muslim deputation constituted to meet the Viceroy Lord Minto at Shimla?
Answer: Mr. Archibald, the Principal of Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College, (M.A.O. College), Aligarh, encouraged the Muslim deputation to meet the Viceroy at Shimla.

Question 10: Who convened the Mohammedan Education Conference in Dacca?
Answer: Nawab Salimullah of Dacca convened the Mohammedan Educational Conference.

Question 11: Give one reason why Nawab Salimullah of Dacca convened the Mohammedan Educational Conference.
Answer: Nawab Salimullah wanted to infuse among the Muslims the idea of establishing a Central Mohammedan Association to look after the interest of the Muslims in general.

Short Questions – I

Question 1: Give two examples to show that the British encouraged communal and separatist attitude in Indian politics.
Answer: (i) The British exploited the caste structure of the Indian society by playing the non-Brahmins against Brahmins.
(ii) The replacement of Urdu by Hindi in law courts created a feeling of communal bitterness among the Hindu and the Muslims.

Question 2: How did the biased presentation of historical events spread hatred between the communities?
Answer: The British created hatred between the two communities (Hindus and Muslims) by giving new interpretation to Indian history where they identified the Indian nation with the Hindus and the Indian culture with the Hindu religion.

Question 3: With the help of economic backwardness, describe briefly the development of separatist trend among the Muslims in India.
Answer: The economic backwardness of the country was also responsible for the growth of communalism. Since there was not much industrial development so there was an acute problem of unemployment. The communities encouraged job reservations on the basis of religion, caste and region. This became an obstacle in the path of national unity.

Question 4: How the religious sentiments among the aggressive nationalists, resulted in the development of separatist trend among the Muslims in India.
Answer: The assertive nationalists in their speech and writings simply praised the ancient culture of India ignoring the medieval Indian culture. This caused unnecessary suspicion in the minds of a few educated Muslims, who kept themselves aloof from the nationalist movement and developed the separatist trend.

Question 5: Why did Sir Syed Ahmed Khan oppose the policies of the Indian National Congress?
Answer: Sir Syed Ahmed Khan opposed the policies of the Indian National Congress because he felt that the interests of Muslims and Hindus were different. He was afraid that if the British withdrew, the Hindu majority would rule and it would be unfair to the Muslims.

Question 6: Why did Sir Syed Ahmed Khan advise the Muslims not to join the Congress?
Answer: Sir Syed Ahmed Khan advised the Muslims not to join the Congress because he opposed the policies of the Indian Congress and was afraid that if the British withdrew, the Hindu majority would rule and it would be unfair to the Muslims.

Question 7: In what way did the Hindi-Urdu Controversy (1900) strain the relations between the two communities in India?
Or
How did the Hindi-Urdu controversy become an important factor in the formation of the Muslim League.
Answer: Urdu was the court language in Uttar Pradesh. The Hindu community, protested and demanded that they should be allowed to submit petitions in Hindi in Devanagri script. The Government granted this request. Thus, the Hindi-Urdu controversy further strained the relations between the Hindus and Muslims.

Question 8: Give any two demands forwarded by the deputation led by Aga Khan.
Answer: The two demands forwarded by the deputation led by Aga Khan were:
(i) The Muslims should be granted a representation in the Councils.
(ii) Their representation should be determined not on the basis of their numerical strength, but on the basis of their political importance and the services rendered by them to the British Empire.

Question 9: What were the objectives of the Muslim League?
Or
State any two objectives of the Muslim League.
Answer: The objectives of the Muslim League were:
(i) To promote, feelings of loyalty among the Muslims of India, towards the British Government and to remove any mis-conception that may arise as to the intentions of the Government with regard to Indian Muslims.
(ii) To protest and advance the political rights of the Muslims of India and to represent their needs and aspirations of the Government.

Short Questions – II

Question 1: Why did the Muslims find the partition of Bengal suited their interests.
Answer: Lord Curzon partitioned Bengal on the pretext that Bengal was too big as an administrative unit, therefore he wanted a division. But the real motive was to separate Muslims from Hindus and create communal feelings between them was the ulterior motive of the British Government. Partition of Bengal gave the Muslims community a new impetus for their political activities. The Muslims considered the newly carved province of the Muslim majority as a source of their strength and also as a center of their political activity.

Question 2: How did the educational backwardness of the Muslims lead to the growth of communalism in the early years of the 20th century.
Answer: The Muslims were not attracted by the Western science, Democracy or Nationalism. The Hindus, in those days were more educated in the Western sciences and culture than the Muslims. Even Christians and Parsees were comparatively more highly educated than the Muslims. The result of this backwardness was that they were not offered Government jobs whereas the Hindus were in Government jobs in a much greater number. It was natural that the Muslim masses were easily led by communal feelings. Jawaharlal Nehru rightly said that this difference continued to show itself in many directions, political, economic and produced a fear among the Muslims.

Question 3: Discuss the role of Sir Syed Ahmed Khan in the formation of Muslims League.
Answer: Sir Syed Ahmad Khan was the first to advise the Muslims to receive western education as they had remained aloof from it which led to their political, social and economic backwardness. Initially he was a man with liberal views and a brave nationalist. He even founded the Mohammedan Anglo Oriental College in 1875 at Aligarh to spread education. He started instigating communal sentiments among the Muslims under the influence of Mr. Beck the principal of the M.A.O. He even started advising the Muslims to stay away from the Hindus and support the British Rule in India. This paved the way for the formation of the Muslim League.

Question 4: Mention any three aims of the Muslim League.
Answer: The aims of the League were laid down as follows:
(i) To promote among Indian Muslims, feelings for loyalty towards the British Government. The League would also remove misconception regarding the intentions of Government towards Indian Muslims.
(ii) To protect the political and other rights of the Muslims and to place their needs and aspirations before the Government in mild and moderate language.
(iii) To prevent the rise of any feeling of hostility between Muslims and other communities, without adversely affectingthe aforesaid objectives of the League.

Question 5: The All-India Muslims League was founded on 30 December 1906. With reference to this, briefly mention the factors which led to the formation of the League.
Answer: The British Government policy of ‘Divide and Rule’ in favour of the Muslims advanced their separatist attitude. The partition of Bengal and other events gave the Muslims a positive direction for their separate identity as a communal force. They felt the need of a central political ‘organisation of the Muslims alone. This opportunity came when Nawab Salimullah of Dacca, convened a meeting in connection with the Mohammedan Educational Conference. In that conference, he proposed a scheme of a Central Mohammedan Association to look after the Muslim interests exclusively. This proposal was unanimously accepted. The all India Muslim League was founded on 30th December, 1906.

Question 6: Briefly discuss the attitude of the nationalist Muslims towards the formation of Muslims League.
Answer: Although a large number of Muslims joined the All-India Muslim League but there were also many patriotic Muslims who opposed the aims and objectives of the Muslim League and proposed their full faith in the All-Indian National Congress. They understood the mischief of the policy of ‘Divide and Rule’ followed by the British in India. They exposed the nefarious scheme of the British Government and warned the Indian Nationalists not to fall victims to the shrewd policy of the British Government.

Question 7: Explain the circumstances leading to the formation of Minto-Morley Reforms.
Answer: The Viceroy Lord Minto was in favour of widening the gap between the Hindus and the Muslims. In order to win over thg Muslims the Viceroy decided to grant certain concessions to the Muslims. A deputation consisting of 35 prominent Muslims led by his highness Aga Khan met Lord Minto in Shimla. The demands of the delegation were accepted by the Viceroy which in turn led to the formation of Minto-Morley reforms.

Long Questions

Question 1: The formation of the Muslim League and the Home Rule Movement had a wholesome effect on the affairs of the country. In this context mention three factors leading to the formation of the Muslim League.
Answer: Factors which led to the formation of the League: The Muslim League was formed on 30th December, 1906. The three factors leading to the formation of Muslim League are given below:
(i) British attitude: As the national movement spread the British felt that the movement unite the people of India resulting in a threat to the British empire. United people could not be subjugated for long. The British tired to do all they could to keep the people disunited. Then by inciting one community against the other divided the people and encouraged communal and separatist attitude.
(ii) Partial Attitude of Hindu Activism: The radical nationalist, no doubt with sincere intentions, in order to justify India’s past in advertently adopted a partisan attitutde. While glorifying Shivaji and Rana Pratap they obliterated any mention to the contribution made by Mughal rulers. This was totally against the prevailing social milieu of a mixed culture. This was misinterpreted by wasted interest and cause a schism between Hindu and Muslim resulting in aloofness to downright oppositions to national movement in a dominant section of Muslim society.
(iii) Policy of Divide and Rule: The British realised the Hindu Muslim unity. The best way to safeguard their own interest and rule would be to put up the Hindu and Muslim against each other. So they deliberately followed the policy of Divide and Rule. Lord Curzon, with a view to divide a country on communal lines, partition Bengal, replacement of Urdu by Hindi in courts also adds the fuel to the fire.

Question 2: There were several factors responsible for the formation of the Muslim League. In this context briefly describe the formation of Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental Defence Association, 1893.
Answer: The Indian National Congress was growing its influence rapidly. It caused quite an uneasiness in the Government circles also. Mr. Beck was the Principal of the MAO College, Aligarh. He took keen interest in the formation of the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental Defence Association and became its Secretary. The object of this Association was to dissuade the Muslims from joining the Indian National Congress and to advocate their loyalty to the British Government. Principal Beck not only strengthened the hands of the British Government but played a significant role in pursuing the policy of ‘Divide and Rule’. This was what the British Government had been doing ever since the Indian National Congress started becoming popular.

Question 3: There were many events and factors which finally led to the formation of the Muslim League in 1906. In this context describe the rift caused by the Hindi-Urdu controversy.
Answer: During the British rule, before 1900, Urdu was used as court language. All petitions were written in Urdu but due to strong protest and demand, the British Government on 8th April, 1900 passed an order that Government offices and law Courts should also entertain petitions written in Hindi in Devanagari script. It also said that Court summons and official announcement should be issued both in Urdu and Hindi languages. The Muslims resented the order of the Government. This Hindi-Urdu controversy widened the gulf between the Hindus and Muslims. This was also one of the causes of the formation of the Muslim League.

Question 4: A Muslim deputation led by Aga Khan waited upon the Viceroy Lord Minto on 1st October, 1906. In this context describe the demands made by the Deputation.
Answer: The three demands made by the Muslim Deputation in 1906 to the Viceroy Lord Minto:
(i) Separate Electorates: The Muslims should be given the right of sending their representatives to the Provincial Councils and Imperial legislative council through separate communal electorates.
(ii) Separate Representation in the Municipal and University Bodies: There should be some scheme for giving adequate representation to the Muslims in Municipal and District Boards and the senates and syndicate of Indian Universities.
(iii) Greater Representation in Civil, Military and Judicial Services: There should be greater representation of the Muslims in all services civil and military. Further, there should be Muslim Judges in every High Court.

Question 5: The British Government succeeded in its diplomacy of creating a wedge between the Hindus and the Muslims in India. In this context briefly describe the policy of ‘Divide and Rule’.
Answer: The British Government that looked at the Muslims with suspicion after the Revolt of 1857, and favoured the Hindus changed its attitude after the events of 1870. The Government grew apprehensive of the rise of Indian nationalism. It felt doubtful about the safety and stability of the British rule in India. The wave of national unity and patriotism led the British Government to adopt the policy of ‘Divide and Rule’. The British Government encouraged the Muslims of India to demand separate electorate for Muslim representation. In this way the British Government hook upon itself the role of the champion of the Muslims.

Picture Based Questions

Question 1: Answer the following:

(i) Name the famous Muslim reformer in the picture.
(ii) Name the educational insitution founded by him. What was his objective?
Answer: (i) Sir Syed Ahmad Khan.
(ii) He founded the Mohammed Anglo-Oriental college. His objective was to provide western education to Muslims.

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Very Short Questions

Question 1: When did the First World War come to an end?
Answer: The First World War came to an end on November 11th, 1918.

Question 2: What is the name of the book written by Adolf Hitler?
Answer: The name of the book Written by Adolf Hitler is “Mein Kampf”.

Question 3: What does the abbreviation Nazi stands for?
Answer: The abbreviation Nazi stands for ‘National Socialist German Workers’.

Question 4: Why did Adolf Hitler preach extreme hatred against the German Jews?
Answer: Adolf Hitler preached extreme hatred against the German Jews because they were blamed not only for the defeat of Germany in the First World War but for all the ills of Germany.

Question 5: When and by whom was the Munich Pact signed?
Answer: Munich Pact was signed at Munich in Germany in September 1938. It was signed by Hitler and Mussolini on the one side and the Prime Ministers of France and Britain on the other.

Question 6: When did the Second World War begin?
Answer: The Second World War began on 3rd September 1939.

Question 7: When did Japan quit the League of Nations?
Answer: Japan withdrew from League of Nations in the year 1933.

Question 8: What was the purpose of ‘New Deal’?
Answer: The purpose of ‘New Deal’ was to save America from the economic depression of 1929-33.

Question 9: What was the main principle for which the Second World War was fought?
Answer: The main principle for which the Second World War was fought was to make the world safe for democracy.

Question 10: Why did the Nationalist Movement started in China?
Answer: The Nationalist Movement was started in China to overthrow the foreign domination and unite China by ending the rule of the warlords.

Question 11: What is communism?
Answer: A type of government under which means of production are controlled by the State or government, for example USSAR.

Question 12: What is capitalism?
Answer: A type of government under which means production are controlled by private individual.

Question 13: What is meant by the term appeasement? Who adopted it towards whom?
Answer: The policy of appeasement means a policy of conciliating an aggressive power at the cost of some other weak country. Britain, America, France all followed the policy of appeasement.

Question 14: Name the countries that formed the Allied Powers.
Answer: Allied Powers: Britain, France and the USA formed the Allied Powers.

Question 15: What is meant by the term ‘Cold War’?
Answer: The struggle for power and influence between the two super powers, the U.S.A. and the U.S.S.R., is termed as ‘Cold War’.

Question 16: What is meant by the term ‘Truman Doctrine’?
Answer: Offering aid to all types of nations under direct or indirect communal threat is Truman Doctrine.

Question 17: Why did Britain and France become second rate powers after the Second World War?
Answer: Britain and France although won the War but became second rate powers as they were under stress and strain after the War.

Question 18: To what do you attribute the rise of the USA as a super power after the Second World War?
Answer: The use of atom bombs to crush Japan helped the USA to emerge as a super military and economic power after the Second World War.

Question 19: Name the two power blocks that emerged after the Second World War.
Answer: The two power blocs that emerged after the Second World War were-the American Block and the Soviet Bloc.

Question 20: Name five nations that earned their independence after the Second World War.
Answer: The five nations that earned independence after the Second World War were India, Burma, Sri Lanka, Malaya and Indonesia.

Short Questions – I

Question 1: Define Fascism.
Answer: The word “Fascism”, Italian in origin, is the name given to all those political movements which arose after the First World War in Europe, with a view to suppress democracy and socialism on one hand and to establish the dictatorship on the other hand.

Question 2: State two underlying principles of Fascism.
Answer: (i) Fascism was the supporter of one party and one leader.
(ii) The leader was above law. None could challenge his authority.

Question 3: How was the Treaty of Versailles responsible for the Second World War?
Answer: (i) The terms and conditions of the Treaty were very harsh and humiliating.
(ii) Germany was burdened with huge warindeminity. The huge war indemnity brought political instiability which gave birth no Nazism.

Question 4: Give two reasons that prompted the armament race before the Second World War broke out.
Answer:
(i) Inorder to achieve territorial aims, Germany, Italy and Japan began producing fire arms, guns, war-ships, aricrats and other weapons.
(ii) The Disarmament Conferences and the League of Natioons were unable to stop the armament race.

Question 5: When and why was the United Nations Organisation established?
Answer: The United Nations Organsations was established on October 24, 1945 with Headquarters at New York (USA) to save the coming generation from the scourage of war.

Question 6: Name the incident which brought the USA in the Second World War.
Answer: On December 7,1941, the US Fleet based at Pearl Harbour in Hawaii was attacked by Japan. So, America declared war on Japan, Germany and Italy.

Question 7: What happened to Germany after her defeat in the War?
Answer: After the defeat in the Second World War:
(i) Germany stood dismembered, humiliated and devastated.
(ii) Germany was divided into two parties i.e. the East Germany and the West Germany.

Question 8: What do you know about the Munich Pact of 1939? Which were the five countries involved in this Pact?
Answer: Hitler claimed a part of Czechoslovakia called Sudetenland which was very important because of her industry. Instead of meeting the threat posed by Germany, the Prime Ministers of Britain and France met Hitler and Mussolini at Munich in Germany on 29th and 30th September, 1938, and agreed to Germany’s terms without the consent of Czechoslovakia.

Question 9: State two reasons why Britain and France followed a policy of appeasement towards Germany in the 1930s.
Answer: (i) Britain and France thought if genuine grievances of Germany and Italy were removed, they would be satisfied and would not do anything to disturb the peace of the world.
(ii) The policy of appeasement greatly emboldened Germany. Italy and Japan, to plunged the World into another destructive war.

Question 10: What was the issue between Germany and Polland that was a cause of World War Second.
Answer: Hitler was demanding Danzing corridor from Poland as it was inhabited mainly by the Germans. Realizing the danger, Britain and France pledged assistance to Poland against Germany. Germany accused Poland for committing atrocities against Germans living there and it became a cause of World War Second.

Question 11: What is meant by the term ‘Axis Powers’?
Answer: During the Second World War Germany, Italy and Japan came to be know as the Axis powers. These were far off countries, but still, they got united to pursue policy of aggression in Europe, Asia and Africa.

Question 12: Why did America drop the atom bomb on the cities of Hiroshima and Nagasaki?
Answer: The USA dropped atom bomb on Hiroshima and Nagasaki because:
(i) to take the revenge of the humiliation of the attack on the Pearl Harbour by Japan on December 7, 1941, and
(ii) to liberate the Islands of South West Pacific China, Manchuria and other places from
Japanese control and to end the fighting.

Question 13: Why was the Soviet Union described as a Super Power after the Second World War?
Answer: The Soviet Union was described as a Super Power after the Second World War as its empire was greatly expanded. It included half of Poland, Estonia, Latavia, Lithuania Finland and many parts of Germany. It also became a dominant power in world politics and occupied the position of a leader of the Communist Bloc.

Question 14: What is meant by calling the World as Bipolar after the Second World War?
Answer: The world was called Bi-polar as it was grouped into Capitalist nations (or Democratic Block) headed by the USA and Socialist nations (or Communist Bloc) headed by the USSR.

Question 15: Mention two consequences of the Second World War.
Answer: (i) The Axis powers Germany, Italy and Japan were defeated at the end of the Second World War.
(ii) The Soviet Union and the USA emerged as the Super Powers.

Question 16: Give two similarities in the foreign policies of Mussolini and Hitler.
Answer: Two similarities in the foreign policies of Mussolini and Hitler were:
(i) Both used diplomacy and force as well as aggression to get what they wanted.
(ii) To increase the prestige and glory of their country in international spheres.

Short Questions – II

Question 1: State two similarities between Fascism and Nazism.
Answer: The two similarities between Fascism and Nazism are:
(i) Negation of democracy and belief in one-party or one-man rule. Both Fascists and Nazis did not allow the rule of any other party.
(ii) Aggressive Nationalism and Imperialistic policies were followed by both the Nazis and the Fascists. They glorified the Nation. They followed an aggressive foreign policy. For example, Italy annexed Abyssinia in 1936 and Hitler occupied Austria and called in the Aunschluss or union with Austria.

Question 2: Explain how the ideologies of Fascism and Nazism led to the Second World War.
Answer: The ideologies of Fascism and Nazism were based on one party system and one man rule. The Naxis and the Fascists believed in Totalitarian Government, Aggressive Nationalism (Jingoism), Militarism and Anti-Communism. As such, both Hitler and Mussolini did not allow any other party to operate. The State was supreme and the common people’s interests came next to the state. The Fascists and Nazis aimed to gain control of other territories in different degrees to accelerate their economy.

Question 3: How the fear of communism led to the Second World War?
Answer: Fear of communism in the West: All those countries who had weak Governments and were facing various economic problems turned towards communism. There was a fear in the mind of the governments of Western Capitalist Countries (Britain, France and USA) that Communism would spread in their territories. Germany, Italy and Japan took full advantages of this fear and claimed that they were fighting communism. These western powers adopted policy of appeasement which strengthened the Fascist Powers and resulted in the Second World War.

Question 4: What was the immediate cause of the Second World War?
Answer: The Invasion of Poland (Immediate cause): On 1st September, 1939 German Armies marched into Poland. On 3rd September Britain and France declared war on Germany. Thus the invasion of Poland marked the beginning of the Second World War. The German Armies completed the conquest of Poland in less than three weeks as no aid reached Poland. Inspite of the declaration of war however, there was little actual fighting for many months.

Question 5: Explain how the Treaty of Versailles was responsible for the outbreak of the Second World War.
Answer: The Peace Settlement at Paris was made in a spirit of revenge. The Germans felt that too much injustice had been done to them. The victorious powers had deprived Germany of huge tracts of its territory. She was burdened with an immense War Indemnity. It was impossible for a proud German race to forget the consequences of the War, which they had lost so humiliatingly. This fuelled the rise of Nazism in Germany and entered upon a career of aggression.

Question 6: Give an account of acts of Aggression and Policy of Appeasement on which the Second World War broke out.
Answer: Acts of Aggression and Policy of Appeasement: When the acts of aggression began, the aggressed countries, the Soviet Union and many leaders in different countries of the world demanded collective action to defeat the aggressor. However, the Western Governments, instead of resisting the aggressions followed a policy of appeasement with the aggressive powers. Appeasement meant a policy of conciliating an aggressive power at the expense of some other country. But for the western countries’ policy of appeasement, fascism could not have survived as long as it did and would not have been able to unleash the Second World War.

Question 7: What was the effect of Japan’s Policy of Expansion on the Second World War?
Answer: Japan’s Policy of Expansion: After the First World War, Japan increased her resources of army because of industrialization and modern technology. She captured Manchuria in 1931 and invaded China in 1937. She joined the Berlin-Rome-Tokyo Axis and prepared for the Second World War to satisfy her hunger for more territories. In brief, Japan’s policy of expansion also created war like situation in 1930s.

Question 8: How did the Japanese invasion of China create conditions for the outbreak of the War?
Answer: In 1931, Japan took over Manchuria, a region of China rich in natural resources. The League of Natons criticized Japan but the attack on Manchuria was a challenge to it. The Japanese ignored their protests and withdrew from the League of Nations in 1933. The Japanese started occupying British and American colonies in China. Britain and France saw this as an opportunity and followed the policy of Appeasement using Japan to weaken China. The same policy was adopted against Germany which led to the outbreak of the second World War.

Question 9: How the U. S. loofness became a major cause of the Second World War?
Answer: America’s aloofness from World politics: After the First World War, USA followed the policy of isolation and remaining away from the politics of world. She did not join the League of Nations. American aloofness helped the military rulers of Japan and Fascist Governments of Germany and Italy to adopt violent and aggressive attitude and they ignored the League of Nations easily.

Question 10: What was the Rome Berlin-Tokyo Axis? Why did Hitler demand the Danzig Corridor from Poland?
Or
Why did Hitler attack Poland that became a cause for World War.
Answer: Rome, Berlin and Tokyo are the capital cities of Italy, Germany and Japan respectively. Thus, the military alliance among these countries during the Second World War is known as the Rome-Berlin-Tokyo Axis. These three countries together were called the Axis Powers. Hitler demanded Danzig for two reasons:
(i) The city of Danzig was inhabited mainly by the Germans.
(ii) By occupying the Danzig Corridor, he could connect East Prussia with Germany.
Hitler accused Poland for committing atrocities against Germans living there and attacked Poland on 1st September 1939.

Question 11: Discuss in brief about the division of Germany caused by Second World War.
Answer: Division of Germany:
(i) The Federal Republic of Germany (FRG) commonly known as West Germany was administered by U.K., France and U.S.A. with Bonn as the capital.
(ii) The German Democratic Republic (GDR) known as East Germany was administered by the Soviet Union, with East Berlin as the capital.

Question 12: Explain the consequences of the War with reference to the formation of the United Nations.
Answer: Important leaders prioritized internal cooperation over war and sought to end the war. They were also determined to prevent another such war taking place in future. When Second World War was still going on, political leaders of twenty six countries including Franklin Roosevelt and Winston Churchill signed a declaration that discouraged entry into any alliances and that once the war ceased a formal peace keeping organization would be established. This organization that would be called United Nations, will take measures to prevent hostilities between member countries.

Question 13: With the surrender of Japan, the Second World War was finally over. The war had far-reaching consequences. Against this background, write short notes on effect of World War Second on Japan.
Answer: Effect of World War Second on Japan:
(i) Unlike Germany, it was not divided into zones to be governed by conquering forces.
(ii) The American Army was to administer Japan until 1952, by that time the Japanese would resume sole control over their affairs.
(iii) Emperor Hirohito was left on the throne as a Constitutional monarch and the Japanese parliament retained some of its law making powers.

Question 14: With reference to the consequences of the Second World War, discuss the division of the World into two Power Blocks.
Answer: Division of the World into two Power Blocs:

1. England and France:
   1. Though England was one of the victors, her status in the International field was lowered.
   2. Germany’s occupation of France, left her financially ruined, agriculturally and industrially weakened.
2. United States:
   1. The production of necessary goods made by US to win the war, brought the US out of the great depression.
   2. The US experienced tremendous industrial expansion during war and while Europe was being bombed, no bombs fell on US territory.
3. Rebuilding Europe:
   1. Within five years of World War II, much of Europe was rebuild.
   2. Massive foreign aid in the from of grants to individual nations helped rebuild towns and cities.
4. USSR:
   1. World War II united the people of the Soviet Union. Its territory had expanded to include most of Eastern Europe.
   2. USSR captured half of Poland, Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania, Finland and many parts of Germany.

Long Questions

Question 1: In the post World War I scenario, Italy and Germany experienced the rise of dictatorships. In this context, explain any three circumstances that led to the rise of Fascism in Italy.
Answer: (i) Discontentment after the Treaty of Versailles: Italy joined the Allies in the First World War to gain territories of Turkey and Germany. But, by the Treaty of Versailles she could get only Southern Tyrol and Trentino and the coastal regions of Dalmatia. She could not get part of the German and Turkish colonial empire.
(ii) Political instability: Democracy was introduced in Italy for the first time in 1919. Elections failed to give a clear majority to a single party. As a result, Italy was. governed by a series of coalition Governments. The different political parties had different policies and programmes and there was no continuity in their places. They were unable to deal effectively with the problems of unemployment, strikes and riots in 1921-22.
(iii) Rise of charismatic men: Leaders like Mussolini in Italy were influential. His speeches praised the past glories of his country and won the faith of their countrymen. Mussolini was called ‘Duce’ which means the leader.

Question 2: What was common between the foreign policies of Italy, Germany and Japan?
Answer: The following were common between the foreign policies of Italy, Germany and Japan:
(i) All of them wanted to increase their empires at a rapid speed, so they soon started a series of aggressions in Europe, Asia and Africa.
(ii) In 1937, they formed the Anti-Communist Pact to fight against Communism.
(iii) Germany wanted to capture the vast resources and territories of Russia, Japan wanted to increase her influence in China; while Italy wanted to grab a large portion of other European countries.
(iv) They had intentions to become the first-rate powers of the world.

Question 3: How was the First World War responsible for the rise of Fascism and Nazism in Italy and Germany respectively.
Answer: Rise of Hitler and Nazism in Germany: According to David Thomas, rise of Adolf Hitler and Nazi party in Germany was one of the major causes of the Second World War. Hitler was very ambitious. He glorified the use of force, brutality, war and violent nationalism. He ridiculed socialism, democracy and internationalism. The worst was that Hitler had set out the policy of militarization of Germany. Hitler denounced the Treaty of Versailles and took Germany out of the League of Nations.
Rise of Fascism and Mussolini in Italy: The period (1919—1939) also saw the rise of Fascism under Benito Mussolini in Italy. Fascism did not like democracy, socialism and international peace. They openly advocated war, colonialism and imperialism. Mussolini said ‘nations which do not expand cannot exist for long’. He prepared for war. The fascist Government gave training to the youth and infused new spirit in them. Mussolini’s policy of aggression gave severe blow to the League of Nations and made war inevitable.

Question 4: State any four factors that led to the rise of dictatorships in Germany and Italy.
Answer: The four factors that led to the dictatorships in Germany and Italy were:
(i) Dissatisfaction of the Peace Treaties: Italy joined the First World War on the side of the allies. Mussolini and for that matter whole of the Italy as dissatisfied with the compensation granted to Italy after the war. Similarly German felt discriminated by the Treaty of Versailles. A large chunk of it occupied and own territories were taken away and share by other European powers. Military sanction were imposed. Adolf Hitler blamed the democratic government for this.
(ii) Economic Factors: Economic conditions in Italy after the war was very bad, war debts and budget deficit cause lots of difficulty. The salaried employees, the farmers and the industrial workers felt the pinch post war inflation. Additionally heavy war penalties were imposed on Germany which made economic recovery impossible and resulted in high rate inflation and unemployment. Nazi ranks swelled by unemployed youth.
(iii) Inefficient and Corrupt Democratic Government: The post war democratic Governments were weak. They could not respond properly to the needs and aspirations of the people. Short lived coalition governments in Italy were unable to tackle the problem faced by the people in their day to day life. Similar was the political scenario in Germany where Weimar republic failed miserably in to tackle economic downfall and ensuing riots.
(iv) Rise of Totalitarian Ideology: In Italy their rose a strong feeling for a strong leader with absolute powers to restore peace and economic stability in Germahy highlighting the threat of a communist takeover. Hitler was successful in convincing the people that only Nazism could provide a stable economically viable alternative.

Question 5: How were the foreign policy of Hitler were responsible for the outbreak of Second World War.
Answer: The Foreign Policy of Hitler were responsible for the out break of World War Second in the following ways:
(i) The main aim was to increase the prestige and glory of their country in international sphere so they followed an aggressive policy of imperialism.
(ii) Their opposition to Britain, France and the League of Nations.
(iii) Their help to General France to seize power in Spain.
(iv) After strengthening the armed forces. Hitler defiantly violated one after another the terms of the Treaty of Versailles.
(v) In 1938, he annexed Austria by force.
(vi) The Munich Pact signed between Germany, Britain and France.

Question 6: Mention any two causes that led to the Second World War.
Answer: Unjust Treaty of Versailles: It was a dictated treaty and was forced on Germany and her allies. The representatives of Germany were humiliated and forced to sign it. Germany was forced to code a large part of her territory. Her military strength was reduced. A huge war-indemnity was imposed on her. The treaty ultimately gave rise to Adolf Hitler and his Nazi Party in Germany and went on to become die major cause of the Second World War.
Disunity among Britain and France: The French, apart from a few exceptions, continued to support the treaty which was an object of high esteem for them. To them it was the only guarantee of security. Great Britain and other States did not agree with France which made her feel more and more insecure. France tried to enforce the terms and clauses df the Treaty of Versailles which led to terrible bitterness among the Germans.

Question 7: Why did Hittler invade Poland? State two similarities between Fascism and Nazism.
Answer: The immediate cause was refusal of Hitler’s demand for annexation of the port of danzie to Germany, by Britain followed by France. While this was used as an excuse by Hitler to attack Poland. It was nearly a small initial step to avenge the defeat and unjust treaties which were imposed on Germany in the aftermath of the world war.
It was a prelude to the large territorial ambitions nurtured by Hitler, this was soon to unfold before the entire world. The main reasons, why Germany invaded Poland are listed as follows:
(i) To negate any military alliance between Poland and other European nations against Germany.
(ii) To gain a foothold in the territory surrounding Russia.
(iii) To make known to the world his aversion to the Treaty of Versailles.
(iv) Hitler despise chamberlain’s guarantee to support Poland in case of an attack by Germany. He attacked Poland to teach chamberlian a lesson.
(v) Hitler enter into a pact with Statin which included a secret clause to divide Poland
between them. It was disagreement also which worked as a shield and prompted him to attack Poland.

Question 8: Explain the disasters caused by the Second World War.
Answer: Destruction caused by the Second World War: The Second World War was the most destructive war in history. The main consequences of Second World War are as follows:

1. Jews were picked up and six million of them were exterminated by the Nazis. Millions of people were transferred to concentration camps and killed.
2. People were burnt in gas chambers. There were mass massacres. War prisoners were made to dig mass graves, were shot and then buried in those graves.
3. About 5,00,00,000 (fifty million) people perished in the Second World War. About 15,00,000 civilians were killed in air raids during the war. The two Atom Bombs dropped by U.S. aircrafts, killed about 3,20,000 Japanese men, women and children.
4. Besides the loss of human lives, the economy and material resources of several nations were badly damaged. Several ancient cities and towns were almost completely destroyed. The total cost of the Second World War has been estimated at the staggering figure of $ 1,384, 9,000,000,000.
5. The use of Atom Bomb by the U.S. was considered by several people an abominable act, not only because of the number of people that the two atom bombs slaughtered but also because of the very use of the new weapons of mass destruction.
6. Anyhow, the prediction of the scientists that the use of the Atom Bomb would lead to a mad race for producing atomic weapons came true. It is not surprising that today there is a race among nations for producing Atom Bombs because of its superiority as a war weapon. The rich and developed nations spend more money in making these bombs today, than for producing or providing medical facilities to its people.
7. Political damages:
   (a) Germany was divided into two parts—East Germany and West Germany. Russia occupied the eastern part and the Western Germany came under the control of Britain, America and France.
   (b) Fascism met its end in Italy. Democracy was established. Militarism came to an endand African colonies were lost.
   (c) Military power of Japan was ruined. Democratic Government was set-up.
   (d) America and erstwhile U.S.S.R. became powerful nations. The world became divided into two blocks i.e., capitalist and socialist.
   In the socialist camp two groups emerged:
   (e) The Socialist Russia.
   (f) The Communist China.

Picture Based Questions

Question 1: Study the picture given and answer the questions that follow:

(i) Identify the leader in the picture.
(ii) State any four factors that led to the rise of dictatorships in Germany and Italy.
Answer: (i) Adolf Hitler.
(ii) Factors that-led to the rise of dictatorships in Germany and Italy are:
(a) Dissatisfaction of the Peace Treaties.
(b) Economic factors.
(c) Ineffiecient and Corrupt Democratic Government.
(d) Rise of Totalitarian Ideology.

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ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Chapter 9 The Programme and Achievements of the Early Nationalist Solutions

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Very Short Questions

Question 1: Name the sections into which the Congress was divided from its very inception.
Answer: The Moderates and the Assertives.

Question 2: During which period did the Moderates dominate the Congress?
Answer: The Moderates dominated the Congress from 1885 to 1905.

Question 3: Name any three important leaders of the Moderates.
Or
Name two leaders of the Moderates.
Answer: The three important leaders of the moderates were:
(i) Dadabhai Naoroji (ii) Surendra Nath Banerjee (iii) Gopal Krishna Gokhale.

Question 4: What were the early nationalists called?
Answer: They were called the ‘Moderates’.

Question 5: Why were the early nationalists called ‘Moderates’?
Answer: The early nationalists had full faith in the sense of justice of the British. For this reason their demands as well as there methods help them in winning the title of ‘Moderates’.

Question 6: Who were the Moderates ?
Answer: They were the early nationalists, who believed that the British always show a sense of justice in all spheres of their Government.

Question 7: State any two demands of the Moderates in respect of economic reforms.
Answer: (i) Protection of Indian industries. (ii) Reduction of land revenue.

Question 8: State any two demands of the Moderates in respect of political reforms.
Answer: (i) Expansion of Legislative Councils. (ii) Separation between the Executive and the Judiciary.

Question 9: Mention two demands of the Moderates in respect of administrative reforms.
Answer: (i) Indianisation of Civil Services. (ii) Repeal of Arms Act.

Question 10: What did the Moderates advocate in the field of civil rights?
Answer: The Moderates opposed the curbs imposed on freedom of speech, press and association.

Question 11: Name the moderate leader who explained the economic drain theory during the colonial times.
Answer: Dadabhai Naoroji.

Question 12: Who was-called ‘The Grand Old Man of India’?
Or
Who was known as ‘India’s unofficial ambassador in England’?
Answer: Dadabhai Naoroji.

Question 13: What according to Dadabhai Naoroji the single cause of India’s poverty.
Answer: According to Dadabhai Naoroji the single cause for India’s poverty was the faulty economic policies followed by the British in India.

Question 14: Name Dadabhai Naoroji’s work, which exposed the economic exploitation of India by the British.
Answer: Dadabhai Naoroji’s work—Poverty and Un-British Rule in India exposed the economic exploitation of the British.

Question 15: When and by whom was the association of Calcutta organised?
Or
Name the regional association Surendranath Banerjee was associated with.
Answer: The Indian Association of Calcutta was organised by Surendra Nath Banerjee in 1870.

Question 16: Where and when did the National Conference founded by Surendranath Banerjee has its first meeting?
Answer: The National Conference founded by Surendranath Banerjee had its first meeting in Calcutta in December 1883.

Question 17: Who is called the ‘Father of the Nationalist Movement’ in India?
Or
Name the nationalist leader who was the editor of ‘The Bengali’ newspaper and who set up the Ripon College.
Or
Name the first Indian who passed the Indian Civil Service Examination.
Answer: Surendranath Banerjee.

Question 18: When was the Servants of Indian Society founded? Who was its founder?
Or
Who founded the servants of Indian Society?
Answer: The Servants of Indian Society was founded in 1906. Gopal Krishna Gokhale was its founder.

Question 19: State the aim of ‘The Servants of Indian Society.’
Answer: The aim of ‘The Servants of Indian Society’ was to train national missionaries for service of India and promote the true interests of the Indian people by constitutional means alone.

Question 20: What did Gokhale do for the farming community in India?
Answer: Gokhale impressed upon the Government to reduce the land revenue and also to repeal the production tax on cotton, as both of these affected the farming community.

Question 21: What did Gokhale advise his countrymen to do for their welfare during the British rule?
Answer: Gokhale was an idealist. He requested his countrymen to be cautious and move slowly. He favoured the use of constitutional means to achieve his aims.

Short Questions – I

Question 1: Mention the main aims of the early nationalists.
Answer: The early nationalists had a three fold aim:
(i) To educate people in modem politics.
(ii) To arouse national and political consciousness.
(iii) To create a united public opinion on political questions.

Question 2: State briefly the attitude of Moderates towards the British.
Or
Mention the reasons for the moderates faith in the British sense of justice.
Answer: The Moderates did not want to over throw the British rule by violence. They believed in loyalty to the British Government. They believed that the British presence in India was a blessing to Indians and they relied on the British to guide the politics in India.

Question 3: The early nationalists realized that the British Government did not do anything to remove the economic backwardness of the country. They demanded certain economic reforms. Mention any two.
Answer: (i) They demanded the reduction of land revenue and provision of cheap credit to the farmers, and
(ii) They demanded rapid development of modem industries.

Question 4: The early nationalists demanded a few constitutional reforms. Mention any two of them.
Answer: (i) The nationalists hoped that the British Government would allow a larger share of Indians in the government by increasing the number of Indians in the Legislative Councils.
(ii) The nationalists also demanded the separation of executive from judicial functions.

Question 5: Name any four prominent leaders who co-operated with A.O. Hume in launching the Congress.
Answer: Dadabhai Naoroji, Badruddin Tyabji, Surendra Nath Banerjee and Feroz shah Mehta were among the various other prominent leaders who worked hard along with A.O. Hume in forming the Indian National Congress.

Question 6: Name the moderate leaders. Why were they called so?
Answer: Dadabhai Naoroji, W. C. Bonnerjee, and Gopal Krishna Gokhale were the moderates leaders. They were called moderates because their demands were moderate in nature and they followed constitutional methods.

Question 7: Mention any two achievements of the Moderates.
Answer: (i) The Moderates developed and consolidated the feeling of national unity among Indians.
(ii) They promoted the ideas of democracy, fraternity, civil liberties and representative institutions.

Question 8: Briefly state any two points of criticism levelled against the Moderates.
Answer: (i) The Moderates did not have the support of the masses. The movement did not have wide appeal and the area of their influence was limited to urban community.
(ii) The Moderates used half hearted measures when they were treated with contempt by the British.

Question 9: Brief about the opposition made by the Moderates for defnece of Civil Rights.
Answer: Defence of Civil Rights: The moderates firmly opposed the restrictions imposed by the Britishers on the freedom of speech, press and association. They demanded the scrapping of the Preventive Detention Act and restoration of individual liberties.

Question 10: Who organised the East India Association in London? When and why was it organized?
Or
Who founded the ‘East India Association’?
Or
Name the regional association Dadabhai Naoroji was associated with.
Answer: Dadabhai Naoroji organized the East India Association in London. It was organized in 1866. Dadabhai Naoroji felt that the British were basically just and fair, but he wanted to make the British conscious towards the grievances of Indian people so that they could find a remedy for their ills.

Question 11: Mention two objectives of the congress as enumerated by W.C. Bonnerjee.
Answer: The two objectives of the congress as enumerated by W.C. Bonnerjee are:
(i) To enable National workers from all parts of India to become personally known to each other.
(ii) To end all racial, religious and provincial prejudices and to promote a feeling of National unity among all lovers of the country.

Question 12: Who founded the Indian Association? Why was the Association founded?
Answer: Surendra Nath Banerjee had founded the Indian Association. The Association was founded to fight against injustice. It demanded equal treatment of the Indians with the Europeans while making recruitment to the Indian Civil Service.

Question 13: Mention two acts against which Surendra Nath Banerjee protested?
Answer: In 1877, the age-limit for the civil service examination was reduced from 21 years to 19 years. Surendra Nath made a tour of India, protesting against the reduction of the maximum age limit. He fearlessly criticised such measures as the Arms Act and the Vernacular Press Act, passed in 1878.

Question 14: State two policies of the British which were opposed by Gokhale.
Answer: (i) It was due to Gokhale’s untiring efforts that the toll tax was reduced and more Indians were appointed to high posts.
(ii) Gokhale opposed Lord Curzon for dividing Bengal and establishing Government control over universities.

Short Questions – II

Question 1: “Moderates laid the foundation of the National movement.” Discuss.
Answer: Honestly speaking, the early nationalists are to be considered as the builders of modem India. They laid die foundation of a very strong National Movement, which overpowered one of the greatest imperialistic powers of the world and forced to grant independence after having ruled ruthlessly for two hundred years.
The failures of the early nationalists were the source of strength which needed so earnestly to get independence.

Question 2: Mention the methods adopted by Moderates.
Answer: The methods of the moderates were:
(i) Sending petitions to the Government officials.
(ii) Sending memorandums to the officers.
(iii) Passing resolutions.
(iv) Sending delegations to England.
(v) Organising meeting in cities, towns and villages, and
(v) Distribution of leaflets and pamplets.

Question 3: Mention two contributions of Dadabhai Naoroji to the National Movement.
Answer: Dadabhai Naoroji: Contribution:
(i) He founded the East India Association in London in 1866. The association provided information on all Indian subjects to British citizens and Members of Parliament. It voiced the grievances of Indians and suggested remedial measures. The association had its branches in Bombay (Mumbai), Calcutta (Kolkata) and Madras (Chennai).
(ii) He founded the Bombay Association, edited the newspaper Rast Goftar (Speaker of Truth). He started a magazine Dharma Marg Darshak and started movements against the Vernacular Press Act, the atrocious treatment of poor peasants by the Zamindars and raised his voice against the economic exploitation of India by the British which he proved in his book Poverty and Un-British Rule in India.

Question 4: Who was known as “India’s Unofficial Ambassador in England”? What were his views on the cause of poverty in India?
Answer: Dadabhai Naoroji was called India’s Unofficial Ambassador in England. He wrote a book ‘Poverty and Un-British Rule in India’. Through this book he exposed the exploitative nature of the British rule in India. He explained the “Drain of Wealth” and it should be stopped for the development of India. He was elected to the House of Commons in 1892 and presented the cause of the Indian’s Poverty in the house. He wanted that Indians should be appointed to high posts. He helped in the passing of resolution of swaraj, swadeshi, boycott and national education in his presidentship. He founded the East India Association.

Question 5: Mention in brief the methods, advocated by Surendranath Banerjee for the attainment of political goals.
Answer: Surendranath Banerjee started the Indian National Conference in 1883, so that the Moderates could discuss all sorts of political problems. He advocated the achievement of his aim through this but when he found that the aims and objectives of his Indian National Conference and the National Union were the same, the two merged with each other to form the Indian National Congress. He advocated constitutional means for the attainment of the political goals.

Question 6: Describe the attitude of the British towards Moderates.
Answer: In the beginning the British were not opposed to the Congress (Moderates). They were provided all facilities to organise sessions of Congress. But, when the Congress leaders criticised some of the policies of the Government and condemned its despotic system, British hostility towards the Congress surfaced. The British used the policy of ‘Divide and Rule’ to keep the activities of the Congress under control.

Long Questions

Question 1: Why were the early Congress leader called the ‘Moderates’?
Answer: The earlier leaders of the Congress were called the Moderates because of their thinking and activities, they were not extreme. In other words, the demand raised by the earlier leaders of the Congress were of moderate nature. Moreover, they used constitutional and peaceful methods like filing petitions, appeals, resolutions etc. Therefore, the period from 1885 to 1905 is generally described as being the moderate phase. The congress was controlled by the Moderate leaders such as Dadabhai Naoroji, Pherozeshah Mehta, Gopal Krishna Gokhale, W. C. Banerjee, Surendra Nath Banerjee and Madan Mohan Malaviya.

Question 2: Early Nationalist aroused national consciousness by exposing true character of British Imperialism. Discuss.
Answer: Considering all the circumstances we easily can believe that the early nationalists did yeoman service to their motherland. If India could attain her independence without much bloodshed, it was certainly due to the sincere efforts of these early nationalists. They sowed the seeds of patriotism and nationalism among the masses. Although Lala Lajpat Rai Said, ‘After more than twenty years of more or less futile agitation for concessions and redress of grievances, they had received stones in place of bread.’ But nevertheless, no one can ignore that the nationalists were successful to a great extent in arousing political awakening and national consciousness among the people of India of all shades. They not only spread the idea of civil liberties and democracy among the Indian people, but they also succeeded in exposing the true nature of British imperialism in India. The common people began to believe that the British rule in India was just to carry on economic exploitation of the Indian masses. The people forgot that the British Government ever had any ‘benevolent character’.

Question 3: Mention four basic beliefs of the early Nationalists.
Answer: The Early Nationalists believed in:
(i) Indirect struggle for political liberation.
(ii) Promoting Nationalism in the minds of Indian.
(iii) Bringing a large number of public into the forefront of national politics.
(iv) Training large number of people in politics and political agitation.

Question 4: State the political demands of the Moderates.
Answer: Political Demands:
(i) The Congress asked for the expansion of the Legislative Councils created by the act of 1861 and make them representatives by including some members elected by local bodies, chambers of commerce, universities etc.
(ii) They demanded that all legislative measures and all financial questions, including budgets, should be submitted to these councils.
(iii) Abolition of the Indian Council.
(iv) Complete separation of executive and judicial functions.
(v) They laid stress on ‘Colonial form of self-Government’, which was prevalent in the dominions of Canada and Australia.

Question 5: What were the administrative demands of the early Nationalist leaders?
Answer: Administrative Demands:
(i) They demanded for wider employment of Indian’s in the higher services.
(ii) Their major demand was Indianization of services through simultaneous ICS examinations in England and India.
(iii) Repeal of the Arms Act.
(iv) An increase in the powers of the local (municipal) bodies and reducing official control over them.
(v) They demanded for more jobs for Indians in the army, and the raising of an Indian volunteer force.

Question 6: Mention the socio-economic demands made by the Moderates.
Answer: Socio-Economic Demands: The early Congress leaders blamed the imperial Government for growing economic backwardness of the country. They demanded economic reforms. Some of them were as under:
(i) More funds for technical education to promote Indian industries.
(ii) Abolition of salt tax.
(iii) Reduction in land revenue and expenditure on military.
(iv) An enquiry into India’s growing poverty and famines.
(v) Improvement in the conditions of work of plantation workers.
(vi) To end the unfair tariffs and excise duties.
(vii) Extension of the permanent settlement assessment.

Question 7: Describe the achievements of the Moderates.
Answer: Achievements of the Moderates:
(i) Their greatest achievement was that they saved the Indian masses from being misled. For the first time, they presented Indian demands in organised manner.
(ii) They popularized the ideas of democracy and civil liberties as well as representative institutions.
(iii) The early nationalists succeeded in creating national awakening by arousing among people the feeling that they belonged to one common nation of India. They made Indians conscious of the bonds of common political, economic and cultural interests that united them.
(iv) The Moderates like Justice Ranade and Gokhale advocated social reforms in India. They
opposed social evils such as child marriage and supported widow remarriage.

Question 8: Explain the major ideological differences which emerged amongst the leaders within the first twenty years of the foundation of this organization.
Answer: The liberal nationalists did not believe in agitation or unconstitutional means. The Moderates carried their agitation through:
(i) Petitions to high Government officials.
(ii) Resolutions.
(iii) Meetings in towns, cities and the countryside.
(iv) Distribution of leaflets and pamphlets.
(v) Preparing memorandum for the Government Committees, and
(vi) Delegations of leading politicians to England. The memorandum or petitions were nominally addressed to the government. They merely wanted to mitigate the evils of British rule and not to terminate it.

Question 9: Mention the achievement of Dadabhai Naoroji in strengthening Indian nationalism.
Answer: Achievement in Strengthening Indian Nationalism:
(i) He was one of the foremost leaders of the Congress for over 20 years. Thrice he presided over the sessions of the Congress.
(ii) He was one of the earliest Indian leaders to hold the view that the poverty of the Indian people was the result of exploitation of India by the British and the drain of India’s wealth to Britain.
(iii) He started movements against the Vernacular Press Act and the atrocious treatment of the poor peasants by Zamindars.
(iv) The credit for demanding Swaraj from the Congress platform (1906) goes to Dadabhai Naoroji.
(v) He helped in making the national movement more vigorous because four resolutions on self government Swaraj, boycott, swadeshi and national education were passed by the Congress under his presidentship.

Question 10: Discuss the political goals of Surendranath Banerjee.
Answer: Surendranath Banerjee founded the Indian Association in 1876. He was a great intellectual and the first Indian who passed the Indian Civil Services competitive examination. Due to British discrimination he was rejected on a very flimsy ground. This was a shock to him but at the same time it filled in him the spirit of nationalism. He decided to educate the Indians about the discriminatory attitude of the English towards the Indians. His political goal encouraged him to start an English daily newspaper under the name, ‘The Bengali’. He was a man of talents. He was a first class journalist, a narrator and educationist. All these qualities helped him to achieve his goal of spreading nationalism among people. He forcefully protested the repressive measures of the British Government. He opposed the Vernacular Press Act, the Arms Act And the treatment of the English towards the Indian workers in tea and indigo plantations. He achieved some success towards his political goal.

Question 11: Discuss in brief about the organization, established by Gopal Krishna Gokhale to educate and to arouse national awakening among the people.
Answer: Gopal Krishna Gokhale was one of the greatest moderates among the early nationalists. He fought and struggled hard for national liberation. He was one of the founders of the Indian National Congress. He was always willing to co-operate with the British Government but the same time always eager that the British Government would introduce certain reforms in the Indian administration. He was always so eager that the British Government in all fairness and sense of justice absorbed more and more Indians in the administration by offering them jobs in Civil Services. He established the ‘Servants of Indian Society’ in 1905. It was his desire that educated Indians be trained so that they may serve their motherland as whole time workers.

Question 12: Disucss the methods, adopted by Gopal Krishna Gokhale to achieve his political objectives.
Answer: Gopal Krishna Gokhale was not only a political thinker but also a great economist of his time.
(i) He wanted to achieve his political goal by improving the economy of his country.
(ii) He wanted to abolish feudalism and improve economic conditions of the poor farmers.
(iii) When he became a member of the Legislative Assembly, he made very strong and forceful commentaries on the prevailing miserable economic condition in the country.
(iv) He always advocated the growth of industries in the country.
(v) He was fully convinced that economic growth in the country will always lead to political freedom.
Gopal Krishna Gokhale visited South Africa at the invitation of Mahatma Gandhi to raise his voice against the oppressive laws based on racial considerations.

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ICSE Class 10 Geography Chapter 8 Agriculture in India Solutions

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Very Short Questions

Question 1: What is meant by the term agriculture?
Answer: Agriculture is an occupation of a man to manage his environment in order to produce food. It is defined as the cultivation of the soil in order to grow crops and rear livestock.

Question 2: What is terraced farming?
Answer: Terraced farming is prevalent in hilly areas. In this type of farming terraces are made along the hill slopes to get levelled land for growing crops.

Question 3: What is Green Revolution?
Answer: Green Revolution is a new strategy to increase agricultural production through modern techniques of farming.

Question 4: Which of the above mentioned agriculture is more common in India?
Answer: Subsistence type of agriculture is more common in India.

Question 5: Define the terms:
(i) Dry crops,               (ii) Fibre crops.
Answer: (i) Drought resistant crops which can survive in regions with less rainfall and poorer soil is called dry crop. e.g., millets.
(ii) Any crop yielding a fibre which is used for textiles is known as fibre crop, e.g., jute, cotton.

Question 6: What do you understand by the following terms: Threshing, Monoculture.
Answer: Threshing: Removing the grain from the stalk.
Monoculture: Single crop year after year and all round the year.

Question 7: What do you understand by the term ‘Jhuming’?
Answer: It is a primitive method of subsistence agriculture in which a patch of forest is cleared and crops are grown. When the fertility of soil is lost after two or three years the cultivators move on to another patch. This way large forests are destroyed.

Question 8: Where is Jhuming practised in India?
Answer: It is practised in India in backward forested area of Assam where the rainfall is abundant.

Question 9: What are the disadvantages of Jhuming?
Answer: It is a health hazard and yields small amount of crop.

Question 10: What do you understand by commercial crops?
Answer: Crops grown with a view to earn revenue or income, either by exporting or sale within the country itself, e.g., sugarcane, cotton, oilseeds, tea, coffee, spices.

Question 11: How can commercial crops be classified?
Answer: Commercial crops can be classified as:
(i) Fibre crops (cotton, jute etc.)    (ii) Beverage crops (tea and coffee)
(iii) Oilseed crops (groundnut, sesame, mustard etc.).

Question 12: What does HYV stand for?”
Answer: HYV stands for High Yielding Varieties.

Question 13: Which cereal is regarded as the oldest cultivated cereal in the world?
Answer: Rice is regarded as the oldest cultivated cereal in the world.

Question 14: What are the two methods of cultivation of rice? Which one is known for its better yields?
Answer: Drilling, dibbling, broadcasting, transplanting. Transplantation is known for its better yields.

Question 15: Which is the second largest rice producing country in the world?
Answer: India is the second largest rice producing country in the world.

Question 16: Which is the ideal soil for the growth of rice?
Answer: Alluvial, friable loamy with clay-like impervious sub-soil is ideal for the growth of rice.

Question 17: What do you understand by broadcasting sowing?
Answer: Broadcasting is the scattering of seeds in the fields. Inferior variety of rice is grown in this way and its yield per hectare is low.

Question 18: What is dibbling method of sowing?
Answer: In the method of dibbling, seeds are dropped at regular intervals in the furrows made by the plough.

Question 19: What is drilling method of cultivation?
Answer: In the drilling method, the seeds are dropped in furrows through a bamboo-shaft attached to the plough.

Question 20: Why does the method of transplantation give better yields?
Or
Which one is known for better yields.
Answer: The method of transplantation gives better yields, due to efforts of plentiful human labour.

Question 21: Which method of cultivation in India is being popularized to increase the productivity of rice?
Answer: Japanese method of rice cultivation is being popularized in India in order to increase the productivity of rice.

Question 22: Mention the two categories in which the rice crops in India can be grouped.
Answer: The categories into which rice crops can be grouped are:
(i) Upland Rice (ii) Lowland Rice.

Question 23: Which is the largest rice growing state?
Answer: West Bengal is the largest rice growing state, producing about 15% of the total rice of India.

Question 24: Why is India not able to export rice?
Answer: India is not able to export rice because rice in good quantity and quality in the country.

Question 25: Which type of soils are suitable for wheat cultivation?
Answer: Soil must be clayey loamy or black soil, well drained, textured with a small lime content and flat level land.

Question 26: Mention some varieties of wheat.
Answer: Some varieties of wheat are:
(i) Raj-3077 (ii) WH-66 (iii) Mangala

Question 27: Is wheat a rabi or kharif crop? In which state of India is the largest amount of wheat grown?

Answer: Wheat is a rabi crop. Uttar Pradesh produces the largest amount about 31% of the total production of wheat.

Question 28: What is the average yield of wheat per hectare in India?
Answer: The average yield of wheat per hectare in India is 2,250 kg.

Question 29: (i) What is ‘Hybrid’?
(ii) What is ‘Rust’?
Answer: (i) Crossing of two varieties of seeds of the same family to give a new seed is known as hybrid.
(ii) A fungus called ‘rust’ affects the wheat crop in India.

Question 30: Name an area of wheat cultivation in India and state why it is suitable for the cultivation of wheat. (Mention two reasons).
Answer: Uttar Pradesh. It is suitable for wheat cultivation because
(i) Low winter temperature. (ii) Extensive irrigation facilities.

Question 31: What do you understand by the term ‘millets’?
Answer: Large number of grasses grown for grain or fodder. Seeds are round and very small and grow in large numbers on short stalks at the top of the stem, e.g., jowar, bajra, ragi.

Question 32: Which technique of farming is required for growing ragi?
Answer: Ragi is an important Kharif crop in Peninsular India. It is grown either with the dry farming technique or as an irrigated crop.

Question 33: To which countries does India export millets?
Answer: India exports millets to the Middle East and African countries.

Question 34: Where are the pulses grown in India?
Answer: The pulses are grown mainly in the following states of India:
(i) U.P., (ii) Punjab, (iii) M.P., (iv) Maharashtra, (v) Karnataka.

Question 35: What is ’Pearl Millet’ and ‘Finger Millet’?
Answer: Bajra is known as Pearl millet. Ragi is known as Finger millet.

Question 36: Why is ‘arhar’ called a dry crop? In which states it is produced?
Answer: Arhar is called a dry crop because it is seldom irrigated. Arhar is produced in Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and Karnataka.

Question 37: Which is the best method of growing sugarcane? Why?
Answer: Ratoon cropping is the best method of growing sugarcane because this method is labour saving, decreases cost of production and matures early.

Question 38: Which type of soil is required for growing sugarcane?
Answer: Sugarcane can be grown well in well drained medium loamy soils or rich clay-like loamy or lava soils.

Question 39: Define the term ‘Molasses’.
Answer: It is a kind of dark brown syrup that drains from sugar during the process of manufacture. It is used to produce industrial alcohol, fertilizers, rum and yeast.

Question 40: Which city has been selected for research in sugarcane crop?
Answer: At present, the Sugarcane Research Institute, Coimbatore, conduct researches in sugarcane.

Question 41: Which state of India is the leading producer of ‘groundnut’?
Answer: Gujarat.

Question 42: Mention four main uses of groundnuts.
Answer: (i) It is used for vanaspati ghee. (ii) It is used for making soap.
(iii) It is eaten raw or roasted. (iv) Its oil cake is used for cattle feed.

Question 43: Mention the conditions necessary for the cultivation of sesame.
Answer: Sesame thrives best in light and sandy soils, although some varieties grow well in black soil areas. It grows within 3 or 4 months.

Question 44: Mention the ranking of India in the world for producing castor seeds.
Answer: India is the second largest producer of castor seeds in the world.

Question 45: State whether linseed is a Kharif or a Rabi crop, and name the state where it is grown extensively.
Answer: Linseed is a Rabi crop. It is extensively grown in Madhya Pradesh.

Question 46: Define the term ‘oil cake’.
Answer: Oil cake is the residue left after oilseed pressing and used for manure and the leaves are fed to silk worms for silk production.

Question 47: Which states are the main producers of coconuts?
Answer: Kerala, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Maharashtra and Gujarat are the main producers of coconut.

Question 48: Name the type of soil ideal for the cultivation of cotton.
Answer: Cotton thrives in light well drained alluvial soils, rich in lime, or black lava soil. The sticky black soil of peninsular India is ideal for its cultivation.

Question 49: Mention the months in which cotton is sown and the months in which it is harvested.
Answer: Cotton is sown from April to August and is harvested between October to March.

Question 50: Mention the states where cotton is produced.
Answer: Cotton is produced in Gujarat, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and Madhya Pradesh. Among them Gujarat and Maharashtra are the most important.

Question 51: Explain the term ‘Ginning.’
Answer: Ginning is a process of collecting and separating raw cotton from seeds of the balls.

Question 52: Why cotton balls must be picked immediately?
Answer: Cotton balls must be picked immediately otherwise there is risk of cotton being ruined by rain, fog, dust or pests.

Question 53: Why is jute called ‘golden fibre’?
Answer: Jute is called as the ‘golden fibre’ because of its colour and high cash value.

Question 54: How is jute fibre obtained?
Answer: Jute fibre is obtained from the inner bark of the jute plant which is soft and strong and can be drawn out in good lengths. A coarse fabric is woven from this fibre.

Question 55: Explain briefly what is meant by the term ‘Retting’?
Answer: Retting is the method by which the jute fibre is removed from the stem by submerging it in flowing water for 20-25 days and then it is dried in the sun.

Question 56: What do you understand by the term ‘Mesta’?
Answer: Mesta is a substitute product for jute. It is a coarser fibre for gunny bags, inferior to jute in quality and strength. It tolerates drier conditions and is grown in more or less in the same areas.

Question 57: Mention the areas where jute is cultivated.
Or
Name one area in India where jute is cultivated widely.
Answer: The cultivation of jute is done at the Ganga-Brahmaputra delta in West Bengal and in Assam, Bihar and Orissa.

Question 58: Mention the ranking of India in the world for producing raw jute.
Answer: India ranks second in the production of jute.

Question 59: What are the principal operations involved in the preparation of marketable tea?
Answer: The principal operations involved in the preparation of marketable tea are:
Plucking or picking, withering, rolling and fermenting, drying and cutting, grading and branding, tasting and packing.

Question 60: Which state in India is the largest producer of tea?
Answer: Assam is the largest producer of tea and accounts for more,than 50%, of tea produced in India.

Question 61: Mention the countries where tea is exported.
Answer: Indian tea is exported to 80 countries of the world but our main customers are U.K., Russia, U.A.R., Sudan, Afghanistan and U.S.A.

Question 62: State any two factors that favour the growth of tea in Assam.
Answer: (i) Mountain slopes (ii) Temperate region.

Question 63: Which state in India is the largest producer of coffee? Give two climatic conditions that favour the cultivation of,coffee in that state.
Answer: Karnataka. Climatic conditions that favour the cultivation of coffee in Karnataka are: (i) Well drained soil (ii) Suitable climate, rainfall between 125 cm to 200 cm and temperature is between 18°C to 27°C.

Question 64: When did rubber plantation start in India?
Answer: Rubber plantation started in India in 1902, for which the seeds were brought from Brazil in South America.

Question 65: What type of soil is required for the growth of rubber?
Answer: Rubber requires a deep, rich and well-drained soil or laterite soils.

Question 66: Which crop in India represent the world’s best example of plantation agriculture in all its aspects?
Answer: ‘Natural rubber’ represents the world’s best example of plantation agriculture in all its aspects.

Question 67: (i) Mention the main areas of production of rubber.
(ii) In which part of India is rubber grown on commercial scale?
Answer: (i) Rubber is mainly produced in southern part of Peninsula. Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Karnataka are the principal states of rubber plantations.
(ii) Kerala.

Short Questions

Question 1: Why is agriculture called the backbone of India’s economic system?
Answer: Agriculture can be called the backbone of India’s economic system because two-thirds of the Indian population is engaged in the cultivation of land. Agriculture not only helps to feed the large population, but it also supports the principal manufacturing industries with raw materials. It also provides as substantial portion of the country’s exports.

Question 2: Mention some factors relating to the importance of agriculture.
Answer: (i) Agriculture is the prominent occupation of the people.
(ii) Agricultute supports the principal manufacturing industries with raw materials.
(iii) Several agricultural products are important items of our export trade.
(iv) Agriculture is the major source of national income.

Question 3: What are the main characteristics of Indian agriculture? Give any three.
Or
State two important characteristics of Indian agriculture.
Answer: (i) On account of variety of soils and climatic variations wide variety of crops can be grown.
(ii) There are two important crop seasons in India: Kharif and Rabi.
(iii) Both the intensive and extensive types of farming are prevalent in India.

Question 4: Mention some problems of Indian agriculture.
Or
Mention two problems associated with agriculture in India.
Answer: Some problems of Indian agriculture are:
(i) Uncertainty of rainfall, (ii) uneconomic size of holdings, (iii) illiteracy and ignorance, (iv) outdated implements, (v) inadequate irrigation facilities, (vi) soil erosion, (vii) poor quality of seeds, and (viii) lack of scientific approach.

Question 5: How do the monsoon affect cultivation in India?
Answer: Agriculture in India depends on monsoon rains. It can sometime bring very heavy rain and cause flood and sometimes dry spells can lead to drought conditions.

Question 6: What solutions are offered against irregular monsoon as far as farming is concerned?
Answer: Floods and droughts are controlled by making multipurpose river valley schemes.

Question 7: Mention some important types of farming in India.
Answer: Some important types of farming in India are:
Intensive farming, extensive farming, humid farming, irrigated farming, dry farming, shifting or migratory farming, subsistence farming, commercial farming, plantation farming, mixed farming, terraced farming.

Question 8: What is dry farming?
Answer: Dry farming is practiced in those areas where rainfall is scanty and irrigation facilities are not available. The farmers make special efforts to conserve soil moisture and to make the maximum use of limited rain water. Red soil is suited for dry farming as it does not require much moisture.

Question 9: What is mixed farming?
Or
What is meant by mixed farming? State one advantage of this type of farming.
Answer: In mixed farming the farmer combines with farming some other subsidiary occupation such as cattle-rearing, fruit and vegetable growing or poultry-farming. In mixed farming there is a special scheme of crops. The farmer has additional source of income and earns more.

Question 10: Mention any two important features of Green Revolution.
Answer: Two important features of Green Revolution are:
(i) Introduction of new and high-yielding varieties (HYV) of improved seeds.
(ii) Increased application of the recommended dozes of fertilizers.

Question 11: Describe any two main features of subsistence agriculture.
Answer: (i) Farmer produces exclusively for his own consumption.
(ii) The farms are small and only the farmer’s family works on it to cultivate food crops like rice, wheat, pulses, etc.

Question 12: What is meant by ‘Plantation crops’?
Answer: Plantation crops are grown on large farms which are modem, scientific and self-contained units. Only one crop is grown on a large-scale. Enormous capital investment is required to set up a plantation and a large number of labourers are employed. These farms provide factories for processing of crops. E.g., Tea, coffee, rubber, sugarcane etc.

Question 13: Mention two categories of the agriculture products of the country.
Answer: The main agricultural products fall into two categories.
(i) Food grain crops: rice, wheat, barley, maize, millets and pulses.
(ii) Commercial crops: cotton, jute, sugarcane, tobacco, oilseeds, tea, coffee, rubber and coconut.

Question 14: What is ‘crop rotation’?
Answer: Growing of different crops on the same field after the harvest of the previous crop is known as crop rotation. It is generally done to preserve minerals in the soil, e.g., leguminous plants like peas and beans are generally planted after a crop like wheat, to add nitrogen to the soil exhausted by wheat.

Question 15: What is ‘Zayad’?
Answer: ‘Zayad’ is an extra crop. It is grown in the months of April, May and June, just after the Rabi crops are harvested. The season of this crop is very short and its main products are seasonal fruits and vegetables.

Question 16: What is meant by Kharif and Rabi Crops? Give examples.
Or
Name the months when Kharif and Rabi crops are: (i) Sown, (ii) Harvested
Or
(i) When are kharif crops: (1) Sown, (2) Harvested.
(ii) Name a cash crop which is also a kharif crop.
What is a Rabi crop?
Answer: Kharif Crops: These crops are sown at the commencement of the rainy season in June and harvested in the autumn season in the beginning of November. The principal products of the Kharif crops are rice, maize, cotton, jute, tobacco, castor, groundnut and sesame.
Rabi Crops: These crops are sown in winter season (October-November) and harvested in the beginning of summer (March-April). The main products of the Rabi crops are wheat, barley, gram, linseed and mustard.

Question 17: What are the conditions necessary for the cultivation of rice?
Answer: Rice needs a warm or humid climate. The areas having average temperatures of 22°C to 32°C are suitable for its cultivation. During the growing season, the temperature must be more than 25°C. The areas having heavy rainfall ranging from 150 to 300 cm are more suitable for its growth.

Question 18: What are the main features of the Japanese method of rice cultivation?
Answer: The main features of the Japanese method of rice cultivation are:
(i) Use of better quality seeds.
(ii) Sowing of seeds in raised nursery beds.
(iii) Transplanting of seedlings in rows. It facilitates weeding and fertilizing.
(iv) Manuring is done several times, e.g., while preparing seed beds, before transplantation in the actual fields and just before flowering of the rice plants.
(v) Irrigation is done regularly to ensure regular supply of water during the period of growth.

Question 19: Briefly discuss the transplanting method of cultivation.
Answer: In the transplanting method seedlings are sown in small carefully prepared plots. When’the seedlings are 15 cm high they are uprooted carefully by hand in small bunches and carried to well prepared fields where they are transplanted at regular intervals. After transplantation water is supplied regularly till the plants become mature. Harvesting is done when rice are nearly ripe. All this work is done by hand.

Question 20: When is upland rice sown?
Answer: The upland rice is sown without irrigation in the months of March-April. The crop becomes mature within six months, and the harvesting takes place in September-October. This variety of rice totally depends on natural rains and is usually grown at the higher elevations. The production of crop is confined totally to local consumption.

Question 21: What conditions are required for growing lowland rice?
Answer: The lowland rice is grown in flat lowland areas, where it requires a lot of irrigation during sowing and harvesting period. A good quantity of this variety of rice is grown by transplantation method. This variety of rice is sown in June, and is harvested in October-November. Most of the rice grown in India is the lowland rice.

Question 22: Name the state where rice is grown almost exclusively as a cash crop. What makes rice the staple food crop of India?
Answer: In Punjab the farmers cultivate rice as a cash or commercial crop. Rice is grown in almost all states of India except Gujarat and Rajasthan. Rice can feed more people compared to same amount of any other food grains.

Question 23: Give two advantages of growing rice in nurseries.
Answer: Two advantage of growing rice in nurseries are:
(i) It increases the yield by 45%.
(ii) Uses water economically.

Question 24: What geographical eonditions are necessary for the growth of wheat?
Or
Name an area of wheat cultivation in India and state why it is suitable for the cultivation of wheat. (Mention two reasons).
Or
Explain why wheat is grown as a Rabi crop?
Answer: Uttar Pradesh grows wheat well where the normal temperature is between 10°C to 15°C and the average rainfall ranges from 50 to 100 cm. Alluvial soil and level land is suitable for wheat cultivation. Warm and sunny weather are essential at the time of ripening.

Question 25: What are the factors responsible for high productivity of wheat in the north-western parts of India?
Answer: The, following factors are responsible for high productivity of wheat in the north-western parts of India. They are:
(i) Low winter temperature.
(ii) 80 cm of rainfall.
(iii) Winter rainfall due to the western disturbances.
(iv) Extensive irrigation facilities.

Question 26: What are the conditions necessary for growing millets?
Or
Why millets are called a ‘dry crop’?
Answer: Millets are dry crops and they can thrive even in areas with an average rainfall of 50 to 120 cm and a normal temperature ranges between 27°C to 32°C. Even inferior alluvial soils prove suitable for their production. Cultivation of millets is, therefore, more prevalent on the plateau region than on the northern plains.

Question 27: What are the conditions necessary for growing jowar?
Answer: Jowar can be grown in different climate and soil conditions. Some varieties of jowar can be grown in three months only whereas others take as much as five months. The sowing is done by the broadcasting method. After the harvest, the stalks are used as cattle-fodder and the grain is used as food mostly by the poor.

Question 28: Which season is suitable for growing bajra? Name the states where bajra is grown.
Answer: Bajra is grown during the rainy season. Sowing is done in the middle of June and harvesting in November and December. Bajra is grown widely in Gujarat, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, . Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, Karnataka, Haryana, Punjab and Madhya Pradesh.

Question 29: Do you think that the cultivation of pulses is lagging behind in recent times? Give two reasons to justify your view.
Answer: The production of pulses is lagging behind because the gap between demand and supply is
fulfilled by importing pulses and the pulses are considered merely the rotation crops not the main crops.

Question 30: Mention the conditions necessary for growing sugarcane.
Or
Mention the climatic conditions needed for the cultivation of sugarcane.
Answer: Sugarcane is essentially a tropical plant. It thrives well where the summer temperatures are between 25°C to 30°C and the annual rainfall is between 100 to 150 cm. Plenty of water is needed during the time of growth. If rainfall is less, irrigation becomes essential.

Question 31: State two disadvantages of Ratoon cropping.
Answer: (i) It yields thinner canes with lower sugar content.
(ii) Increasing risk of pests and diseases.

Question 32: Name some by-products of sugarcane and their uses.
Answer: Molasses: It is used to produce industrial alcohol, fertilizers, rum, treacle and yeast.
Bagasse: It is used as fuel for mills and mainly used for paper, fibre board and synthetic fibres.
Press mud: It is used to make wax, shoe polish and carbon paper.

Question 33: Mention the conditions necessary for the growth of groundnut.
Answer: Groundnut thrives best in areas where the temperature ranges between 22°C to 28°C, and the rainfall is about 50 to 75 cm. Groundnut plants grow best in sandy soils. Warm coastal areas with high humidity are ideal places for its growth.

Question 34: What are the geographical conditions necessary for the cultivation of groundnuts?
Answer: Groundnuts require about 20°C to 25°C temp, and light to moderate rainfall of at least 40 cm. For groundnut red, yellow and black soil of the peninsular region is suitable. It is generally grown in dry and sub tropical climate.

Question 35: Give three uses of groundnuts.
Answer: (1) Groundnut oil is used for cooking and in the manufacturing of soaps and candles.
(2) The oil cake is used as cattle feed.
(3) Being a leguminous plant it plays an important role in crop rotation and in enriching the soil.

Question 36: What are the conditions for the growth of castor plants?
Answer: The castor plant needs a warm climate, though it is grown both as a Kharif and a Rabi crop. In order to ensure good germination of castor plants, large amount of moisture and rainfall is essential after the sowing period. It grows well in dry lands where maize is cultivated. The castor plant grows to a height of 6 to 8 metres.

Question 37: How is linseed obtained and what are its uses?
Answer: Linseed is obtained from a fibre plant known as flax. Linseed oil is used extensively in the making of paints and varnishes, oil cloth and printing-ink. The flax from the plant is useful for making linoleum.

Question 38: Mention the conditions necessary for growing linseed and name the states where it is grown?
Answer: Linseed is a tropical plant, and it thrives where the temperature averages around 20°C. The annual rainfall between 45 cm to 75 cm is best suited for its cultivation. Linseed is sown just after monsoon and the crop is harvested in February-March. Linseed producing states are Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar, Rajasthan and Karnataka.

Question 39: Name the seed obtained from the flax plant. Name two commercial uses of its oil and one use of its oil-cake.
Answer: Seed obtained from the flax plant is called linseed. Its commercial uses are:
(i) It is an excellent drying oil and used for paints, varnishes, printing ink, oil-cloth.
(ii) Seasoning of wood.
Its oil cake is used as manure.

Question 40: What are the uses of cotton seed?
Answer: Cotton seed oil is used extensively in the manufacture of hydrogenated oil. It is also used in pharmacy in the preparation of margarine as a substitute for oil. The oil cake is used as a cattle feed.

Question 41: State three main uses of soyabean.
Answer: The three main uses of soyabean are:
(i) As a fresh vegetable fermented to form a paste or sauce like soya sauce.
(ii) As an oil, soyabean is used for cooking, making margarine, soaps, paints, lubricants, varnishes and printing ink.
(iii) It is used as an artificial meat, which is tasty and nutritious as ordinary meat.

Question 42: Which are the two most important oilseed crops of India? State the crop season and the major areas in which each of them is grown.
Answer: Groundnut and mustard are the edible oilseeds which are grown in India.
(i) Groundnut is grown as a kharif crop in the states of Maharashtra, Gujarat, M.P., Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
(ii) Mustard is grown as a rabi crop mainly in Northern India. It is grown in Punjab, Haryana, East Rajasthan, M.P., U.P., Bihar and West Bengal.

Question 43: Give some uses of coconut palm.
Answer: Every part of the coconut palm is used by the people. The fresh kernel is used for edible purposes. The mature nut yields copra oil and oil cake. The fibre is used for coir. The trunk is used for construction purposes. Coconut oil is used for cooking purposes and for the manufacture of margarine and other butter substitutes.

Question 44: (i) What are the requirements for the growing of coconut trees?
(ii) How long do they take to mature?
Answer: (i) Coconut thrives best in tropical coastal areas where temperature ranges between 20°C to 27°C, and the rainfall is about 150 to 300 cm. Coconut trees require loose porous soil, sandy soil along sea shores and mild sea breeze are ideal conditions.
(ii) They take 5 to 10 years to mature and bears fruit for over 40 years.

Question 45: Mention the conditions necessary for the growth of cotton.
Or
Why is cotton grown widely in the Deccan Plateau?
Answer: Temperature: 20°C to 35°C.
Rainfall: 80 cm to 120 cm.
Soil: Black soil.
Cotton is a tropical plant. In areas where the precipitation is insufficient, cotton can be grown with the help of irrigation. During the period of growth of the cotton plant, there should be abundant sunshine.

Question 46: In what way does the cotton industry contribute to the economy of India? Mention any three relevant factors.
Answer: (i) The cotton industry is a major foreign exchange earner for India.
(ii) It provides employment to a large section of the population.
(iii) Supports a large number of industries like chemical, packaging material etc.

Question 47: Mention some uses of jute.
Answer: Jute is used for making cloth to wrap bales of cotton, gunny bags, rope, string, jute carpets, fibres and twine. Now, it is also used for making, furnishing material, shopping bags and sail cloth. Very fine threads of jute are made into imitation silks.

Question 48: What are the conditions necessary for the growth of jute plant?
Answer: Jute needs a hot and damp climate. It grows best in areas having a minimum temperature of 27°C during the period of growth. The rainfall should range between 170 cm to 250 cm annually. Plenty of water is also required for processing after harvesting the plant.

Question 49: Why is jute called the brown paper of the wholesale trade?
Answer: Jute is called ‘brown paper bag of wholesale trade due to the widespread use of jute fabric (sack cloth) for wrapping bales of cotton and wool and rice, wheat, sugar, pulses, fertilizers and cement in sacks.

Question 50: Mention the conditions necessary for the cultivation of rubber.
Or
What are the climatic requirements of rubber plantations in terms of:
(i) Mean annual temperature.
(ii) Minimum temperature.
(iii) Amount of rainfall, and
(iv) Rainfall regime.
Answer: Rubber needs a hot and wet climate, like that of equatorial areas. The temperature should be over 25°C and never below 21 °C. It needs heavy rainfall, ranging between 200 cm to 250 cm and well-distributed throughout the year. Rubber thrives in areas where variations in temperature and humidity are low.

Question 51: What do you understand by the term ‘Tapping’ and with which crop this term is associated?
Answer: When the rubber plants mature into trees after 7 or 8 years they are tapped for rubber sap. ‘V’ shape cut is made in the bark of the tree and a pot is tied round the trunk just below the tip of the cut. It is known as tapping. This term is associated with production of natural rubber.

Question 52: State the processes involved in producing tea for export.
Answer: (i) Plucking is done skillfully by using two leaves and a bud method.
(ii) Withering is done by spreading tea leaves to remove moisture.
(iii) Rolling is done to break the leaves.

Question 53: Mention some conditions necessary for the growth of tea plant or India is the largest producer of tea. State the climate factors necessary for its growth.
Answer: Tea grows well under light shade it is a shade loving plant. It needs temperature 24°C to 30°C (Under Shade). The tea plants grow well in humid climate and can not stand long spell of dry weather at any time of the year. It needs heavy rainfall between 125 cm to 375 cm, but water should be well drained. Water logging and frost conditions are injurious for the tea plant.

Question 54: What are tea’s requirements in terms of soil and rainfall?
Answer: Tea needs well-drained fertile soils rich in nitrogen, sandy loamy are best for its growth. A little iron in the soil proves beneficial to the crop. Rainfall —150 to 250 cm.

Question 55: State some problems of tea industry.
Answer: Some problems of tea industry are:
(i) There is enormous increase in the cost of production.
(ii) Other countries, i.e., Kenya, Sri Lanka, Japan have emerged as our great competitors in tea exports.

Question 56: With reference to the cultivation of tea in South India:
(i) Name one important tea growing area.
(ii) Name the most important port for export of tea.
(iii) After tea is picked it has to go through various states of processing. Name any two of the first four stages.
Answer: (i) Annamalai Hills
(ii) Cochin
(iii) The two stages are withering and rolling.

Question 57: What do you understand by the term ‘Clonal Planting’?
Answer: Cuttings are taken from a tea plant known for its special quality and flavour, called the ‘mother plant’ and then grown so as to produce tea shrubs. They are first grown in nurseries apd a year later when they are about 20 cm high they are transplanted to the main tea garden. This is known as clonal planting.

Question 58: What are the conditions necessary for the growth of coffee plant?
Answer: The coffee plant thrives in a hot and humid climate, with temperatures ranging from 18°C to 28°C. The plant also requires 125 to 200 cm of annual rainfall which should be well distributed throughout the year.

Question 59: Coffee plantations are concentrated in the Southern part of India. Why?
Answer: Coffee plant requires comparatively higher temperature than the tea plant. It is very sensitive to cold and frost. South India is therefore more suitable for the coffee plantation because of its location in the tropical region much nearer to the equator than the north India hills. The entire Indian coffee is produced by the plantations of Nilgiri and Annamalai hills. Karnataka leads in production followed by Tamil Nadu and Kerala.

Question 60: State any two problems faced by coffee cultivators in India.
Answer: Two problems faced by coffee cultivators in India are:
(i) The production fluctuates due to changes in climatic conditions and other factors.
(ii) The country has to face stiff competition in the international market from countries like Kenya and Brazil

Question 61: What are the geographical conditions required for the cultivation of Silk in India?
Answer: Silk is obtained from a small worm known as the silkworm, which feeds on the mulberry leaves. When silkworms are being reared, temperature should not fall below 15°C. Labour also must be cheap so that the rearing of silk worms and unwinding of fibre from the cocoons, which require a great deal of hard work and skill, should not be very expensive.

Question 62: Mention any two features of plantation farming stating two examples.
Answer: (i) A single crop is grown on a large estate with modem and scientific techniques mainly for trade.
(ii) It is a labour intensive method of farming and requires excellent managerial skills, tech-nical know-how and huge capital investment. Example: Tea, Coffee, Coconut, Rubber etc.

Long Questions

Question 1: In the context of the Indian agriculture, answer the following:
(i) Mention two features which reflect a shift from subsistence farming to commercial farming.
(ii) Give two reasons why the yield of Indian agriculture is low as compared to world standards.
(iii) State two characteristics of plantation agriculture.
(iv) How has the consolidation of land holdings helped the farming community?
Answer: (i) (a) India became the biggest producer and exporter of tea and rubber both the crops are grown for commercial purposes.
(b) Indian agriculturists now raise as many crops as possible during the year with the aid of artificial irrigation, fertilizers, improved seeds, hybrid varieties and improved implements.
(ii) Yield of Indian Agriculture is low as compared to world standards because:
(a) Dependence on rainfall due to poor irrigation facilities.
(b) Using of poor quality of seeds and lack of scientific approach.
(iii) Two characteristics of plantation agriculture are:
(a) Plantation crops are grown on large farms which are modem, scientific and self-contained units.
(b) Only one crop is grown on a large scale.
(iv) Consolidation provides a bigger sized compact area for cultivation to the individual farmers and the co-operative farming makes use of this bigger area for cultivation. Under this method several farmers, while retaining their ownership of land and managing it individually adopt the principle of cooperation for non-farm operations like marketing their produce, processing of agricultural products, obtaining inputs of agriculture like seeds, fertilizers and tools, etc.

Question 2: What is ‘ratooning’? Give two advantages of ratooning.
Answer: After harvesting, the lower part of the plant and the roots are left as they were in the field. This gives a new crop for the next year without fresh planting. This way the cane can be produced for three successive years. This is known as ‘ratooning’.
Advantages:
(i) The crop yields earlier.
(ii) The cost of cultivation is reduced as no preparation is done for the fresh crops.

Question 3: Briefly explain why sugarcane is increasingly grown in Maharashtra or Southern States
Answer: Sugarcane is increasingly grown in Maharashtra or Southern States because of ideal geographical conditions. The States enjoys an extra advantage of marine influence. Ocean winds help the growth of sugarcane and increase the quantity of juice. Maharashtra has well-planned plantations and use modern scientific agricultural methods. The capital investment is tremendous due to the sugar lobby. Modem sugar factories are located close to the plantations. Irrigation and fertilizers are widely used to ensure a good crop of sugarcane.

Question 4: Mention any two problems which the sugarcane growers are facing.
Answer: The sugarcane growers face several problems, because of which they are unable to improve the yield and quality of sugarcane.
(i) Sugarcane is a soil exhausting crop, so it needs enough quantity of manure while cultivating fresh crop.
(ii) The farmers depend on canal irrigation for water requirements. The canals are often non-perennial and so the supply of water is uncertain.

Question 5: What steps have been taken by the Government to solve the problems of sugarcane growers?
Answer: Some important steps taken by the Government to solve the problems of sugarcane growers are:
(i) Several chemical fertilizer factories have been set up in the public sector to meet the requirements of the farmers.
(ii) Enormous sums of money have been spent in the construction of large water reservoirs to provide regular irrigation facilities for farming sugarcane.
(iii) The Government has taken steps in consolidating the small agricultural holdings.
(iv) Co-operative societies have been established to solve the problems of cane-growers.

Question 6: Give the uses of any two non-edible oilseeds.
Or
Which oilseed is inedible by man? State any two uses of its oil.
Answer: Uses of linseed: (i) Medicine (ii) Paint diluter.
Uses of Castor seed: (i) Castor seed is used for medicinal purposes, (ii) They are used to extract cooking oil and peanut butter, (iii) It is used for manufacture of soap and margarine, (iv) The residue after the oil has been extracted, is used for manure.

Question 7: With reference to Jute Industry, answer the following;
(i) Name two centres of this industry in West Bengal.
(ii) Name two major jute products.
(iii) Mention two problems faced in this industry.
Answer: (i) Kolkata and Howrah.
(ii) Rugs and carpets.
(iii) The two major problems are:
(a) Machinery is outdated.
(b) Problem of raw material.

Question 8: (i) Why is tea considered a labour intensive crop? Name two states in India where tea is widely grown.
(ii) Mention the main tea producing areas of India.
Answer: (i) Tea plant is not allowed to grow beyond a height of 2 to 3 metres. The leaves have to be hand picked as it needs regular pruning, After three years tea bush becomes ready, the skilled pluckers pluck the two leaves and bud pruning and plucking is done by hand so tea is considered a labour intensive crop.
Assam and West Bengal are the two states in India where tea is widely grown.
(ii) The main tea producing areas of India are on the hills bordering the Brahmaputra and Surma valleys in Assam. It is also grown in Darjeeling, Jalpaiguri and districts of West Bengal.

Question 9: How has poverty and fragmentation of land became the problems of agricultural India?
Answer: The small and marginal farmers are unable to buy good quality seeds and agricultural machineries which are very expensive. They follow a traditional method of farming so the yields are not high. Chemical fertilizers are costly and are often beyond the reach of the poor farmers. Inheritance laws in the country have laid to a continuous fragmentation of land over the years reducing the size of the land holdings. This results in large scale wastage of fertile land and labour and they become uneconomic for any useful agricultural activity.

Question 10: Explain the following:
(i) The propagation of rubber by the bud grafting method.
(ii) The propagation of paddy by transplantation.
Answer: (i) Budgrafting is done by the insertion of a strip of bark containing a bud from highyielding clones under the bark of a young seedling till they become united in 3-4 weeks. The old seedling stem is then sawn off above the grafted bark which then grows to form the new rubber plant.
(ii) Transplantation involves the sowing of rice seeds in nurseries at the beginning of monsoons. When the plants are about 15-20 cm tall they are uprooted and replanted in parallel rows at regular intervals in flooded fields and left to grow till they mature.

Give Reasons

Give Geographical Reasons for the following:

Question 1: Why is agriculture the most important occupation in India? Give two reasons.
Answer: (i) The tropical climate provides long growing season in most parts of the country except the Himalayan region.
(ii) Vast stretches of arable land found in the alluvial lowlands of northern plains. Coastal and delta plains, provide unique combination of fertile soils and an abundant water supply.

Question 2: Why is the development of agriculture essential?
Answer: The development of agriculture is essential for the following reasons:
(i) Self-sufficiency in food, (ii) Raw materials for industries and (iii) For the balance of trade.

Question 3: Why are commercial crops also known as industrial crops?
Answer: Commercial crops are also known as industrial crops, since their products are used as raw materials in various industries.

Question 4: Why is rice predominantly an Asian crop?
Answer: Rice is the staple food of more than half the population of the world. It is predominantly an Asian crop because more than 90 per cent of the rice is produced in Asia.

Question 5: Why does the cultivation of rice need plenty of cheap labour?
Answer: The cultivation of rice needs plenty of cheap labour, as most of the work in the rice fields is done by hand.

Question 6: Why does India’s export of wheat fluctuates from year to year?
Answer: India’s export of wheat fluctuates from year to year because India can only export wheat when its production is in surplus.

Question 7: Why are millets not used as food crop by human beings?
Answer: Millets are not used as food crops by human beings because they are coarse and inferior grains. These inferior grains are used by poor people while the stalks are used as cattle fodder.

Question 8: Why is the growing of pulses very important in India?
Or
Why are pulses so widely grown all over India? Give only reason why pulses are a good rotation crop for rice?
Answer: Pulses are leguminous plants. Roots supply the most wanted nitrogen ingredient of soil. Pulses are therefore grown as rotation crops or as subsidiary crops along with other crops, so that fertility of the soil remains restored.

Question 9: Why is gram considered as the most important of Indian pulses?
Answer: Gram is the most important of Indian pulses, because it has multifarious uses. Apart from being used as a pulse (dal), it is also used for preparing bread in mixture with wheat or barley. Gram is a Rabi crop and is sometimes grown along with wheat or barley especially when the product is meant for utilization by the farmer himself in domestic use.

Question 10: Why are pulses not a significant export item?
Answer: Pulses are not a significant export item because these are mostly grown for domestic use. Only gram and peas are exported in small quantities.

Question 11: Why does the cultivation of sugarcane require plenty of cheap labour?
Answer: The cultivation of sugarcane requires plenty of cheap labour as most of the work is done by hand.

Question 12: Why Ratoon cropping is popular in sugarcane?
Answer: Ratoon cropping is popular in sugarcane because this gives a new crop in next year without fresh planting.

Question 13: Give reasons why sugar industry has flourished in Uttar Pradesh.
Answer: Uttar Pradesh is the most important region for the sugar industry because of the following reasons:
(i) Climate and soil conditions are favourable.
(ii) This region has the advantage of an early start.
(iii) The dense population of the region provide cheap labour as well as good fertilization for the sugar industry.

Question 14: The yield of sugarcane is higher in the Deccan. Give two reasons for this.
Answer: The yield of sugarcane is higher in the Deccan region because of its favourable maritime climate, free from effect of loo and winter frost. Due to this sugarcane can be grown throughout the year. Here it is not a seasonal crop as it is in north. Sufficient irrigation and new farming techniques also help in its yield.

Question 15: State two reasons to explain why the cultivation of oil seeds is lagging behind in recent times.
Answer: The two reasons due to which the cultivation of oil seeds is lagging behind in recent times are as follows:
(i) The lack of heavy yielding varieties, irrigation facilities and chemical fertilizers to increase production.
(ii) Their production is subject to climatic fluctuations and market speculations.

Question 16: Oilseeds are an important commercial crop grown in India.
Answer: Oil is extracted in mills or in village ghanis provide employment to 10 million people both in rural and urban areas. India exports oil. 20% vegetable oil is consumed by the industry to make paints, varnishes, lubricants and seasoning wood. Oil is exported to earn foreign exchange.

Question 17: Oil cake is a useful residue.
Answer: Oil cake is excellent cattlefeed and also used as fertiliser.

Question 18: Cotton grows widely in Maharashtra.
Answer: Cotton plant needs 20 °C to 32 °C of temperature and at least 200 frost free days. 50-120 cm of rainfall well distributed during the period of growth. Abundant sunshine and no rain is required during ripening and picking period. Since Maharashtra has black soil and the climatic conditions so cotton grows well in Maharashtra.

Question 19: Why does Tamil Nadu raises two crops of cotton?
Answer: Tamil Nadu is a state, which has two rainy seasons and the rainfall is moderate. There is no risk of frost, because winters are moderately cool as a result two crops of cotton can be raised.

Question 20: Why is most of the work in the cultivation of cotton done by hand?
Answer: Most of the work in the cultivation of cotton is done by hand because labour is needed for picking cotton as well as for other processes. Such as ginning, pressing and packing.

Question 21: Why is dry weather necessary at the time of harvest?
Answer: It helps in ripening and bursting of cotton balls.

Question 22: Why jute cultivation is most successful in West Bengal?
Answer: West Bengal is most successful for jute cultivation because the delta region is rich in alluvium. It is hot all the year round, it receives heavy rain above 200 cm and plenty of fresh soft water for retting, from the tributaries of Ganga.

Question 23: Why are floods beneficial for the growth of jute?
Answer: Floods are beneficial for the growth of jute because plenty of water is needed for the process of retting and a new soil cover is available.

Question 24: Clonal planting is the best method for tea propagation.
Answer: Cuttings are taken from a tea plant called the ‘mother plant’ known for its better yield, special flavour and quality and then grown so as to produce tea shrubs yielding the same superior quality of tea. So clonal planting is the best method for the tea propagation.

Question 25: Tea is grown on hill slopes.
Answer: Tea is grown on the hill slopes as it requires a moderate temperature of 18-28C. Moreover the hill slopes do not allow the stagnation of water which is essential for tea plants as it cannot tolerate waterlogged conditions.

Question 26: Why are tea plants pruned?
Answer: Tea plants are pruned due to two reasons:
(i) The removal of central stem encourages the quick development of lateral branching and periodical pruning also does not allow the plant to grow more than 40 cm. This facilitates hand plucking which is done mostly by women.
(ii) Pruning also helps in growing new shoots bearing soft leaves in plenty.

Question 27: Why has the export of tea declined in foreign markets?
Answer: The export of tea has declined in foreign markets because of the tough competition in foreign markets.

Question 28: Tea bushes are pruned at regular intervals.
Answer: Pruning encourages the growth of new shoots with softer leaves.

Question 29: Why are coffee estates inter-planted with orange trees, cardamom and pepper vines?
Answer: Coffee estates are interplanted with orange trees, cardamon and pepper vines as it provides shade to the coffee plants and provides supplementary income to the farmers.

Question 30: Silver oak and banana trees are grown on coffee plantations.
Answer: Silver oak and Orange trees protect the coffee plantations from the direct sunrays. It also provides extra income to the farmers.

Question 31: Tapping of rubber trees is usually done in the morning hours.
Answer: Latex flows freely in the early morning and there is less chance of rain.

Question 32: Give three reasons why most of rubber trees are grown in Kerala?
Answer: (i) High temperatures throughout the year (25° C).
(ii) Heavy rainfall (more than 300 cm).
(iii) Well drained sloping land.

Differentiate

Question 1: Afforestation and Deforestation.
Answer:

Afforestation	Deforestation
1. The scheme of plantation of new forest is called afforestation.	It means destruction of forest because of overgrazing, forest fire, cutting of trees, etc.
2. This protects soil from eroding.	This causes soil erosion.

Question 2: Shifting agriculture and Plantation agriculture.
Answer:

Shifting Agriculture	Plantation Agriculture
1. Oldest type of agriculture. Slash and Bum method involves.	This type of agriculture is scientifically managed.
2. Practised in the backward areas.	Farms are large with large capital invested with the aim of export. The whole process occurs on commercial lines.

Question 3: Intensive and extensive agriculture.
Answer:

Intensive Farming	Extensive Farming
1. Small plots of land are cultivated scientifically with a large yield per hectare.	Large farms are cultivated traditionally with low yield per hectare.
2. Triple cropping is practiced.	Single crop is grown.

Question 4: Humid and Irrigated farming.
Answer:

Humid Farming	Irrigated Farming
Humid farming is practised in those areas where there is sufficient rainfall and the crops are produced with the help of irrigation.	Irrigated farming is practised where rainfall is seasonal or insufficient for growing crop.

Question 5: Subsistence agriculture jmd Commercial agriculture.
Answer:

Subsistence Agriculture	Commercial Agriculture
1. Subsistence farming is manual labour oriented system to get enough production to satisfy the needs of the farmer and his family.	Commercial agriculture is capital oriented system meant for market so machines are used to get higher yields.
2. Fields are small so agriculture operations are conducted on small scale.	Fields are very big so it is done on big scale.
3. Common in India and China.	It is common in developed countries like Canada and USA.

Question 6: Intensive commercial farming and Extensive commercial farming.
Answer:

Intensive commercial farming	Extensive commercial farming
1. Size of holdings are small.	Size of holding are large.
2. Food crops predominate.	Cash crop predominate.
3. Maximum capital, labour and skill is involved for making a small area productive.	Yield per acre is much less.

Question 7: Geographical conditions and cultivation of rice and wheat.
Answer:

Rice	Wheat
1. It is a Kharif crop sown in June and harvested in October.	Water logging conditions can be damaging for the crop.
2. During ripening stage the temperature should be 18°C – 32 °C. Mean tempera­ture 24 °C.	It is a Rabi crop sown in October-November and harvested in March – April. Wheat needs a temperature of about 10 – 15 °C during the period of growth and 20 – 25°C during harvest.
3. Rice needs more than 100 cm of rainfall	About 80 cm annual rainfall is ideal.

Data based Questions

Question 1: Study the picture given above and answer the following questions:
(i) Name the crop which is being planted. Give one benefit of this method of planting this crop.
(ii) Mention the climatic conditions which favour the cultivation of the crop being planted.

Answer: (i) Rice plantation. It increases yields by 30% to 40%.
(ii) Rice requires mean temperatures from 25°C to 32°C and abundant rainfall from 150 to 200 cms. It thrives best where there is 5 to 10 cms of standing water in the fields.

Name the Following

Question 1: Name the two important crop seasons in India.
Answer: The two important crop seasons in India are Rabi and Kharif.

Question 2: Name the crops which are cultivated by transplanting method of cultivation.
Answer: Rice, Jute, Rubber.

Question 3: Name the states in which rice is grown.
Answer: The main rice producing states are Tamil Nadu, West Bengal, Bihar, Punjab, Orissa, Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Karnataka, Assam and Maharashtra.

Question 4: Name the three crops that are grown in West Bengal in a year.
Answer: The three crops grown in a year in West Bengal are:
(i) aus (autumn) (ii) aman (winter) (iii) boro (summer)

Question 5: Name the-high yielding varieties of wheat being produced in India.
Answer: High yielding varieties of wheat being produced in India are Sonalika and Kalyansona.

Question 6: Name the wheat producing states of India.
Or
Name the two states which are leading producers of wheat in India.
Answer: The important wheat producing states are Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Gujarat and Andhra Pradesh.

Question 7: Name the three main varieties of millets in India.
Or
Name three coarse grains grown in India. Why are they so called?
Or
Name any two millet crops grown widely in India.
Answer: The three main varieties of millets in India are: Jowar, Bajra and Ragi.

Question 8: Name the state that leads in the cultivation of jowar.
Answer: The important jowar-producing state is Maharashtra which accounts for nearly half of the Indian output. Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh are other notable producers of jowar.

Question 9: Name the states where ragi is grown.
Answer: Ragi is mainly grown in southern parts of India. The main areas are Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh.

Question 10: Name the important states where gram is grown.
Answer: Gram is mainly grown in Bihar, Maharashtra, Punjab, Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan. The other minor producers are Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and West Bengal.

Question 11: Name the important pulses grown in India.
Answer: The important pulses such as arhar, masur, gram and tur or peas are grown in India.

Question 12: Name a pulse crop cultivated in India.
(i) During Kharif Season (ii) During Rabi Season
Answer: (i) Urad and Moong pulse crop is cultivated during Kharif season.
(ii) Gram and Peas pulse crop is cultivated during Rabi season.

Question 13: Name a pulse which is grown in Rabi and Kharif season.
Answer: Arhar.

Question 14: Name the principal sugarcane producing areas in India.
Answer: The principal sugarcane producing areas in India are Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Haryana and Punjab.

Question 15: Which state is the largest producer of sugarcane in India?
Answer: Uttar Pradesh.

Question 16: Name products of sugarcane.
Answer: Products of sugarcane are sugar, sugarcane juice, khandsari (powdered gur), gur or jaggery and icing sugar.

Question 17: Name the important oilseeds produced in India.
Answer: The important oilseeds produced in India are groundnuts, sesame, castorseed, cottonseed, linseed, mustard, soyabean rapeseed and coconut.

Question 18: Name four products other than edible oil which are obtained from oilseeds grown in India.
Answer: (i) Soaps, (ii) Medicines, (iii) Cattle feed, (iv) Perfumes.

Question 19: Name two non-edible oilseeds grown in India.
Answer: (i) Linseed, (ii) Castor seed.

Question 20: Name the state which is the largest producer of castor seed. State one important use of each of its oil and oil cake.
Answer: Gujarat. Its oil is used to make toilet soaps and oil cake is a good manure.

Question 21: (i) What climatic condition adversely affects the groundnut crop?
(ii) Name two nort-edible oilseeds grown.
Answer: (i) Excess water is injurious for the plant. It is also very sensitive to the ‘frost’.
(ii) Non edible oil seeds are:
(1) Linseed (2) Castor seeds

Question 22: Name the country which is the largest producer of sesame in the world.
Answer: India is the largest producer of sesame in the world.

Question 23: Name the sesame producing states.
Answer: The states producing sesame are Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, Orissa, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka.

Question 24: Name the states where cotton seed is produced.
Answer: Cotton seed is produced in Gujarat, Maharashtra, Punjab, Karnataka, Haryana, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.

Question 25: Which state in India produces the largest quantity of raw cotton?
Answer: Punjab.

Question 26: Name the state which grows long staple cotton and short staple cotton.
Answer: The states which grows long staple cotton are Punjab and Haryana.
The short staple cotton is grown mainly in Tamil Nadu and Karnataka.

Question 27: Name the countries from where cotton is imported. Why?
Answer: India imports large quantity of long staple cotton from U.S.A., Kenya, U.A.R., and Sudan, as the production is not sufficient to meet the requirement of the country.

Question 28: Name the most important fibre crop in West Bengal.
Answer: Jute.

Question 29: Name the countries from where rubber is imported.
Answer: Rubber is imported from Indonesia, Malaysia and Sri Lanka.

Question 30: Name the state which grows most of India’s natural rubber.
Answer: Kerala grows most of India’s natural rubber accounting for three-fourth of the Indian output.

Question 31: Name three regions where tea is grown in South India.
Answer: (i) Nilgiri hills (ii) Annamalai hills (iii) Coorg district

Question 32: Name the largest tea producing country in the world.
Answer: India is the largest tea producing country in the world.

Question 33: Name the largest exporting tea port in the world.
Answer: Kolkata (Calcutta) is the largest exporting tea port in the world.

Question 34: Name two main varieties of coffee grown in India?
Answer: The two varieties grown in India are:
(i) Coffee Arabic (ii) Coffee robusta

Question 35: Mention the areas of production of the coffee plant.
Answer: Coffee is produced in Karnataka, Kerala and on the Nilgiris in Tamil Nadu.

Question 36: Name the states producing raw silk.
Answer: They are Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Assam and West Bengal.

Question 37: What is silk farming known as?
Answer: Sericulture.

Question 38: Explain two important characteristics of plantation farming. Name one important plantation crop.
Answer: (i) In plantation farming a single crop is grown.
(ii) Chemical fertilizer, herbicides and insecticides are extensively used as these crops are grown for profit. Tea is an important plantation crop.

Question 39: Name the type of soil required for the growth of coffee plant.
Answer: Coffee needs a rich well drained soil preferably derived from the weathering of igneous or volcanic rocks. For better yield the soil must have a sufficient quantity of humus.

For More Resources

ICSE Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Soils in India Solutions

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Very Short Questions

Question 1: Which subject deals with the study of Soil?
Answer: Pedology is the subject deals with the study of soil.

Question 2: What do you mean by ‘Soil’?
Answer: ‘Soil’ means the uppermost layer of the earth’s crust, which contains the organic as well as mineral matter necessary for the growth of plants.

Question 3: What all conditions can alter the characteristics of Soil?
Answer: The conditions of climate, topography, vegetation and underlying rock can alter the characteristics of Soil.

Question 4: Mention the types of Soils found in India.
Or
Name the four major Soil types found in India, leaving out desert and mountain Soils.
Or
Name four major groups of Soil found in the Indian Plains and Plateaus.
Answer: There are four main types of Soils found in India:
(i) Alluvial Soil,     (ii) Black Soil,
(iii) Red Soil, (iv) Laterite Soil.

Question 5: Which two types of Soils are the most important Soils?
Answer: Alluvial Soil and Black Soil are the most important Soils.

Question 6: What is meant by ‘in Situ’?
Answer: ‘In situ’ are the Soils which are found where they are formed.

Question 7: Mention two ways by which Soil can get nitrogen.
Answer: Fertilizers and mixed farming.

Question 8: What do you understand by Humus?
Answer: Humus: The decaying of organic materials, e.g., dead leaves, stems, roots, living bacteria, fungi, worms etc., produce humus, which is important for Soil fertility.

Question 9: Where are Alluvial Soils found in India?
Answer: Alluvial Soils occupy the extensive tracts of Punjab, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Bengal, Orissa, and the coastal strips of Peninsular India. They also occupy parts of Gujrat and Rajasthan.

Question 10: Name the Soil known for its self-ploughing quality and the capacity to hold moisture. Name any two cash crops for which it is specially suited.
Answer: Black cotton Soil; Cotton and Sugarcane.

Question 11: What is one disadvantage of Bhangar alluvium?
Answer: Sometimes it has high content of sodium salts which makes it unproductive.

Question 12: (i) Which minerals are found in Regur Soil?
(ii) Name the important crops grown on it.
Answer: (i) Iron, Calcium, Aluminium and Magnesium.
(ii) Cotton, Sugarcane, Groundnut, Jowar and Bajra.

Question 13: Name one important crop that thrives best in Regur and Red Soil, and a sea-port from where it is exported.
Answer: The crop that thrives best in Regur Soil is Cotton. It is exported from Mumbai sea-port. The crop that thrives best in Red Soil is Sugarcane. It is exported from Chennai.

Question 14: How is the Red Soil formed?
Answer: Red Soil is formed due to the prolonged weathering of the old crystalline rocks. They have a mixture of clay and sand.

Question 15: Name the soil which is formed due to high temperature and heavy rainfall with alternating wet and dry periods.
Answer: Name two states where this type of soil is found.
(i) Laterite soil (ii) Orissa and Karnataka.

Question 16: Which of the Soil is affected by Soil erosion and which crops grow well in Laterite Soil.
Answer: The Soil affected by Soil erosion is Laterite Soil. The important crops of this Soil is Tapioca and Cashewnuts.

Question 17: In which areas is Soil erosion prominent in India.
Answer: Soil erosion is prominent in the North-eastern hilly region of Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, the Chambal Valley, West Bengal and Thar Desert.

Question 18: Mention the types of Soil erosion.
Answer: Types of Soil erosion are as follows:
(i) Erosion by water (ii) Erosion by wind.

Question 19: What is gully erosion?
Answer: When rain falls heavily, the run off scours out deep grooves. This cutting up of the Soil gives rise to bad lands or ravine lands. This type of erosion is known as Gully erosion.

Question 20: How does erosion by wind take place?
Answer: Sometimes in dry areas, dust and silt may be lifted and carried to a great distance by the wind. This is known as Wind erosion.

Question 21: Mention causes of Soil erosion.
Answer: Causes of Soil erosion are:
(i) The agents of gradation like wind and water
(ii) Nature of the Soil
(iii) Human factors

Question 22: How is man responsible for Soil erosion?
Answer: (i) Indiscriminate cutting down of forests.
(ii) Overgrazing by cattle.
(iii) Faulty methods of cultivation e.g. Jhooming.

Short Questions

Question 1: How is Soil formed?
Answer: Soil is formed by the Parent rock material through a process of break up or wear and tear. The decomposition of plant remains, animal manures and dead animals add to the fertility of the soil.

Question 2: How we define Soil from agricultural point of view?
Answer: Soil is the thin layer of loose mixture of small rock particles and rotting organic matter that covers much of the world’s land surface. It supports all forests, grasslands and crops from which all living creatures on earth derive their food.

Question 3: What are the different types of Soil according to their Zones?
Answer: Zonal Soils:

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=nANsQke5n5Y

Question 4: Alluvial Soils are also called ‘Riverine Soils’. Why?
Answer: The chief region of Alluvial Soils in India is the Indo-Gangetic plain, where Alluvial Soils have been deposited mostly by rivers. The coastal belts are the areas of alluvium. The deltaic alluvium on the eastern coast has also been deposited by river-channels. Therefore, Alluvial Soils are rightly called Riverine Soils.

Question 5: How is the Alluvial Soil found in the Ganga plain different from that found in the Godavari valley?
Answer: The Alluvial Soil of the Ganga plain is formed due to the deposition of alluvium which is brought from the Himalayan region. These are light in colour. The Alluvial Soil of the Godavari valley is formed due to the deposition of alluvium brought mainly from the Deccan trap region which is volcanic in origin. It is dark in colour.

Question 6: How is Alluvial soil formed? Why is this soil agriculturally important?
Answer: Alluvial soils are formed by the sediments brought by the rivers. The rivers deposit very fine silt called ‘alluvium’ in their plains during the course of their journey starting from its source in the mountains and ending till its mouth.
This soil is agriculturally very important because it is a mixture of sand, clay and silt (loamy) which makes it very fertile. It is rich in potash and lime. It is light and porous therefore easily tillable. It is suitable for growing large variety of Rabi and Kharif crops.

Question 7: (i) What is Black Soil?
(ii) Give any two characteristics or features of the Soil found most suitable for growing cotton and sugarcane in Maharashtra.
Answer: (i) It is Black in colour therefore it is called Black Soil. These Soils are also called Regur Soil. These are formed in situ, i.e., formed where they are found. These Soils have originated from solidification of basic lava spread over large areas of Deccan Plateau during volcanic activity.
(ii) Two characteristics or features of the Black Soil which is most suitable for growing cotton and sugarcane in Maharashtra are:
(a) It is fine grained, rich in iron, lime and calcium.
(b) It retains moisture and becomes exceedingly sticky.

Question 8: How is Black Soil formed?
Answer: Black Soil is formed as a result of denudation of lava-flow rocks. They contain large quantities of lime, potash, aluminium, magnesium. They are deficient in phosphorus, nitrogen and organic matter. Black Soil is highly retentive of moisture, and become sticky when wet.

Question 9: What are the other names of Black Soil? Where are they found?
Answer: Black Soil is also known as ‘Regur Soil’ or ‘Black Cotton Soil’. Black Soil is found in Gujrat, Maharashtra, parts of Madhya Pradesh, South Uttar Pradesh, North-west Orissa and the western parts of Andhra Pradesh.

Question 10: (i) Explain the origin of the Black Soil. Name two States in India, which have Black Soil.
(ii) Mention any two advantages of the Black Soil.
Answer: (i) Black Soil is formed by weathering of volcanic rocks. It is found in Maharashtra and M.P. (ii) It retains moisture for a long time, is rich in lime, potash and calcium.

Question 11: Where is Red Soil found?
Answer: Red Soil is found in Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, South-eastern Maharashtra, parts of Andhra Pradesh and Orissa. They are also found in the southern districts of Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh and eastern Rajasthan.

Question 12: What are mineral deficiencies of Red Soil? How can they be corrected?
Answer: The Red Soils are generally poor in nitrogen, phosphoric acid and humus. They become reasonably fertile when fertilizers are added to it.

Question 13: How is Red Soil formed? State two reasons for the low productivity of Red Soil or . disadvantages.
Answer: Red Soil is formed by weathering of crystalline and metamorphic rocks.
Reasons for low productivity:
(i) Deficient in nitrogen, humus. (ii) Porous, friable.

Question 14: How is Laterite Soil formed?
Answer: It is formed by the weathering of Soil or due to intense leaching during the periods of heavy rainfall. All the soluble materials are removed and a hard stony layer remains.

Question 15: Where is Laterite Soil found?
Answer: It is found m Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Assam, Bengal, Orissa and along the Western and Eastern Ghats.

Question 16: State two disadvantages of Laterite Soil.
Answer: Disadvantages of Laterite Soils are:
(i) They contain high percentage of acidity.
(ii) It is generally coarse in texture and cannot retain moisture.

Question 17: (i) Why is Laterite Soil unsuitable for cultivation? Name an area where this Soil is found.
(ii) Name the type of Soil found on the summit of the Eastern Ghats. Explain the causes of its formation.
Answer: (i) Laterites are intensively leached Soils of the monsoon climate. They lack in elements of fertility and thus are normally of low value for crop production. Laterite Soil is found in India in hill summits ot Eastern and Western Ghats and Assam Hills.
(ii) Laterite Soils are found on the summits of the Eastern Ghats. These are formed in the areas
which experience high temperature and heavy rainfall. They are formed by the process of leaching.

Question 18: What is the meaning of ‘Soil Erosion’?
Answer: The washing away or the removal of the Soil is known as Soil erosion. Soil erosion, thus, may be termed as the detachment and transportation of Soil particles by agents of denudation such as weathering, running water and wind, etc.

Question 19: Mention the types of Soil erosion by water.
Answer: Soil erosioivby water can be of the following sub-types:
(i) Sheet erosion (ii) Rill erosion (iii) Gully erosion
(iv) Stream Bank erosion. (v) Sea-shore erosion. (vi) Slip erosion.

Question 20: State the factors upon which the rate of Soil erosion depends.
Answer: The rate of Soil erosion depends upon:
(i) Character of the slope of land. (ii) The density of vegetation.
(iii) Rainfall—Heavy or Light.

Question 21: Define ‘Leaching’? In which region South of the Tropic of Cancer, can one find Soil formed by ‘Leaching’?
Answer: Leaching Soil is the process by which soluble substances such as organic basic minerals and mineral salts are washed out of the upper layer of a Soil into a lower layer by percolating rain water, e.g., Laterite Soil.
Found in Karnataka which is south of Tropic of Cancer.

Question 22: What is sheet erosion?
Answer: When the vegetation cover of an area is removed, the rain water instead of sinking into the ground, washes the Soil down the slope. Each succeeding rain-stream washes away a thin layer of absorbent top Soii. This is known as Sheet Erosion.

Question 23: What is rill erosion?
Answer: In rill erosion small finger-like rills begin to appear on the landscape. These rills are usually smoothened out by working of the farm implements. But, slowly the rills increase not only in number but also in their shape and size. They get wider and deeper. This reduces the actual area under crop and results in declining crop yields.

Question 24: What is stream bank erosion?
Answer: The banks of the streams or rivers get eroded every year by the flowing water. In certain areas, the streams and rivers often change their course bit by bit every year and their beds get widened.

Question 25: (i) How does sea or shore erosion occur?
(ii) How is slip erosion caused?
Answer: (i) The tidal waters of sea cause considerable Soil erosion along the coast, particularly during the rainy season when the sea gets rough. The roaring waves rush and dash on the coast, swallowing every time bits of coastal lands.
(ii) Slip erosion is caused by hydraulic pressure exerted by moisture penetrating into the Soil
during heavy, raips. Sometimes the entire field on hill side may slide down because of slip erosion.

Question 26: How does wind erose Soil?
Answer: When wind blows over barren land, there will be damage to the top Soil. In the areas of scanty rainfall wind erosion is predominant. When deaf-forestation due to over-grazing of cultivation makes the top Soil bare, wind erosion occurs.

Question 27: Mention some measures to check Soil erosion.
Answer: Some measures to check Soil erosion are: Contour method of ploughing, terraced farming, plugging of gullies and ravine method, constructing dams across the streams, check on unrestricted grazing over the pastures, afforestation and legal binding on primitive method of Jhooming cultivation should be exercised.

Question 28: Explain the need for Soil conservation in India. State two methods of Soil conservation.
Answer: A rich soil in plant food is the chief requirement of a successful agriculture. It is an essential as a support for plants.
Soil is a very important natural resource of India because agricultural production is basically dependent on the fertility of Soil. Food products like cereals, pulses, fruits and vegetables are obtained indirectly from the Soil.
Two methods:
(i) Contour ploughing. (ii) Afforestation.

Question 29: How does the nature of the Soil affect Soil erosion?
Answer: Sandy and porous Soils are subjected to least erosion by water action because they absorb a good amount of water at the time of rainfall. Impervious Soils are subjected to gradual erosion by water because they are incapable of absorbing rainwater.

Question 30: State any two methods of controlling soil erosion.
Answer: (i) Terrace farming.
(ii) Planting shelter belts to check the speed of wind.

Question 31: What is soil conservation? How does reafforestation help in soil conservation?
Answer: Soil conservation refers to the methods of protecting the soil from erosion. Roots of the trees protect the soil by holding it in place against wind and water erosion. Re-afforestation means replanting trees which have been cut down. For every tree that is cut, two trees are grown. In this way forest cover is increased.

Question 32: Mention two ways by which soil can get nitrogen.
Answer: (i) Use of fertilizer.
(ii) Crop rotation: Rotation ofxrpps is a system in which farmers grow pulses or leguminous crops after the harvest of a soil exhausting crop. Through this method the soil retains its fertility or gets back the nitrogen.

Long Questions

Question 1: Name the factors responsible for the formation of Soil.
Answer:

1. Climate: The climate in which Soil develops is the most important factor. It is responsible for the following:
   (a) Weathering: Extremes of temperature, freezing and thawing of ice break down rocks and favour Soil formation.
   (b) Vegetation: The growth and decay of vegetation determines the humus content of the Soil. Roots of plants penetrate the Soil and make it porous.
   (c) Bio-chemical processes taking place in Soil: Bacteria and fungi cause the decay of plants and animal remains. Some transform the atmospheric nitrogen into Soil nitrogen.
2. The Parent rock: The physical and chemical composition of the parent rock determines the relative proportion of different minerals in the Soil layers.
3. The Topography: The slope of the land surface is an important factor in the formation of Soil layer.
   (a) Hills and slopes: Steep slopes usually have a thin Soil layer because weathered particles are easily carried downslope by running water and wind.
   (b) Plains and Valleys: On flat plains and in valleys, thick fertile Soils are developed.

Question 2: Draw a diagram showing the different Soil Horizons.
Answer:

Question 3: What are the main components of Soil?
Answer: (i) Silica: The main constituent of sand, it is present as small crystalline grains. It is mainly derived from the weathering of rocks.
(ii) Clay: It is a mixture of silicates and contains many minerals like iron, potassium, calcium, sodium and aluminium. Particles of clay absorb water and swell.
(iii) Chalk: It consists of calcium carbonate which provides the important element calcium.
(iv) Humus: It is the organic matter present in the Soil formed by the decomposition of plants and animal remains and animal manure. It is the most important element that determines the fertility of the Soil.

Question 4: Name the varieties of Alluvial Soils. Where are they found?
Answer: Alluvial Soils are of two varieties: Bhangar and Khadar.
‘Bhangar’ is older alluvium. It is found usually higher up in the plains, and occurs at river terraces away from the river. It is found in massive beds, and is characterized by calcareous clays. It is light grey and less fertile. ‘Khadar’ is newer alluvium. It occurs in the lower levels near the river, and is mainly clay loamy. Its new layers are deposited year after year during the season of monsoon floods.

Question 5: How is Regur Soil formed? Mention four important features of Regur Soil.
Answer: Regur or Black Soil is formed by weathering of volcanic (basalt) rock formed by the Deccan Lava.
Four important features of Regur Soil are:
(i) Fine grained            (ii) Moisture retentive
(iii) Sticky when wet   (iv) Cracks when dry.

Question 6: Mention some of the properties of Red Soil.
Or
Mention two characteristics of Red Soil.
Answer: (i) Red Soils are formed in situ by weathering of the ancient crystalline and metamorphic rocks.
(ii) They are rich in iron content, hence, they are red in colour.
(iii) The productivity of the Red Soil increases with regular use of fertilizers.
(iv) Red Soils are porous in nature but not retentive to moisture.
(v) They are suited for dry farming as it does not require much moisture.

Question 7: What are the salient characteristics of Laterite Soils?
Answer: (i) Laterite Soils are leached Soils because alternating dry and wet spells cause the soluble silica to be removed.
(ii) These Soils are acidic in nature and coarse and crumbly in texture.
(iii) The proportion of lime and silica is reduced when leaching takes place.
(iv) In the upper layers, the compounds of iron and aluminium become higher giving a reddish colour to the Soil.
(v) Lack of nitrogen, potassium and organic elements make these Soils unsuitable for cultivation. These Soils support pastures and scrub forests.
(vi) With the use of manures, coffee, rubber, cashew, etc., can be grown on these Soils.

Question 8: For each, state one method of controlling the erosion caused.
Answer: Methods of Controlling Erosion:
(i) Erosion by water: During heavy downpours deep ‘gullies’ are made on account of water run
off. Gully erosion can be stopped by plugging it with stones and pebbles or quick growing grasses can be grown in gullies to stop its expansion.
(ii) Erosion by wind: Wind erosion reduces the productive capacity of the soil by removing the loose particles of soil with the high velocity wind. The nutrients required by the plants are taken away by the wind. Therefore more and more trees should be planted along the edges of the field, the waste land and also on the steep slopes. If it is difficult to grow trees, grass should be grown but no land should be left devoid of plants.

Question 9: (i) Define the term ‘Soil conservation’.
(ii) Why is it necessary?
Answer: (i) The protection of the top Soil, which is constantly being shifted by wind and water from one area to another is called Soil conservation. In other words, Soil conservation refers to the steps taken to protect the Soil from erosion.
(ii) Soil is our most precious resource. It is important to our national economy as productive Soil ensures prosperity in agriculture, industrial development and general economic development.

Give Reasons

Give Geographical Reasons for the following:

Question 1: Why are Alluvial Soil agriculturally important?
Answer: Alluvial Soils are agriculturally important, as they are formed by the deposition of sediments brought by the rivers which gets replenished by the deposition of fresh sediment every year, and are rich in chemical nutrients.

Question 2: Why is deltaic alluvium more fertile than coastal alluvium?
Answer: Deltaic alluvium (Khadar) is more fertile than coastal alluvium (Bhangar) as new layers are deposited year after year during monsoonal floods.

Question 3: Why is Alluvial Soil fertile?
Answer: Alluvial Soil is very fertile since alluvium is rich in mineral nutrients like potash and lime.

Question 4: Why Black Soils are also called ‘Black Cotton Soil’?
Answer: Black Soil is particularly suitable for cotton cultivation. Therefore it is also called ‘Black cotton soil’.

Question 5: Why Black Soil needs to be tilled after the first rains?
Answer: When wet, the Soil becomes sticky and difficult to work with. So, the Soil needs to be tilled after the first rains.

Question 6: Why Black soil is Black in colour?
Answer: It is Black in colour due to high percentage of iron content.

Question 7: Why is the Red Soil red in colour?
Answer: Red Soil is red in colour because it contains a great proportion of iron-oxides. At several places, their colour has slightly changed and appears brown or grey.

Question 8: Name one state in India which mostly has Red Soil.
Answer: Tamil Nadu has Red Soil.

Question 9: Why is Red Soil ideal for dry farming?
Answer: Red Soil is ideal for dry farming as it does not require moisture.

Question 10: Laterite soil is not suitable for cultivation.
Answer: Laterite soils are acidic in nature and has low water retaining capacity. It is poor in nitrogen and lime.

Question 11: Why is Laterite Soil not suitable for agriculture?
Answer: Laterite Soil is not suitable for agriculture because of its high content of acidity and it cannot retain moisture also.

Differentiate

Question 1: State two differences between Black soil and Alluvial soil.
Answer:

Black Soil	Alluvial Soil
1. Made by lava. Residual soil.	1. Made by alluvium. Transported soil.
2. Black in colour.	2. Yellow in colour.
3. Rich in humus.	3. Deficient in humus.

Question 2: Alluvial soil and red soil.
Answer:

Alluvial soil	Red Soil
1. Light grey in colour.	Reddish in colour as it contains Iron Oxide.
2. Very fertile, suitable for wheat, sugarcane, rice, cotton, jute, oil seed.	Rice, wheat, sugarcane, cotton and pulses can be cultivated when well watered with fertiliser.

Question 3: Alluvial soils found in the lower courses and the upper courses of rivers.
Answer: Difference between alluvial soils in the upper and lower courses of the rivers:

Upper course	Lower course
1. It is coarser i.e. particles bigger in size.	It is finer and finest in the lowest section.
2. It is dry, less compact.	It is more moist and more compact.

Question 4: State two differences between Khadar and Bhangar Soil.
Answer:

Khadar Soil	Bhangar Soil
1. The newer alluvium is called Khadar.	The older alluvium is called Bhangar.
2. It is fine textured and more fertile.	It contains pebbles and gravels. It is less fertile.

Question 5: Black Soil and Alluvial Soil.
Answer:

Black Soil	Alluvial Soil
1. Made by lavita.	Made by rivers.
2. Black in colour.	Yellow in colour.
3. Rich in humus.	Rich in iron.

Question 6: Alluvial soil of the northern plains and the alluvial soil on the coastal plains of India.
Answer:

Alluvial Soil of Northern Plains	Alluvial Soil on the Coastal Plain
1. Light in colour	Dark in colour
2. Sandy	Clayey
3. Porous	Non porous
4. Coarse in texture	Fine in texture

Question 7: Sheet erosion and Gully erosion.
Answer:

Sheet Erosion	Gully Erosion
1. Occurs on even surface layer.	Occurs on steep slopes.
2. The top Soil is removed.	Steep sided valley are formed.
3. Found in Western India.	Found in Chambal ravines.
4. Sheet erosion is harmful since it removes the finer and more fertile top Soil.	Gullies cut up agricultural land and make it unfit for cultivation.

Question 8: Transported soil and In Situ soil, quoting a suitable example for each.
Answer:

Transported Soil	In Situ Soil
If a soil is carried else where at the place of rest by the agents of gradation from the place of its origin is called transported soil, e.g. Alluvial soil.	If the soil remains at the place of its origin is called in situ, e.g. Black soil.

Map Plotting

Question 1: On the map of India, shade and name an area each of:
(a) Alluvial Soil, (b) Red Soil, (c) Desert Soil and (d) Hill Soil or Mountain Soil.
Answer:

Name the Following

Question 1: Name the soil which
(i) covers the summits of the Eastern Ghats.
(ii) makes up the delta of the River Ganga.
(iii) is sticky when wet and cracks when dry.
Answer: (i) laterite (ii) alluvial (iii) black

Question 2: Give a single word for each of the following:
(i) The loose rock material, together with humus, forming the uppermost layer of the earth’s crust and serving a source of food and moisture for plants.
(ii) The process of percolation by which valuable mineral nutrients are washed down from the top layer of the Soil only to deposit them in the lower layers, making the top Soil infertile.
Answer: (i) Soil (ii) Leaching

Question 3: Name the transported Soil most widely found in India. State the two sub-categories into which it is generally divided. What are their local names and which one of them is superior to the other.
Answer: Alluvial Soil; Older alluvium—Bhangar, Newer alluvium—Khadar. Khadar is superior to Bhangar.

Question 4: Point out the region where coastal alluvium is found.
Answer: The coastal alluvium occurs in the coastal strips of peninsular India and the plains of Gujrat and also some parts of Rajasthan.

Question 5: Name the three types of Alluvium Soil.
Answer: Alluvium Soils include:
(i) Deltaic alluvium (ii) Coastal alluvium
(iii) Inland alluvium.

Question 6: Name the crops for which Red Soils is suitable.
Answer: Red soil is suitable for the cultivation of wheat, rice, millet, gram, pulses and sugarcane.

Question 7: Name the Soil which is formed due to high temperature and heavy rainfall with alternating wet and dry periods. Name two states where this type of Soil is found?
Answer: Laterite Soil; Kerala and Karnataka.

Question 8: Name one area where Laterite Soil is found in large-scale.
Answer: It is found along summits of Western Ghats in Karnataka and Kerala.

Question 9: Name the parent rock of Laterite Soil. Name one area in India which has Laterite Soil.
Answer: The parent rock of Laterite Soil is Laterite rock. It is mainly found in the Malwa Plateau region.

Question 10: Which Soil is found suitable to grow coffee in Karnataka?
Answer: Laterite Soil.

Question 11: Name two important agents of erosion.
Answer: The two important agents of erosion are:
(i) Water (ii) Wind.

Question 12: Name a part of India where:
(i) Wind is the main agent of erosion.
(ii) Water is the main agent of erosion.
Answer: (i) Thar Desert, western Rajasthan and south Punjab.
(ii) In hilly regions such as the Himalayas, hills of North-east India and the Nilgiris.

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Very Short Questions

Question 1: Give two main features of the policy of non-alignment.
Answer: (i) It is opposed to military alliances.
(ii) It upholds the rights of all people for freedom and justice.

Question 2: Name two architects of the NAM.
Answer: The two architects of the NAM were:
(i) Jawaharlal Nehru of India. (ii) Joseph Broz Tito of Yugoslavia.

Question 3: What is Panchsheel?
Answer: It is peace agreement of five principles signed between India and China in 1954.

Question 4: State three basic objectives of the Non-Aligned Movement.
Answer: (i) Maintenance of international peace.
(ii) Abolition of colonialism and imperialism.
(iii) Protection of environment.

Question 5: When was the first summit of NAM at Belgrade held?
Answer: The first summit was held at Belgrade in 1961.

Question 6: How many countries attended first summit of NAM at Belgrade summit?
Answer: 25 countries attended this summit.

Question 7: Mention two issues discussed at the first summit of NAM at Belgrade summit.
Answer: (i) Disarmament (ii) Colonialism.

Question 8: Who presided over this conference?
Answer: The conference was presided over by the first Prime Minister of India, Pandit Jawahar Lai Nehru.

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=FHQPTHyktJ4

Short Questions – I

Question 1: When did the concept of non-alignment emerge? Why?
Answer: The concept of non-alignment emerged during the Cold War. After the Second World War, the world was divided into two power blocs-one led by the USA and the other by the Soviet Union. The newly independent nations decided to remain non-aligned and not join either of the two power blocs.

Question 2: Describe briefly what is meant by non-alignment?
Answer: Npn-alignment is an independent movement that enables each nation to follow its own policies by neither joining any super-power bloc nor coming under their influence.

Question 3: What led to the formation of NAM?
Answer: The following reasons led to the formation of NAM:
(i) Freedom and reawakening of the nations of Asia and Africa.
(ii) Poverty of newly independent nations.
(iii) Newly independent countries wanted peace in the world.

Question 4: Non-alignment does not mean ‘isolation’ or ‘neutrality’. Why?
Answer: Non-alignment does not mean ‘isolation’ or ‘neutrality’ because it is a positive and constructive policy leading to freedom, security, peace and co-operation.

Question 5: Mention some issues discussed at the first NAM summit.
Answer: The first summit of the non-algined countries was held at Belgrade in 1961. A 27 point Declaration was adopted. Some of the parts were:
(i) It condemned all forms of colonialism.
(ii) It called for complete disarmament.

Question 6: What were Pt. Nehru’s views about non-alignment?
Answer: Nehru wanted India to follow the non-aligned policy because he wanted India to keep away
from power politics of groups aligned against one another. He felt that the urgent need of the Afro-Asian countries was to use all their resources for the welfare of their own people and not be used by the super-powers to serve their own global interests.

Question 7: In what way did Nehru advocate a policy of disarmament?
Answer: (i) He consistently condemned building up of weapons of destruction.
(ii) An agreement for banning atomic tests was signed in 1963.

Question 8: How was NAM instrumental in abolishing the policy of Apartheid in South Africa?
Answer: Under the guidance of Nehru, India sponsored a resolution in the UN in 1962, calling upon the member states to take diplomatic action and economic steps against South Africa to make change her policy of apartheid. Apart from this, all the NAM countries fully co-operated with the united nation’s resolutions on the economic boycott of South Africa.

Question 9: Mention any two major problems faced by NAM.
Answer: (i) Majority of members have always depended on economic and other kinds of aid from the big powers.
(ii) Many of the non-aligned countries like Pakistan and Cuba have also been allies of a power-bloc which raised question about their sincerity.

Question 10: While explaining the basic principles of non-alignment, what did Nehru propose?
Answer: (i) To keep away from power blocs or groups aligned against each other.
(ii) To keep on the closest terms of friendship with all countries.

Question 11: What is the significance of the Bandung Conference?
Answer: The Bundung Conference paved the way for co-operation among the newly independent nation, which took the formal shape of the Non-Aligned movement.

Short Questions – II

Question 1: What is meant by Non-Aligned movement.
Answer: Meaning of Non-Aligned Movement: The non-alignment refers to an independent policy adopted by a country while keeping away from the power blocs. It is distinct from neutrality which means keeping aleof from international politics. Thus, non-alignment is a positive concept. Non-Aligned Movement refers to the organised efforts of those states which follow the policy of Non-Alignment. Most of the developing countries of Asia, Africa and Latin America are the members of Non-Aligned Movement (NAM).

Question 2: Why did Nehru advise all the newly independent Afro-Asian nations to keep themselves away from the influence of the super-powers?
Answer: Nehru advised all the newly independent nations of Asia and Africa to keep themselves away form the influence of the super powers because most of these countries were poor and underdeveloped. They had been through so much strife during their national struggle that they really needed peace. Nehru was worried that these countries might lose their complete independence if they joined any power bloc.

Question 3: State the issues discussed at Banding conference.
Answer: (i) The five principles of Panchsheel were given practical slope at the Bandung Conference of 1955.
(ii) The delegates condemned colonialism.
(iii) The need for economic growth in the third world countries was emphasised.

Question 4: Mention the five principles which form the core of ‘Panchsheel’.
Answer: The five basic principles, known as Panchsheel, adopted at the Bandung Conference of 1955 are:
(i) Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty.
(ii) Mutual non-aggression.
(iii) Mutual non-interference in each other’s internal affairs.
(iv) Equality for mutual benefit.
(v) Peaceful co-existence.

Question 5: State two actions taken by Jawahar Lal Nehru to further strengthen the cause of Non-Alignment.
Answer: Jawahar Lai Nehu was one of the four founder architects of NAM. His contribution to the movement is very significant. He enumerated the Panchsheel principles on which NAM is based. From the begining, Nehru opposed supporting any power bloc and insisted on judging every incident according to its merits. Nehru called for an Asian Relation conference even before India gained her independence, where he stressed the need for Asian co-operation. This was the precursor of NAM.

Question 6: Explain how Non-Alignment is neither neutrality, nor neutralisation, nor non-commitment.
Answer: (i) It does not remain aloof from international problems. It actively participates in the politics among nations. So, non-alignment stands for action rather than passivity.
(ii) The newly independent nations realised that although they do not have the miliarty and economic powers to influence international affairs, they had great moral force and with their collective reason they could maintain or promote world peace on their own.
(iii) NAM has supported the cause of international peace, justice and freedom. It has vehemently stood against any injustice, be it the Suez crisis in 1956, aggressive policies of Israel or the unilateral attack by the USA against Iraq.

Long Questions

Question 1: Discuss the factors that led to the formation of NAM.
Answer: (i) Global tension caused by the cold war: Most of the newly independent countries of Asia and Africa realised that the division of the world into two power blocs was not in their larger interest and this might endanger world peace. These nations felt that by distancing themselves from the power blocs they would put off the danger of another world war.
(ii) Struggle against imperialism and new-colonialism: The newly independent nations had become free after long and bitter struggles. They wanted to enjoy their newly acquired freedom and the power that had come with it.
(iii) Right of independent judgement: These nations were able to keep their own identity
by not aligning with the power blocs. They wanted to solve their problems themselves without any outside interference.
(iv) Use of moderation in relation to all big powers: They wanted to promote goodwill and co-operation among the nations of Asia and Africa and to explore and advance their mutual interest by establishing friendly relations with all the nations.
(v) Restructuring the international economic order: Most of these nations were economically backward. Since they needed both capital and technical sources to boost their economic development, they considered it worth while to get both the things from whoever they could, without any strings attached.
(vi) Formation of a collective force: They realised that they had great moral force and with their collective reason they could maintain or promote world peace.

Question 2: What were the objectives of NAM?
Answer: (i) To eliminate all those causes which would lead to war.
(ii) To protect the nascent freedom of the newly born independent countries of Asia and Africa from colonial domination.
(iii) To oppose colonialism, imperialism and racial discrimination.
(iv) To advocate sovereign equality of all states.
(v) To encourage friendly relations among countries.
(vii) To advocate peaceful settlement of international disputes.
(vii) To oppose the use of force and the use of nuclear weapons.
(viii) To strengthen the United Nations as an organ of world peace.
(ix) To protect human rights and to protect the environment.
(x) To build a new international economic order based on equity, equality and justice.

Question 3: Describe the role of Non-Aligned Movement in world affairs.
Answer: A number of summits were held by NAM countries to discuss world problems.
(i) The non-aligned nations discussed world affairs at Belgrade in 1961 and Cairo in 1964, in order to bring peace in the world.
(ii) Economic resolutions were adopted at Algiers in 1973.
(iii) The New Delhi Summit in 1983 discussed about disarment and the Iran-Iraq conflict, the Palestinian disarmament and apartheid in South Africa.
(iv) At the Harare summit in 1986 apartheid and racial discrimination were condemned.
(v) When Nelson Mandela was freed in October 1989, he worked actively against apartheid with the full support of NAM.
(vi) The Jakarta Summit of 1992 formulated proposals for democratising the united nations and emphasised globalization of world economy.
(vii) The Kuala Lampur summit in 2003, demanded that the benefits of globalization and the advances in science and technology be shared by the rich and powerful countries with the developing countries.
(viii) At the Havana summit in 2006 the NAM member countries condemned Israel’s attack on Lebanon, supported Iran’s nuclear energy plans and criticised USA’s foreign policy.
NAM still has relevance as with the changing world the member countries have changed their emphasis. NAM is now stressing on human rights, democracy and economic development.

Question 4: What is India’s role in NAM?
Answer: India’s role in NAM:
(i) Jawahar Lai Nehru played a leading role in the evolution of NAM. It was Jawahar Lai Nehru who elaborated refined and popularised the concept of non alignment. Nehru along with Nasser of Egypt and Marshal Tito of Yugoslavia played the leading role in the evolution, establishment and consolidation of Non Aligned movement.
(ii) Nehru, before independence convened the Asian Relations conference in New Delhi in March 1947, which was instrumental in forging unity among Asian nations.
(iii) He enunciated the five principles of peaceful co-existence named Panchsheel. These principle are also the core principle of the NAM.
(iv) A policy of friendship, cooperation and world peace was pursued under him. He pleaded for disarmament as the only means of preserving peace in the world.

Picture Based Questions

Question 1: Answer the following:

(i) Identify the persons in the picture given below.
(ii) With which movement they were associated?
Answer: (i) The persons in the picture are (From Left) Nasser, Tito and Nehru.
(ii) They were associated with Non-Aligned Movement (NAM).

For More Resources

ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Chapter 21 The United Nations Principal Organs – Composition and Functions Solutions

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Very Short Questions

Question 1: When was the United Nations formed? On which date the ‘UN Day’ is celebrated?
Answer: United Nations was formed on the 24th October 1945. The “UN Day” is celebrated on the 24th October.

Question 2: Which Articles of the UN Charter deal with the power and functions of the General Assembly?
Answer: Powers and functions of the General Assembly are laid down in Articles 10-17 of the UN Charter.

Question 3: Which organ of the United Nations approves the budget?
Answer: The General Assembly approves the budget of the United Nations and its specialized agencies and determines financial contribution of member States.

Question 4: Which organ is treated as the executive of the United Nations Organisation?
Answer: The Security Council is supposed to be the executive of the United Nations Organisation.

Question 5: Where does the Security Council have its headquarters?
Answer: The Security Council has its headquarters at New York, USA.

Question 6: When does the session of the Security Council take place?
Answer: The Security Council hold its meeting once in every month but may also meet, more often according to the need.

Question 7: Which is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations?
Answer: The International Court of Justice is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations.

Question 8: What are the qualifications for election as a Judge in the International Court of Justice?
Answer: To be a Judge in the International Court of Justice a person has to be of high moral character with highest legal qualifications and recognized competence in international law.

Question 9: What special privileges do the Judges enjoy?
Answer: The Judges when engaged in the business of the Court enjoy diplomatic privileges and immunities.

Question 10: Mention the nature of the functions; the International Court of Justice performs.
Answer: The functions of the International Court of Justice can be labelled as Voluntary Jurisdiction, Compulsory Jurisdiction and Advisory Jurisdiction.

Question 11: What is Voluntary Jurisdiction of the International Court of Justice?
Answer: Voluntary jurisdiction means that the States refer a matter to the Court voluntarily with mutual agreement on seeking the Court’s Jurisdiction.

Question 12: Is the International Court of Justice open to individuals?
Answer: No, individuals cannot go to the International Court of Justice. Only member States of the UNO and various organs and agencies of the UN can benefit under this Court’s Jurisdiction.

Question 13: Who appoints the Secretary General of the United Nations?
Answer: The Secretary General of the United Nations is appointed for 5 years on the recommendation of the Security Council by the General Assembly.

Short Questions – I

Question 1: Which functions of the General Assembly tends to fulfill the ideals of UN Charter apart from maintenance of peace?
Answer: The General Assembly makes recommendations for the purpose of promoting international cooperation and encouraging the development of international law arid its modification.
The General Assembly also assists in the realization of human rights and fundamental freedom for all without distinction of race, sex, language and religion.

Question 2: When does the session of General Assembly take place?
Answer: The regular session of General Assembly begins each year on the third Tuesday of September and continues upto mid December at New York. The Secretary General can call a special session at the request of die Security Council any time if a majority of the members agree. An emergency session can also be called.

Question 3: How many members are there in the General Assembly? How do they reach to a decision?
Answer: All the members of UNO are members of the General Assembly. Presently there are 193 members. Each member of the general Assembly has one vote. Voting is on the basis of simple majority, but decisions on important questions are reached upon with the support of two-third of majority of the members.

Question 4: Are the recommendations of the ‘Uniting for Peace Resolution’ session of the General Assembly obligatory?
Answer: The recommendations of the General Assembly in an emergency session called under ‘Unity for Peace Resolution’ are not obligatory on the member governments. However they have the support of the World opinion and moral authority of the World community.

Question 5: What is meant by ‘important questions’ while voting in the General Assembly?
Answer: Decision on ‘important questions’ are made by a two-third of majority. These important questions are matters pertaining to maintenance of peace and security, the election of non¬permanent members of Security Council, the admission of new members to United Nations, expulsion of members and budgetary issues.

Question 6: Mention two most important functions of the General Assembly.
Answer: The two most important features of the General Assembly are:
(i) The General Assembly can discuss any matter which falls within the scope of UN Charter or relating to the powers and functions of any organ of the United Nations.
(ii) The maintenance of international peace and security and call Security Council’s attention to it and make recommendations thereon.

Question 7: Name some of the functions of the General Assembly connected with UN appointments.
Answer: The General Assembly elects the non-permanent members of the Security Council, the members of the Economic and Social Council and the members of Trusteeship Council.
The General Assembly also elect Judges of the International Court of Justice jointly with the Security Council. It appoints the Secretary General of the United Nations on recommendations of the Security Council.

Question 8: What do you understand by General Assembly?
Answer: The General Assembly is the main deliberative organ of the U.N. composed of all member States, each of them having one vote. Decisions on important questions, like peace and security,
admission of new members and budgetary matter require two-third of majority. Decision on other matters are reached by simple majority. It can be called the ‘Legislature’ of United Nations.

Question 9: What do you understand by ‘Uniting for Peace Resolution’?
Answer: The ‘Uniting for Peace Resolution’ was adopted by the General Assembly on 3rd November, 1950. The General Assembly was authorized to take action if the Security Council failed to do so on account of lack of unanimity of its permanent members, in a situation of threat to international peace, breach of peace or threat of aggression.

Question 10: What time is required for calling an ‘Uniting for Peace Resolution’ session?
Answer: ‘Uniting for Peace Resolution’ session can be called within 24 hours on the request of the Security Council or of a majority of General Assembly Members. If the Security Council is prevented by ‘veto’ of its permanent members, from exercising its primary responsibility for international peace and security.

Question 11: How is the Security Council formed?
Answer: The Security Council consists of five permanent members: China, France, Russia, Britain and the United States of America, and ten non-permanent members, who are elected by the General Assembly by two-third of majority, for a term of two years. A retiring member is not eligible for immediate re-election. In all, the Security Council thus consists of 15 members.

Question 12: What do you understand by ‘Power to Veto’? Name the permanent member countries of the Security Council.
Answer: A negative vote of a permanent member is called Veto. It is exercised by the five permanent members of the Security Council. It is essential that on any issue China, France, USA, UK and Russia must be unanimous in their support. In case any one member do not support the issue then the motion cannot be passed. However abstention from voting is not considered as veto.

Question 13: On what basis are the ten non-permanent members elected by the General Assembly?
Answer: The ten non-permanent members are elected on the basis of geographical distribution. Five members are from Asia and Africa, two from Latin America, two from Western Europe and one from Eastern Europe. Each member of the Security Council has one vote.

Question 14: How are decisions arrived at in the Security Council?
Answer: Each of the 15 members of the Security Council has one vote. Decisions on procedural, matters are made by an affirmative vote of nine members, including the concurring votes of all five permanent members. The Council is powerless to act if veto is used by any of the five permanent members.
Decisions on matters other than questions on procedure are decided by affirmative vote of nine members including concurrence of all the five permanent members.

Question 15: What do you think is the more powerful organ of the United Nations Organisation the General Assembly or the Security Council?
Answer: The General Assembly and the Security Council are both very important organs of the UNO. The former deals with the legislative functions and the latter is responsible for their execution. Thus the powers and functions of each make it complementary for the other.

Question 16: What do you know about the composition of the International Court of Justice?
Answer: The International Court of Justice consists of 15 Judges elected by the General Assembly and the Security Council for a term of 9 years. No two Judges can be nationals of the same State. The President and Vice-President of the Court are elected for a term of three years. The Judges are eligible for re-election. Five Judges retire after every three years.

Question 17: How is a decision taken in the International Court of Justice?
Answer: Usually all the Judges hear the cases that come before the Court but the presence of a minimum nine members is essential. The decisions are taken by a majority vote and in case of a tie, President is empowered to give a casting vote. A State which is a party in a dispute, its national 4 as the Judge of the Court cannot take part in the decision of that particular case.

Question 18: What do you understand by International Court of Justice’s Advisory Jurisdiction?
Answer: The International Court of Justice is empowered to give advisory opinion on any legal question referred to it by any organ of United Nations or its agencies. The advisory opinion is not binding.

Question 19: What is the compulsory jurisdiction of the International Court of Justice?
Answer: The Court possesses compulsory jurisdiction over all matters provided in the United Nations Charter or in treaties and conventions in force. A State may declare under the ‘optional clause’ that it recognizes as compulsory for another State to accept a particular obligation under the Court’s jurisdiction. This can be only in case the States have already made an arrangement to this effect.

Question 20: What are the guiding principles for the International Court of Justice?
Answer: The International Court of Justice bases its decisions on international laws. Sometimes the parties involved are agreeable on decisions, which are made on general principles of natural justice and fairness.

Question 21: Is the Judgment of the International Court of Justice final? What recourse does it have for non compliance?
Answer: The Judgement of the Court is final and there is no scope for an appeal against it. The parties involved in the case are obliged to abide by it. If one of the party States fails in abiding by it the other can refer the matter to the Security Council which decides the measure to be taken against it and enforce the Judgement.

Question 22: What is Secretariat? Who does it have as its head?
Answer: The Secretariat is the administrative body of the United Nations with the Secretary General as its head. It has a staff of more than 1400 men and women coming from all the member countries of the UNO. Its headquarters is at New York.

Question 23: What is the Economic and Social Council? How is it formed?
Answer: The Economic and Social Council of the UNO is the principal organ to co-ordinate the economic and social functions. It coordinates the functions of the specialized agencies and institutions of the UNO.
The Council consists of 54 members elected by the General Assembly for a term of three years. Its headquarters is at New York.

Question 24: What is the Trusteeship Council? How is it formed?
Answer: The trusteeship Council performs the task of supervision the administration of the trust territories under its care. It is made up of the five permanent members of the Security Council i.e., USSR, USA, UK, France and China with its headquarters at New York, USA.

Question 25: Give in brief about the functions of the Economic social council.
Answer: The Economic Social Council: It co-ordinates the economic and social functions leading to peace building all over the world. It works with the help of a number of specialized agencies to bring about economic and social co-operation and cultural interaction for establishment of human rights and freedoms.

Question 26: Which works are distributed to the Trusteeship Council and the Secretarial.
Answer: (i) The Trusteeship Council: It supervises administration of the trust territories placed under it.
(ii) The Secretariat: It is the administrative wing with a staff of more than 1,400 and headed by the Secretary General.

Short Questions – II

Question 1: What are the various major organs of the United Nations Organisation?
Answer: The following are the major organs of the United Nations according to Article 7 of the Charter:
(i) The General Assembly. (ii) The Security Council.
(iii) The Economic and Social Council. (iv) The Trusteeship Council.
(v) The International Court of Justice. (vi) The Secretariat.

Question 2: Can the General Assembly be treated as the controlling major organ of the U.N.O.?
Answer: The General Assembly is the principal deliberative organ of the UN. It considers reports of the Security Council and other organs, considers and approves of the budget. It elects non-permanent members of the Security Council, the Economic and Social Council and Trusteeship Council. It also jointly with the Security Council elects the Judges of the International Court of Justice and appoints the Secretary General of the UNO on recommendation of the Security Council. It deals with all matters of policy making and can be treated as the Legislature of the UNO.

Question 3: Under what conditions does the General Assembly act where the Security Council may fail?
Answer: The General Assembly may act under the ‘Uniting for Peace’ resolution adopted by it in November 1950. In case there is lack of unanimity among the Permanent Members of the
Security Council over a case and there is a threat of international peace, the Assembly can make recommendation to its members to take collective action including use of armed force to restore international peace and security.

Question 4: What is the composition of the Security Council.
Answer: (i) The Security Council is the executive body of the UNO and consists of total 15 members.
(ii) It consists of 5 permanent members viz; U.S.A., Russia, England, France and China and 10 non-permanent members.
(iii) The non-permanent members of Security Council are elected by the General Assembly for two years. Besides, the permanent memebrs have the right to Veto. By the application of this right, any permanent member may reject any decision of the Security Council.

Question 5: What functions of the Security Council make it, the most important organ as far as internal matters of the UN are concerned?
Answer: The Security Council performs many important functions:
(i) It recommends hie admission of new members.
(ii) It exercises trusteeship functions of the United Nations in ‘Strategic Areas’.
(iii) It recommends to the General Assembly the appointment of Secretary General and along with the General Assembly elects the Judges of the International Court of Justice. It recommends suspension and expulsion of the members.

Question 6: Explain the composition of the International Court of Justice.
Answer: Composition of the International Court of Justice:
(i) The International Court of Justice consists of 15 Judges for nine year term.
(ii) The Judges are elected both by the General Assembly and the Security Council.
(iii) Each Judge should be from a different country. If 2 people from one country are nominated, the elder one is selected.
(iv) They elect their President and Vice-President for a three year term. The decisions of the Court are made by majority of the judges present.

Question 7: Discuss about the role of the International Court of Justice.
Answer: The International Court of Justice: The International Court of Justice deals with dispute referred to it by Party States voluntarily by mutual consent. This is called voluntary jurisdiction.
Then the Court has compulsory jurisdiction in maintaining and enforcing treaties, conventions and international obligations among States. All matters of the UN Charter are under the jurisdiction of this Court.
Advisory jurisdiction empowers it to give advisory opinion on legal questions referred to it by any organ of the UN or its agencies, which is not binding.

Question 8: What type of matters are referred to the International Court of Justice?
Answer: Matters involving legal issues, interpretation of International Law, disputes among parties involving international convention, customs and general practices accepted as law, general principles of law recognized by nations, general decisions and teachings of great jurists of various nations are dealt with in the International Court of Justice.
The Court also decides on the reparation a party has to make for breach of an international agreement and solves disputes pertaining to the interpretation of the International Law.

Long Questions

Question 1: What is the composition of the General Assembly? How does it hold the deliberations?
Answer: The General Assembly is the only organ of the UN in which all member countries are represented. All member States have equal voting power and equal status. Each member country may be represented by upto five state delegates but each and all of them has only one vote. While some decisions like passing of budgets, admission of new members may require two-thirds, other decisions need simple majority. Since new and smaller States outnumber the big nations, their combined weight and strength has prevented domination of big nations. This composition of the General Assembly is indeed its greatest strength.
The General Assembly holds deliberations by conducting regular sessions, which begin on third Tuesday in September every year and continue until mid December. However, if required by more than half of the member States special sessions may also be held.

Question 2: Mention the major functions of the General Assembly.
Answer: Functions of the General Assembly:
(i) To discuss any matter within the scope of UN Charter relating to powers and functions of any of the organs of United Nations.
(ii) To discuss any question relating to maintenance of peace and make recommendations thereon.
(iii) It initiates studies in international co-operation and make recommendations for the development of international laws and its modification.
(iv) It ensures action for realization of fundamental rights and fundamental freedoms.
(v) It receives and considers annual reports from the Security Council and other organs of UNO, considers budget and election of permanent members of the Security Council and members of the other organs of UN. It elects new members.
(vi) General Assembly appoints the Secretary General on the recommendation of Security
Council.
(vii) It has special powers under ‘Uniting for Peace’ resolution which takes place when due to the use of ‘Veto’ in the Security Council a deadlock is created.

Question 3: Discuss the role of Security Council in maintaining peace.
Answer: The functions of the Security Council related to maintaining world peace:
(i) At the time of war: The Security Council may call for cease fire to stop aggression or for cutting off communication links with the aggressor nation or severing diplomatic relations with it.
(ii) Investigatory role: They may investigate any dispute or situation which might lead to international friction. They can also recommends methods for adjusting such disputes.
(iii) Military action: Security Council may resort to military action. Such action may include operations by air, sea or land forces supplied by Member-Nations.
(iv) Admission of new members: New-members are admitted by a two-thirds vote of the General Assembly upon the recommendation of the Security Council.

Question 4: How does the Security Council enforce its recommendations?
Answer: The Security Council enforces its decisions through the following means:
(i) Imposition of sanctions through Member-States of the UN against the aggressor.
(ii) The ‘Unanimity Rule’ popularly known as Veto. A ‘No’ of any particular Permanent Member, even though all other members might be in favour of the decision, can make the resolution inoperative. This ‘Veto’ Actually makes the Security Council stronger as it prevents the parties in dispute from manipulating the situation at international level in their favour. Kashmir problem is a case in point.
(iii) Armed intervention, as the UN did with Iraq, when there is majority decision.
(iv) Force the parties to come to negotiating table through various other means.

Question 5: Mention three functions of the International Court of Justice.
Answer: (i) Voluntary Jurisdiction: Its jurisdiction covers all cases which the parties at dispute refer to it by mutual consent. One party alone may refer the dispute to the Court. If the other party undertakes to defend itself in a case brought before it, the Court interprets it as consent to the reference.
(ii) Evolving procedures for peaceful Settlement of Disputes: At any stage of the disputes the Court may recommend appropriate procedures or methods of settlement. It may also recommend terms of settlement.
(iii) Advisory Opinion: The International Court of Justice gives advisory opinion on any matter of international law as and when requested by the General Assembly and the Security Council.

Picture Based Questions

Question 1: Study the picture shown and answer the questions that follow:

(i) Identify the organization associated with the given emblem.
(ii) Where is the headquarters of this organization located? Name the principal organs of this organization.
Answer: (i) The organization associated with the above emblem is the United Nations Organizations.
(ii) The headquarter of this organization is located in New York city. The six principal organs of U. N. are:
The General Assembly, The Secerity Council, The International Court of Justice, The Economic and Social Council Trusteeship Council and The Secretariat.

For More Resources

ICSE Class 10 English Solutions In the Bazaars of Hyderabad [Poem]

Passage 1

Question 1.
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow.

What do you sell, O ye merchants?
Richly your wares are displayed.
Turbans of crimson and silver,
Tunics of purple brocade,
Mirrors with panels of amber,
Daggers with handles of jade.

What is displayed by the merchants? Where?

Answer:
The merchants have grandly displayed their wares in the bazaars of Hyderabad. There are turbans in crimson and silver and purple brocade tunics for sale. The merchants also have mirrors with amber panels and jade-handled daggers for sale.

Question 2.
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow.

What do you sell, O ye merchants?
Richly your wares are displayed.
Turbans of crimson and silver,
Tunics of purple brocade,
Mirrors with panels of amber,
Daggers with handles of jade.

Explain the lines:
Mirrors with panels of amber
Daggers with handles of jade

Answer:
The lines ‘mirrors with panels of amber’ refer to the antique looking mirrors having amber edges.

The line ‘daggers with handles of jade’ refers to daggers that have handles studded with the green coloured precious stone called jade.

Question 3.
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow.

What do you sell, O ye merchants?
Richly your wares are displayed.
Turbans of crimson and silver,
Tunics of purple brocade,
Mirrors with panels of amber,
Daggers with handles of jade.

Describe the given extract in your own words.

Answer:
This is the first stanza of the poem. It describes the richness of India. The poet opens the poem with a luxurious and an opulent vision of merchants displaying turbans of silver and crimson, colours that are synonymous with royalty and elegance. Next, we read about purple coloured tunics, a colour which again represents royalty. The merchants also have mirrors with amber panels and daggers with jaded handles.

Question 4.
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow.

What do you sell, O ye merchants?
Richly your wares are displayed.
Turbans of crimson and silver,
Tunics of purple brocade,
Mirrors with panels of amber,
Daggers with handles of jade.

State the rhyme scheme of the given lines.

Answer:
The rhyme scheme of the given lines is a-b-c-b-c-b.

Passage 2

Question 1.
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow.

What do you weigh, O ye vendors?
Saffron and lentil and rice.
What do you grind, O ye maidens?
Sandalwood, henna and spice.
What do you call, O ye pedlars?
Chessmen and ivory dice.

What are the vendors selling?

Answer:
The vendors are selling commodities of daily use such as saffron, lentil and rice.

Question 2.
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow.

What do you weigh, O ye vendors?
Saffron and lentil and rice.
What do you grind, O ye maidens?
Sandalwood, henna and spice.
What do you call, O ye pedlars?
Chessmen and ivory dice.

What is in store from maidens and pedlars?

Answer:
The maidens have brought to the market sandalwood, henna, and spices that they themselves have ground. The pedlars have chessman and ivory dice on sale.

Question 3.
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow.

What do you weigh, O ye vendors?
Saffron and lentil and rice.
What do you grind, O ye maidens?
Sandalwood, henna and spice.
What do you call, O ye pedlars?
Chessmen and ivory dice.

Who are the chessmen? What are they made of? What does it signify?

Answer:
The solid figures used to play chess are the chessmen. The pedlars have displayed chessmen and dice made of ivory. This indicates the Indian fascination for games and the use of precious materials to make the game pieces.

Question 4.
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow.

What do you weigh, O ye vendors?
Saffron and lentil and rice.
What do you grind, O ye maidens?
Sandalwood, henna and spice.
What do you call, O ye pedlars?
Chessmen and ivory dice.

Name and explain the figure of speech in the second line of the given extract.

Answer:
The figure of speech in the second line ‘saffron and lentil and rice’ is climax as the things ‘saffron, lentil and rice’ have been mentioned in the increasing order of usage.

Passage 3

Question 1.
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow.

What do you make, O ye goldsmiths?
Wristlet and anklet and ring,
Bells for the feet of blue pigeons,
Frail as a dragon-fly’s wing,
Girdles of gold for the dancers,
Scabbards of gold for the king.

What do the goldsmiths make?

Answer:
The goldsmiths are people who make expensive and intricately designed ornaments. They have on sale wristlets, anklets and rings that will adore delicate hands and feet. They have girdles and scabbards for the dancers and kings. In addition, the goldsmiths have also designed delicate bells for the feet of blue pigeons.

Question 2.
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow.

What do you make, O ye goldsmiths?
Wristlet and anklet and ring,
Bells for the feet of blue pigeons,
Frail as a dragon-fly’s wing,
Girdles of gold for the dancers,
Scabbards of gold for the king.

What do scabbards and girdles of gold refer to?

Answer:
The dancers can buy straps of gold to tie around their waist for their various performances. These straps are nothing but girdles that are being sold in the bazaars of Hyderabad. In addition, the goldsmiths have gold scabbards to cover the swords of the kings. The mention of the two together reflects the wide range of articles which the goldsmiths have made thus highlighting their skillfulness.

Question 3.
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow.

What do you make, O ye goldsmiths?
Wristlet and anklet and ring,
Bells for the feet of blue pigeons,
Frail as a dragon-fly’s wing,
Girdles of gold for the dancers,
Scabbards of gold for the king.

What is special about the pigeon bells?

Answer:
The pigeon bells that are made by the goldsmiths are as delicate as a dragon fly’s wings. The skilful hands of the goldsmiths have made the bells so light that the feet of the pigeon wearing them will not be discomforted.

Question 4.
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow.

What do you make, O ye goldsmiths?
Wristlet and anklet and ring,
Bells for the feet of blue pigeons,
Frail as a dragon-fly’s wing,
Girdles of gold for the dancers,
Scabbards of gold for the king.

Name and explain the figure of speech in the given extract.

Answer:
The extract uses simile in the line ‘Frail as a dragon-fly’s wing’ to compare the bells to the delicate wings of a dragon fly. A simile is a figure of speech in which a direct comparison is made between two different objects using ‘like’ or ‘as’. This figure of speech is use to share the qualities of one object with the other.

Passage 4

Question 1.
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow.

What do you cry, O ye fruitmen?
Citron, pomegranate and plum.
What do you play, O musicians?
Cithar, sarangi and drum.
What do you chant, O magicians?
Spells for the aeons to come.

What does the word ‘cry’ mean in the given extract?

Answer:
The word ‘cry’ refers to the sharp calls given out by sellers to attract buyers.

Question 2.
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow.

What do you cry, O ye fruitmen?
Citron, pomegranate and plum.
What do you play, O musicians?
Cithar, sarangi and drum.
What do you chant, O magicians?
Spells for the aeons to come.

Name and explain the figure of speech in the second line of the extract.

Answer:
The figure of speech in the line ‘Citron, pomegranate and plum’ is alliteration as the sound of ‘p’ has been repeated in the words ‘pomegranate’ and ‘plum’.

Question 3.
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow.

What do you cry, O ye fruitmen?
Citron, pomegranate and plum.
What do you play, O musicians?
Cithar, sarangi and drum.
What do you chant, O magicians?
Spells for the aeons to come.

What are the magicians doing? What does the word ‘aeon’ mean?

Answer:
The magicians in the bazaars are attracting the attention of the crowd by chanting spells so that people are easily drawn to the bazaar. The word ‘aeon’ in the context above means a very long period of time, the end of which is not known.

Question 4.
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow.

What do you cry, O ye fruitmen?
Citron, pomegranate and plum.
What do you play, O musicians?
Cithar, sarangi and drum.
What do you chant, O magicians?
Spells for the aeons to come.

What is on display for the buyers in the given stanza?

Answer:
In this stanza, the poet writes about fruits like citrons, pomegranates and plums that are being sold by the fruit sellers. Further, she also mentions the musicians who have their cithar, sarangi and drum on display.

Passage 5

Question 1.
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow.

What do you weave, O ye flower-girls?
With tassels of azure and red?
Crowns for the brow of a bridegroom,
Chaplets to garland his bed,
Sheets of white blossoms new-gathered
To perfume the sleep of the dead.

What are the flower-girls doing in the bazaar?

Answer:
The flower-girls have come to the bazaar to sell flowers. They are making different decorative ornaments out of flowers for different occasions and inviting people to buy them.

Question 2.
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow.

What do you weave, O ye flower-girls?
With tassels of azure and red?
Crowns for the brow of a bridegroom,
Chaplets to garland his bed,
Sheets of white blossoms new-gathered
To perfume the sleep of the dead.

How has the poet used flowers to describe various occasions in this stanza?

Answer:
This is the last stanza of the poem. In this stanza, the poet describes how flowers are used to make tassels, crowns and chaplets for the bridegroom and the bride to wish them a happy married life. In addition, she also describes how fresh white flowers are collected for people who wish to pay their last tribute to their loved ones who are no more.

Question 3.
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow.

What do you weave, O ye flower-girls?
With tassels of azure and red?
Crowns for the brow of a bridegroom,
Chaplets to garland his bed,
Sheets of white blossoms new-gathered
To perfume the sleep of the dead.

Identify and explain the figure of speech used in the last line of the poem.

Answer:
The poet uses euphemism in the last line of the poem. The phrase ‘the sleep of dead’ indirectly refers to a sleep from which one would never awake; that is, it refers to the condition of being dead.

Question 4.
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow.

What do you weave, O ye flower-girls?
With tassels of azure and red?
Crowns for the brow of a bridegroom,
Chaplets to garland his bed,
Sheets of white blossoms new-gathered
To perfume the sleep of the dead.

Find a word from the stanza that means ‘garlands’.

Answer:
Garland: chaplet

ICSE Class 10 Hindi Solutions साहित्य सागर – गिरिधर की कुंडलियाँ [कविता]

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

प्रश्न क-i:
निम्नलिखित पद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
लाठी में हैं गुण बहुत, सदा रखिये संग।
गहरि नदी, नाली जहाँ, तहाँ बचावै अंग।।
तहाँ बचावै अंग, झपटि कुत्ता कहँ मारे।
दुश्मन दावागीर होय, तिनहूँ को झारै।।
कह गिरिधर कविराय, सुनो हे दूर के बाठी।
सब हथियार छाँडि, हाथ महँ लीजै लाठी।।
कमरी थोरे दाम की, बहुतै आवै काम।
खासा मलमल वाफ्ता, उनकर राखै मान॥
उनकर राखै मान, बँद जहँ आड़े आवै।
बकुचा बाँधे मोट, राति को झारि बिछावै॥
कह ‘गिरिधर कविराय’, मिलत है थोरे दमरी।
सब दिन राखै साथ, बड़ी मर्यादा कमरी॥
लाठी से क्या-क्या लाभ होते हैं?

उत्तर:
लाठी संकट के समय हमारी सहायता करती है। गहरी नदी और नाले को पार करते समय मददगार साबित होती है। यदि कोई कुत्ता हमारे ऊपर झपटे तो लाठी से हम अपना बचाव कर सकते हैं। अगर हमें दुश्मन धमकाने की कोशिश करे तो लाठी के द्‌वारा हम अपना बचाव कर सकते हैं। लाठी गहराई मापने के काम आती है।

प्रश्न क-ii:
निम्नलिखित पद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
लाठी में हैं गुण बहुत, सदा रखिये संग।
गहरि नदी, नाली जहाँ, तहाँ बचावै अंग।।
तहाँ बचावै अंग, झपटि कुत्ता कहँ मारे।
दुश्मन दावागीर होय, तिनहूँ को झारै।।
कह गिरिधर कविराय, सुनो हे दूर के बाठी।
सब हथियार छाँडि, हाथ महँ लीजै लाठी।।
कमरी थोरे दाम की, बहुतै आवै काम।
खासा मलमल वाफ्ता, उनकर राखै मान॥
उनकर राखै मान, बँद जहँ आड़े आवै।
बकुचा बाँधे मोट, राति को झारि बिछावै॥
कह ‘गिरिधर कविराय’, मिलत है थोरे दमरी।
सब दिन राखै साथ, बड़ी मर्यादा कमरी॥
‘बकुचा बाँधे मोट, राति को झारि बिछावै’ – पंक्ति का भावार्थ स्पष्ट कीजिए।

उत्तर :
इस पंक्ति का भाव यह है कि कंबल को बाँधकर उसकी छोटी-सी गठरी बनाकर अपने पास रख सकते हैं और ज़रूरत पड़ने पर रात में उसे बिछाकर सो सकते हैं।

प्रश्न क-iii:
निम्नलिखित पद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
लाठी में हैं गुण बहुत, सदा रखिये संग।
गहरि नदी, नाली जहाँ, तहाँ बचावै अंग।।
तहाँ बचावै अंग, झपटि कुत्ता कहँ मारे।
दुश्मन दावागीर होय, तिनहूँ को झारै।।
कह गिरिधर कविराय, सुनो हे दूर के बाठी।
सब हथियार छाँडि, हाथ महँ लीजै लाठी।।
कमरी थोरे दाम की, बहुतै आवै काम।
खासा मलमल वाफ्ता, उनकर राखै मान॥
उनकर राखै मान, बँद जहँ आड़े आवै।
बकुचा बाँधे मोट, राति को झारि बिछावै॥
कह ‘गिरिधर कविराय’, मिलत है थोरे दमरी।
सब दिन राखै साथ, बड़ी मर्यादा कमरी॥
कमरी की किन-किन विशेषताओं का उल्लेख किया गया है?

उत्तर:
कंबल (कमरी) बहुत ही सस्ते दामों में मिलता है। यह हमारे ओढ़ने तथा बिछाने के काम आता है। कंबल को बाँधकर उसकी छोटी-सी गठरी बनाकर अपने पास रख सकते हैं और ज़रूरत पड़ने पर रात में उसे बिछाकर सो सकते हैं।

प्रश्न क-iv:
निम्नलिखित पद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
लाठी में हैं गुण बहुत, सदा रखिये संग।
गहरि नदी, नाली जहाँ, तहाँ बचावै अंग।।
तहाँ बचावै अंग, झपटि कुत्ता कहँ मारे।
दुश्मन दावागीर होय, तिनहूँ को झारै।।
कह गिरिधर कविराय, सुनो हे दूर के बाठी।
सब हथियार छाँडि, हाथ महँ लीजै लाठी।।
कमरी थोरे दाम की, बहुतै आवै काम।
खासा मलमल वाफ्ता, उनकर राखै मान॥
उनकर राखै मान, बँद जहँ आड़े आवै।
बकुचा बाँधे मोट, राति को झारि बिछावै॥
कह ‘गिरिधर कविराय’, मिलत है थोरे दमरी।
सब दिन राखै साथ, बड़ी मर्यादा कमरी॥
शब्दार्थ लिखिए – कमरी, बकुचा, मोट, दमरी

उत्तर:

शब्द	अर्थ
कमरी	काला कंबल
बकुचा	छोटी गठरी
मोट	गठरी
दमरी	दाम, मूल्य

प्रश्न ख-i:
निम्नलिखित पद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
गुन के गाहक सहस, नर बिन गुन लहै न कोय।
जैसे कागा कोकिला, शब्द सुनै सब कोय॥
शब्द सुनै सब कोय, कोकिला सबै सुहावन।
दोऊ के एक रंग, काग सब भये अपावन॥
कह गिरिधर कविराय, सुनो हो ठाकुर मन के।
बिनु गुन लहै न कोय, सहस नर गाहक गुन के॥
साँई सब संसार में, मतलब का व्यवहार।
जब लग पैसा गाँठ में, तब लग ताको यार॥
तब लग ताको यार, यार संग ही संग डोले।
पैसा रहे न पास, यार मुख से नहिं बोले॥
कह गिरिधर कविराय जगत यहि लेखा भाई।
करत बेगरजी प्रीति, यार बिरला कोई साँई॥
‘गुन के गाहक सहस, नर बिन गुन लहै न कोय’ – पंक्ति का भावार्थ लिखिए।

उत्तर:
प्रस्तुत पंक्ति में गिरिधर कविराय ने मनुष्य के आंतरिक गुणों की चर्चा की है। गुणी व्यक्ति को हजारों लोग स्वीकार करने को तैयार रहते हैं लेकिन बिना गुणों के समाज में उसकी कोई मह्त्ता नहीं। इसलिए व्यक्ति को अच्छे गुणों को अपनाना चाहिए।

प्रश्न ख-ii:
निम्नलिखित पद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
गुन के गाहक सहस, नर बिन गुन लहै न कोय।
जैसे कागा कोकिला, शब्द सुनै सब कोय॥
शब्द सुनै सब कोय, कोकिला सबै सुहावन।
दोऊ के एक रंग, काग सब भये अपावन॥
कह गिरिधर कविराय, सुनो हो ठाकुर मन के।
बिनु गुन लहै न कोय, सहस नर गाहक गुन के॥
साँई सब संसार में, मतलब का व्यवहार।
जब लग पैसा गाँठ में, तब लग ताको यार॥
तब लग ताको यार, यार संग ही संग डोले।
पैसा रहे न पास, यार मुख से नहिं बोले॥
कह गिरिधर कविराय जगत यहि लेखा भाई।
करत बेगरजी प्रीति, यार बिरला कोई साँई॥
कौए और कोयल के उदाहरण द्वारा कवि क्या स्पष्ट करते हैं?

उत्तर:
कौए और कोयल के उदाहरण द्वारा कवि कहते है कि जिस प्रकार कौवा और कोयल रूप-रंग में समान होते हैं किन्तु दोनों की वाणी में ज़मीन-आसमान का फ़र्क है। कोयल की वाणी मधुर होने के कारण वह सबको प्रिय है। वहीं दूसरी ओर कौवा अपनी कर्कश वाणी के कारण सभी को अप्रिय है। अत: कवि कहते हैं कि बिना गुणों के समाज में व्यक्ति का कोई नहीं। इसलिए हमें अच्छे गुणों को अपनाना चाहिए।

प्रश्न ख-iii:
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
निम्नलिखित पद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
गुन के गाहक सहस, नर बिन गुन लहै न कोय।
जैसे कागा कोकिला, शब्द सुनै सब कोय॥
शब्द सुनै सब कोय, कोकिला सबै सुहावन।
दोऊ के एक रंग, काग सब भये अपावन॥
कह गिरिधर कविराय, सुनो हो ठाकुर मन के।
बिनु गुन लहै न कोय, सहस नर गाहक गुन के॥
साँई सब संसार में, मतलब का व्यवहार।
जब लग पैसा गाँठ में, तब लग ताको यार॥
तब लग ताको यार, यार संग ही संग डोले।
पैसा रहे न पास, यार मुख से नहिं बोले॥
कह गिरिधर कविराय जगत यहि लेखा भाई।
करत बेगरजी प्रीति, यार बिरला कोई साँई॥
संसार में किस प्रकार का व्यवहार प्रचलित है?

उत्तर:
कवि कहते हैं कि संसार में बिना स्वार्थ के कोई किसी का सगा-संबंधी नहीं होता। सब अपने मतलब के लिए ही व्यवहार रखते हैं। अत:इस संसार में मतलब का व्यवहार प्रचलित है।

प्रश्न ख-iv:
निम्नलिखित पद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
गुन के गाहक सहस, नर बिन गुन लहै न कोय।
जैसे कागा कोकिला, शब्द सुनै सब कोय॥
शब्द सुनै सब कोय, कोकिला सबै सुहावन।
दोऊ के एक रंग, काग सब भये अपावन॥
कह गिरिधर कविराय, सुनो हो ठाकुर मन के।
बिनु गुन लहै न कोय, सहस नर गाहक गुन के॥
साँई सब संसार में, मतलब का व्यवहार।
जब लग पैसा गाँठ में, तब लग ताको यार॥
तब लग ताको यार, यार संग ही संग डोले।
पैसा रहे न पास, यार मुख से नहिं बोले॥
कह गिरिधर कविराय जगत यहि लेखा भाई।
करत बेगरजी प्रीति, यार बिरला कोई साँई॥
शब्दार्थ लिखिए –
काग, बेगरजी, विरला, सहस

उत्तर:

शब्द	अर्थ
काग	कौवा
बेगरजी	नि:स्वार्थ
विरला	बहुत कम मिलनेवाला
सहस	हजार

प्रश्न ग-i:
निम्नलिखित पद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
रहिए लटपट काटि दिन, बरु घामे माँ सोय।
छाँह न बाकी बैठिये, जो तरु पतरो होय॥
जो तरु पतरो होय, एक दिन धोखा देहैं।
जा दिन बहै बयारि, टूटि तब जर से जैहैं॥
कह गिरिधर कविराय छाँह मोटे की गहिए।
पाती सब झरि जायँ, तऊ छाया में रहिए॥
पानी बाढ़ै नाव में, घर में बाढ़े दाम।
दोऊ हाथ उलीचिए, यही सयानो काम॥
यही सयानो काम, राम को सुमिरन कीजै।
पर-स्वारथ के काज, शीश आगे धर दीजै॥
कह गिरिधर कविराय, बड़ेन की याही बानी।
चलिए चाल सुचाल, राखिए अपना पानी॥
राजा के दरबार में, जैये समया पाय।
साँई तहाँ न बैठिये, जहँ कोउ देय उठाय॥
जहँ कोउ देय उठाय, बोल अनबोले रहिए।
हँसिये नहीं हहाय, बात पूछे ते कहिए॥
कह गिरिधर कविराय समय सों कीजै काजा।
अति आतुर नहिं होय, बहुरि अनखैहैं राजा॥
कैसे पेड़ की छाया में रहना चाहिए और कैसे पेड़ की छाया में नहीं?

उत्तर:
कवि के अनुसार हमें हमें सदैव मोटे और पुराने पेड़ों की छाया में आराम करना चाहिए क्योंकि उसके पत्ते झड़ जाने के बावज़ूद भी वह हमें शीतल छाया प्रदान करते हैं। हमें पतले पेड़ की छाया में कभी नहीं बैठना चाहिए क्योंकि वह आँधी-तूफ़ान के आने पर टूट कर हमें नुकसान पहुँचा सकते हैं।

प्रश्न ग-ii:
निम्नलिखित पद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
रहिए लटपट काटि दिन, बरु घामे माँ सोय।
छाँह न बाकी बैठिये, जो तरु पतरो होय॥
जो तरु पतरो होय, एक दिन धोखा देहैं।
जा दिन बहै बयारि, टूटि तब जर से जैहैं॥
कह गिरिधर कविराय छाँह मोटे की गहिए।
पाती सब झरि जायँ, तऊ छाया में रहिए॥
पानी बाढ़ै नाव में, घर में बाढ़े दाम।
दोऊ हाथ उलीचिए, यही सयानो काम॥
यही सयानो काम, राम को सुमिरन कीजै।
पर-स्वारथ के काज, शीश आगे धर दीजै॥
कह गिरिधर कविराय, बड़ेन की याही बानी।
चलिए चाल सुचाल, राखिए अपना पानी॥
राजा के दरबार में, जैये समया पाय।
साँई तहाँ न बैठिये, जहँ कोउ देय उठाय॥
जहँ कोउ देय उठाय, बोल अनबोले रहिए।
हँसिये नहीं हहाय, बात पूछे ते कहिए॥
कह गिरिधर कविराय समय सों कीजै काजा।
अति आतुर नहिं होय, बहुरि अनखैहैं राजा॥
‘पानी बाढ़ै नाव में, घर में बाढ़े दाम। दोऊ हाथ उलीचिए, यही सयानो काम॥’- पंक्ति का आशय स्पष्ट कीजिए।

उत्तर:
उपर्युक्त पंक्ति का आशय यह है कि जिस प्रकार नाव में पानी भरने से नाव डूबने का खतरा बढ़ जाता है। ऐसी स्थिति में हम दोनों हाथ से नाव का पानी बाहर फेंकने लगते है। ठीक वैसे ही घर में धन बढ़ जाने पर हमें दोनों हाथों से दान करना चाहिए।

प्रश्न ग-iii:
निम्नलिखित पद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
रहिए लटपट काटि दिन, बरु घामे माँ सोय।
छाँह न बाकी बैठिये, जो तरु पतरो होय॥
जो तरु पतरो होय, एक दिन धोखा देहैं।
जा दिन बहै बयारि, टूटि तब जर से जैहैं॥
कह गिरिधर कविराय छाँह मोटे की गहिए।
पाती सब झरि जायँ, तऊ छाया में रहिए॥
पानी बाढ़ै नाव में, घर में बाढ़े दाम।
दोऊ हाथ उलीचिए, यही सयानो काम॥
यही सयानो काम, राम को सुमिरन कीजै।
पर-स्वारथ के काज, शीश आगे धर दीजै॥
कह गिरिधर कविराय, बड़ेन की याही बानी।
चलिए चाल सुचाल, राखिए अपना पानी॥
राजा के दरबार में, जैये समया पाय।
साँई तहाँ न बैठिये, जहँ कोउ देय उठाय॥
जहँ कोउ देय उठाय, बोल अनबोले रहिए।
हँसिये नहीं हहाय, बात पूछे ते कहिए॥
कह गिरिधर कविराय समय सों कीजै काजा।
अति आतुर नहिं होय, बहुरि अनखैहैं राजा॥
कवि कैसे स्थान पर न बैठने की सलाह देते हैं?

उत्तर:
कवि हमें किसी स्थान पर सोच समझकर बैठने की सलाह देते है वे कहते है कि हमें ऐसे स्थान पर नहीं बैठना चाहिए जहाँ से किसी के द्वारा उठाए जाने का अंदेशा हो।

प्रश्न ग-iv:
निम्नलिखित पद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
रहिए लटपट काटि दिन, बरु घामे माँ सोय।
छाँह न बाकी बैठिये, जो तरु पतरो होय॥
जो तरु पतरो होय, एक दिन धोखा देहैं।
जा दिन बहै बयारि, टूटि तब जर से जैहैं॥
कह गिरिधर कविराय छाँह मोटे की गहिए।
पाती सब झरि जायँ, तऊ छाया में रहिए॥
पानी बाढ़ै नाव में, घर में बाढ़े दाम।
दोऊ हाथ उलीचिए, यही सयानो काम॥
यही सयानो काम, राम को सुमिरन कीजै।
पर-स्वारथ के काज, शीश आगे धर दीजै॥
कह गिरिधर कविराय, बड़ेन की याही बानी।
चलिए चाल सुचाल, राखिए अपना पानी॥
राजा के दरबार में, जैये समया पाय।
साँई तहाँ न बैठिये, जहँ कोउ देय उठाय॥
जहँ कोउ देय उठाय, बोल अनबोले रहिए।
हँसिये नहीं हहाय, बात पूछे ते कहिए॥
कह गिरिधर कविराय समय सों कीजै काजा।
अति आतुर नहिं होय, बहुरि अनखैहैं राजा॥
शब्दार्थ लिखिए – बयारि, घाम, जर, दाय

उत्तर:

शब्द	अर्थ
बयारि	हवा
घाम	धूप
जर	जड़
दाय	रुपया-पैसा

ICSE Class 10 English Solutions I Believe [Poem]

Passage 1

Question 1.
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

I believe if a pebble is thrown upwards
I can pierce the heavens
And see the angels at play.

I believe I can soar to the heights
Touch the silky clouds
And feel the stars.

Who is the ‘I’ mentioned in the poem? What is his/her belief?

Answer:
The ‘I’ mentioned in the poem is the poet Brucellish K. Sangma. She believes that if a pebble is thrown upwards, it has the ability to cut through the heaven. She also believes that she has the ability to fly to the sky above and touch the clouds and the stars in it.

Question 2.
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

I believe if a pebble is thrown upwards
I can pierce the heavens
And see the angels at play.

I believe I can soar to the heights
Touch the silky clouds
And feel the stars.

How many things does the speaker believe she can achieve in this extract?

Answer:
In this extract, the speaker mentions believing five things in all. Being able to piercing the heavens with a single pebble thrown up, seeing the angles at play, soaring to the heights, touching the clouds and feeling the stars.

Question 3.
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

I believe if a pebble is thrown upwards
I can pierce the heavens
And see the angels at play.

I believe I can soar to the heights
Touch the silky clouds
And feel the stars.

What is the symbolic meaning of the ‘heavens’ and the ‘clouds’ mentioned in the extract?

Answer:
The words ‘heavens’ and ‘clouds’ represent the highest points that one could reach. The word ‘clouds’ stands for physical heights while the word ‘heavens’ stands for spiritual heights. By mentioning them the poet expresses her belief that she has the ability to excel in all spheres.

Question 4.
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

I believe if a pebble is thrown upwards
I can pierce the heavens
And see the angels at play.

I believe I can soar to the heights
Touch the silky clouds
And feel the stars.

Draw parallels between the speaker’s past life and the beliefs talked about in the extract.

Answer:
The speaker Brucellish K. Sangma hailed from a small community in Meghalaya. In the village where she was brought up she grew up with limited resources. Despite all odds she managed to acquire good education and become a poet. The beliefs talked about in the extract imply that nothing is impossible if a person set’s his or her heart and mind to achieving it.

Passage 2

Question 1.
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

I believe I can dive
Right into the depths
And swim with the sharks.

I believe I can claw into the earth’s belly
Pick up the priceless gems
And adorn myself with them.

Explain the first stanza of the extract.

Answer:
In the first stanza of the extract, the poet mentions diving to the bottom of the sea and swimming with the sharks; an act which is generally impossible. However, the poet says that she believes she can achieve this seemingly impossible task too. Through these words she stresses that nothing can stand as a limitation before a determined person.

Question 2.
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

I believe I can dive
Right into the depths
And swim with the sharks.

I believe I can claw into the earth’s belly
Pick up the priceless gems
And adorn myself with them.

What does ‘clawing into the earth’s belly’ mean? What does the poet want to achieve by doing this?

Answer:
The earth’s belly is the center of the earth. It is the core of the earth which is not only a seat for molten lava but also is a store house of precious resources like minerals, metals and gemstones. The poet believes that she can dig into the earth and reach this core and use the gems she finds there to adorn herself.

Question 3.
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

I believe I can dive
Right into the depths
And swim with the sharks.

I believe I can claw into the earth’s belly
Pick up the priceless gems
And adorn myself with them.

Does the poet come across as self-possessed in the second stanza of the extract? Justify.

Answer:
No. Though the poet’s wish to adorn herself with priceless gems may seem as a self possessed desire, it is important to note the phrase ‘claw into the earth’s belly’ preceding it. This phrase tells us that the poet is ready to strive towards achieving her reward which are the ‘priceless gems’.

Question 4.
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

I believe I can dive
Right into the depths
And swim with the sharks.

I believe I can claw into the earth’s belly
Pick up the priceless gems
And adorn myself with them.

What do the above lines symbolise?

Answer:
The given stanzas talk about braving deadly sharks and clawing into the earth’s belly. This is symbolic of the difficulties that a person has to undergo in his or her life. The poet believes that she has the courage to face all the hardships that come her way just like a professional swimmer who would not fear swimming in perilous waters. She also believes that through her perseverance and hard work, she will be able to achieve great things (likened to priceless gems) in life.

Passage 3

Question 1.
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

I believe I can do many things
Amidst the human angels
Surrounded by the world’s treasures.

But I firmly believe I’ve to complete
The role assigned to me here
Where I dream and breathe.

Whom does the speaker refer to as ‘human angels’?

Answer:
IIn the first stanza the poet talks about reaching the heavens and seeing the angels living there. In the stanzas that follow she praises the beauty on earth and talks about achieving great things here. Therefore, we can conclude that the ‘human angels’ mentioned here are the humans who live on this beautiful earth.

Question 2.
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

I believe I can do many things
Amidst the human angels
Surrounded by the world’s treasures.

But I firmly believe I’ve to complete
The role assigned to me here
Where I dream and breathe.

What is the final and the most important belief of the speaker?

Answer:
The final and the most important belief of the speaker is that she has a role assigned to her on this earth and that it is her duty to complete this role before dreaming about anything else.

Question 3.
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

I believe I can do many things
Amidst the human angels
Surrounded by the world’s treasures.

But I firmly believe I’ve to complete
The role assigned to me here
Where I dream and breathe.

What does the final stanza of the poem tell us about the speaker?

Answer:
The final stanza of the poem reflects that the poet has a well-grounded character. Though she dreams about reaching the heavens and the depths of the earth and the ocean, she also believes in having a healthy relationship with the people around her and sharing a happy life with them. She strongly believes that every person has a role to play in this life and it is their duty to be true to that role.