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ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Chapter 20 The United Nations (Origin and Purpose) Solutions

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Very Short Questions

Question 1: Name the first international organisation, which was set-up with an objective to put an end to wars. When was such an organisation established?
Answer: United Nations, 24th October 1945.

Question 2: Name the Nations, which approved a declaration known as ‘London Declaration’.
Answer: Britain, Canada, Australia, New Zealand, and South Africa.

Question 3: Who declared the “Atlantic Charter”?
Answer: British Prime Minister Winston Churchill and US President Theodore Roosevelt.

Question 4: When was the UN Charter signed? How many countries signed that ‘Charter’?
Answer: UN Charter was signed on 26 June 1945. 50 countries signed that charter

Question 5: Name the document that brought the United Nations into being.
Answer: United Nations Charter.

Question 6: When is the UN day Celebrated?
Answer: On 24th October.

Question 7: Where the headquarter of United Nations located?
Answer: New York City (USA).

Question 8: Name the official language of the United Nations.
Answer: English, French, Russian, Spanish, Arabic and Chinese.

Question 9: When was the term ‘United Nations’ used for the first time?
Answer: 1st January 1942.

Question 10: Who appoints the Secretary General of the United Nations?
Answer: The Secretary General of the United Nations is appointed by the General Assembly on. the recommendation of the Security Council.

Question 11: What do you understand by the abbreviation UNO? When was it formed and where?
Answer: UNO stands for United Nations Organisation. It was formed on 24th October 1945 at San Francisco.

Question 12: Which organisation was the predecessor of the UNO?
Answer: The League of Nations set-up in the year 1920 after the First World War was the predecessor of the UNO.

Question 13: Who are the five permanent members of the UNO?
Answer: UK, USA, USSR, China and France are the five permanent members of the UNO.

Question 14: What is meant by the term ‘Veto Power’ which is enjoyed by the Permanent Members of UN?
Answer: It is a negative vote created by a permanent member of the Security Council.

Question 15: Name the official languages of UNO.
Answer: The UN charter provides six official languages—English, French, Chinese, Russian, Spanish and Arabic.

Question 16: Where is the UN Charter preserved?
Answer: According to Article 3 of the Charter ‘The charter shall remain deposited in the United States National Achieves.’

Question 17: Does the Charter provide for withdrawal of membership from the UNO?
Answer: No, the UN charter is silent on that point.

Question 18: Which languages are permitted to be used as official languages of International Court of Justice?
Answer: The official languages of the International Court of Justice are English and French.

Question 19: Where is the International Court of Justice situated?
Answer: The International Court of Justice is at Hague in Netherlands (Holland).

Question 20: When was the United Nations Flag adopted? What is it like?
Answer: The UN Flag was adopted on 20th October 1947. It has the UN emblem in white in the center on a light blue background.

Question 21: When did the United Nations officially came into existence?
Answer: 24th October 1945.

Short Questions – I

Question 1: Briefly point out the purpose of setting up the United Nations Organisation.
Answer: United Nations Organisation was formed with its purpose to maintain peace and security, develop friendly relations and achieve international cooperation. It was to be center for harmonizing the actions of nations for achievement of common ends.

Question 2: What is the eligibility criterion for UN membership?
Answer: The membership of United Nations Organisation is open to all peace loving Nations who believe in the principles of UN and accept obligations of the UN charter, as stated in Article 4 of the UN Charter.

Question 3: How can a member be admitted in the UN?
Answer: The membership is open to all peace loving States. A new State is admitted by a decision of the General Assembly by two third of majority upon the recommendation of the Security Council.

Question 4: What do you understand by the term ‘Original Members’? Was India an original member?
Answer: According to Article 3 of the charter, original members of the UN were those States which signed the Washington declaration of 1st January, 1942 and those who participated in the San Francisco Conference of 1945. Thus, the 51 members who took part in the San Francisco Conference are its original members, India was one of them.

Question 5: How many representatives can a country send to the U.N.O. and how many votes do they enjoy?
Answer: A country can send a maximum of 5 representatives, but each country enjoys a single vote. The ‘Big five’ i.e., USA, UK, Russia, China and France have the power of veto also.

Question 6: Mention any two main aims of the United Nations.
Or
State the most important reason for the formation of U.N.O.
Answer: (i) To maintain International Peace and Security.
(ii) To develop friendly relations among nations.

Question 7: Name the five major countries who signed the UN Charter.
Answer: The five major countries who ratified the UN Charter were China, France, USSR, Britain and the USA among a total of fifty nations.

Question 8: What factors led to the formation of the United Nations Organisation?
Answer: Devastation caused by the first and the second world war made it imperative to seek lasting peace. An international organisation to deal with world wide economic depression and imbalance, mutual distrust and arms race among nations, reconstruction after the war was the need of the hour. Thus the United Nations Organisation was formed in 1945.

Question 9: Who exercises the power of veto?
Answer: The ‘Big five’ i.e., the permanent members UK, USA, Russia, China and France have the right to exercise their power of ‘veto’ for any motion in the General Assembly.

Question 10: Name the leaders who brought about the Atlantic Charter. Where were the talks held?
Answer: The Atlantic Charter was brought about by the British Prime Minister Winston Churchill and U.S. President Roosevelt. The talks regarding the Charter were held on a battleship in North Atlantic and the Charter was signed on 14th August, 1941.

Question 11: What was the Washington Declaration? How many Nations signed it?
Answer: The representatives of 26 nations termed as ‘United Nations’ by US President Roosevelt, promulgated the Washington Declaration at few weeks after the Japanese attack on Pearl Harbour on 1st January, 1942. This was a pledge of the Allied Power to defeat the ‘Axis Powers’ i.e., Germany and’its allies. They agreed to co-operate in war and peace and also agreed, not to hold separate talks with enemy countries or conclude peace treaties with them.

Question 12: Which conference saw Churchill, Roosevelt and Stalin actually meeting and for what purpose?
Answer: In a summit conference held between 28th November, 1943 to 2nd December 1943 at Tehran. Churchill, Roosevelt and Stalin met for the first time to confirm that large and small nations would be invited to join the world organisation.

Question 13: Where and when the first draft of United Nations Charter was drawn by whom?
Answer: In the Dumbarton Oaks Conference held during September-October, 1944 representatives of China, Great Britain, USSR and USA met to draw the first draft of United Nations Charter at Washington. Thus a blue print for the future world organisation was prepared, a major step towards the formation of U.N.O. was taken in this conference.

Question 14: When and with what purpose was the Yalta Conference held?
Answer: The Yalta Conference in the former Soviet Union was held between 4th February to 11th February, 1945 for the nature and structure of UNO by Churchill, Stalin arid Roosevelt. Decisions regarding veto power of the ‘Big Five’ in the UN Security Council were taken now. It also decided to convene a full scale United Nations Conference in San Francisco on 25th April, 1945 for the formulation of the Charter of the new organisation.

Question 15: What does the UN Charter consist of?
Answer: The UN Charter consists 19 Chapters and 111 Articles narrating the aims, proposals and principles of the United Nations and also the rules and regulations for achieving these aims.

Short Questions – II

Question 1: When and where was the London Declaration held? Which Nations participated in bringing it about and with what objective?
Answer: In June, 1941 while the Second World War was being fought in full swing the representatives of Britain, Canada, Australia, New Zealand and South America met in London at St. James’s Palace on 12th June, 1941. They approved for a declaration which resolved to create a world free from war and aggression, and for the purpose proposed for the first time formation of a world organisation more effective than the League of Nations. The Declaration came to be known as London Peclaration.

Question 2: What do you understand by Moscow Declaration? Name the countries who signed it.
Answer: UK, USA, Soviet Union and China signed the Moscow declaration. After a meeting held- at Moscow from 19th to 30th October, 1943. The Moscow Declaration was released on 1st November, 1943 stating ‘We recognise the necessity of establishing at the earliest practicable date. A central international organisation based on the principle of sovereign equality of all peace nature states, large and small. This was certainly a move to bring about maintenance of peace and security and laid down the foundation stone of the United Nations.

Question 3: What is the importance of the San Francisco Conference? When was it held?
Answer: The San Francisco conference was held during April-June 1945. It is important, as it was the first UN Conference opened on 20th April at San Francisco, attended by 50 nations, it drew the final draft of the UN Charter which was unanimously adopted and signed on 26th June, 1945. The Charter was finally ratified by the Parliaments of China, France, USSR, Britain, USA and majority of the 51 original members on 24th October, 1945 marking the foundation of United Nations Organisation.

Question 4: Write short notes on:
(i) The Washington Declaration
(ii) Dumbarton Oaks Conference (iii) Yalta Conference
Answer: (i) On January 1,1942 the representatives of 26 states met at Washington. The signatories to this Declaration promised to continue war against the enemy collectively and not to make separately any settlement with the enemy.
(ii) It was the Conference where the blueprinter for U.N.O. was formulated. The blueprint contained draft of the U.N.O. Charter and the proposals as to how the United Nations were expected to work.
(iii) The conference held at Yalta in the former Soviet Union between 4th-llth February, 1945.
Main aims:
(1) The Yalta conference took the decision to set up a new organisation to replace the League of Nations.
(2) Yalta conference also took the decision how to deal with Germany and non-German territories which had been liberated from Germany

Question 5: Mention any three principles of UNO.
Answer: The organization associated with the emblem is the United Nations Organization. Its three principles are:
(i) It is based on the sovereign equality of all its Members.
(ii) The U.N.O will not intervene in the internal affairs of a country.
(iii) Member nations will not use the treat of violence in their international relations.

Question 6: How U.N.O. develop friend relations among nations.
Answer: The second function of the U.N.O. is ’to develop friendly relations among nations based on respect for the principle of equal rights for all people and to take appropriate steps to strengthen universal peace. All are to be treated as equal and a spirit of brotherhood and oneness is to be invoked.

Question 7: Name the principal judicial organ of U. N. O. and explain its composition.
Answer: The principal judicial organ of the U.N.O. is the International court of justice. It consists of 15 judges elected by the General Assembly and the security council voting separately. The judges work for a term of 9 years and may be re-elected. Its quorum is fixed at 9 and all decisions are taken by the majority vote of present judges. The chief justice is elected for 3 years and has got a casting vote. Only one judge is elected from a country. The headquarters of the ILO is The Hague.

Question 8: Discuss the role of U.N.O. in solving international problems.
Answer: The third function is to achieve international co-operation in solving international problems of social, economical, cultural and humanitarian nature. This is an important function as it deals with the peace building aspect of U.N.O. The Social Economic Council of UNO works for attainment of international socio-economic co-operation, cultural interaction promoting respect for human rights and fundamental freedom for all to make the world a better and just place to live.
The United Nations Organisation is to be a centre for harmonizing actions of nations and in attainment of these common needs. It is the focal point from where all activities aimed at maintaining and preserving peace are conducted.

Question 9: Who can become the member of U. N. O.?
Answer: The head quarters of this organization are located in New York City. Its European office is in Geneva.
It membership is open to all peace loving nations which agree with the objectives of the U.N. and are ready to abide by its principles. The admission, suspension and expulsion of members is decided by the General Assembly on the recommendation of the security council by a 2/3rd Majority of Votes. Almost all countries of the world are its Members now.

Question 10: On what grounds, can a member be suspended or expelled from the UNO?
Answer: A member of the United Nations, against whom enforcement action has been taken by the Security Council, can be suspended from exercising the rights and privileges of the United Nations by General Assembly on recommendation of the Security Council. This is provided in the Article 5 of the Charter.
According to Article 6 of the Charter a member persistently violating the principles of the Charter can be expelled from the United Nations by the General Assembly on recommendation of the Security Council.

Long Questions

Question 1: Name the important declarations and conferences which took place before the formation of the Untied Nations Organisation.
Answer: The following were the important declarations and conferences which brought about the formation of the United Nations Organisation finally:
(i) The London Declaration, 1941
(ii) The Atlantic Charter, 1941
(iii) The Declaration of the United Nations, 1942
(iv) The Moscow Conference, 1943
(v) The Tehran Conference November, 1943
(vi) The Dumbarton Oak Conference October, 1944
(vii) The Yalta Conference February, 1945 (viii) Committee of Jurists meeting April, 1945 (ix) The San Francisco Conference, 1945

Question 2: What did the Atlantic Charter (14-8-41) aim at?
Answer: The Atlantic Charter aimed at:
(i) Maintaining international peace and security.
(ii) Encouraging international co-operation and friendly relations in social, economic and cultural spheres.
(iii) Recognising the fundamental rights and equal status of all nations.
(iv) Upholding the Right to Equality, self determination and Right to make their own Constitution and Government.

Question 3: State briefly the terms of Atlantic Charter of dated 14-8-41.
Answer: The terms agreed upon by President Roosevelt and Prime Minister Churchill were:
(i) No territorial expansion and territorial changes against the wishes of the people.
(ii) Recognition of the right of each State to draft its Constitution and form Government.
(iii) Recognition of sovereignty and equality of all States big and small. They will have equal access to the trade and raw materials of the world.
(iv) Full economic co-operation.
(v) Restoration of peace, giving up of use of force, peaceful settlement of disputes, without resorting to war.

Question 4: What factors made it imperative to form a worldwide organisation the United Nations Organisation in 1945?
Answer: (i) International peace: This is one of the most important purpose of establishing UNO. It should take effective measures for the removal of threats of the peace.
(ii) Friendly relations: Its second most important purpose is to develop friendly relations among nations, based on respect for the principle of equal rights and self determination of people.
(iii) International cooperation: Its third most important purpose is to promote international cooperation in solving international problems on economic, social, cultural or humanitarian charter.
(iv) Social Equality: To promote international cooperation, respect for human rights and fundamental freedom for all without distinction as to race, sex, language or religion.

Question 5: Regarding the origin of the United Nation make a brief description of the following Declarations:
(i) The London Declaration (ii) The Atlantic Charter
Answer: (i) In 1941 the representatives of Canada, Britain, New Zealand, Australia and South Africa met in London to establish an organisation to maintain international peace and security.
(ii) In 1941, the U.S. President D. Roosevelt and the British Prime Minister Winston Churchill issued a declaration known as the Atlantic Charter.
The main objectives of the Charter were:
(i) to respect each others sovereignty and territorial integrity.
(ii) to maintain international peace and security.
(iii) to encourage disarmament.
(iv) to promote economic, cultural and social cooperation.
(v) to recognise the fundamental rights and status of all people.

Question 6: Mention the Guiding principles of UNO.
Answer: (i) The UNO is based on the sovereign equality of all its members.
(ii) All members should settle their international disputes by peaceful means without putting in danger international peace and security.
(iii) All members should provide full cooperation to UNO in its working.
(iv) No country should assist states against which UNO is taking some action.
(v) The Organisation should ensure that the states which are not members of UNO should also act in accordance with these principles.
(vi) It should not intervene in the domestic affairs of any country.
(vii) All member are to fulfill in good faith the obligations as laid down in the Charter.

Question 7: Briefly state the aims and objectives of the United Nations Organisation.
Answer: The United Nations Organisation aimed at:
(i) Saving the succeeding generations from the scourge of war.
(ii) To re-affirm faith in Fundamental Human Rights, in the dignity and worth of human person, in the equal rights of men and women and nations large and small.
(iii) To establish conditions under which justice and respect for the obligations arising from treaties and other sources of internationals law can be maintained.
(iv) To promote social progress and better standard of life in larger freedom.

Question 8: Name the main obligations laid down in the UN Charter for its members to observe?
Answer: The United Nations members are to follow certain principles, they are as under:
(i) Sovereign equality of all members.
(ii) All members have to fulfill their agreement as set forth by the Charter
(iii) Settlement of international disputes arising among the members to-be settled by peaceful means without resorting to war or aggression.
(iv) Abstaining from the threat or use of force against any State.
(v) Providing assistance to UN and to act in accordance with the principles of UN and UN decisions must be accepted in all respects.
(vi) Non interference by the UN in the internal affairs of any country.

Question 9: What do you know about the membership in the UNO and their obligations?
Answer: The membership of UNO is open to all peace loving Nations big or small. According to the Article 3 of UN Charter original members are those who signed the Washington Declaration of January 1942 or those who took part in the San Francisco Conference in 1945. Those members who joined the UNO later are known as new members. According to Article 4 of the UN Charter membership of United Nations is open to all peace loving nations which are able and willing to carry out obligations contained in UN Charter. These are:
(i) Sovereign equality of all member nations.
(ii) Fulfilment of all Charter obligations.
(iii) Settlement of international disputes by peaceful means.
(iv) Abstaining from the threat or use of force against any State.
(v) Providing assistance to UN.
(vi) Non-member also act in accordance with the principles of UN.
(vii) Non-intervention by the UN in the domestic jurisdiction of States.

Question 10: Discuss he role of UNO in maintain the international peace and security.
Answer: The United Nations Organisation undertook the gigantic three dimensional task of peace keeping, peace making and peace building in a world which had just been a victim of a devastating world war.
Thus, the primary function of the UNO is to maintain international peace and security. This includes collective effective measures for prevention and removal of threats to peace, and suppression of acts of aggression or other breaches of peace. To bring about through peaceful means, adhering to principles of justice and international law adjustment and settlement of international disputes.
Thus the cause of action for UNO arises when there is threat to peace, or actual aggression causing breach of peace. The means for settling disputes are recommended to be peaceful but where suppression of aggression is required the Security Council is authorized to use military operations. For instance in Korea, Palestine and Congo and in the Gulf War the UN military forces played a decisive role.

Question 11: What measures were suggested for fulfilling the aims of the UNO?
Answer: To fulfill the aims and objectives of the United Nations organisation suggested:
(i) To practice tolerance and living together in peace with one another as good neigh-bourse.
(ii) To unite our strength to maintain international peace and security.
(iii) To ensure, by acceptance of principles and the institution of methods, that armed force shall not be used, except in common interest.
(iv) To employ international machinery for the promotion of economic and social advancement of all people.

Question 12: What were the underlying principles upheld by the aims of the United Nations Organisation as stated in the preamble of the UN Charter?
Answer: The ideals and principles embodied in the UN Charter are as under:
(i) Fundamental human rights.
(ii) Dignity and worth of human person.
(iii) Equal rights for men and women.
(iv) Equal rights of nations large and small.
(v) Respect for treaty obligation.
(vi) Promotion of social progress and better standard of life.
(vii) Unity for maintenance of international peace and security.

Picture Based Questions

Question 1: Answer the following:

(i) Where did the incident take place as depicted in the picture?
(ii) What was the historical importance of this incident?
Answer: (i) This incident took place on the US Naval base at Pearl Harbor, in Hawaii.
(ii) The historical importance of this incidence is that after this attack, the US declared war on Japan and the other Axis Powers (Germany and Italy).

For More Resources

ICSE Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation of India Solutions

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ICSESolutions.com provides ICSE Solutions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation of India for ICSE Board Examinations. We provide step by step Solutions for ICSE Geography Class 10 Solutions Pdf. You can download the Class 10 Geography ICSE Textbook Solutions with Free PDF download option.

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Very Short Questions

Question 1: Which forest regions of India are also known as ‘Rain Forests’?
Answer: The Tropical Evergreen Forests.

Question 2: Write the names of the typical trees of the Evergreen Forests.
Answer: Mahogany, Ebony, Rosewood, Cinchona, Coconut, Bamboo.

Question 3: How is it that the main regions of the Monsoon forests is the interior of the Southern Peninsula?
Answer: These regions lie in the rain shadow area of the Western Ghats. They get about 100-200 cm rain.

Question 4: What are Littoral forests or Tidal forests? Name the principal trees that grow in these forests.
Answer: Littoral forests or Tidal Forests are found in delta regions and along the marshy coasts. They are also called ‘Mangrove Forests’. The principal trees are Casuarina, Sundari, Mangrove.

Question 5: Give two characteristics of tidal forests.
Answer: Tidal forests are found to thrive in saline conditions. They possess breathing roots or pneumatophores.

Question 6: What are Sundarbans?
Answer: The forests found on the Ganga-Brahmaputra Delta covering the coasts of West Bengal and Bangladesh are called Sundarbans because of the abundance of Sundari trees.

Question 7: Describe the type of vegetation found in the Deccan Plateau and in the Thar Desert respectively.
Answer: Deciduous trees. Cactus, date-palms, acacia, khair, kikar.

Question 8: Classify the following trees as Soft-wood and Hard-wood trees:
Fir, Pine, Teak, Spruce, Rosewood, Sandalwood, Chir, Sal, Shisham and Silver Fir.
Answer: Soft-wood: Fir, Pine, Spruce, Chir, Silver Fir.
Hard-wood: Teak, Rosewood, Sandalwood, Shisham, Sal.

Question 9: Give one important use of each of the following types of trees:
(i) Sundri (ii) Sandalwood
(iii) Rosewood.
Answer: (i) Sundri trees are ideal for building boats.
(ii) Sandalwoodjs a fragrant wood which is used to make incense sticks, decorative articles and oil. The oil is added to cosmetic, bathing soaps etc.
(iii) Rosewood is termite resistant and is used for making expensive furniture and carvings.

Question 10: Name any three trees found in monsoon deciduous forests and state one use of each of these trees.
Answer: Sal-used for furniture making Railway sleepers. Sandalwood-used for extracting sandalwood oil and handicrafts perfumes. Mulberry-used for rearing silkworms.

Short Questions

Question 1: With reference to the Natural Vegetation of India, classify the following trees under the heading: Kind of forests with which they are associated:
Chir Pine, Teak, Casuarina, Ebony, Rosewood, Khajuri, Eucalyptus, Sandalwood, Babul.
Answer: Tropical Evergreen: Ebony, Rosewood
Monsoon or Deciduous: Teak, Eucalyptus, Sandalwood
Desert: Khajuri, Babul
Littoral or Tidal: Casuarina
Mountain: Chir Pine

Question 2: Why are Evergreen forests composed of thick vegetation and dense foliage?
Answer: Due to heavy rain, high temperatures and humidity, the soil retains moisture even after the rainy season. Places near the Equator get rain practically everyday. There is thick undergrowth of leaves and trees. The trees grow tall with thick foliage.

Question 3: Give one use of each of the following trees: mahogany, rosewood, ebony, cinchona, bamboo.
Answer: Mahogany: It is a hard wood used for furniture.
Rosewood: It is a fine grained, hard wood used for making expensive furniture.
Ebony: It is a hard wood, coal black, with high density. It is therefore heavy, strong and used
for furniture.
Cinchona: From this Quinine is obtained which is used for treatment of malaria.
Bamboo: It is used for house construction.

Question 4: What is a Monsoon Forest? What are the chief characteristics of Monsoon forests?
Answer: Monsoon forest is the name given to the deciduous forest region. These regions have moderate rain, 100-200 cm. The characteristic of these trees is that they shed their leaves in the dry season to protect against excessive evaporation.

Question 5: Describe the type of trees found growing in the monsoon forests of Western India. Which one of these trees is the most valuable? Why has the Government designated the areas where these trees are cultivated as ‘reserves’?
Answer: Deciduous trees. Teak is the most valuable. The trees of the monsoon forests are very valuable because they are hard, durable and useful in construction work and furniture. Hence the government has declared them as ‘reserves’ to prevent the cutting down of trees.

Question 6: What are the characteristics of the Mangrove and give one use.
Answer: The mangrove tree has stilt like supporting roots which get exposed in low tide. The wood of this tree is hard, durable and is used for boat building and fuel.

Question 7: Write two main characteristics of the Deciduous Monsoon Forests.
Answer: Two characteristics of Deciduous Monsoon Forests are:
(i) The trees in these forests shed their leaves from six to eight weeks during spring and early summer.
(ii) The trees in these forests occur in pure stand which makes it suitable for commercial exploitation.
Mention two main characteristics of Tropical Rain Forests.

Question 8: Two characteristics of Tropical rain forest:
Answer: (i) Trees are dense and evergreen.
(ii) They are found in mixed stands.

Question 9: How do the trees of the desert adapt themselves to the arid conditions?
Answer: They have long tapering roots which go deep to tap water. The trees are stunted as there is not enough rain for tree growth. The thorny branches reduce loss of water by transpiration. The fleshy leaves prevent loss of water by evaporation. The wax on the leaves closes pores.

Question 10: Name the various uses of the coconut tree.
Answer: The coconut is put to various uses The fruit is eaten. Oil is prepared from the seed. The oil cakes are used as manure and cattle feed. The fibres are used for making ropes. The leaves are used in thatched roofs. The bark of the tree is hard and is used in roofing, construction of houses.

Question 11: Give the importance of the date-palm (Khajera)
Answer: Every part of the plant is useful. The leaves are used for making bags and mats. The fruit is eaten. The fibres are used for making ropes and the trunk supplies wood for furniture and tent pegs.

Question 12: Name two important trees each of the Srinagar Valley in Kashmir and the Dandakaranya’ region in South India, indicating their commercial importance.
Answer: Srinagar Valley: Chennar and Silver Fir. They are soft-wooded trees. Chennar is known for its vastness like the Banyan in the Gangetic Plain. Silver Fir is soft-wooded and is used in packing cases.
Dandakaranya: Teak and Sal. These are hard-wooded trees known for their durability. Teak is used in construction work and furniture. Sal is used in railway sleepers.

Question 13: Describe briefly the value of forests to man.
Answer: (i) They influence the climate.
(ii) Prevent floods
(iii) They provide the natural habitat for the animals.
(iv) They provide the raw material for a number of industries, sports, paper, medicines.
(v) They are a source of employment to crores of our people.
(vi) They help in agriculture.
(vii) They prevent erosion by wind.

Question 14: Give the names of four important products of forests. Why are forests grown in and around iron and steel cities?
Answer: Wood pulp, paper, medicines, paints and varnishes.
Forests moderate the climate by absorbing much of the sun’s insolation and by supplying water vapour which further condenses to impart rain. This contributes towards cooling the hot environment of iron and steel cities.

Long Questions

Question 1: Give one use of each: teak, sal, myrobalan, sisam, sandalwood, eucalyptus.
Answer: Teak: It is the most important of the deciduous trees. It is used for house construction, furniture, ship-building. It is hard and durable. It resists while ants and nails dor not rust in it.
Sal: It is hard-and heavy. It is immune to white ants. Hence it is used in railway sleepers.
Myrobalan: It grows abundantly in Tamil Nadu. It bears fruits which are dried and then used as tanning material in processing hides and skins.
Sisam: It is an erect deciduous tree. It is mostly used in furnitures industry.
Sandalwood: It is found in the Karnataka forests. It is used in making sandalwood oil and perfumes. Sandalwood oil of Mysore is famous.
Eucalyptus: It is another important tree of the Karnataka forests. It is known for its lofty stature. Its wood is raw material for the paper industry. Eucalyptus oil is also available from it.

Question 2: (i) Name the region where desert vegetation is found.
(ii) Give one characteristic of these trees.
(iii) Name the principal trees of this region.
(iv) Give one use of Babul (Acacia), Khair.
Answer: (i) Desert vegetation is found where rainfall is scanty about 10-50 cm. It is found in Ladakh region of Jammu-Kashmir, Saurashtra in Gujarat, Rajasthan, and some dry areas of the Deccan Plateau.
(ii) These trees are xerophytyic (drought resisting), thorny shrubs.
(iii) Cactus, Khair, Kikar, Khajera (date-palm), Babul (Acacia).
(iv) Babul yields a gum and the bark is used for tanning hides and skins. Khair is valuable for timber and products such as dye for tanning.

Question 3: Mountain vegetation consists not of a single type but of several types. Give reasons.
Answer: On the slopes of the mountains-we find changing vegetation belts according to the altitude upto the snow line. On the lower slopes of the Eastern Himalayas we find broad-leaved evergreen trees the Laurel Oak, Magnolia. Above this we find deciduous trees and still higher we have the coniferous trees, Spruce, Silverfir, Pine, Chir Pine. On the Western Himalayas there are broad- leave evergreen trees but not so as those on the Eastern Himalayas. Chennar and Silverfir are the two most important trees of the Srinagar valley slopes. Still higher above 6000 metres there is only snow.

Question 4: Explain the terms: Re-afforestation and Forest Conservation.
Answer: Re-afforestation: Growing trees in place of those which have been cut down. The policy of the government is that two trees should be planted for every tree cut down.
Forest Conservation: preservation of forests. This is why the government has designated certain forests as ‘Reserved Forests’.

Question 5: Mention three methods for the conservation and development of forests in India.
Answer: Three methods for the conservation and development of forests:
(i) Grow more trees or Vana Mahotasava.
(ii) Forests regions are being declared “Reserved Sanctuaries” to preserve the ecosystem and protect animals.
(iii) Afforestation and Reafforestation: Afforestation is the planting of more trees and Reafforestation is to plant trees in place of those which are cut down. The policy of the Government is to plant two trees in place of every one tree that is cut.

Give Reasons

Give Geographical Reasons for the following:

Question 1: Thar desert looks like a wasteland or Desert soil is almost dry.
Answer: There is very little rain. The desert soil is coarse-grained and hence the rate of evaporation is accelerated due to the broad pores in the soil.

Question 2: Monsoon forests are commercially very important.
Answer: The monsoon forest trees are hard and durable. They are used for furniture and construction.

Question 3: How do forests:
(i) have a favourable effect on the climate of the region?
(ii) act as a flood control measure?
Answer: (i) Forests transmit moisture into the air by means of transpiration and induce precipitation. Forests turn Carbon dioxide into oxygen and thus help to purify the air we breathe.
(ii) The roots of plants and trees hold the soil and thus forests check or prevent soil erosion, especially in hilly areas. Hence they also help in checking floods.

Question 4: Write two reasons why monsoon deciduous forests are commercially more valuable than other types of forests.
Answer: (i) The trees in the monsoon deciduous forests provide useful wood and are economically very important.
(ii) Trees like Teak and Sal are termite resistant woods.

Question 5: Forests are called ‘handmaids of agriculture’.
Answer: Forests are useful in agriculture in various ways both directly and indirectly. Directly, they supply wood for making farm implements. Indirectly, they help in keeping the climate humid, creating favourable conditions for rain. They are helpful in checking floods and preventing soil erosion.

Question 6: We find very little vegetation on the Indo-Gangetic Plain.
Answer: The Indo-Gangetic Plain is a fertile plain. Therefore, most of the plain has been cleared for farming. Secondly, the Gangetic Plain is a vast plain with different amounts of rainfall decreasing from east to west.

Question 7: Coniferous trees are conical in shape.
Answer: They adopted to withstand large and heavy snowfalls and shed snow easily without bleaking limbs or some of them also have very thick bark to protect them from fire.

Question 8: Mention three reasons why forests must be conserved.
Answer: Forest conservation is needed to prevent soil erosion. Forest conservation helps to save the habitat of the wild animals. It also prevents desertification, flood control, control soil erosion etc.

Question 9: Explain why Thorn and Scrub forests are found in the above mentioned region.
Answer: They are found in the above region because these areas get less than 25 cm. of rainfall and average temperature of 25 °C to 27°C.

Question 10: Briefly explain two reasons for forests being ah important natural resource.
Answer: Forests are important natural resource because:
(i) They provide timber, medicinal plants etc.
(ii) They help in purifying air and giving rain.

Question 11: Mention two reasons why Tropical Evergreen Forests are difficult to exploit for commercial purposes.
Answer: Tropical evergreen forests do not occur in pure stands. The forests are dark and dense so difficult for commercial exploitation.

Digital Gujarat

Data based Questions

Question 1: From the following information about the regions A, B, C, state the kind of natural vegetation growing there and mention the name of a typical tree of the respective region:
A : Annual rainfall 100-200 cm. Trees shed their leaves in March and April.
B : Annual rainfall less than 50 cm. Trees are stunted and widely scattered.
C : Forests are found in submerged coastal plains, especially on the edges of deltas.
Answer: A : deciduous trees, teak.
B : desert vegetation, cactus.
C : littoral or tidal, sundari.

Name the Following

Question 1: Name two important factors responsible for the various vegetation belts in India.
Answer: Climate and soils.

Question 2: Name the chief types of natural vegetation found in India.
Answer: Tropical Evergreen, Monsoon, Desert, Tidal or Littoral, Mountain.

Question 3: Name the regions of the Tropical Evergreen forests.
Answer: These are found in regions of heavy rain over 200 cm. The chief regions are the Western Coastal Belt covering Maharashtra, Karnataka, Kerala coasts, North-East India covering Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Assam, Meghalaya, Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Question 4: Name the regions of the Monsoon Forests in India.
Answer: These regions get moderate rain, 100-200 cm. They cover the lower slopes of the Western Himalayas, the eastern slopes, of the Western Ghats comprising parts of Maharashtra, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh.

Question 5: Name two States in India noted for the Deodar tree. Give two uses of deodar wood.
Answer: Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand. It is used for making paper and in railway sleepers.

Question 6: Name one region for each of the following:
(i) Tropical Evergreen Forests (ii) Deciduous Monsoon Forests
(iii) Desert Vegetation
Answer: (i) Western Ghats, (ii) Eastern slopes of the Western Ghats, Maharashtra and Karnataka, (iii) Rajasthan.

Question 7: Name one important commercial tree growing in the deciduous forests of Madhya Pradesh.
Answer: Teak, Sal.

Question 8: Name the important trees of Rajasthan.
Answer: Babul, Khajuri, Date-Palm.

Question 9: Name the natural vegetation largely found in the following regions:
(i) The delta of the Ganga river.
(ii) The windward side of the Western Ghats.
(iii) The Deccan Plateau.
Answer: (i) Mangrove or littoral forests (ii) Tropical evergreen forests.
(iii) Tropical dediduous.

Question 10: Name the tree, the timber of which could be used for the following:
(i) A soft and white timber used for making toys and match boxes.
(ii) A hard durable timber used for ship building and furniture making.
(iii) A sweet smelling timber which yields an oil, used for making handicrafts.
Answer: (i) Semul (ii) Teak (iii) Sandalwood.

Question 11: Name one region in India for each of the following:
(i) Tidal forests.
(ii) Thom and Scrub.
Answer: (i) Tidal forest: Deltas of Ganga, Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna and Kaveri.
(ii) Thom and scrub forest: Rajasthan and Gujarat.

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ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Chapter 2 The Executive (President and Vice-President) Solutions

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Very Short Questions

Question 1: How is the Executive of the Indian Union constituted?
Answer: The Executive of the Indian Union consists of the President, Vice-President, Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers.

Question 2: Who is the chief executive authority of the Indian Union?
Answer: The chief executive authority of the Indian Union is the President.

Question 3: Who elects the President of India?
Answer: The President is elected by an Electoral College counting of members of the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha. and the State Legislative Assemblies of the states of the Indian Union.

Question 4: What is the term of office of the President?
Answer: The term of office of President of India is five years.

Question 5: What is an Electoral College?
Answer: An Electoral College consists of the Legislative elected members of both the Houses of Parliament and elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States including Union Territories possessing assemblies.

Question 6: By how many electors should the nomination papers for a prospective Presidential candidate be proposed and seconded?
Answer: A prospective Presidential candidate is required to get his nomination paper proposed by at least ten electors and seconded by another ten electors.

Question 7: Who constitutes the Electoral College for the election of the President?
Answer: The Electoral College consists of the elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies and the elected members of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.

Question 8: Who settles the disputes arising in connection with the election of a President?
Answer: The disputes arising in connection with the election of a President is settled down by the Supreme Court of India.

Question 9: How is the value of an elected member of a Vidhan Sabha is worked out?
Answer: The value of an elected member of the Vidhan Sabha is worked out by adopting the following formula:
\(\frac{\text{Total Population of the State}}{\text{Elected Members of the Vidhan Sabha}}\times 1000\)

Question 10: How is the value of the elected Members of Parliament worked out?
Answer: The value of the elected Members of Parliament is worked out as per the formula:
\(\frac{\text{Total Votes of all the MLAs}}{\text{Number of Elected Members of Parliament}}\)

Question 11: What is the security amount a Presidential candidate has to deposit?
Answer: A Presidential candidate has to deposit Rs. 15,000/- of security while filing his nomination.

Question 12: Who administers the oath of office to the President?
Answer: The Chief Justice of India administers the oath of office to the President.

Question 13: What are the emoluments of the President?
Answer: The President is paid a monthly salary and also paid monthly pension on the expiry of his term. He gets the annual expenditure and rent-free official residence, the Rashtrapathi Bhawan.

Question 14: Who is the thirteenth President of India?
Answer: Mr. K. R. Narayanan is the thirteenth President of India.

Question 15: Suppose the President has resigned, who will take his office in his absence?
Answer: The Vice-President of India will take his office in his absence.

Question 16: What is an ordinance?
Answer: An ordinance is a direction or command of an authoritative nature issued by the President of India if Parliament is not in session.

Question 17: When can the President issue ordinances?
Answer: The President can issue ordinances when the parliament is not in session and the enactment of law is required.

Question 18: What does the term impeachment mean?
Answer: The President can be removed from office for grave mis-conduct by a special trial conducted by the Parliament. It is known as impeachment.

Question 19: Whom does the President call upon to form the Government after the election of Lok Sabha?
Answer: The President calls upon the Prime Minister to form the Government after the election of Lok Sabha.

Question 20: Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India?
Answer: The President appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India.

Question 21: Who presides over the joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament?
Answer: President presides over the joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament.

Question 22: When does the President address both the Houses of Parliament assembled together?
Answer: The President addresses both the Houses of Parliament assembled together at the commencement of the Parliament’s first session.

Question 23: Mention two financial powers of the President of India.
Answer: (i) Appoints Finance Commission. (ii) Create contingency fund.

Question 24: State one limitation imposed on the powers of the President by the Council of Ministers.
Answer: The Constitution prescribes that the President shall act in accordance with the advice rendered by the Council of Ministers headed by a Prime Minister. The advice so rendered shall be binding on the President.

Question 25: Under what conditions can the President of India declare emergency?
Answer: A proclamation of emergency can be made by the President at any time if he is satisfied that the security of India or any part is in danger or is likely to be in danger either due to war or external aggression or armed rebellion.

Question 26: How long can a state of emergency remain in operation without Parliaments approval?
Answer: State of emergency can remain in operation for two months without Parliament’s approval.

Question 27: How can the Vice-President of India be removed from his office?
Answer: The Vice-President fan be removed from his office by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by a majority of all the members and agreed by the Lok Sabha.

Question 28: What is the distinction between the electors of the President and the Vice- President?
Answer: The distinction between the electors of the President and the Vice-President is that only the elected members of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies vote for the President but in case of the Vice-President all the elected members of Parliament vote.

Question 29:  When can the Vice President cast a vote in the Rajya Sabha?
Answer: The Vice-President can cast a vote in the Rajya Sabha in case of a deadlock i.e. an equality of votes.

Question 30: Who takes charge if the office of both the President and the Vice-President falls vacant?
Answer: The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court succeeds the Presidency.

Short Questions – I

Question 1: What is the position of the President of India?
Answer: Theoretically speaking, all the powers are vested in the President according to Article 53(1) of the Constitution. The President can exercise those powers directly or through officers under him. According to Article 74(1) of the Indian Constitution, the President has to exercise his functions on the basis of aid and advice of the Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers.

Question 2: Mention two military powers of the President of India.
Answer: (i) The President is the Supreme Commander of the armed forces of India.
(ii) He has the power to declare war or conclude peace treaty.

Question 3: Mention the three types of emergencies envisaged by the Constitution.
Answer: The three types of emergencies envisaged by the Constitution are:

1. National emergency.
2. Emergency arising out of breakdown of constitutional machinery.
3. Financial emergency.

Question 4: Mention any two effects of the Proclamation of Emergency on account of war or external aggression or armed rebellion.
Answer: (i) All Fundamental Rights are either partially or wholly suspended.
(ii) The Parliament gets the power to enact Laws even on subjects mentioned in the State List.

Question 5: Mention the circumstances when the President can declare a National Emergency.
Answer: The circumstances under which the President can declare a National Emergency are:
(i) General or National Emergency (Article 352) caused by war, external aggression or armed rebellion.
(ii) Emergency due to failure of Constitutional Machinery in a state (Article 360).

Question 6: Write down the qualification for the Vice-President of India?
Answer: The qualifications for the Vice-President of India are as follows:

1. He/She should be a citizen of India.
2. He/She has completed the age of 30 years.
3. He/She is qualified for election as a member of the Rajya Sabha.
4. He/She should not hold any office of profit under the Government of India..

Question 7: Mr. Konar was not found eligible for the election as the Vice-President of India even though he had the qualifications of being a citizen of India and not being a member of the Parliament and the State Legislature. On what grounds was he disqualified? Give one reason.
Answer: Mr. Konar is disqualified for election as the Vice-President on the following grounds:
(i) He might not have completed the minimum age of thirty five years.
(ii) He may not be qualified for election as a member of Council of States.

Question 8: How is the Vice-President of India elected?
Answer: The Vice-President of India is elected by the members of both the Houses of Parliament assembled at a joint meeting. He is elected by the system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote and voting in such election is always done by secret ballot.

Question 9: What are the emoluments of the Vice-President?
Answer: Being the Vice-President of India, he is not entitled for any salary, but he is entitled to the salary and allowances payable to the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. When he acts as the President of India, he draws the monthly emolument of the President.

Question 10: Mention any two functions of the Vice-President?
Answer: (i) He/She presides over the meetings of the Rajya Sabha.
(ii) He /She acts as a President when the latter is unable to discharge his functions due to illness, resignation, removal or absence.

Short Questions – II

Question 1: Mention the common qualifications required to be eligible to become the President of India.
Answer: No person is eligible for election of President unless he (i) is a citizen of India, (ii) has completed the age of thirty-five years, and (iii) is qualified to become a member of the Lok Sabha.
A candidate for Presidential election should not hold an office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State. He should be (i) a Citizen of India, (ii) should have completed the age of thirty-five years, (iii) should not hold any Office of Profit under the Government, and (iv) should not be a member of either House of Parliament or of State Legislature.

Question 2: What is the process of Impeachment of the President?
Answer: Article 61 of the Constitution prescribes that the President can be impeached by the Parliament if a President begins to act against the provision of the Constitution or is found guilty of misusing his status and position or found involved in corruption. He may be impeached out of office. Charges can be framed by either of the two houses of Parliament by a two-third majority. A 14 days notice signed by atleast one-fourth of the total number of members has to be given.
The other House investigates the charges and sustains them by 2/3rd majority of the total membership of that House, the President is impeached.

Question 3: What does the President solemnly undertake to do when he takes the oath of office?
Answer: The oath of office taken by the President demands:
(i) To faithfully execute the office of the President or discharge the functions of the President.
(ii) To preserve, protect and defend to the best of his ability the Constitution and the Law.
(iii) To devote himself to the service and well-being of the people of India.

Question 4: In what conditions can the office of the President fall vacant?
Answer: The office of the President falls vacant under the following conditions:
(i) In case of death of a President the office falls vacant. Elections for the new President shall be held within 6 months.
(ii) If a President resigns from his post, his office falls vacant.
(iii) If the President violates the Constitution or is found guilty of missing his- status and position, he can be removed from his office by an impeachment motion.

Question 5: Explain the method by which the President can be removed from his duties.
Answer: The method of his removal: In case of violation of the Constitution, the Parliament may remove the President through the process of impeachment. The charges for this purpose may be framed by either House of Parliament in the form of a resolution by two-third majority of the total membership of House. A fourteen days notice signed by at least one-fourth of the total number of members has to be given. The other House investigates the charges levelled against the President. If the charges are established by the two-third majority of the total membership of the other House also, the President is impeached and removed from office forthwith.

Question 6: Explain any three Judicial powers of the President of India.
Answer: Judicial Powers: The President enjoys vast Judicial powers also:
(i) The President has the power to grant pardon, reprieves, remit or suspend a death sentence on any appeal for mercy.
(ii) He is not answerable before any Court of Law for the discharge of his duties.
(iii) No criminal suit can be initiated against him during his tenure of office.

Question 7: The President of India is vested with Military powers. Discuss about them.
Answer: Military powers: The President is vested with military powers also which are:
(i) The President is the supreme commander of the armed forces of India.
(ii) He appoints the Chiefs of the three wings of the Army, subject to certain rules and regulations.
(iii) He can declare war or conclude peace with any foreign power on the advice of Council of Ministers.

Question 8: The President of India enjoys vast powers. In this context explain certain Diplomatic powers.
Answer: Diplomatic powers: Being the head of the state, the President has certain Diplomatic powers which are:
(i) He appoints Ambassadors and High Commissioners to other countries with which India has diplomatic relations.
(ii) He may enter into a treaty with a foreign country or declare war on behalf of India.
(iii) He receives Ambassadors and other diplomatic representatives of the foreign nations.

Question 9: Explain two Discretionary powers of the President.
Answer: Two Discretionary powers of the President are:
(i) The President has to be informed of all important decision and deliberations of the Council of Ministers and the Prime Minister is bound to provide whatever information the President seeks.
(ii) The President cannot dismiss the Prime Minister in a Parliamentary System, as long as he enjoys a majority. But in case no single party gets a majority, then the President can write to the person who can govern with a majority support to form a Coalition Government which would be stable.

Question 10: Why is the President of India referred to as a nominal head of the state?
Answer: The President of India is referred to as the nominal head of the state because India follows a parliamentary system of Government. He is not the real head of the executive as the real power is exercised by the Prime Minister and Council of Ministers. Two Legislative powers of the President which suggest his nominal status are:
(i) According to the Constitution, the President is required to exercise his powers on the aid and advice of his Council of Ministers.
(ii) All proclamations of emergency made by the President have to be approved by the Parliament with in 1 month. If its not approved then it ceases to exist.

Long Questions

Question 1: Justify the need for ‘Indirect Election’of the President.
Answer: The President of India is elected indirectly in accordance with proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. The President is elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both the Houses of Parliament and elected members of the Assemblies of the States.
The value of the vote of an elected member of the Vidhan Sabha is worked out by adopting the following formula:
\( \frac{\text{Total Population of the State}}{\text{Elected Members of the Vidhan Sabha}}\times 100 \)
The value of the elected Members of Parliament is worked out as per the formula:
\( \frac{\text{Total votes of all the MLAs}}{\text{Number of elected Members of Parliament}} \)
With this arrangement, it has been ensured that the value of the vote of an M.L.A. is proportionate to the population he represents.
On the other hand, the voting power of all the elected members of the Parliament is made equal to the voting power of all the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies in the country so that the States should not have an upper hand in the election of the President.
The election of’the President is conducted on the basis of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. The ballot is secret. The candidate who secures votes more than or equal to the quota of votes is declared elected. If at the first court no candidate secures the required quota of votes the candidate securing the least number of votes is eliminated and his votes are transferred among other candidates. According to the second preference on the ballot papers of candidate who gave him first preference. The process of elimination and transfer of votes continues till such a candidates is found.

Question 2: The President of India occupies the highest office in the Country. In this context explain the Legislative Powers.
Answer: Legislative Powers of the President: The President is an integral part of the Parliament which consists of the President, the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. His legislative powers are:
(i) The first session of the Parliament is addressed by the President.
(ii) He has the power to summon and prorogue the House.
(iii) He can dissolve the Lok Sabha and order fresh elections.
(iv) He can address a joint session of the Parliament or each one of the House separately.

Question 3: Explain the Financial Powers of the President of India.
Answer: Financial Powers: Financial Powers enjoyed by the President are as follows:
(i) He causes the Annual Budget to be laid before the Parliament in the beginning of every financial year.
(ii) He causes the annual financial statement to be laid before the Parliament.
(iii) No-Money Bill can be introduced in the Parliament without his prior assent.
(iv) He distributes the shares of the income tax received between the Union and the States.
(v) He can create contingency fund from which he can advance to meet unforeseen expenses.
(vi) He can appoint the Financial Commission and implement its recommendation.

Question 4: Explain the Executive Powers of the President of India.
Answer: Executive Powers of the President: The President of India is titular. His authority is only formal. However,
(i) All executive actions of the Union Government must be expressed to be taken in the name of President.
(ii) All officers of the Union are his officers and he has a right to be informed of all affairs of the Union.
(iii) The President also makes rules for the convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India.
(iv) He has a right to be informed by the Prime Minister of all decisions taken by the Council of Ministers.

Question 5: Mention the reason, when can General or National Emergency be declared and three consequences of emergency declared under Article 352 of the Constitution?
Answer: General or National Emergency: The President may declare a General Emergency at any time if he is satisfied that the security of India or any part is in danger or is likely to be in danger either due to war or external aggression or armed rebellion. This type of emergency is proclaimed under Article 352 of the Constitution. If emergency under Article 352 is declared, it has the following impacts:
(i) The President becomes the sole administrator of the country.
(ii) The Federal structure of the country is converted into a unitary one.
(iii) The Governor of the States act in accordance with his instructions.
(iv) The exercise of Fundamental Rights including Right to Constitutional remedies is suspended.

Question 6: When can General or National Emergency be declared? State three consequences of emergency declared under article 356 of the constitution?
Answer: Emergency Arising Out of the Failure of Constitutional Machinery: If the President is satisfied either on the recommendation of the Governor or otherwise that the Constitutional machinery in State has broken down, he may place that State under Presidential Rule. Such an emergency is proclaimed under Article 356 of the Constitution.
The following are its consequences:
(i) The Union (Central Government) assumes control over all functions in the State administration except the judicial ones.
(ii) The Governor of the State acts in accordance with the instructions and directions issued from time to time.
(iii) During the Presidents rule in a state, the Governor, being an Agent of the Centre, takes over the reiris of administration into his own hands.

Question 7: How is the Vice-President of India elected and what are his functions?
Answer: The Vice-President of India is elected by an ‘Electoral College’ consisting of members of both the Houses of Parliament. The procedure of his election consists of a secret ballot proportional representation and single transferable vote. An absolute majority of votes polled is required for the election of the Vice-President of India.
Functions:
(i) The Vice-President of India is the Ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. He presides over the meetings of the Rajya Sabha.
(ii) The Vice-President of India officiates as the President for six months till a new President is elected.
(iii) The Vice-President can also act as a President when the latter is unable to discharge his functions due to illness, resignation, removal and absence. When the Vice-President discharges the functions of the President, he is entitled to same privileges and powers.

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ICSE Class 10 Geography Chapter 2 Map of India Solutions

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River Map of India Very Short Questions

Question 1: By what name is the parallel of latitude 23° 33′ known? Name the zones or belts into which it divides India almost equally.
Answer: Tropic of Cancer; Tropical and Temperate Zones.

Question 2: Name the source of the river Ganga. Where does this river enter the plains?
Answer: The source of the river Ganga is ‘Gangotri glacier’ of the great Himalayas. The river enters the plain from North-Western part of Uttar Pradesh and Uttaranchal above that is Shivalik hills.

Question 3: Explain why the Damodar is called the “Sorrow of Bengal”?
Answer: The Damodar is known as the “Sorrow of Bengal” because it floods frequently and causes wide spread destruction of lives, cattle and crops.

Question 4: Why is the Pamir Knot known as ‘the roof of the world’.
Answer: Pamir Knot is known as ‘the roof of the world’, because of its vastness and great height.

Question 5: Name the mountain ranges that lie along east and west of Pamir Knot.
Answer: The Himalayas in India, Nepal and China, Arakan Yoma range in Myanmar and the Kara Koram range and Hindukush range.

Question 6: Name the world’s first and second highest mountain peaks.
Answer: First highest Mount Everest, second highest Peak Mt. K2.

Question 7: Where is Zojila Pass?
Answer: It is in the state of Jammu and Kashmir.

Question 8: From where does the river Ganga, Indus and Brahmaputra get their water?
Answer: The river Ganga, Indus and Brahmaputra get their water from the Himalayas.

Question 9: Where are the Sunderbans?
Answer: The Seaward face of the delta of Ganga has sand banks and inlands known as the Sunderbans.

Question 10: Name the two component parts of the Indo-Gangetic Plain?
Answer: The spurs of the Aravalli range act as watershed between the two component parts of the Indo-Gangetic plain. They are the Indus-Basin and the Ganga-Basin.

Question 11: The northern plains of India are one of the most densely populated regions of the world. Why?
Answer: They are the most densely populated regions because they are very level and flat and made up of fertile alluvial soil.

Question 12: Mention the sub-units into which the Deccan Plateau region can be divided.
Answer: The Plateau region can be divided into the following sub-units, the Malwa Plateau, the Chhota – Nagpur Plateau.

Question 13: Mention the sub-units of the Deccan Plateau?
Answer: The Deccan Plateau has been divided into the following sub-units: Maharashtra Plateau, Andhra Plateau and Karnataka Plateau.

Question 14: Which is known as the Deccan Trap region?
Answer: The north-western part of the Deccan Plateau in Maharashtra, adjoining Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat is known as the Deccan Trap region.

Question 15: Which mountains divide the Northern India and Peninsular India?
Answer: The Satpura mountains.

Question 16: Which is the highest peak of the Peninsular India?
Answer: The Anaimudi in the Anamalai hills is the highest peak in the peninsular India being 2,695 metre, high.

Question 17: Where does the Karnataka Plateau end?
Answer: Karnataka Plateau ends at the meeting place of the Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats.

Question 18: What is the other name of the east coastal plain?
Answer: Coromandel Coast.

Question 19: Which is the most important lake on the eastern coastal strip?
Answer: Lake Chilka in Orissa.

Question 20: “Access through Western Ghats is difficult.” Why?
Answer: They form a continuous chain running from north to south, access through which is very difficult.

Question 21: Why is the Thar Desert most sparsely populated part of India?
Answer: The absence of water for irrigation and level land which could be irrigated have made this region the most thinly populated part of India.

Question 22: Where is the Rann of Kutch located?
Answer: The Rann of Kutch is located in the Kathiawar section.

Short Questions

Question 1: Why is South Asia referred as Indian Sub-continent?
Answer: A sub-continent is a big geographical unit which stands out distinctly from the rest of the continent. Politically the continent is divided into many countries (SAARC countries). India forms the main part of the sub-continent so South Asia is often referred as Indian sub-continent.

Question 2: How is Indo-Gangetic plain formed?
Answer: The Indo-Gangetic plain is formed by the Indus, Ganga and their tributaries. River Indus (2,736 km) rising from across the Himalayas winds through Pakistan and drains into the Arabian Sea. The Ganga (2,510 km) and their numerous tributaries which flow across northern India and Bangladesh drain into the Bay of Bengal.

Question 3: Write down the importance of Indo-Gangetic plain.
Answer: Indo-Gangetic plain is one of the most important agricultural region of the world, producing a wide variety of crops. It is a granary of the world, producing rice and wheat in large quantities and it is the most thickly populated part of India.

Question 4: How are rivers of Northern India important?
Answer: (i) They yield constant supply of water.
(ii) They bring fertile alluvium soil suitable for agriculture.
(iii) They provide good highways of communication though they are much less used than formerly.

Question 5: Describe the Deccan Plateau region.
Answer: The Decean Plateau is highly dissected and is broken by hills and river valleys. It is composed of old, hard, crystalline rocks. It is bounded on the north by the ranges of Vindhyas and the Satpura, on the west by the Western Ghats and on the east by the Eastern Ghats.

Question 6: (i) Where does the Malwa Plateau lie?
Answer: (ii) How is it formed?
(i) The Malwa Plateau lies in the north-west part of the Plateau region.
(ii) This upland region is formed by sand stone, shells and limestone. It is drained by a number of north-flowing streams, like Chambal, Betwa and their tributaries.

Question 7: How has the lava-flow rocks of Deccan Plateau changed into fertile black soils?
Answer: The Deccan Plateau region is built up by the lava-flow rocks, which have been changed into fertile black soils because of continuous weathering through ages. The region of black soil is very suitable for cultivation of cotton plants.

Question 8: What is the importance of the Southern Plateau Region?
Answer: It is geologically very old and stable land and therefore least affected by the tectonic disturbances or by tremors of the earth. It is a storehouse of many mineral deposits like coal, iron-ore, manganese ore, mica, bauxite and many other minerals are found in this Plateau region.

Question 9: What is the extent of eastern coastal strip?
Answer: The east coastal strip extends from the mouth of the river Ganga to Cape Comorin. It lies between the Eastern Ghats and the Bay of Bengal.

Question 10: What is the extent of western coastal strip?
Answer: The west coast strip extends from Gulf of Kutch in the north to Cape Comorin (Kanyakumari) in the South. It lies between the Western Ghats and the Arabian Sea.

Question 11: What is the importance of coastal plains?
Answer: Both eastern and western coastal plains are favourable regions for agricultural purposes. They enjoy equable temperature condition throughout the year and as such they are suitable regions for human habitation. These plains have great facilities of good ports and harbours, also contribute greatly to the development of trade and commerce both internal and external in India.

Question 12: What are the salient characteristics of Shivaliks?
Answer: The Shivaliks, the southernmost range of the Himalayas, are also known as the outer Himalayas. This range is made of unconsolidated river deposits. It is more prominent in its western parts than the eastern parts of the Himalayas. This range is prone to landslides and earthquakes. The problem of soil erosion is worst here due to indiscriminate felling of trees.

Question 13: What do you understand by ‘Purvanchal’?
Answer: Purvanchal is a name of the mountains located on the North-eastern part of India. These mountains consist of Patkoi Bam and Naga hills in the North, Garo, Khasi and Jaintia lie in the centre and the Mizo and Lushai hills are in the south.

Question 14: (i) Define Coral Islands and Volcanic Islands.
(ii) Define Lagoons.
Answer: (i) Coral Islands: When Coral polyps die, their skeletons turn into large masses of white calcium carbonate, giving rise to white sands. Lakshadweep is coral island.
Volcanic Islands: Many of the islands of the Andaman and Nicobar are volcanic in nature.
(ii) Lagoons are salt water lakes which are almost separated from the Sea by the formation of sandbars along the coast.

Long Questions

Question 1: Name the rivers, falling in Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal.
Answer: Rivers falling into the Arabian Sea: The Narmada and the Tapti rise near the eastern extremity of the Satpura hills, flow westward and fall into the Gulf of Cambay. These rivers do not form any deltas because the tides wash away all the alluvium that the rivers bring. During flood, these rivers are navigable. Their chief use is that railways have been built in their valleys.
Rivers falling into the Bay of Bengal: The Mahanadi rises in the hills of Madhya Pradesh, while the Godavari, the Krishna and the Cauvery rise in the Western Ghats and flowing eastward fall into the Bay of Bengal. All these rivers are broken by rapids and hence are not useful for navigation. The deltas of these rivers are very fertile and are irrigated by the canals taken from these rivers.

Question 2: (i) State the type of rocks found in the Plateau of Peninsular India?
(ii) Name the three important lakes of Peninsular India?
(iii) How was the Great Indian Plateau formed?
Answer: (i) Old igneous rocks and metamorphic rocks.
(ii) The three important lakes are Chilka Lake in Orissa, Kochru Lake in Andhra Pradesh and Pulicat Lake in north of Chennai.
(iii) The Great Indian Plateau is the broken part of the old land mass called Gondwanaland. It was formed at the time of the splitting and moving the land mass.

Question 3: (i) Give a brief note on Islands of India.
(ii) Where does the Lakshadweep group of islands lie?
Answer: (i) The Indian islands in the Bay of Bengal consist of the Andaman and the Nicobar groups. Some of which are of volcanic origin. There are about 200 Islands in the Andaman groups alone, extending for 350 kilometres and 19 islands in the Nicobar group. Some of the Islands extend from 60 to 100 km., forming a cluster south of the Andaman group.
The Arabian Sea Islands consist of the Lakshadweep group. They are formed on a coral deposit of the Kerala coast. The southernmost of these lies just to the north of the Maldives Islands which constitute an independent territory.
(ii) The Lakshadweep group of Islands lie in the Arabian Sea, about 300 kilometres away from the Kerala coast. They are coral Islands. Kavaratti, the Amindivi and Minicoy are the most important Islands of Lakshadweep group of Islands.

Question 4: What, has been the influence of the Northern Mountain Wall on the Indian Sub-continent?
Answer: (i) Since historic times, the movement of the people across the Himalayas has been limited. This helped in the development of a distinct culture of its own.
(ii) It prevents the cold winds coming from Central Asia to India.
(iii) Monsoon winds which scale the heights along the Himalayas cause rainfall in the Indian sub-continent.
(iv) The glaciers and snow fields of the Himalayas are the source of a large number of perennial rivers.
(v) Heavily forested slopes of the Himalayas provide valuable timber and other useful forest products.
(vi) The Himalayas give shelter to a wide variety of wild animal life. Thus, it maintains the balance in ecosystem.

Give Reasons

Give Geographical Reasons for the following:

Question 1: Give reasons to justify that the Himalayas act as a ‘climatic divide’.
Answer: Himalayas are important for various reasons:
(i) It is the natural barrier.
(ii) Gives origin to great rivers of north India.
(iii) Is a source of timber and herbal products.
(iv) Acts as a barrier for the rain bearing winds of the Indian Ocean inducing them to give rain.
(v) It shuts off the cold winds of Central Asia.

Question 2: The Peninsular Plateau of India was a part of Gondwana Land hundreds of millions years ago.
Answer: The Peninsular Plateau of India was a part of Gondwanaland hundreds of millions years ago. The rocks that make up the Plateau match those of Africa not only in’the age and type, but also in the layer sequence in which they occur.

Question 3: The Peninsular rivers not navigable.
Answer: They are not suitable for navigation as they are shift flowing and non-perennial.

Question 4: The Peninsular Plateau of India is rich in mineral resources.
Answer: It is made up of very ancient, crystalline, hard, igneous and metamorphic rocks. Such rocks are rich in mineral resource.

Question 5: “Less land is available for agriculture on the west coast than on the east coast.” Why?
Answer: Western Ghats are high and steep and all along the western coasts there are numerous streams with small catchment areas. There are also a number of lagoons, backwaters and small lakes.

Question 6: Why does ‘The Narmada and Tapti do not form Deltas’.
Answer: They have a short mountain stage and flow on a rugged and rocky slope.

Question 7: Why is ‘The Delta region of the Indus is largely a waste land.’
Answer: It is usually flooded with brackish water. Brackish water is not suitable for agriculture or of any use.

Differentiate

Question 1: Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats.
Answer:

Western Ghats	Eastern Ghats
1. They are higher. The highest peak in the Western Ghats is Anaimudi with a height of 2,695 m.	They are lower. The highest peak in the Eastern Ghats is Mahendragiri with a height of 1,500 m.
2. They rise steeply from the west coast.	They rise gently from the east coast.
3. The hills are continuous.	The hills are discontinuous.
4. All the rivers of the Deccan Plateau rise in the Western Ghats.	The rivers cut valleys through the Eastern Ghats.

Question 2: Delta and an estuary.
Answer:

Delta	Estuary
1. A delta is a triangular tract of sediments at the mouth of a river.	An estuary is a deep valley formed at the mouth of a river.
2. A delta is formed due to gentle slope of land where river becomes sluggish and mud develops in its channels.	When slope of the land is prominent, water swiftly joins the Sea and there develops a deep valley or an estuary at the mouth of a river.

Question 3: The Eastern Coastal Plain and Western Coastal Plain.
Answer:

Eastern Coastal Plain	Western Coastal Plain
1. It streches from the mouth of the river Ganga to Kanyakumari.	It stretches from Kutch to Kanyakumari.
2. It lies between the Eastern Ghats and the Bay of Bengal.	It lies between the Western Ghats and the Arabian Sea.
3. It is broader.	It is narrower.
4. It is covered by the Deltas of the rivers Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna and the Kaveri.	There are no deltas as the rivers flow fast down towards the Ghats.
5. More land is available for agriculture.	Less land is available for agriculture.
6. The deltas are not suitable for harbours as their mouths are always blocked by silt.	The coast is highly indented and hence dotted with many ports like Mumbai, Marmagoa and Cochin.
7. It is known as the Northern Circars in the north of the delta of Godavari and the Coromandel Coast to the south of the delta.	West Coast is known as the Konkan coast in Maharashtra, the Kanara coast in Karnataka and the Malabar coast in Kerala.

Question 4: Himalayan Rivers and Peninsular Rivers.
Answer:

Himalayan Rivers	Peninsular Rivers
1. These rivers originate from the snowclad mountains of the Himalayas.	The peninsular rivers originate from the Deccan Plateau.
2. The catchment area of the Himalayan rivers is very extensive.	The catchment area of the peninsular rivers is very limited.
3. The Himalayan rivers are perennial.	The peninsular rivers are Seasonal.
4. Suitable for irrigation	Not suitable for irrigation
5. These rivers flow through deep gorges and canyons, in the Himalayan regions.	These rivers flow in deep rift valleys due to resistant terrain.
6. Flowing slowly on a long stretch of flat land, these rivers form meanders. Hence, they are not suited for generation of hydel-power.	These rivers flow with high speed and form waterfalls. They are suitable for generation of hydel-power.

Map Plotting

Question 1: On the outline map of India provided:
(a) Draw, name and number the Standard Meridian.
(b) Label the river Yamuna.
(c) Shade and name the Gulf of Khambhat.
(d) Mark and name the Nathu-La Pass.
(e) Mark and name the Karakoram Range.
(f) Shade and name a sparsely populated State in Northeast India.
(g) Shade a region with laterite soil in Eastern India.
(h) Mark with a dot and name Vishakhapatnam.
(i) Mark and name the winds that bring rain to West Bengal in summer.
(j) Print S on the iron mines in Singhbhum.
(a) Mark and name Chennai
Answer:

Question 2: On the outline map of India provided:
(a) Mark and name Chennai
(b) Label the river Godavari
(c) Shade and label the Chhota Nagpur Plateau
(d) Shade and name the Gulf of Kachchh
(e) Mark and name the Indo-Gangetic Plains
(f) Shade and label an area with Red Soil
(g) Mark and name the winds which bring rain to Mumbai in July and August
(h) Mark and name the Satpura Range
(i) Mark and name the Jharia Coal Field
(j) Shade and label the Northern Circar coastal region
Answer:

Question 3: On the outline map of India provided:
(a) Draw, name and number the Tropic of Cance
(b) Label the river Narmada
(c) Shade and name Lake Chilka
(d) Mark and name the Aravali Mountains
(e) Mark and name the Karakoram Pass
(f) Shade and name a densely populated state in South India
(g) Shade and name a region with black soil
(h) Mark with a dot and name Srinagar
(i) Mark and name the winds which bring rain in winter to the Coromandel Coast
(j) Name and print O on an oilfield in North-east India.
Answer:

Question 4: On the outline map of India provided:
(a) Mark and name Kochi.
(b) Label the river Krishna.
(c) Shade and label the Malwa Plateau.
(d) Mark and label the Konkan Coast.
(e) Shade and label the Gulf of Mannar.
(f) Shade and label an alluvial soil area in Peninsular India.
(g) Mark with arrows the direction of the Arabian Sea branch of South West Monsoon Winds.
(h) Shade and label the Western Ghats.
(i) Mark the Jharia coal field.
(j) Shade and name a densely populated area.
Answer:

Question 5: On the outline map provided
(a) Label the river Chenab.
(b) Label the river Chambal.
(c) Shade and label the Nilgiri Hills.
(d) Mark and label the Eastern Ghats.
(e) Mark and name the port city of Pakistan.
(f) Mark and label Hyderabad.
(g) Shade and label the Sunderbans.
(h) Mark and name the Palk Strait.
(i) Mark and label a region North of the Tropic of Cancer where tea is grown extensively.
(j) Mark and name the winds which bring rain to Mumbai in July and August.
Answer:

Question 6: On the outline map provided:
(a) Shade and label the country Nepal.
(b) Shade and label an area of black soil in India.
(c) Mark and label the Konkan Coast.
(d) Shade and label one region of winter rainfall in India.
(e) Sade and label the Sulaiman Ranges.
(f) Label the River Yamuna.
(g) Label the River Tapti.
(h) Shade and label the Vindhya Ranges.
Answer:

Question 7: Show the following on the outline map provided:
(a) Shade and label the Satpura Range.
(b) Label the River Krishna.
(c) Label the River Ravi.
(d) Shade and label the Khasi Hills.
(e) Mark with arrows the direction of the North-East Monsoon winds over the Bay of Bengal.
(f) Mark and label the Malabar coast.
(g) Shade and label an area of Laterite soil in India.
(h) Shade and label an area of Limestone in India.
Answer:

Question 8: On the outline map of the Indian sub-continent provided to you at the end of this question paper:
(i) Mark with a bold line and label:
(a) The Karakoram Range.
(b) The Eastern Ghats.
(c) The Nilgiris
(ii) Shade and name one region for the : Black soil.
(iii) Mark and label:
(a) The Khyber Pass
(b) The capital city of Assam.
(c) River Godavari.
(iv) (a) Identify, shade and name:
(1) A region of sparse population (less than 50 pp sq.) in North-Eastern India.
(2) A region of ‘Equatorial Forests’.
(b) Mark with one long arrow, the direction of the Summer Monsoon over the Bay of Bengal.
Answer:

Question 9: On the map of India.
(a) Mark and name the Himalaya Mountains.
(b) Mark and name the Passes : Bolan, Gomal, Shipkila (Shipki).
Answer:

Question 10: On the map of India,
(a) Label the Konkan Coast, Malabar Coast and the Coromandel Coast in their proper places.
(b) Shade and name the Rann of Kutch.
(c) Mark and name the Ajanta Range.
(d) Mark and name the Khasi-Jaintia Hills.
(e) Mark and name the Patkoi Hills.
(f) Mark and name the Naga Hills.
(g) Mark and name the Cardamom Hills.
(h) Mark and name the Annamalai Hills. Name its highest peak, Anaimudi.
Answer:

Question 11: On the map of India,
(a) Mark and name the Shiwalik Range.
(b) Mark and name, the Western Ghats with two gaps, Bhor Ghat and Palghat Gap.
(c) Mark and name the peak on the Karakoram Mts, (Mt. Godwin Austien or Mt. K2).
(d) Mark and name, the highest peak on the Himalayas, (Mt Everest).
(e) Mark and name Mt. Kanchenjunga.
(f) Mark and name the Maikal Range.
(g) Shade and name the Indo-Gangetic Plain.
Answer:

Question 12: One the map of India:
(a) Label the rivers: Mahanadi, Kaveri, Chambal, Betwa.
(b) Show by an arrow and name the Gulfs: Khambat, Kutch, Mannar
(c) Name the Lakes: Chilka and Pulicat.
(d) Write in bold letters Bay of Bengal, Arabian Sea, Indian Ocean in their appropriate places.
Answer:

Question 13: On the map of India, mark with a dot and name the cities,
(a) The National Capital (Delhi).
(b) The Capital of Maharashtra Or the Commercial Capital of India (Mumbai).
(c) The Capital of West Bengal (Kolkata).
(d) The Capital of Tamil Nadu (Chennai).
(e) The Capital of Karnataka (Bangalore).
(f) The Capital of Andhra Pradesh (Hyderabad).
(g) The city whose Local Time is taken as the Standard Time of India (Allahabad).
(h) Vishakhapatnam.
(i) Kochi.
(j) Capital of Jammu-Kashmir (Srinagar).
Answer:

Name the Following

Question 1: (i) Which is the biggest country of South Asia with regard to area?
Answer: (ii) Name the largest country with regards to its population.
(i) India, (ii) India.

Question 2: Name the physical divisions into which India can be divided.
Answer: India can be divided into five main physical divisions such as, Mountainous region of the north, Indo-Gangetic plain, Southern Plateau region, Coastal plains and Thar desert.

Question 3: Name the ranges in the western branch of the Himalayas.
Answer: The western branch of the Himalayas contain Sulaiman, Kirthar and Central Makaran ranges.

Question 4: Name the five most important peaks of the Himalayan Range.
Answer: (i) Mount Everest (6,000 metres)
(ii) Godwin Austin (8,611 metres)
(iii) Kanchenjunga (8,598 metres)
(iv) Makalu (8,481 metres)
(v) Dholagiri (8,172 metres).

Question 5: Mention the important passes in the western branch of the Himalayas.
Answer: The important passes in the western branch of the Himalayas are Khyber Pass, Gomal Pass, Bolan Pass and Tochi Pass.

Question 6: ‘India is bounded on three sides by the Sea’. Name them.
Answer: India is bounded by the Arabian Sea in the west, the Bay of Bengal in the east and in the south the Palk Strait separates India from Sri Lanka.

Question 7: Name the main rivers of South-Asia flowing into the Indian Ocean.
Answer: The main rivers flowing into the Indian Ocean are Ganga, Brahmaputra, Indus and Irrawady.

Question 8: Name the two river systems of India.
Answer: The two river systems of India are: The rivers of Northern Plain and the rivers of Peninsular India.

Question 9: By what name is Brahmaputra known in:
(i) Tibet. (ii) Bangladesh.
Answer: (i) Tsang-Po. (ii) Jamuna.

Question 10: Name the important ports of the western coastal strip.
Answer: The most important ports of the western coastal strip are Mumbai and Kochi.

Question 11: Name the two important inlets in the Gujarat region of the west coast strip?
Answer: The two important inlets in the Gujarat region of the west coast strip are: the Gulf of Kachchh and the Gulf of Cambay.

Question 12: Name the important harbours of Coromandel Coast.
Answer: Vishakhapatnam, Paradeep, Chennai and Tuticorin.

For More Resources

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Very Short Questions

Question 1: What is a Flat land?
Answer: Land varying between 20 metres to 40 metres above sea level, is called flat land. This type of area has sufficient slope for natural drainage. This area is generally suitable for farming.

Question 2: What do you understand by the term Grid?
Answer: A Grid is a set of lines used to find the exact location of places on a map. Most maps use the grid formed by latitudes and longitudes to find places.

Question 3: What are ‘National Grid Reference’?
Answer: Grid lines are imaginary lines drawn on a survey map in red colour. The origin of the Grid is a point south-west of the map. The ‘National Grid Reference’ is used for indicating the correct position of a particular feature on the map.

Question 4: Describe the importance of colours on the toposheet?
Answer: The use of various colours are essential to show the various features on the toposheet e.g. the cultivated area is always shown by the yellow colour and the green colour on the toposheet, shows the forested and wooded area.

Question 5: What do you understand by a causeway?
Answer: It is raised metalled road constructed over a stream, river, railway line or low lying marshy area.

Question 6: What is a Fire line?
Answer: Fire line is the path which is cleared around the forest to prevent the spreading of fire.

Question 7: What is a River system
Answer: Rivers generally rise on slopes and are joined by a large number of other small rivers or streams. The entire area drained by a rivet and its tributaries is called a river system.

Question 8: How is the importance of settlement reflected in a map?
Answer: The importance of settlement is reflected by its size and the number of routes which meet there.

Short Questions

Question 1: What is a “Topographical Map”?
Answer: Topographical map gives detailed information about physical features and man-made features of a small area. Physical features are depicted by contours. Cultural or man made features are represented by symbols called conventional signs.

Question 2: What is a scale?
Answer: A scale is very essential for a map because it represents a large area of a country on a small piece of paper. A scale is the ratio between any two points on a map to the corresponding distance between the same two points on the actual ground.

Question 3: What are the three methods of indicating scale on maps?
Answer: Three methods of indicating scale on maps are:
(i) By a statement     (ii) By representative fraction
(iii) By graphical scale or linear scale.

Question 4: Convert the following scales into R.F.
Answer: If a scale is 2 cm., to 1 km., calculate the R.F.

Question 5: Convert the following R.F., into scales.
Answer: If R.F., is 1 : 2,500,000 what is the scale (answer in centimetre and kilometre).

Question 6: What do you mean by ‘Marginal Information’?
Answer: Marginal Information can be obtained from the margin of the sheet. The name of the state to which the area belongs is given at the top of the sheet. The year when the area was surveyed is also mentioned. The number of the sheet is given in the right hand top comer. The direction of the magnetic variation and true north position is also given in the right hand top corner.

Question 7: Why are directions on a map important?
Answer: Since mapping is primarily a science of whereabouts a student of geography should, therefore, be familiar with directions and also the methods of finding out directions on different occasions and in various circumstances.

Question 8: Mention the methods by which directions are located.
Answer: Some methods by which directions can be located are:
(i) Angular Bearing     (ii) By Magnetic Compasa
(iii) The Pole Star        (iv) Sunrise and Sunset.

Question 9: How the compass direction of an object, feature or place given from the given point?
Answer: (i) Direction: The upper part of a map is North, your right hand is East and left hand West. The down part is South. You must be careful from which town or feature to give direction.

From B — A is in N. E. Direction
From A — B is in S. W. Direction
From Y — X is in S. E. Direction
From P — M is in South Direction
From M — P is in North Direction
From X — Y is in N. W. Direction
(ii) Bearing: Direction can be indicated by a system of angular bearing. Bearing is the horizontal angle between the North and line joining the position- of the observer and the object in a clockwise direction. The bearing from the observer to the object is called forward bearing (FB). The bearing from the object to the observer is called backward bearing (BB).

Question 10: Calculate the average gradient along the two stations A and B, if the horizontal distance between them is 1,200 metres and the vertical difference in height is 240 metres.
Answer:

Question 11: What is a Watershed?
Answer: A watershed or water divide is a ridge which separates the tributaries draining towards one side of it from those drawing towards the other. A watershed is never half way up a slope and on the two sides of it, the slope must be opposite and downwards.

Question 12: What are ‘Eastings’ and ‘Northings’?
Answer: The position of a certain feature on the sheets is indicated eastward and southward. The eastward lines of the grid are known as Northings. The northward lines of the grid are known as Eastings. These have been named Eastings and Northings because they indicate distances eastward and northward respectively from the point of origin.

Question 13: The area is measured by grid square method?
Answer: To find the area by the grid square method: The grid square on toposheet measures 2 cm × 2 cm., or 1 km., × 1 km., since 2 cm., is equal to 1 km. Therefore, the area of each square is 1 sq. km. To find particular area on a topographical map:


Note the number of complete grid square within the area and the number of squares lying within the area are not complete.
(i) Square covered half are taken as 1 /2 squares.
(ii) Square covered more than half are taken as 2/3 squares.
(iii) Square covered less than half are taken as 1/3 squares.
Add all the squares thus, the area which has to be found out is calculated.

Question 14: Which colours are used on toposheets? What is their significance?
Answer: Six colours are used in a survey map to show various features. They are as follows:
Black: All names, river banks, broken grounds, dry streams, surveyed trees, heights and their numbering, railway tracks, telephone and telegraph lines.
Yellow: All cultivated areas.
Green: All wooded/forested areas, scattered trees and scrubs.
Brown: Contour lines, their numbering, stony waste, sand features.
Blue: All water bodies, where they contain water.
Red: Grid lines and their numbering, roads, cart tracks, settlements, huts and other buildings. Note: Sometimes we find white patches here and there to show barren lands.

Question 15: What is a Nodal centre?
Answer: A town, which is at the junction of many routes is usually very important and is known as a nodal centre. A nodal centre has generally a dense settlement. Big towns, having dense settlements, reflect the availability of industry and commerce. The availability of minerals can also cause the growth big towns.

Long Questions

Question 1: In what ways is the scale represented on a map?
Answer: Representation of Map Scale: Map scales are represented in the three forms:
(i) A Statement: This is the easiest method of describing a map scale. It is usually written on maps as 1 cm., to 10 km.
(ii) A Ratio: In this method the map scale is expressed as a numeric ratio. The numerator represents the map distance and it is always expressed as a unit. The denominator represents the corresponding ground distance, i.e., one unit on the map is equivalent to a number of units on the ground.
It is also known as ratio-scale or Representative Fraction (R.F.)

(iii) A Graph: In this method, scale is represented by means of a linear (line) graph. It consists of a straight line divided into a number of equal parts (primary and secondary) which are marked to show what these divisions represents on the actual ground.

Question 2: The distance is measured on the topographic map. There are two methods of measuring distance on the toposheets, (i) Direct-method, (ii) Indirect method. Measuring straight distance is a direct method and measuring through a winding course is an indirect method. Explain both the methods.
Answer: (i) To measure the straight distance: To measure the shortest distance between two points on the topographic map along a straight line can be done easily with the help of a pair of divider. Keep the two pointed ends of the divider over line or two points which has to be measured and then carefully keep on scale. Note down the distance on the map in centimetres; then either with the help of the graphical scale which is provided below the toposheet or by using the statement scale distance can be measured in kilometres and metres.
e.g., two places are 5.6 km., apart on the map.
The scale is given 2 cm. = 1 km.
1 cm. = 1/2 km.
5.6 cm. = 1/2 × 5.6
= 2.8 km.
(ii) To measure winding course: To measure a winding course route is complicated. It has to be measured with the help of a strip of paper or thread e.g., to measure a river in a toposheet take a piece of thread make a knot on one end. At the end of thread (close to knot) mark the point with pen at which you will begin to measure (point A). Put the thread along the line touching as far as possible to measure and keep on marking with ink at turns till the last point. Stretch the thread on the scale line, you will get the ground distance in kilometres and metres, writing the unit of measurement is always important e.g., if the distance calculated between two points is 3.3 km. If asked in kilometres the answer would be 3km., 300m. If asked in metres the answer would be 3300 metres.

Question 3: What is Concave Slope and Convex Slope? Explain?
Answer: Concave Slope: The slope is very gentle at the foot and it goes on getting steeper and steeper towards the top. The spacing between successive contours at the lower level is more than at the higher level.

Convex Slope: The slope is very steep at the foot and it goes on becoming gentle towards the top. The contour lines are therefore, unequally spaced but there is a sequence, which is just the opposite of a concave slope diagram. The spacing between successive contours at the lower level is less than at
the higher level.

Question 4: (i) On a topographical map two stations A and B are situated at height of 500 metres and 100 metres respectively. If the horizontal distance between them is 2 km, calculate the gradient.
(ii) On a topographical map, two places A and B are given. Calculate the gradient between them.
Answer: (i) Horizontal distance = 2 km = 2000 m
Vertical difference in height = 500 – 100 = 400 metres

(ii) Horizontal distance: Measure the distance in cms. between the two places with your ruler. Then from the R.F. given on the toposheet calculate the actual distance between the two places in km and then convert into metres.
Vertical interval in height: Find the difference between the values of the two contours in which the places lie or if no contour lines are shown, find the difference in the spot heights of the two places.

Question 5: (i) What is the importance of a Relief Map.
(ii) How can we show occupations by the evidences of names or by inference of relief features?
Answer: (i) The study of relief features requires careful handling. It is a bird’s eye view of the entire . area where hills, plateau, and down lands are shown clearly. The gap between, two hills is marked. Maximum heights may be located and denoted with grid reference.
(ii) The following list shows the occupations by the evidence of names or by inference of relief features.

Evidences or Inferences of Relief	Amplification of Occupations
(i) Forest-green patch	Forestry
(ii) Yellow colour and orchards	Agriculture
(iii) Pastures and meadows or scrub	Cattle grazing or sheep rearing.
(iv) Quarries and mines	Quarrying and mining
(v) Settlement near main roads-Annual fair (written)	Trade
(vi) Mines and factories	Industrial development
(vii) Park, golf courses, rifle ranges	Recreation and cultural development

Question 6: Mention the important features of a river valley.
Answer: The shape of contours enable to identify the different features of a river valley. The important features of a river valley are as follows:
Direction of river: It can be found out by studying the general slope of the land. A river always flows from a higher level to lower level, so in whichever direction the land is sloping the river will flow in that direction all the small streams also join the river in the same direction.

Question 7: Show the different drainage patterns.
Answer: Patterns of drainage are:

Question 8: How to find four-figure and six-figure grid reference?
Answer: Four-figure grid reference: Square grid or four-figure grid reference e.g., the four figure grid reference of A in the figure is 6218. It means that A lies between Eastings 62 to 63 and Northings 18 to 19.

Six-figure grid reference: The six figure grid reference gives the exact location of a feature. For example, the six figure grid reference of A would be 623188. The first three digits gives the Eastings and the next three digits, the Northings. To get the third digit in the Eastings one has to mentally divide the space between 62 to 63 into 10 equal parts.
Thus, the third digits comes to 3. Similarly to get the sixth digit, mentally divide the space between 18 to 19 into 10 equal parts. Thus, the sixth digit comes to 8. The six-figure grid reference of A is 623188.
The grid squares on the toposheets are generally of 1 sq km..
Sometimes there are squares in which are written QC and QD. These denote two lettered number of 100 square km.

Question 9: Name the various types of settlement patterns found on toposheet.
Answer:

Question 10: Give the meanings of the important terms used in toposheets.
Answer: Open Scrub: It is the land where nothing grows. It is a sign of desert area. It indicates occupation as sheep or goat rearing.
Rock Outcrop: It is an exposed part of rock. Cultivation is not possible.
Sheet Rock: It is a mass or slab of rock, a portion of which is exposed above the surface. Shown in white it is also printed so.
Fire Line: A clearing is made in the forest to check the spread of fire.
Causeway: Causeway is a raised road or platform across a minor stream (not to be confused with a bridge). Its presence indicates areas of scanty or seasonal rainfall. Stream having causeway is motorable during dry season.
Broken Ground: It is the weathered part of the land caused due to erosion during heavy rain at the time of flooding. It is found mostly in dry regions around streams and rivers. On toposheet it is shown by tiny curved black line.

Aqueduct: It is a channel through which water flows.

Quarry: It is a pit from which limestone, marble, rock, sand or clay is obtained for building or other purposes.
Lime Kiln: It is a plant for manufacturing lime. Lime is used for making mortar which is used in holding bricks together.
Dry Well: The word ‘dry’ written in brackets near a well denotes a well that is dry in the dry season.
Brackish Well: The word ‘brackish’ written in brackets near a well means that the water in the well has a high salt content and is not fit for drinking. May be used for irrigation.

Question 11: What are Bench Marks?
Answer: Bench Marks: These are heights, which are marked with letters BM, e.g., BM 942 m., on stones embedded on the ground, on prominent buildings or on rocks for permanent reference for survey purposes. They show the accurate heights which are determined after proper surveying. They are represented as:
(i) Triangulated Station: These are heights shown with the help of a triangle with the height mentioned next to it e.g. ∆ 549. The height is not very accurate as the distance on the ground are surveyed by angular measurement and calculated by trigonometry.
(ii) Spot Height: A small dot with the height printed next to it 549 can be seen all over the map. These represent the position on the ground of which the height has been accurately determined. It is a surveyed height and exists only on the map.
(iii) Relative Height: Relative height is the difference between the highest and the lowest elevation in area. A relative height e.g. 25r against a well is blue, indicate its depth in metre. A relative height e.g. 10r against an embankment in black shows the relative height of it in metres. The number is the height in metres.

Question 12: Give a summary of dimension and scale of topographical maps.
Answer:

Topography

Question 1: Study the extract of the Survey of India Map sheet No. 45D/10 and answer the following questions:
(a) (i) Give the four figure grid reference of the settlement of Hamirpura.
(ii) Give the six figure grid reference of the temple in the settlement of Jolpur.
Answer: (i) 0123 (ii) 079187
(b) (i) What does the blue coloured circle in the grid square 0619 represent?
(ii) What is the compass direction of Dantrai from Jolpur?
Answer: (i) Lined perennial well (Through the circle is not given in the map)
(ii) North West
(c) What is the difference between the:
(i) Pattern of settlements in 0725 and the settlement of Idarla?
(ii) Drainage pattern of the streams in 0624 and those in 0824?
Answer: (i) Settlement in 0725—Dispersed.
Settlement in Idarla—Nucleated.
(ii) Drainage of 0624—Dendritic.
Drainage of 0824—Dendritic
(d) (i) What is the value of the contour line in square 0226?
(ii) What is the contour interval in the map?
Answer: (i) 300 metre.
(ii) 20 metre.
(e) Mention any two factors which provide evidence that the region in the map extract is a rural region.
Answer: (i) No large settlement
(ii) No metalled road
(f) (i) How does the feature, indicated by the black curves in 0721, show that rainfall in this region is seasonal?
(ii) Mention one man-made feature in the map which also provides evidence that the rainfall is seasonal.
Answer: (i) The black curved line in 0721 represent the Broken ground. Broken ground is formed due to alternating dry and wet periods along the banks of seasonal river where the soil is soft.
(ii) Large number of lined perennial well.
(g) (i) Name two natural features in 0527.
(ii) Name two manmade features in 0325.
Answer: (i) In 0527 the natural features are seasonal stream trees and Barren land.
(ii) Motorable road in dry season and settlement.
(h) Name two features which make Dantrai a more important settlement than the other settlements in the map extract.
Answer: The settlement Dantrai has a police chouki and a post office. Other settlements do not have them.
(i) Calculate the area of the region which lies to the south of northing 21 in square kilometres.
Answer: Length—19.5 cm → 9.75 km
Breadth—6 cm → 3 km (as per Scale 2 cm to 1 km)
Area 9.75 × 3 = 29.25 sq. km.
(j) What are the following?
(i) The black vertical line between eastings 09 and 10.
(ii) 302 in grid square 0425.
Answer: (i) Longitude
(ii) 302 in grid square 0425 is a spot height.

Question 2: Study the extract of the Survey of India Map sheet No. 45D/10 and answer the following questions:
(a) Name and give the four figure grid reference of a settlement where the people of the region meet at least once a year.
Answer: Malgaon 1520.
(b) What does the conventional symbol at grid reference 145132 mean?
Answer: Spot height 270.
(c) If a man were to walk from Gulabganj (1820) to Harmatiya (1916):
(i) In which direction would he be walking?
(ii) Which are the two different kinds of roads that he would be using?
Answer: (i) South-East (ii) Metalled road and cart track
(d) What do the following numbers in grid square 1718 and 1818 mean?
(i) 280 (ii) 281
Answer: (i) Contour height 280m (ii) Spot height 281m
(e) What are the two differences between the settlement Bamba in 1914 and those in 1813?
Answer: In Bamba settlements are nucleated and temporary and In square 1813 the settlements are dispersed and permanent
(f) Name four facilities that Anadra has which makes it an important settlement.
Answer: Facilities in Anadra PTO (POST AND TELEGRAPH OFFICE), police chauki, DB (Dak bungalow), dispensary.
(g) What is the quickest means of communication for the people of Dabani (1313)?
Answer: Telephone.
(h) What do the following mean:
(i) Brackish in 1915 (ii) Causeway in 1715 (iii) 6r in 1218?
Answer: (i) Brackish: Water has high salt content and is not fit for drinking but may be used for irrigation.
(ii) Causeway: A raised road over a stream.
(iii) 6r relative height of the bank of the river 6m.
(i) Mention two factors which support the following:
(i) The Sipu river is in its middle course
(ii) The rainfall in the region shown in the map extract is seasonal.
Answer: (i) Sipu Nadi is in its middle course because there are meanders and the land is level which shows that the river is slow.
(ii) The rainfall is seasonal is shown by the river which is stippled and the presence of broken ground.
(j) What is the distance in kilometres between the distance stone 20 in 1818 and the causeway in 1715 along the metalled road?
Answer: The distance is 2.8 kms.

Question 3: Study the extract of the Survey of India Map sheet No. 45D/10 and answer the following questions:
(a) Give the six figure grid reference of:
(i) the brick kiln
(ii) the temple near Asav.
Answer: (i) 089132
(ii) 059128
(b) What is the difference in the pattern of drainage in grid square 0916 and in 0712?
Answer: 0916 trellis 0712 radial
(c) Give the four figure grid reference of each of the following:
(i) Stony waste
(ii) Open scrub.
Answer: (i) 1014
(ii) 0816, 0916
(d) Calculate the distance in kilometres along the metalled road between the causeways in grid square 0512 and 0808.
Answer: 5.5 kms
(e) (i) What do the tiny curved black lines in grid square 0315 indicate?
(ii) What is the main cause for this feature?
Answer: (i) broken ground
(ii) caused due to erosion during heavy rain at the time of flooding.
(f) (i) What is the geographical name that you would give to the general pattern of settlements in the region shown on the map?
(ii) Give a reason for your answer.
Answer: (i) nucleated
(ii) people build their houses in areas where there are wells and they can do some farming. This is shown by yellow colour on the map.
(g) What is the general direction of flow of the Sipu Nadi, given in the map extract? Give a reason to support your answer.
Answer: north east to south west. An arrow in the bed of the river indicates this.
(h) Name two probable occupations of the people in the settlement of Revdar in grid square 0313 and 0413.
Answer: Farming and cattle grazing.
(i) What kind of roads connect (i) Marol with Mitan and (ii) Revdar with Karaunti respectively?
Answer: (i) Marol to Mitan cart track.
(ii) Revdar to Karaunti metalled road.
(j) Give two reasons to show that the area depicted in the map experiences seasonal rainfall.
Answer: broken ground and stiples in the river.

Question 4: Study the extract of the Survey of India Map sheet No. 45D/10 and answer the following questions:
(a) Give the four figure grid reference of a settlement with
(i) Spot height 261 (ii) Post office.
Answer: (i) 1107 (ii) 1003
(b) What is the difference in the pattern of drainage in grid square 1606 and in 1007?
Answer: 1606—Radial   1007—Trellis.
(c) Name two natural features seen in grid square 0910.
Answer: Two natural features seen in grid 0910 are:
(i) River (ii) Broken ground.
(d) Calculate the distance in kilometers along the metalled road from the causeway East of Was to the distance stone 10.
Answer: The distance along the metalled road from the causeway East of Was to the distance stone 10 is 7.3 km.
(e) (i) Which is a universally accepted scale?
(ii) State the length of the given map in kilometers.
Answer: (i) Universally accepted scale is Representative Fraction (RF).
(ii) The length of the given map is 10.5 km (scale 2 cm = 1 km).
(f) Give the six figure grid reference of:
(i) A temple South of Dhavli settlement
(ii) 277.
Answer: (i) Six figured grid reference of a temple at Dhavli settlement is —111073.
(ii) Six figured grid reference of  277 is —177057.
(g) Which are the two different kind of roads shown in the map extract?
Answer: (i) Metalled road (ii) Cart track
(h) Mention two main occupations shown on the map extract.
Answer: Two occupations are:
(i) Cultivation, (ii) Forestry.
(i) How are the gentle and steep slopes shown on a map?
Answer: The distance between the contour lines tell gentle or steep slopes: (i) if the lines are close to each other it shows steep slope, (ii) if the contour lines are placed wide apart, it is a gentle slope.
(j) What do the following mean?
(i) 3r in 1103 (ii) Open Scrub in 1502
Answer: (i) 3r in 1103 shows a relative height of the embankment built on a dry tank.
(ii) Open scrub is not cultivable land but is used for sheep or goat rearing.
(k) What is the direction of Dattani and Dhavli from Chandela?
Answer: The direction of Dattani and Dhavli from Chandela:
(i) Dattani is at West of Chandela.
(ii) Dhavli is at North West from Chandela.
(l) Name two man made features in grid square 1210.
Answer: Man made features in grid square 1210 are:
(i) Settlement, (ii) Cart track.
(m) What do the words Motorable in dry season in grid square 1701 refer to?
What do they indicate about the rainfall received by the region shown in the map extract?
Answer: The area 1701 has a (kachha road) cart track, which can not be crossed by cars or motors during rainy season as the ground becomes wet and muddy, but in dry season when the ground is hard and dry motors can cross this area.
The map extract indicates that it is a dry summer season, rains have not come.

Question 5: Study the extract of the Survey of India Map sheet No. 45D/10 and answer the following questions:
(a) What is the compass direction of Sunset Point from the settlement of Anadra?
Answer: The compass direction of Sunset point from the settlement of Anadra is South-East.
(b) What is the pattern of drainage in grid square 2315?
Answer: The drainage pattern in grid square 2315 is Radial.
(c) Mention any two features seen in the map extract which indicate that the region has seasonal rainfall.
Answer: There is a dry ‘Nadi’ flowing from Lakhawa Ka Khera and also some dry tanks in that area which show that the region has seasonal rainfall, as when the rain falls these features ‘Nadi’ and Tanks are full of water.
(d) Calculate the distance, in kilometers along the metalled road from the causeway in grid square 1715 to the distance stone marked 20 in grid square 1818.
Answer: 9.6 cm = 2.8 km.
(e) What advantage does a Representative Fraction have over a verbal scale?
Answer: Verbal Scale is not a suitable method of representing the scale of a map as in this method we make statements such as 1 cm = 1 km or 1 inch = 5 miles, but this type of statement can not be used in different parts of the world as they require to know the units of measurement. But in the Representative Fraction this problem is not there as the unit of measurement in the numerator and denominator is same.

It means 1 unit on the map represents 1,00,000 units on the ground, if the unit of measurement is cm then it will be 1 cm on the map = 1,000 cm on the ground. The unit of measurement can be changed or converted to any unit. Thus it has its international value and called ‘International Scale’.
(f) Give the six figure grid reference of:
(i) Anjini Devi ka Mandir (ii) D 1327.
Answer: (i) Anjini Devi ka Mandir is at 229160 six figured grid.
(ii) Six figured grid of D 1327 is = 217105.
(g) Name the three different kinds of roads in grid square 2411 and the one in grid square 2515.
Answer: The three different kinds of roads in grid square 2411 are:
(i) Metalled Road (ii) Unmetalled Road (iii) Pack track
One kind of road in grid square 2515 is ‘Foot path’.
(h) Mention two occupations of the people living in the northern part of the region in the map extract. Give reasons to support your answer.
Answer: The people living in the northern region of the map extract adopt two main occupation:
(i) Cultivation: On the north western region of the map extract people adopt cultivation as their occupation because the ‘yellow wash’ in this region shows that the land.is cultivable, secondly it has lot of perennial wells which supports the cultivation in this region.
(ii) Forestry: On the north eastern region there are evidences of the forests, as it is coloured in green colour and at two places its written ‘Fairly dense mixed jungle’ and ‘Open mixed jungle’ so the forestry is the main occupation of the people in this region.
(i) What is the difference between the slope in grid square 2115 and the one in 1811. Give a reason for your answer.
Answer: In grid square 2115 the slope is gradual and gentle as the contour lines drawn in this region are far a part from each other where as in 1811 the contour lines are drawn very close to each other which means it has steep slopes.
(j) What is the purpose of:
(i) the fireline in grid square 2316.
(ii) the pipeline in grid square 2209?
Answer: (i) Fire line is a clearing made in the forest to prevent the spread of forest fire as shown in grid square 2316.
(ii) The pipe line in grid square 2209, takes the water from the perennial tank Kodra reservoir shown is southern part at 220090 grid to the main town ‘Abu’.
(k) What do the following represent?
(i) The red square in grid square 2514.
(ii) 4r in grid square 1612,
Answer: (i) The red square in grid square 2514 show the ‘temporary hut’.
(ii) 4r is in grid square 1612 shows the relative height of the embankment on dry or seasonal tank is 4 metres.
(l) Abu is a popular holiday resort. Mention any three features seen in the map extract which attract holiday makers to Abu.
Answer: (i) Mt Abu is situated on a high altitude which provides pleasant climate, some of the peaks are 1409 and 1327 metres.
(ii) There are lot of temples to see as Anjini Devi ka Mandir, Adhor Devi ka Mandir, Dilwara Temple, etc.
(iii) It also provide scenic beauty such as the whole area is covered with forests, steep slopes attract people for mountaineering, sunset point and cave dwelling etc.

Question 6: Study the extract of the Survey of India Map sheet No. 45D/10 and answer the following questions:
(a) Give the six figure grid reference of:
(i) The temple in village Dhavli (ii) ∆ 480
Answer: (i) 111073 (ii) 138045.
(b) What do the following indicate?
(i) 6r in grid square 1903
(ii) The word Brackish in grid square 1403.
Answer: (i) The relative depth of the embankment is 6 m.
(ii) It is salty water.
(c) (i) In grid square 1909, several contours merge at one point. What does this represent?
(ii) State the significance of the red dotted lines in the map extract.
Answer: (i) Cliff (ii) Footpath.
(d) Name the type of rainfall experienced in the region shown in the map extract. Give a reason to support your answer.
Answer: The rainfall is seasonal because most of the streams are dry not having water.
(e) How does the drainage pattern in grid square 1606 differ from the drainage pattern in grid square 1708?
Answer: 1606-radial
1708-Trellis.
(f) (i) What is the pattern of settlement in grid square 1904?
(ii) Name the settlement that has a post office.
Answer: (i) Dispersed (ii) Dattani
(g) Name two landforms represented by the pattern of contours in grid square 1608.
Answer: Pass and Spur.
(h) Calculate the ground distance in kilometres along the metalled road between the causeway in 1502 and the distance stone marked ’14’ in grid square 1203.
Answer: 3.5 km
(i) State two reasons for the absence of human habitation in the north eastern region of the map extract.
Answer: The region is mountaineous and does not have transport facilities.
(j) (i) Mention the difference in height between the highest spot height in the map extract and the contour height in grid square 1006.
(ii) What is the compass direction of Patlawa ka Goliya (590.) from Kacholi Dunga (443.)?
Answer: (i) 1023 – 260 = 763 m (ii) NW.

Question 7: Study the extract of the Survey of India Map sheet No. 45D/10 and answer the following questions:
(a) Give the six figure grid reference of:
(i) Triangulated height 217
(ii) A lined well near Chekhla.
Answer: Six fig. grid reference are:
(i) D 217 – 940792 (ii) lined well – 925814.
(b) (i) Name the left bank tributary of the main river.
(ii) State the direction in which this left bank tributary is flowing.
Answer: (i) Left bank tributary is Balaram nadi.
(ii) It is flowing from SE to NW.
(c) (i) Mention a special feature associated with the streams in grid square 9879.
(ii) Name the types of drainage pattern found in grid square 9382.
Answer: (i) Feature associated with stream is broken ground.
(ii) Dendritic pattern.
(d) Give the four grid reference of each of the following:
(i) Open scrub
(ii) Bantawada.
Answer: Four fig. grid reference
(i) Open scrub – 9573
(ii) Bantawada – 9978
(e) Name two relief features that can be seen in grid square 9782 and 9574.
Answer: Two relief features are:
9782 – Escarpment
9574-Ridge/watershed.
(f) Why do you find limited cultivation in the map extract?
Answer: Give two reasons for your answer.
There is limited cultivation in the map because
(i) Region is Sandy with Sandunes.
(ii) Presence of broken ground which is a waste land.
(g) What is the compass direction of Antroli (9576) and Chekhla (9281) from Sangla?
Answer: Sangla to Antroli – North east.
Sangla to Chekhla – North.
(h) What type of rainfall is experienced in the region shown in the map extract? Justify your answer giving one reason.
Answer: This region experiences low and seasonal rainfall.
Reason-Rivers and Streams are seasonal.
(i) Calculate the distance in kilometres along the cart track between Chitrasani (999747) and Pirojpura (978753).
Answer: Distance in cm = 5.2
Distance in km = 5.2/2 (scale 2 cm. to 1 km.)
Distance in km = 2.6 km.
(j) (i) What is the geographical name that you would give to the general pattern of settlements in the region shown on the map?
(ii) Name one region shown on the map which is unsuitable for the cultivation of crops.
Answer: (i) General pattern of settlement is Nucleated.
(ii) One region unsuitable for the cultivation of crops is broken ground/white coloured region which is a barren land.

Question 8: Study the extract of the Survey of India Map sheet No. 45D/10 and answer the following questions:
(a) Give the six figure grid reference of:
(i) Triangulated height 307.
(ii) The spot height 196.
Answer: (i) 859843 (ii) 860788.
(b) Give the four figure grid reference of each of the following:
(i) The confluence of the Sipu River and the Mahadeviyo Nala.
(ii) Sheet rock.
Answer: (i) 8189 (ii) 8188.
(c) Measure the shortest distance in kilometres between the temple in, grid square 8192, and the perennial lined well at Bhakodar 8188.
Answer: 8 cm = 4 km.
(d) What do the following represent?
(i) Black curved lines in 7788.
(ii) The blue line in the bed of the Sipu River.
Answer: (i) broken ground (ii) perennial stream.
(e) (i) What is the general pattern of settlements in the region shown on the map?
(ii) Give a reason for your answer.
Answer: (i) Nucleated
(ii) There are a number of cart tracks connecting the settlements. People can take to farming.
(f) Which is the chief form of irrigation shown in the map extract? Why is it necessary?
Answer: Perennial wells because the rivers are seasonal.
(g) (i) What is the main form of transport in this region?
(ii) Give the map evidence for your answer.
Answer: (i) Carts.
(ii) single red lines shown on the map.
(h) (i) What is the compass direction of Dantiwada, 8582, fromBhadli Kotha, 7886?
(ii) What is the general direction of flow of the Arado. N?
Answer: (i) south-east (ii) north to south.
(i) (i) Name the type of drainage pattern found in grid square 8584.
(ii) What do you mean by 25r in grid square 8286?
Answer: (i) dendritic
(ii) the relative depth of the perennial well is 25 metres.
(j) (i) What is meant by ‘R.F.’?
(ii) What is the R.F. shown on this map extract?
Answer: (i) Representative fraction: It is the ratio of the horizontal distance between two points on the map to the distance of the corresponding points on the ground.
(ii) 1 : 50000.

Question 9: Answer the following questions on the Survey Sheet Number 45 D/10. Eastings 00 to 10; Northings 17 to 28. (Map G)
(a) Give four-figure grid references of the following:
(i) Dhad Talao (ii) Sheet rock in the North-east
(iii) Rock outcrop in the North (iv) Stony waste in the South-east
(v) Open scrub south of Dhad Talao
Answer: (i) 0722 (ii) 0826 (iii) 0526
(iv) 0918 (v) 0721
(b) Give the six-figure grid references of the following:
(i) Police Chowki in village Dantral
(ii) Temple in Bhamra village
(iii) Well with water in settlement Devka
(iv) Spot height 310 near village Jolpur
(v) Tank near Indaria settlement
Answer: (i) 032238 (ii) 050210 (iii) 019187
(iv) 075188 (v) 085259
(c) Give-the direction of the following:
(i) Village Dantral (0324) from Dhann (0723)
(ii) Village Bhamra (0521) from Dhann (0723)
(iii) Village Jolpur (0718) from Malawa (0519)
(iv) Village Warka (0716) from Bikanwas (0316)
(v) Village Rampura (0617) from Dhann (0723)
Answer: (i) North-west (ii) South-west (iii) East
(iv) East (v) South.
(d) Give the meanings of the following:
(i) 15r in blue in grid square 0224.
(ii) 300 in brown in grid square 0426.
(iii) Black line in the northernmost part of the map.
(iv) Red line in grid square 0819.
(v) Black dots in grid square 0617.
Answer: (i) 15r means relative depth of the perennially lined well is 15 m.
(ii) Contour line of 300 m.
(iii) 24° 45′ is the northern most latitude shown on the map extract.
(iv) Cart track.
(v) It is a natural seasonal tank with embankment.
(e) Give the settlement patterns of the following:
(i) Village Dhann (ii) In grid square 0220
Answer: (i) The general pattern of Dhann village is clustered settlement type.
(ii) The general pattern is scattered or dispersed settlement type.
(f) Measure the distances of the following:
(i) Direct distance in km. from Indaria (0826) to Jolpur (0718)
(ii) Indirect distance in km. along the cart track from Dantral (0324) to Dhann (0723)
Answer: (i) Direct distance between Indaria and Jolpur is 14 cm.
1 cm., on the map equals 500 m. on the ground
14 cm., equals 500 × 14 = 7000 m., or 7 kms.
(ii) Distance along cart track between Dantral and Dhann is 8 cm.
1 cm. on the map equals 500 m.
8 cm. equals 500 × 8 = 4000 m., or 4 kms.
(g) Give the drainage patterns of the following:
(i) 0827 (ii) In grid square 0226
Answer:(i) The drainage pattern is trellis.
(ii) The drainage pattern is dendritic type resembles a tree.
(h) Name three man-made features found in grid square 0419 and draw their symbols.
Answer: Temple, cart track, perennial lined well.
(i) Give two evidences that the region gets seasonal rainfall.
Answer: The presence of broken ground and seasonal rivers.
(j) Explain the nature of the river.
Answer: The main river Sukli Nadi flows in the southern direction is a seasonal river, the water courses are numerous and well defined as they are able to cut channels into the soft soil. They are periodic and rely on the monsoon rain for the water supply.
(k) Explain the relief of the area.
Answer: The area is mainly a plain. The land is higher in the N.E., and slopes gently towards the S. W. There are some rock outcrops rising to a height of about 300 m. A larger part of the plain is sandy and presence of sand dimes indicates desert conditions.
(l) What is the general slope of the land? Give reason for your answer.
Answer: The land slopes from the north-east to the south. The highest spot height of 311 is seen in the N.E., section of the map and the S.W., section of the map shows a spot height of 263. The flow of the rivers from the N.E. to the S.W. is also an indication of the slope of the land.
(m) What is the main occupation of the people? Give reason for your answer.
Answer: The main occupation of the people is agriculture. This is indicated in the map by the yellow wash that covers almost the entire map extract. The presence of a large number of perennial lined wells also supports this inference.
(n) What is the mode of irrigation? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer: Well irrigation is the most widespread mode of irrigation. This is because of the presence of a large number of perennial wells which have a supply of water throughout the year.
(o) What is the mode of transport? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer: The mode of transport is cart track. This is mainly because this is a rural area and most of these cart tracks connect villages in this region.

Question 10: Study the extract of the Survey of India Map Sheet No. 45D/10 and answer the following questions: (Map G)
(a) Give the four-figure grid reference of:
(i) Dadarla (ii) Bhamra
Answer: The four figure grid reference of: (i) Dadarla -1020 (ii) Bhamra – 0420
(b) Which is the largest settlement shown on the map extract? Which one communication facility is exclusively available to this settlement?
Answer: Dantrai is the largest settlement shown on the map extract. Post Office (PO) is the one communication facility which is exclusively available to this settlement.
(c) What does RF stand for? State the RF of the map provided to you.
Answer: RF stands for Representative Fraction.

RF of the map is 1:50,000, i.e., 1 unit on the map is equal to 50000 units on the ground.
(d) What is the total area of the actual ground represented in the map extract? (Show with the help of a simple calculation)
Answer:

(e) What is meant by ‘contour interval’? State the contour interval of the toposheet provided to you.
Answer: Contour interval means the difference between two consecutive contour lines. Contour interval of the given toposheet is 20 metres.
(f) State the highest and the lowest spot heights found on the map extract. Also mention whether they are in metres or in feet.
Answer: Highest spot height is 339 metres and the lowest is 263 metres.
(g) Give the six-figure grid reference of:
(i) Spot height 339 (ii) Permanent hut located near Dhad Talao.
Answer: (i) Spot height 339 – 042276
(ii) Permanent hut located near Dhad Talao – 077225
(h) What, according to you is the main (i) occupation, and (ii) religion of the people of the above area?
Answer: (i) Occupation: The main occupation of the people of this area is agriculture. Yellow colour over the map stands for agricultural land. White patches on the map shows the uncultivated land.
(ii) Religion: The symbol of temple all over the map proves that mostly people belongs to Hindus religion.
(i) Name one ‘natural’ and one ‘man-made’ source of irrigation used in this region.
Answer: Natural source of irrigation is Sukli Nadi. The solid blue circle and hollow blue circle indicates the presence of lined and unlined perennial well as the man-made source of irrigation.
(j) Name the general mode of transportation used in this region. What special feature of this mode is mentioned in the map extract?
Answer: The general mode of transportation is bullock or horse cart. A single red line shown on the map indicates the cart-track. It is a path broader than a pack track, made by bullock or horse cart.

Question 11: Answer the following questions on the Survey Sheet Number 45 D/7.
(a) Give six figure grid references of the following:
(i) ∆ 364 (ii) The temple at Rampura
Answer: (i) The six-figure grid reference of ∆ 364 is 957744.
(ii) The six-figure grid reference of the temple at Rampura is 954806.
(b) Mention any two features seen in the map extract which show that the region has seasonal rainfall.
Answer: The two features which show that the region has seasonal rainfall are:
(i) Dry river with water channel shown in the northern part of the map extract.
(ii) Dry tanks shown in the southern region of the map extract.
The above two features show that they have water in them during the rainy season.
(c) Calculate the distance in kilometres along the cart-track linking Juvol (923826) and Amiwada (944817).
Answer: The distance between Juvol and Amiwada is = 5 cm = 2 1/2 km (or 2 km and 500 metres) = 2 km 500 metres (as per scale of the map).
(d) Which is the chief form of irrigation shown in the map extract? Give an evidence to justify your answer.
Answer: (i) The chief form of irrigation shown in the map extract is perennial lined wells.
(ii) There is a clear evidence of this type of irrigation shown in the north-west corner of the map extracted around the Juvol and Chekhla villages, which are situated on a cultivable land and the perennial lined wells found in that area are the only source of the irrigation.
(e) Give one reason to explain why the streams in grid square 9478 do not join a river. Identify another grid square in the map extract that has similar streams.
Answer: The streams in grid square 9478 do not join the main river as these are “disappearing” streams, they do not have enough water to reach the main river and dry up in the sand. Similar type of streams are found in the grid square 9575 also.
(f) What do the following represent:
(i) Black broken lines in 9575 (ii) Black curved lines in 9879.
Answer: (i) These are disappearing streams, which are generally shown with black broken lines..
(ii) Black curved lines show the broken ground.
(g) Identity two landforms shown by the contours in grid square 9876.
Answer: The landforms shown by the contours in grid square 9876 are:
(i) A conical hill with spot height 381.
(ii) The southern part of this hill is a ‘spur’.
(h) (i) What is the general direction of the Balram Nadi?
(ii) Which bank of the main river does the Balram Nadi join?
Answer: (i) Balram Nadi is flowing from South-East to North-West.
(ii) Balram Nadi joins the main river on its left bank.
(i) What is the main occupation of the people living in the area shown in the map extract? Give one reason to support your answer.
Answer: (i) The main occupation of the people living in the area shown in the map extract is agriculture.
(ii) ‘Most of the area has ‘yellow wash’ which indicates cultivated land.
(j) What is meant by scale of a map? What is the scale of the map extract provided to you?
Answer: (i) The scale is defined as the ratio between the distance of any two points on the map with the actual distance of the same points on the ground.
(ii) The scale of the map extract provided, is 2 cm = 1 km. which means 2 cm on the map is equal to 1 km on the ground.

Question 12: Study the extract of Survey of India Map Sheet No. 45D/7 and answer the following questions.
(a) What do you understand by Eastings and Northings?
Answer: They are grid lines marked in red on the topo maps. The lines running vertically are called Eastings and those running horizontally are called Northings.
(b) Give the meaning of each of the following conventional symbols located in the grid square 1622.
(i) 20r (ii) PO
Answer: (i) 20r means that the relative depth of water level in the well is 20m.
(ii) PO is the conventional sign for the Post Office.
(c) What is the general direction of flow of the Sipu Nadi, given in the map extract? Give one reason to support your answer.
Answer: East to south-west. It is evident from the decreasing value of the spot heights.
(d) Give the six-figure grid reference of:
(i) The point where the canal leaves the earth work, dam market 10r.
(ii) The spot height 1425 in the South-east corner of the map extract.
Answer: (i) 223214 (ii) 236142
(e) Andhra is a better developed settlement than Gulabganj. Give two reasons.
Answer: (i) Andhra is connected by a telephone line and Ghlabganj is not.
(ii) Andhra has a Post and Telegraph Office and Dak Bungalow.
(f) Account for the necessity of ‘fireline’ in the jungle area of the given map extract.
Answer: Fireline is clearing of 5 m in the forest to control the spread of forest fire. In the hot dry season these forests often suffer from severe problem of forest fire.
(g) (i) What main purpose is solved by most of the wells in grid square 1621?
(ii) Why is the water in some of these wells not suitable for drinking?
Answer: (i) The Brackish well in 1621 has saline water which is used for lime stock and washing purpose.
(ii) Due to large amount of dissolved salts the water is unfit for drinking.
(h) Name two probable occupations of the people in the settlement of Tokra in squares 2220 and 2221.
Answer: Cultivation and management of the reservoir.
(i) What is the total length of canal in metres?
Answer: 12.5 cm/2 = 6.25 km.
(j) Give the angular distance of the temple in Pithapura in 2022 from Bhumi Margi hill top.
Answer: N14⁰ W.

Question 13: Study the extract of the Survey of India Map Sheet No. 45 D/7 (A – B) and answer the following questions:
(a) (i) What does the abbreviation R. F., stand for?
(ii) What does 20r (grid sq. 8295) mean.
(iii) What does V near Shergadh village in the south-east corner mean.
Answer: (i) It stands for Representative Fraction.
(ii) Relative height of the sand hill from its ground level to its top being 20 metres.
(iii) A deserted fort.
(b) (i) What type of relief do you observe in north-west of the map (West Panswala)?
(ii) Why is the land shown in white shade not put to cultivation?
Answer: (i) There is flat sand covering the ground and also sand dunes formed as a result of wind action an obstacle on free surface.
(ii) It is because this land is either rocky or is badly eroded along the edges.
(c) (i) What seems to be the importance of village Jegol in grid sq. 8590 in the south?
(ii) Find out the length of the joint stream of rivers Sipu, Varka and Hanva.
Answer: (i) It is important as a crossing point because as many as 5 (five) cart tracks meet here from different directions.
(ii) It is about 1.5 km. Thread is used to measure the length according to the scale.
(d) What type of relief feature is found close to Varkanala and Hanvanala near Gangudra in the centre of the area?
Answer: It is the broken ground appearing as gullies. River erosion falling through softer sand deposits in rainy season is the cause.
(e) Give four figure grid reference of a well marked meander of Varkanala and Sipu river.
Answer: 8593 and 8697.
(f) (i) What does the black line marked 24°30′ in the north denote.
(ii) What is the meaning of 72°20′ north-south black line in the western part of the map?
(iii) What do the figures 280, 300, 500 etc., written in brown on east margin of the map indicate.
Answer: (i) The black east-west line in the north denotes the latitude in degrees and minutes.
(ii) The north-south black line points out the degrees and minutes of the longitude.
(iii) These are the endings of contour lines in metres pointing the higher ground farthereast.
(g) (i) Point out two man-made features on the map.
(ii) What is the direction of the river Sipu 83 C 86 grid lines?
(iii) What is the grid reference (four figures) of the lime kiln located near Rampura village in the north-west?
Answer: (i) Village huts and wells. (ii) NNE to SSW. (iii) 8397.

Question 14: Study the extract of the Survey of India Map Sheet No. 45 D/7 (A and B) and answer the following questions.
(a) Give the six figure grid reference of
(i) ∆ 277 (→) (ii) Lime kiln near Rampura (→) (iii) Stony waste (→).
Answer: (i) ∆ 277 → 896988 (ii) Lime kiln near Rampura → 834973
(iii) Stony waste 857962
(b) (i) What does the blue line in the Sipu river indicate?
(ii) In which village do you see the nodal function 7 What do you mean by this?
Answer: (i) The blue line in the Sipu river indicates a perennial water channel.
(ii) Jegol. When a village is connected to many other villages by road then it is the nodal function of the road.
(c) (i) What does the black lines along the streams in the grid square 9199 indicate?
(ii) How are these features formed?
(iii) What type of region is shown in grid square 8696?
Answer: (i) These black lines indicate broken ground.
(ii) These are formed due to erosion of soil during floods.
(iii) Sandy area with sand dunes.
(d) Give the six-figure grid reference of the following:
(i) Lime Kiln near village Panswala.
(ii) Well with water near village Gonodara.
(iii) Dry tank near village Mohudi Moti.
Answer: (i) 834974 (ii) 829921 (iii) 796919
(e) (i) What is the direction of the flow of Sipu river?
(ii) State why does it flow in this particular direction?
Answer: (i) The direction of the Sipu river is from North-east to South-west.
(ii) It is flowing in this direction because the height is decreasing from North to South.
(f) Mention three natural features in the grid square 8998.
Answer: (i) Streams (ii) Jungle (iii) Dissected hill
(g) (i) What is the meaning of the term open scrub printed on the map.
(ii) How do you get an idea of the general nature of the slope in this area?
Answer: (i) Rough grass covering the ground surface not very close.
(ii) The flow of rivers point the North-East and South-West direction of the slope in a large part of the area.

Question 15: Study the extract of the Survey of India Map Sheet No. 45D/7 and answer the following questions:
(a) Give the six-figure grid reference of:
(i) ∆ 225 (ii) A lined well near Ganguwada.
Answer: (i) 876950 (ii) 915967
(b) Name the most important perennial source of irrigation shown on the map extract.
Answer: Lined well.
(c) (i) What does 3r in the grid square 8895 mean?
(ii) What do you mean by 20r in the grid square 8994?
Answer: (i) Relative height of the bank of stream (ii) Relative depth of the well is 20 m.
(d) Give two points in evidence to show that the region in the map extract has seasonal rainfall.
Answer: There are a large number of the dry streams, open scrubs, broken ground, dry tank etc.
(e) (i) What does the blue line in the Varkanala indicate?
(ii) What is the general direction of the Varkanala?
Answer: (i) River with a small stream of water. (ii) South-east to west.
(f) (i) What is the meaning of 1 : 50000 printed below the map extract?
(ii) Calculate the distance in km., along the cart track between Jegal in the grid square 8590 and Odhava in the grid square 8892.
Answer: (i) 1 unit on the map is equal to 50000 units of the ground.
(ii) Distance is 3.6 km.
(g) Which part of the map is more developed in agricultural occupation? Give a reason for your answer.
Answer: South-western part. Because less scrubs and large number of wells.
(h) Give the four-figure grid reference of confluence of Sipu river and Varkanala.
Answer: 8392.
(i) Name two types of vegetation in the given map extract.
Answer: Open mixed jungle, open scrub and open jungle.
(j) What is the pattern of drainage in the grid square 8599?
Answer: Dendritic.
(k) (i) How many types of tracks are shown in the map extract? Name them.
(ii) What is the common mode of transportation in the southern part of this map?
Answer: (i) Cart track and pach track. (ii) Carts.
(l) What is the general pattern of settlement? Why?
Answer: Clustered or nucleated settlement, because of large cultivated land and availability of water.

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ICSE Class 10 Hindi Solutions साहित्य सागर – विनय के पद [कविता]

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प्रश्न क-i:
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
ऐसो कौ उदार जग माहीं।
बिनु सेवा जो द्रवे दीन पर, राम सरस कोउ नाहीं॥
जो गति जोग बिराग जतन करि नहिं पावत मुनि ज्ञानी।
सो गति देत गीध सबरी कहँ प्रभु न बहुत जिय जानी॥
जो संपति दस सीस अरप करि रावन सिव पहँ लीन्हीं।
सो संपदा विभीषण कहँ अति सकुच सहित हरि दीन्ही॥
तुलसीदास सब भांति सकल सुख जो चाहसि मन मेरो।
तौ भजु राम, काम सब पूरन करहि कृपानिधि तेरो॥
तुलसीदासजी किसके भजन के लिए कह रहे हैं?

उत्तर:
तुलसीदासजी भगवान श्री राम के भजन के लिए कह रहे हैं।

प्रश्न क-ii:
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
ऐसो कौ उदार जग माहीं।
बिनु सेवा जो द्रवे दीन पर, राम सरस कोउ नाहीं॥
जो गति जोग बिराग जतन करि नहिं पावत मुनि ज्ञानी।
सो गति देत गीध सबरी कहँ प्रभु न बहुत जिय जानी॥
जो संपति दस सीस अरप करि रावन सिव पहँ लीन्हीं।
सो संपदा विभीषण कहँ अति सकुच सहित हरि दीन्ही॥
तुलसीदास सब भांति सकल सुख जो चाहसि मन मेरो।
तौ भजु राम, काम सब पूरन करहि कृपानिधि तेरो॥
श्री राम ने परम गति किस-किस को प्रदान की?

उत्तर :
श्री राम ने जटायु जैसे सामान्य गीध पक्षी और शबरी जैसी सामान्य स्त्री को परम गति प्रदान की।

प्रश्न क-iii:
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
ऐसो कौ उदार जग माहीं।
बिनु सेवा जो द्रवे दीन पर, राम सरस कोउ नाहीं॥
जो गति जोग बिराग जतन करि नहिं पावत मुनि ज्ञानी।
सो गति देत गीध सबरी कहँ प्रभु न बहुत जिय जानी॥
जो संपति दस सीस अरप करि रावन सिव पहँ लीन्हीं।
सो संपदा विभीषण कहँ अति सकुच सहित हरि दीन्ही॥
तुलसीदास सब भांति सकल सुख जो चाहसि मन मेरो।
तौ भजु राम, काम सब पूरन करहि कृपानिधि तेरो॥
रावण को कैसे वैभव प्राप्त हुआ?

उत्तर:
रावण ने भगवान शंकर को अपने दस सिर अर्पण करके वैभव की प्राप्ति की।

प्रश्न क-iv:
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
ऐसो कौ उदार जग माहीं।
बिनु सेवा जो द्रवे दीन पर, राम सरस कोउ नाहीं॥
जो गति जोग बिराग जतन करि नहिं पावत मुनि ज्ञानी।
सो गति देत गीध सबरी कहँ प्रभु न बहुत जिय जानी॥
जो संपति दस सीस अरप करि रावन सिव पहँ लीन्हीं।
सो संपदा विभीषण कहँ अति सकुच सहित हरि दीन्ही॥
तुलसीदास सब भांति सकल सुख जो चाहसि मन मेरो।
तौ भजु राम, काम सब पूरन करहि कृपानिधि तेरो॥
राम ने कौन-सी संपत्ति विभीषण को दे दी?

उत्तर:
रावण ने जो संपत्ति अपने दस सिर अर्पण करके प्राप्त की थी उसे श्री राम ने अत्यंत संकोच के साथ विभीषण को दे दी।

प्रश्न ख-i:
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
जाके प्रिय न राम वैदेही
तजिए ताहि कोटि बैरी सम, जद्यपि परम सनेही।
सो छोड़िये
तज्यो पिता प्रहलाद, विभीषन बंधु, भरत महतारी।
बलिगुरु तज्यो कंत ब्रजबनितन्हि, भये मुद मंगलकारी।
नाते नेह राम के मनियत सुहृद सुसेव्य जहां लौं।
अंजन कहां आंखि जेहि फूटै, बहुतक कहौं कहां लौं।
तुलसी सो सब भांति परमहित पूज्य प्रान ते प्यारो।
जासों हाय सनेह राम-पद, एतोमतो हमारो।।
कवि के अनुसार हमें किसका त्याग करना चाहिए?

उत्तर:
कवि के अनुसार जिन लोगों के प्रिय राम-जानकी जी नहीं है उनका त्याग करना चाहिए।

प्रश्न ख-ii:
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
जाके प्रिय न राम वैदेही
तजिए ताहि कोटि बैरी सम, जद्यपि परम सनेही।
सो छोड़िये तज्यो पिता प्रहलाद, विभीषन बंधु, भरत महतारी।
बलिगुरु तज्यो कंत ब्रजबनितन्हि, भये मुद मंगलकारी।
नाते नेह राम के मनियत सुहृद सुसेव्य जहां लौं।
अंजन कहां आंखि जेहि फूटै, बहुतक कहौं कहां लौं।
तुलसी सो सब भांति परमहित पूज्य प्रान ते प्यारो।
जासों हाय सनेह राम-पद, एतोमतो हमारो।।
उदाहरण देकर लिखिए किन लोगों ने भगवान के प्यार में अपनों को त्यागा।

उत्तर:
प्रह्लाद ने अपने पिता हिरण्यकशिपु को, विभीषण ने अपने भाई रावण को, बलि ने अपने गुरु शुक्राचार्य को और ब्रज की गोपियों ने अपने-अपने पतियों को भगवान प्राप्ति को बाधक समझकर त्याग दिया।

प्रश्न ख-iii:
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
जाके प्रिय न राम वैदेही
तजिए ताहि कोटि बैरी सम, जद्यपि परम सनेही।
सो छोड़िये तज्यो पिता प्रहलाद, विभीषन बंधु, भरत महतारी।
बलिगुरु तज्यो कंत ब्रजबनितन्हि, भये मुद मंगलकारी।
नाते नेह राम के मनियत सुहृद सुसेव्य जहां लौं।
अंजन कहां आंखि जेहि फूटै, बहुतक कहौं कहां लौं।
तुलसी सो सब भांति परमहित पूज्य प्रान ते प्यारो।
जासों हाय सनेह राम-पद, एतोमतो हमारो।।
जिस अंजन को लगाने से आँखें फूट जाएँ क्या वो काम का होता है?

उत्तर:
नहीं जिस अंजन को लगाने से आँखें फूट जाएँ वो किसी काम का नहीं होता है।

प्रश्न ख-iv:
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
जाके प्रिय न राम वैदेही
तजिए ताहि कोटि बैरी सम, जद्यपि परम सनेही।
सो छोड़िये तज्यो पिता प्रहलाद, विभीषन बंधु, भरत महतारी।
बलिगुरु तज्यो कंत ब्रजबनितन्हि, भये मुद मंगलकारी।
नाते नेह राम के मनियत सुहृद सुसेव्य जहां लौं।
अंजन कहां आंखि जेहि फूटै, बहुतक कहौं कहां लौं।
तुलसी सो सब भांति परमहित पूज्य प्रान ते प्यारो।
जासों हाय सनेह राम-पद, एतोमतो हमारो।।
उपर्युक्त पद द्वारा तुलसीदास क्या संदेश दे रहे हैं?

उत्तर:
उपर्युक्त पद द्वारा तुलसीदास श्री राम की भक्ति का संदेश दे रहे है। तथा भगवान प्राप्ति के लिए त्याग करने को भी प्रेरित कर रहे हैं।

ICSE Class 10 Hindi Solutions साहित्य सागर – महायज्ञ का पुरस्कार

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

प्रश्न क-i:
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
‘पर सब दिन न जात एक समान अकस्मात् दिन फिरे और सेठ जी को गरीबी का मुँह देखना पड़ा।’
प्रस्तुत पाठ के आधार पर सेठ जी की विशेषताएँ बताइए।

उत्तर:
प्रस्तुत पाठ लेखक यशपाल द्वारा रचित है। प्रस्तुत पाठ में सेठ जी कुछ ख़ास विशेषताओं का उल्लेख किया है। सेठजी बड़े विन्रम और उदार थे। सेठ जी इतने बड़े धर्मपरायण थे कि कोई साधू-संत उनके द्वार से निराश न लौटता, भरपेट भोजन पाता। उनके भंडार का द्वार हमेशा सबके लिए खुला रहता। उन्होंने बहुत से यज्ञ किए और दान में न जाने कितना धन दिन दुखियों में बाँट दिया था। यहाँ तक की गरीब हो जाने के बावजूद भी उन्होंने अपनी उदारता को नहीं छोड़ा और पुन:धन प्राप्ति के बाद भी ईश्वर से सद्बुद्धि ही माँगी।

प्रश्न क-ii:
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
‘पर सब दिन न जात एक समान अकस्मात् दिन फिरे और सेठ जी को गरीबी का मुँह देखना पड़ा।’
सेठजी के दुःख का कारण क्या था?

उत्तर :
सेठ जी के उदार होने के कारण कोई भी उनके द्वार से खाली नहीं जाता था परंतु अकस्मात् सेठ जी के दिन फिरे और सेठ जी को गरीबी का मुँह देखना पड़ा। ऐसे समय में संगी-साथियों ने भी मुँह फेर दिया और यही सेठ जी के दुःख का कारण था।

प्रश्न क-iii:
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
‘पर सब दिन न जात एक समान अकस्मात् दिन फिरे और सेठ जी को गरीबी का मुँह देखना पड़ा।’
सेठानी ने सेठ को क्या सलाह और क्यों दी?

उत्तर:
उन दिनों एक प्रथा प्रचलित थी। यज्ञों के फल का क्रय-विक्रय हुआ करता था। छोटा-बड़ा जैसा यज्ञ होता, उनके अनुसार मूल्य मिल जाता। जब बहुत तंगी हुई तो एक दिन सेठानी ने सेठ को सलाह दी कि क्यों न वे अपना एक यज्ञ बेच डाले। इस प्रकार बहुत अधिक गरीबी आ जाने के कारण सेठानी ने सेठ को अपना यज्ञ बेचने की सलाह दी।

प्रश्न क-iv:
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
‘पर सब दिन न जात एक समान अकस्मात् दिन फिरे और सेठ जी को गरीबी का मुँह देखना पड़ा।’
धन्ना सेठ की पत्नी के संबंध में क्या अफ़वाह थी?

उत्तर:
धन्ना सेठ की पत्नी के संबंध में यह अफ़वाह थी कि उसे कोई दैवीय शक्ति प्राप्त है जिससे वह तीनों लोकों की बात जान सकती है।

प्रश्न ख-i:
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
यह देख सेठ का दिल भर आया – ”बेचारे को कई दिन से खाना नहीं मिला दीखता, तभी तो यह हालत हो गई है।”
सेठ जी ने अपना यज्ञ बेचने का निर्णय क्यों लिया?

उत्तर:
सेठ जी को जब पैसों को बहुत तंगी होने लगी और सेठानी ने उन्हें यज्ञ बेचने का सुझाव दिया। सेठानी की यज्ञ बेचने की बात पर पहले सेठ बड़े दुखी हुए परंतु बाद में तंगी का विचार त्यागकर सेठ अपना एक यज्ञ बेचने के लिए तैयार हो गए।

प्रश्न ख-ii:
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
यह देख सेठ का दिल भर आया – ”बेचारे को कई दिन से खाना नहीं मिला दीखता, तभी तो यह हालत हो गई है।”
यज्ञ बेचने के लिए सेठ जी कहाँ गए?

उत्तर:
कुंदनपुर नाम का एक नगर था, जिसमें एक बहुत सेठ रहते थे। लोग उन्हें धन्ना सेठ कहते थे। धन की उनके पास कोई कमी न थी। विपद्ग्रस्त सेठ ने उन्हीं के हाथ एक यज्ञ बेचने का का विचार किया। इस तरह सेठ जी ने कुंदनपुर के धन्ना सेठ के पास अपना यज्ञ बेचने गए।

प्रश्न ख-iii:
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए :
यह देख सेठ का दिल भर आया – ”बेचारे को कई दिन से खाना नहीं मिला दीखता, तभी तो यह हालत हो गई है।”
सेठ जी ने कहाँ विश्राम और भोजन करने की सोची?

उत्तर:
सेठ जी बड़े तड़के उठे और कुंदनपुर की ओर चल दिए। गर्मी के दिन थे सेठ जी सोचा कि सूरज निकलने से पूर्व जितना ज्यादा रास्ता पार कर लेगें उतना ही अच्छा होगा परंतु आधा रास्ता पार करते ही थकान ने उन्हें आ घेरा। सामने वृक्षों का कुंज और कुआँ देखा तो सेठ जी ने थोड़ा देर रुककर विश्राम और भोजन करने का निश्चय किया।

प्रश्न ख-iv:
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
यह देख सेठ का दिल भर आया – ”बेचारे को कई दिन से खाना नहीं मिला दीखता, तभी तो यह हालत हो गई है।”
सेठ जी ने अपना सारा भोजन कुत्ते को क्यों खिला दिया?

उत्तर:
सामने वृक्षों का कुंज और कुआँ देखा तो सेठ जी ने थोड़ा देर रुककर विश्राम और भोजन करने का निश्चय किया। पोटली से लोटा-डोर निकालकर पानी खींचा और हाथ-पाँव धोए। उसके बाद एक लोटा पानी ले पेड़ के नीचे आ बैठे और खाने के लिए रोटी निकालकर तोड़ने ही वाले थे कि क्या देखते हैं एक कुत्ता हाथ भर की दूरी पर पड़ा छटपटा रहा था। भूख के कारण वह इतना दुर्बल हो गया कि अपनी गर्दन भी नहीं उठा पा रहा था। यह देख सेठ का दिल भर आया और उन्होंने अपना सारा भोजन धीरे-धीरे कुत्ते को खिला दिया।

प्रश्न ग-i:
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
”सेठ जी ! यज्ञ खरीदने के लिए हम तैयार हैं, पर आपको अपना महायज्ञ बेचना होगा।”
उपर्युक्त अवतरण के वक्ता का परिचय दें।

उत्तर:
उपर्युक्त अवतरण की वक्ता कुंदनपुर के धन्ना सेठ की पत्नी हैं। धन्ना सेठ की पत्नी बड़ी विदुषी स्त्री थीं। उनके बारे में यह प्रचलित था कि उन्हें कोई दैवीय शक्ति प्राप्त है जिसके कारण वे तीनों लोकों की बात जान लेती हैं। इसी शक्ति के बल पर वह जान लेती हैं यज्ञ बेचने वाले सेठ अत्यंत उदार, कर्तव्यपरायण और धर्मनिष्ठ हैं।

प्रश्न ग-ii:
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
”सेठ जी ! यज्ञ खरीदने के लिए हम तैयार हैं, पर आपको अपना महायज्ञ बेचना होगा।”
श्रोता को वक्ता की किस बात पर आश्चर्य हुआ?

उत्तर:
श्रोता धन्ना सेठ की पत्नी ने जब वक्ता सेठ जी से अपना महायज्ञ बेचने की बात की तो उन्हें आश्चर्य हुआ क्योंकि महायज्ञ की बात तो छोड़िए सेठ ने बरसों से कोई सामान्य यज्ञ भी नहीं किया था।

प्रश्न ग-iii:
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
”सेठ जी ! यज्ञ खरीदने के लिए हम तैयार हैं, पर आपको अपना महायज्ञ बेचना होगा।”
सेठ जी धन्ना सेठ की पत्नी की बात सुनकर क्या सोचने लगे?

उत्तर:
धन्ना सेठ की पत्नी ने जब महायज्ञ की बात की तो सेठजी सोचने लगे कि इन्हें यज्ञ तो खरीदना नहीं है नाहक ही मेरी हँसी उड़ा रही हैं क्योंकि जिस महायज्ञ की वे बात कर रही है वो तो उन्होंने किया ही नहीं है।

प्रश्न ग-iv:
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
”सेठ जी ! यज्ञ खरीदने के लिए हम तैयार हैं, पर आपको अपना महायज्ञ बेचना होगा।”
धन्ना सेठ की पत्नी ने सेठ के किस काम को महायज्ञ बताया और क्यों?

उत्तर:
धन्ना सेठ ही पत्नी के अनुसार स्वयं भूखे रहकर चार रोटियाँ किसी भूखे कुत्ते को खिलाना ही महायज्ञ है। इस तरह यज्ञ कमाने की इच्छा से धन-दौलत लुटाकर किया गया यज्ञ, सच्चा यज्ञ नहीं है, निस्वार्थ भाव से किया गया कर्म ही सच्चा यज्ञ महायज्ञ है।

प्रश्न घ-i:
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
विपत्ति में भी मेरे पति ने धर्म नहीं छोड़ा। धन्य हैं मेरे पति! सेठ के चरणों की रज मस्तक पर लगाते हुए बोली, ”धीरज रखें, भगवान सब भला करेंगे।”
उपर्युक्त अवतरण की वक्ता का परिचय दें।

उत्तर:
उपर्युक्त अवतरण की वक्ता सेठ की पत्नी है। सेठ की पत्नी भी बुद्धिमत्ती स्त्री है। मुसीबत के समय अपना धैर्य न खोते हुए उसने अपने पति को अपना एक यज्ञ बेचने की सलाह दी। विपत्ति की स्थिति में वह अपने पति को ईश्वर पर विश्वास और धीरज धारण करने को कहती है। इस प्रकार सेठ की पत्नी भी कर्तव्य परायण, धीरवती, ईश्वर पर निष्ठा रखने वाली और संतोषी स्त्री थी।

प्रश्न घ-ii:
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
विपत्ति में भी मेरे पति ने धर्म नहीं छोड़ा। धन्य हैं मेरे पति! सेठ के चरणों की रज मस्तक पर लगाते हुए बोली, ”धीरज रखें, भगवान सब भला करेंगे।”
वक्ता ने अपने पति की रज मस्तक पर क्यों लगाई?

उत्तर:
सेठानी के पति जब कुंदनपुर गाँव से धन्ना सेठ के यहाँ से खाली हाथ घर लौटे तो पहले तो वे काँप उठी पर जब उसे सारी घटना की जानकारी मिली तो उनकी वेदना जाती रही। उनका ह्रदय यह देखकर उल्लसित हो गया कि विपत्ति में भी उनके पति ने अपना धर्म नहीं छोड़ा और इसी बात के लिए सेठानी ने अपने पति की रज मस्तक से लगाई।

प्रश्न घ-iii:
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
विपत्ति में भी मेरे पति ने धर्म नहीं छोड़ा। धन्य हैं मेरे पति! सेठ के चरणों की रज मस्तक पर लगाते हुए बोली, ”धीरज रखें,भगवान सब भला करेंगे।”
सेठानी भौचक्की-सी क्यों खड़ी हो गई?

उत्तर:
रात के समय सेठानी उठकर दालान में दिया जलाने आईं तो रास्ते में किसी चीज से टकराकर गिरते-गिरते बची। सँभलकर आले तक पहुँची और दिया जलाकर नीचे की ओर निगाह डाली तो देखा कि दहलीज के सहारे पत्थर ऊँचा हो गया है जिसके बीचों बीच लोहें का कुंदा लगा है। शाम तक तो वहाँ वह पत्थर बिल्कुल भी उठा नहीं था अब यह अकस्मात कैसे उठ गया? यही सब देखकर सेठानी भौचक्की-सी खड़ी हो गई।

प्रश्न घ-iv:
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
विपत्ति में भी मेरे पति ने धर्म नहीं छोड़ा। धन्य हैं मेरे पति! सेठ के चरणों की रज मस्तक पर लगाते हुए बोली, ”धीरज रखें,भगवान सब भला करेंगे।”
सेठ को धन की प्राप्ति किस प्रकार हुई?

उत्तर:
सेठानी ने जब सेठ को बुलाकर दालान में लगे लोहे कुंदे के बारे में बताया तो सेठ जी भी आश्चर्य में पड़ गए। सेठ ने कुंदे को पकड़कर खींचा तो पत्थर उठ गया और अंदर जाने के लिए सीढ़ियाँ निकल आईं। सेठ और सेठानी सीढ़ियाँ उतरने लगे कुछ सीढ़ियाँ उतरते ही इतना प्रकाश सामने आया कि उनकी आँखें चौंधियाने लगी। सेठ ने देखा वह एक विशाल तहखाना है और जवाहरातों से जगमगा रहा है। इस तरह सेठ को धन की प्राप्ति हुई।

ICSE Class 10 English Solutions India’s Heroes

Passage 1

Question 1
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

All forty hands went up in unison. Mrs Baruah beamed. Clearly, this assignment had not been a drudge.
“Wonderful!” Mrs Baruah said. “Remember that it does not have to be a profession. You can also speak of someone whom you’d want to be like -maybe a role model or a mentor. You may even talk of a particular trait or quality that you admire in a person and wish to emulate. ”
A crackle of sheets was heard as students hurriedly arranged the pages on which they had written their assignments. They were eager to speak in front of their classmates.

What was Mrs Baruah’s class eager about?

Answer:
Mrs Baruah’s class was eager about speaking in front of their classmates about what they would like to be when they grow up.

Question 2
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

All forty hands went up in unison. Mrs Baruah beamed. Clearly, this assignment had not been a drudge.
“Wonderful!” Mrs Baruah said. “Remember that it does not have to be a profession. You can also speak of someone whom you’d want to be like -maybe a role model or a mentor. You may even talk of a particular trait or quality that you admire in a person and wish to emulate. ”
A crackle of sheets was heard as students hurriedly arranged the pages on which they had written their assignments. They were eager to speak in front of their classmates.

Why were all the forty students eager to talk in front of the class?

Answer:
Each student in Mrs Baruah’s class had prepared a speech on what they would like to become when they grew up. The children had put in all their feelings and efforts in their speeches and were excited about presenting their views before their class.

Question 3
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

All forty hands went up in unison. Mrs Baruah beamed. Clearly, this assignment had not been a drudge.
“Wonderful!” Mrs Baruah said. “Remember that it does not have to be a profession. You can also speak of someone whom you’d want to be like -maybe a role model or a mentor. You may even talk of a particular trait or quality that you admire in a person and wish to emulate. ”
A crackle of sheets was heard as students hurriedly arranged the pages on which they had written their assignments. They were eager to speak in front of their classmates.

Which figure of speech has been used in the sentence ‘A crackle of sheets was heard…’

Answer:
The figure of speech used in the line is onomatopoeia.

Question 4
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

All forty hands went up in unison. Mrs Baruah beamed. Clearly, this assignment had not been a drudge.
“Wonderful!” Mrs Baruah said. “Remember that it does not have to be a profession. You can also speak of someone whom you’d want to be like -maybe a role model or a mentor. You may even talk of a particular trait or quality that you admire in a person and wish to emulate. ”
A crackle of sheets was heard as students hurriedly arranged the pages on which they had written their assignments. They were eager to speak in front of their classmates.

What instructions did Mrs Baruah give her students before they began their speeches?

Answer:
Mrs Baruah told her students that the speeches didn’t necessarily have to be about which profession they wanted to choose. It could be about a person who may have influenced them or even a quality or trait that they admired in a person and would wish to emulate.

Question 5
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

All forty hands went up in unison. Mrs Baruah beamed. Clearly, this assignment had not been a drudge.
“Wonderful!” Mrs Baruah said. “Remember that it does not have to be a profession. You can also speak of someone whom you’d want to be like -maybe a role model or a mentor. You may even talk of a particular trait or quality that you admire in a person and wish to emulate. ”
A crackle of sheets was heard as students hurriedly arranged the pages on which they had written their assignments. They were eager to speak in front of their classmates.

What do you think Mrs Baruah wanted to emphasise when she said that the children could talk about a person or a quality they admire?

Answer:
Mrs Baruah wanted the students to express their perception of their future selves through the speeches. Therefore it could also be about a person or even a quality that the students wished to emulate. She thus tried to emphasise that a person can become successful not merely by choosing a profession, but also by having a role model and strong values to follow and emulate.

Passage 2

Question 1
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

However, he had worked hard on his assignment and had written it from the depth of his heart. It was different from the others as it did not focus on any one person, profession or quality. It was a combination of traits and people from different walks of life- people who had stirred Kabeer’s heart.

Clearing his throat, he began, “When I grow up, I want to be brave like Major Sandeep Unnikrishanan, the thirty-one year old National Security Guard (NSG) commando, who laid down his life fighting the terrorists in Mumbai in November 2008.”

How was Kabeer’s assignment different from others?

Answer:
Kabeer’s assignment did not talk about what profession he wanted to choose when he grew up or about any one person or quality he admired. It has a mention of people who had made a difference to hundreds who were affected during the terrorist attacks in Mumbai in November 2008.

Question 2
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

However, he had worked hard on his assignment and had written it from the depth of his heart. It was different from the others as it did not focus on any one person, profession or quality. It was a combination of traits and people from different walks of life- people who had stirred Kabeer’s heart.

Clearing his throat, he began, “When I grow up, I want to be brave like Major Sandeep Unnikrishanan, the thirty-one year old National Security Guard (NSG) commando, who laid down his life fighting the terrorists in Mumbai in November 2008.”

Why had Kabeer worked hard on his assignment?

Answer:
Through Kabeer’s speech it is visible that he was deeply affected by the terrorist attack. He was also profoundly inspired by the people he spoke about. Therefore, though he was not good at making public speeches he prepared well for this speech by gathering detailed information on all the martyrs of 26/11.

Question 3
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

However, he had worked hard on his assignment and had written it from the depth of his heart. It was different from the others as it did not focus on any one person, profession or quality. It was a combination of traits and people from different walks of life- people who had stirred Kabeer’s heart.

Clearing his throat, he began, “When I grow up, I want to be brave like Major Sandeep Unnikrishanan, the thirty-one year old National Security Guard (NSG) commando, who laid down his life fighting the terrorists in Mumbai in November 2008.”

What happened in November 2008 in Mumbai?

Answer:
In November 2008, ten terrorists carried out a series of coordinated shooting and bombing acts in Mumbai. The attack lasted for four days.

Question 4
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

However, he had worked hard on his assignment and had written it from the depth of his heart. It was different from the others as it did not focus on any one person, profession or quality. It was a combination of traits and people from different walks of life- people who had stirred Kabeer’s heart.

Clearing his throat, he began, “When I grow up, I want to be brave like Major Sandeep Unnikrishanan, the thirty-one year old National Security Guard (NSG) commando, who laid down his life fighting the terrorists in Mumbai in November 2008.”

In what way do you think had Major Sandeep Unnikrishanan stirred Kabeer’s heart?

Answer:
Major Sandeep Unnikrishanan was deployed to clear Hotel Taj of terrorists. He arranged for the evacuation of one of his commandos who was injured in the exchange of fire. Despite knowing that his life was in danger, he told his team to stay down and went upstairs to handle them. He bravely fought till the end despite being hit with bullets.

Question 5
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

However, he had worked hard on his assignment and had written it from the depth of his heart. It was different from the others as it did not focus on any one person, profession or quality. It was a combination of traits and people from different walks of life- people who had stirred Kabeer’s heart.

Clearing his throat, he began, “When I grow up, I want to be brave like Major Sandeep Unnikrishanan, the thirty-one year old National Security Guard (NSG) commando, who laid down his life fighting the terrorists in Mumbai in November 2008.”

Which qualities of Major Sandeep Unnikrishanan did Kabeer want to emulate?

Answer:
Major Sandeep Unnikrishanan didn’t think twice about risking his life when he was deployed to clear Hotel Taj. He not only chased the terrorists, but also helped with the evacuation of the soldiers injured during the firing. Instead of escaping from the scene, he faced death bravely and selflessly. Kabeer wanted to become like Major Sandeep and put others’ lives and wellbeing before his own.

Passage 3

Question 1
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

Outside the birds chirped, cars honked and the younger children were enjoying their recess. However, class 8A, oblivious to everything, was all years as Kabeer continued. “When I grow up, I want to be like Vishnu Dattaram Zende, who was an announcer with the Mumbai railways for 10 years. On 26 November, he heard a loud explosion at one end of the CST platform and saw that some people had bloodstains on their clothes. He guessed that something was wrong and used the public announcement system to tell people to go out from a different exit. Instead of running for his life, for almost half an hour he continued to make announcements, even though he knew that the terrorists could attack him. They fired a bullet into Vishnu Zende’s cabin, but it missed him.

How is the scene outside the classroom different from the atmosphere inside?

Answer:
The atmosphere outside the classroom was relaxed and carefree. The birds chirped, the cars honked and Younger children were enjoying their break time as usual.. In contrast to this, inside the classroom, the air was rather tensed as Kabeer narrated one of the most horrible terror attacks on Mumbai that killed hundreds of innocent people.

Question 2
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

Outside the birds chirped, cars honked and the younger children were enjoying their recess. However, class 8A, oblivious to everything, was all years as Kabeer continued. “When I grow up, I want to be like Vishnu Dattaram Zende, who was an announcer with the Mumbai railways for 10 years. On 26 November, he heard a loud explosion at one end of the CST platform and saw that some people had bloodstains on their clothes. He guessed that something was wrong and used the public announcement system to tell people to go out from a different exit. Instead of running for his life, for almost half an hour he continued to make announcements, even though he knew that the terrorists could attack him. They fired a bullet into Vishnu Zende’s cabin, but it missed him.

What did Vishnu Zende do after he saw people running around with bloodstained clothes?

Answer:
Vishnu Zende sensed that something was wrong when he saw people running around with bloodstained clothes and immediately used the public announcement system to direct people to the other exit of the station.

Question 3
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

Outside the birds chirped, cars honked and the younger children were enjoying their recess. However, class 8A, oblivious to everything, was all years as Kabeer continued. “When I grow up, I want to be like Vishnu Dattaram Zende, who was an announcer with the Mumbai railways for 10 years. On 26 November, he heard a loud explosion at one end of the CST platform and saw that some people had bloodstains on their clothes. He guessed that something was wrong and used the public announcement system to tell people to go out from a different exit. Instead of running for his life, for almost half an hour he continued to make announcements, even though he knew that the terrorists could attack him. They fired a bullet into Vishnu Zende’s cabin, but it missed him.

What happened as Vishnu Zende made the announcements?

Answer:
As Vishnu Zende tried to rescue the people stranded at CST, the terrorists fired a bullet in the direction of the cabin where he was making the announcements. However, he survived the attack as the bullet narrowly missed him.

Question 4
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

Outside the birds chirped, cars honked and the younger children were enjoying their recess. However, class 8A, oblivious to everything, was all years as Kabeer continued. “When I grow up, I want to be like Vishnu Dattaram Zende, who was an announcer with the Mumbai railways for 10 years. On 26 November, he heard a loud explosion at one end of the CST platform and saw that some people had bloodstains on their clothes. He guessed that something was wrong and used the public announcement system to tell people to go out from a different exit. Instead of running for his life, for almost half an hour he continued to make announcements, even though he knew that the terrorists could attack him. They fired a bullet into Vishnu Zende’s cabin, but it missed him.

What is common between Mr Zende and Major Sandeep Unnikrishanan?

Answer:
Both Major Sandeep Unnikrishanan and Mr Zende prioritised the lives of fellow citizens over their own during the terrorist attacks in Mumbai in 2008. In doing this, Major Sandeep lost his life while Mr Zende missed death narrowly. However, the risk did not stop them from saving the lives of people threatened during the night of the attacks.

Question 5
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

Outside the birds chirped, cars honked and the younger children were enjoying their recess. However, class 8A, oblivious to everything, was all years as Kabeer continued. “When I grow up, I want to be like Vishnu Dattaram Zende, who was an announcer with the Mumbai railways for 10 years. On 26 November, he heard a loud explosion at one end of the CST platform and saw that some people had bloodstains on their clothes. He guessed that something was wrong and used the public announcement system to tell people to go out from a different exit. Instead of running for his life, for almost half an hour he continued to make announcements, even though he knew that the terrorists could attack him. They fired a bullet into Vishnu Zende’s cabin, but it missed him.

How did Vishnu Zende’s presence of mind help the hundreds of commuters inside CST?

Answer:
When Vishnu Zende heard an explosion and saw some people running here and there with bloodstains on their clothes, he sensed danger and without wasting time, used the public announcement system to save the lives of many others. He asked the passengers to not go in the direction where the blast was heard but instead exit from the station from a safer point. His presence of mind helped many innocent people save their lives.

Passage 4

Question 1
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

“When I grow up, I want to be like Karambir Singh Kang, the General Manager of the Taj Hotel, who, instead of worrying about his own safety or his family’s needs, first helped his guests and staff out of the hotel. His wife and children were trapped in a room engulfed by fire. They died of suffocation. Even on hearing of their deaths, Karambir Singh Kang did not abandon his responsibilities, and continued to fight for his guests’ safety. The noble and the loyal manager, despite his own irreparable loss, still remains at the Taj helping to restore the heritage structure.

What did Karambir Singh Kang do on hearing about his wife and children?

Answer:
Karambir Singh’s wife and children were trapped in a room engulfed by fire. They died of suffocation. However, despite hearing this news, he continued to fight for the safety of his guests.

Question 2
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

“When I grow up, I want to be like Karambir Singh Kang, the General Manager of the Taj Hotel, who, instead of worrying about his own safety or his family’s needs, first helped his guests and staff out of the hotel. His wife and children were trapped in a room engulfed by fire. They died of suffocation. Even on hearing of their deaths, Karambir Singh Kang did not abandon his responsibilities, and continued to fight for his guests’ safety. The noble and the loyal manager, despite his own irreparable loss, still remains at the Taj helping to restore the heritage structure.

How is Karambir Singh Kang’s act exceptional and commendable?

Answer:
Karambir Singh Kang bravely continued to rescue the guests despite knowing that his family was in danger. Even after coming to know that his wife and children had died of suffocation, he continued to save the guests of his hotel. Only an extraordinary human being could have done this. Karambir Singh’s act is indeed exceptional and commendable.

Question 3
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

“When I grow up, I want to be like Karambir Singh Kang, the General Manager of the Taj Hotel, who, instead of worrying about his own safety or his family’s needs, first helped his guests and staff out of the hotel. His wife and children were trapped in a room engulfed by fire. They died of suffocation. Even on hearing of their deaths, Karambir Singh Kang did not abandon his responsibilities, and continued to fight for his guests’ safety. The noble and the loyal manager, despite his own irreparable loss, still remains at the Taj helping to restore the heritage structure.

Where is Karambir Singh Kang at present?

Answer:
Karambir Singh did not abandon his responsibilities after the attack. Despite his own irreparable loss, he still remains at the Taj helping to restore the heritage structure.

Question 4
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

“When I grow up, I want to be like Karambir Singh Kang, the General Manager of the Taj Hotel, who, instead of worrying about his own safety or his family’s needs, first helped his guests and staff out of the hotel. His wife and children were trapped in a room engulfed by fire. They died of suffocation. Even on hearing of their deaths, Karambir Singh Kang did not abandon his responsibilities, and continued to fight for his guests’ safety. The noble and the loyal manager, despite his own irreparable loss, still remains at the Taj helping to restore the heritage structure.

Do you think Karambir Singh Kang should have saved his family first and then rescued the guests?

Answer:
The situation in which Karambir Singh Kang was caught was a very difficult one. If he had saved his family at the cost of the life of the guests, he would have never been able to forgive himself for failing his duties. Whether or not he should have saved his family was not at all in his control. He rescued those whom he came across first and unfortunately by the time he reached his family, they had lost the battle with life.

Question 5
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

“When I grow up, I want to be like Karambir Singh Kang, the General Manager of the Taj Hotel, who, instead of worrying about his own safety or his family’s needs, first helped his guests and staff out of the hotel. His wife and children were trapped in a room engulfed by fire. They died of suffocation. Even on hearing of their deaths, Karambir Singh Kang did not abandon his responsibilities, and continued to fight for his guests’ safety. The noble and the loyal manager, despite his own irreparable loss, still remains at the Taj helping to restore the heritage structure.

In what way does Kabeer want to emulate Karambir Singh Kang when he grows up?

Answer:
When Kabeer grows up, he wants to be like Karambir Singh Kang so that he may have the courage to answer duty calls first and then prioritise his personal life.

Passage 5

Question 1
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

“When I grow up, I want to be fearless like Anti-Terrorism Squad Chief Hemant Karkare, who pursued the terrorists in a jeep. He was gunned down by terrorists near Cama Hospital, along with his valiant comrades DIG Ashok Kamte and Vijay Salaskar. Hemant Karkare was a brave officer who served in Austria for seven years in the Research and Analysis Wing of India, as an Intelligence Officer. Shaheed Karkare spent his life fighting terror, to make our tomorrow terror-free.”

“When I grow up, I want to be caring like Mohammed Taufeeq Sheikh, popularly known as Chotu Chaiwala, a young boy who ran a tea stall outside CST station. He was among the first to help transport the injured to St George Hospital. Had it not been for the efforts of people like him, many of the wounded might not have made it to the hospital on time.”

How did Kabeer feel as he read his speech?

Answer:
Kabeer was overwhelmed by the emotions as he read a strong emotional account of what happened during the November 2008 attacks. However, like a brave soldier, he contained his emotions and continued to read his speech.

Question 2
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

“When I grow up, I want to be fearless like Anti-Terrorism Squad Chief Hemant Karkare, who pursued the terrorists in a jeep. He was gunned down by terrorists near Cama Hospital, along with his valiant comrades DIG Ashok Kamte and Vijay Salaskar. Hemant Karkare was a brave officer who served in Austria for seven years in the Research and Analysis Wing of India, as an Intelligence Officer. Shaheed Karkare spent his life fighting terror, to make our tomorrow terror-free.”

“When I grow up, I want to be caring like Mohammed Taufeeq Sheikh, popularly known as Chotu Chaiwala, a young boy who ran a tea stall outside CST station. He was among the first to help transport the injured to St George Hospital. Had it not been for the efforts of people like him, many of the wounded might not have made it to the hospital on time.”

Who was Hemant Karkare?

Answer:
Hemant Karkare was the chief of the Anti-Terrorism Squad. He served as an Intelligence Officer in Austria for seven years in the Research and Analysis Wing of India.

Question 3
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

“When I grow up, I want to be fearless like Anti-Terrorism Squad Chief Hemant Karkare, who pursued the terrorists in a jeep. He was gunned down by terrorists near Cama Hospital, along with his valiant comrades DIG Ashok Kamte and Vijay Salaskar. Hemant Karkare was a brave officer who served in Austria for seven years in the Research and Analysis Wing of India, as an Intelligence Officer. Shaheed Karkare spent his life fighting terror, to make our tomorrow terror-free.”

“When I grow up, I want to be caring like Mohammed Taufeeq Sheikh, popularly known as Chotu Chaiwala, a young boy who ran a tea stall outside CST station. He was among the first to help transport the injured to St George Hospital. Had it not been for the efforts of people like him, many of the wounded might not have made it to the hospital on time.”

How was Hemant Karkare killed?

Answer:
Hemant Karkare was gunned down by terrorists near Cama Hospital as he was bravely pursuing them in a jeep.

Question 4
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

“When I grow up, I want to be fearless like Anti-Terrorism Squad Chief Hemant Karkare, who pursued the terrorists in a jeep. He was gunned down by terrorists near Cama Hospital, along with his valiant comrades DIG Ashok Kamte and Vijay Salaskar. Hemant Karkare was a brave officer who served in Austria for seven years in the Research and Analysis Wing of India, as an Intelligence Officer. Shaheed Karkare spent his life fighting terror, to make our tomorrow terror-free.”

“When I grow up, I want to be caring like Mohammed Taufeeq Sheikh, popularly known as Chotu Chaiwala, a young boy who ran a tea stall outside CST station. He was among the first to help transport the injured to St George Hospital. Had it not been for the efforts of people like him, many of the wounded might not have made it to the hospital on time.”

How did Chotu Chaiwala contribute to saving the injured people?

Answer:
Chotu Chaiwala was among the first to help transport the injured to St George Hospital. He was a young boy who ran a tea stall outside CST station and whose original name was Mohammed Taufeeq Sheikh.

Question 5
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

“When I grow up, I want to be fearless like Anti-Terrorism Squad Chief Hemant Karkare, who pursued the terrorists in a jeep. He was gunned down by terrorists near Cama Hospital, along with his valiant comrades DIG Ashok Kamte and Vijay Salaskar. Hemant Karkare was a brave officer who served in Austria for seven years in the Research and Analysis Wing of India, as an Intelligence Officer. Shaheed Karkare spent his life fighting terror, to make our tomorrow terror-free.”

“When I grow up, I want to be caring like Mohammed Taufeeq Sheikh, popularly known as Chotu Chaiwala, a young boy who ran a tea stall outside CST station. He was among the first to help transport the injured to St George Hospital. Had it not been for the efforts of people like him, many of the wounded might not have made it to the hospital on time.”

How do the people mentioned in this extract contribute during the terrorist attack of 26/11?

Answer:
The trio, Hemant Karkare, DIG Ashok Kamte and Vijay Salaskar were highly qualified police officers who faced the terrorists in Mumbai on 26 November 2008fearlessly. The three were killed in action by the terrorists during attack. On the other hand, Mohammed Taufeeq Sheikh, popularly known as Chotu Chaiwala, was a young boy who ran a tea stall outside CST station. He was no officer or had no arms, but he was among the first to help transport the injured to St George Hospital. Had it not been for the efforts of people like him, many of the wounded might not have made it to the hospital on time.

ICSE Class 10 Hindi Solutions साहित्य सागर – बात अठन्नी की

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प्रश्न क-i:
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
वह सोचता, ”यहाँ इतने सालों से हूँ। अमीर लोग नौकरों पर विश्वास नहीं करते पर मुझपर यहाँ कभी किसी ने संदेह नहीं किया। यहाँ से जाऊँ तो शायद कोई ग्यारह-बारह दे दे, पर ऐसा आदर नहीं मिलेगा।”
उपर्युक्त वाक्य के वक्ता का परिचय दें।

उत्तर:
उपर्युक्त वाक्य का वक्ता इंजीनियर बाबू जगतसिंह का नौकर रसीला है। वह सालों से इंजीनियर बाबू जगतसिंह के यहाँ नौकर है।

प्रश्न क-ii:
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
वह सोचता, ”यहाँ इतने सालों से हूँ। अमीर लोग नौकरों पर विश्वास नहीं करते पर मुझपर यहाँ कभी किसी ने संदेह नहीं किया। यहाँ से जाऊँ तो शायद कोई ग्यारह-बारह दे दे, पर ऐसा आदर नहीं मिलेगा।”
रसीला बार-बार किससे, कौन-सी और क्यों प्रार्थना करता था?

उत्तर :
रसीला इंजीनियर बाबू जगतसिंह का नौकर था। वह सालों से इंजीनियर बाबू जगतसिंह के यहाँ नौकर था। उसे दस रूपए वेतन मिलता था। गाँव में उसके बूढ़े पिता, पत्नी, एक लड़की और दो लड़के थे। इन सबका भार उसी के कंधों पर था। इसी कारण वह बार-बार अपने मालिक इंजीनियर बाबू जगतसिंह से अपना वेतन बढ़ाने की प्रार्थना करता था।

प्रश्न क-iii:
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
वह सोचता, ”यहाँ इतने सालों से हूँ। अमीर लोग नौकरों पर विश्वास नहीं करते पर मुझपर यहाँ कभी किसी ने संदेह नहीं किया। यहाँ से जाऊँ तो शायद कोई ग्यारह-बारह दे दे, पर ऐसा आदर नहीं मिलेगा।”
वेतन की बात पर इंजीनियर बाबू जगतसिंह का जवाब क्या होता था?

उत्तर:
रसीला इंजीनियर बाबू जगतसिंह का नौकर था। वह सालों से इंजीनियर बाबू जगतसिंह के यहाँ नौकर था। उसे दस रूपए वेतन मिलता था। गाँव में उसके बूढ़े पिता, पत्नी, एक लड़की और दो लड़के थे। इन सबका भार उसी के कंधों पर था। इसी कारण वह बार-बार अपने मालिक इंजीनियर बाबू जगतसिंह से अपना वेतन बढ़ाने की माँग करता था। परंतु हर बार इंजीनियर साहब का यही जवाब होता था कि वे रसीला की तनख्वाह नहीं बढ़ाएँगे यदि उसे यहाँ से ज्यादा और कोई तनख्वाह देता है तो वह बेशक जा सकता है।

प्रश्न क-iv:
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
वह सोचता, ”यहाँ इतने सालों से हूँ। अमीर लोग नौकरों पर विश्वास नहीं करते पर मुझपर यहाँ कभी किसी ने संदेह नहीं किया। यहाँ से जाऊँ तो शायद कोई ग्यारह-बारह दे दे, पर ऐसा आदर नहीं मिलेगा।”
तनख्वाह न बढ़ाने के बावजूद रसीला नौकरी क्यों नहीं छोड़ना चाहता था?

उत्तर:
रसीला बार-बार अपने मालिक से तनख्वाह बढ़ाने की माँग करता था और हर बार उसकी माँग ठुकरा दी जाती थी परंतु इस सबके बावजूद रसीला यह नौकरी नहीं छोड़ना चाहता था क्योंकि वह जानता था कि अमीर लोग किसी पर विश्वास नहीं करते हैं। यहाँ पर रसीला सालों से नौकरी कर रहा था और कभी किसी ने उस पर संदेह नहीं किया था। दूसरी जगह भले उसे यहाँ से ज्यादा तनख्वाह मिले पर इस घर जैसा आदर नहीं मिलेगा।

प्रश्न ख-i:
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
पहले तो रसीला छिपाता रहा। फिर रमजान ने कहा, ”कोई बात नहीं है, तो खाओ सौगंध।”
उपर्युक्त वाक्य के वक्ता तथा श्रोता का परिचय दें।

उत्तर:
उपर्युक्त वाक्य का वक्ता ज़िला मजिस्ट्रेट शेख सलीमुद्दीन का चौकीदार मियाँ रमजान हैं और वक्ता उनके पड़ोसी इंजीनियर बाबू जगतसिंह का नौकर रसीला है। दोनों बड़े ही अच्छे मित्र थे।

प्रश्न ख-ii:
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
पहले तो रसीला छिपाता रहा। फिर रमजान ने कहा, ”कोई बात नहीं है, तो खाओ सौगंध।”
वक्ता श्रोता को सौगंध खाने के लिए क्यों कहता है?

उत्तर:
एक दिन रमजान ने रसीला को बहुत ही उदास देखा। रमजान ने अपने मित्र रसीला की उदासी का कारण जानना चाहा परंतु रसीला उससे छिपाता रहा तब रमजान ने उसकी उदासी का कारण जानने के लिए उसे सौगंध खाने के लिए कहा।

प्रश्न ख-iii:
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
पहले तो रसीला छिपाता रहा। फिर रमजान ने कहा, ”कोई बात नहीं है, तो खाओ सौगंध।”
श्रोता की उदासी का कारण क्या था?

उत्तर:
श्रोता रसीला का परिवार गाँव में रहता था। उसके परिवार में बूढ़े पिता, पत्नी और तीन बच्चे थे। इन सबका भार उसी के कंधों पर था और रसीला को मासिक तनख्वाह मात्र दस रुपए मिलती थी पूरे पैसे भेजने के बाद भी घर का गुजारा नहीं हो पाता था उसपर गाँव से ख़त आया था कि बच्चे बीमार है पैसे भेजो। रसीला के पास गाँव भेजने के लिए पैसे नहीं थे और यही उसकी उदासी का कारण था।

प्रश्न ख-iv:
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
पहले तो रसीला छिपाता रहा। फिर रमजान ने कहा, ”कोई बात नहीं है, तो खाओ सौगंध।”
वक्ता ने श्रोता की परेशानी का क्या हल सुझाया?

उत्तर:
वक्ता ने श्रोता की परेशानी का यह हल सुझाया कि वह सालों से अपने मालिक के यहाँ काम कर रहा है तो वह अपने मालिक से कुछ रुपए पेशगी के क्यों नहीं माँग लेता?

प्रश्न ग-i:
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
भैया गुनाह का फल मिलेगा या नहीं, यह तो भगवान जाने, पर ऐसी कमाई से कोठियों में रहते हैं, और एक हम हैं कि परिश्रम करने पर भी हाथ में कुछ नहीं रहता।”
यहाँ पर किस गुनाह की बात की जा रही है?

उत्तर:
यहाँ पर रमजान और रसीला अपने-अपने मालिकों के रिश्वत लेने वाले गुनाह की बात कर रहे हैं। रसीला ने जब रमजान को बताया कि उसके मालिक जगत सिंह ने पाँच सौ रूपए की रिश्वत ली है। तो इस पर रमजान ने कहा यह तो कुछ भी नहीं उसके मालिक शेख साहब तो जगत सिंह के भी गुरु हैं, उन्होंने भी आज ही एक शिकार फाँसा है हजार से कम में शेख साहब नहीं मानेंगे।
इस प्रकार यहाँ पर मालिकों के रिश्वत के गुनाह की चर्चा की जा रही है।

प्रश्न ग-ii:
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
भैया गुनाह का फल मिलेगा या नहीं, यह तो भगवान जाने, पर ऐसी कमाई से कोठियों में रहते हैं, और एक हम हैं कि परिश्रम करने पर भी हाथ में कुछ नहीं रहता।”
उपर्युक्त कथन रमजान ने रसीला से क्यों कहा?

उत्तर:
रमजान और रसीला दोनों ही नौकर थे। दिन रात परिश्रम करने के बाद भी बड़ी मुश्किल से उनका गुजारा होता था। रसीला के मालिक तो बार-बार प्रार्थना करने के बाद भी उसका वेतन बढ़ाने के लिए तैयार नहीं थे। दोनों यह बात भी जानते थे कि उनके मालिक रिश्वत से बहुत पैसा कमाते हैं। इसी बात की चर्चा करते समय रमजान ने उपर्युक्त कथन कहे।

प्रश्न ग-iii:
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
भैया गुनाह का फल मिलेगा या नहीं, यह तो भगवान जाने, पर ऐसी कमाई से कोठियों में रहते हैं, और एक हम हैं कि परिश्रम करने पर भी हाथ में कुछ नहीं रहता।”
ऐसी कमाई से क्या तात्पर्य है?

उत्तर:
प्रस्तुत पाठ में ऐसी कमाई से तात्पर्य रिश्वत से है। यहाँ पर स्पष्ट किया गया है कि किस प्रकार सफेदपोश लोग ही इस कार्य में लिप्त रहते हैं। अच्छा ख़ासा वेतन मिलने के बाद भी इनकी लालच की भूख मिटती नहीं है और रिश्वत को कमाई का एक और जरिया बना लेते हैं। इसके विपरीत परिश्रम करने वाला दाल-रोटी का जुगाड़ भी नहीं कर पाता और सदैव कष्ट में ही रहता है।

प्रश्न ग-iv:
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
भैया गुनाह का फल मिलेगा या नहीं, यह तो भगवान जाने, पर ऐसी कमाई से कोठियों में रहते हैं, और एक हम हैं कि परिश्रम करने पर भी हाथ में कुछ नहीं रहता।”
रमजान की उपर्युक्त बात सुनकर रसीला के मन में क्या विचार आया?

उत्तर:
रमजान की उपर्युक्त बात सुनकर यह आया कि सालों से वह इंजीनियर जगत बाबू के यहाँ काम कर रहा है इस बीच इस घर में उसके हाथ के नीचे से सैकड़ों रूपए निकल गए पर कभी उसका धर्म और नियत नहीं बिगड़ी। एक-एक आना भी उड़ाता तो काफी रकम जुड़ जाती।

प्रश्न घ-i:
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
”यह इंसाफ नहीं अँधेर है। सिर्फ़ एक अठन्नी की ही तो बात थी!”
रसीला का मुकदमा किसके सामने पेश हुआ?

उत्तर:
रसीला का मुकदमा इंजीनियर जगत सिंह के पड़ोसी शेख सलीमुद्दीन ज़िला मजिस्ट्रेट की अदालत में पेश हुआ।

प्रश्न घ-ii:
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
”यह इंसाफ नहीं अँधेर है। सिर्फ़ एक अठन्नी की ही तो बात थी!”
रसीला पर किस आरोप पर किसने मुकदमा दायर किया था?

उत्तर:
रसीला वर्षों से इंजीनियर जगत सिंह का नौकर था। उसने कभी कोई बेईमानी नहीं की थी। परंतु इस बार भूलवश अपना अठन्नी का कर्ज चुकाने के लिए उसने अपने मालिक के लिए पाँच रूपए की जगह साढ़े चार रुपए की मिठाई खरीदी और बची अठन्नी रमजान को देकर अपना कर्ज चुका दिया और इसी आरोप में रसीला के ऊपर इंजीनियर जगत सिंह ने मुकदमा दायर कर दिया था।

प्रश्न घ-iii:
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
”यह इंसाफ नहीं अँधेर है। सिर्फ़ एक अठन्नी की ही तो बात थी!”
रसीला को अपने किस अपराध के लिए कितनी सजा हुई?

उत्तर:
रसीला ने अपने मालिक के लिए पाँच रुपए के बदले साढ़े चार रूपए की मिठाई खरीदी और बची अठन्नी से अपना कर्ज चुका दिया। यही मामूली अपराध रसीला से हो गया था। इसलिए रसीला को केवल अठन्नी की चोरी करने के अपराध में छह महीने के कारावास की सजा हुई।

प्रश्न घ-iv:
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
”यह इंसाफ नहीं अँधेर है। सिर्फ़ एक अठन्नी की ही तो बात थी!”
उपर्युक्त उक्ति का क्या कारण था स्पष्ट कीजिए।

उत्तर:
रमजान ज़िला मजिस्ट्रेट शेख सलीमुद्दीन का चौकीदार था और वह रसीला का बहुत ही अच्छा मित्र था। जब ज़िला मजिस्ट्रेट अठन्नी के मामूली अपराध के लिए उसे छह महीने की सजा सुनाते हैं तो रमजान का क्रोध उबल पड़ता है क्योंकि वह जानता था कि फैसला करने वाले शेख साहब और आरोप लगाने वाले जगत बाबू दोनों स्वयं बहुत बड़े रिश्वतखोर अपराधी हैं लेकिन उनका अपराध दबा होने के कारण वे सभ्य कहलाते हैं और एक गरीब को मामूली अपराध के लिए इतनी बड़ी सजा दी जाती है इसी करण रामजान के मुँह से उपर्युक्त उक्ति निकलती है।

ICSE Class 10 Hindi Solutions साहित्य सागर – स्वर्ग बना सकते हं [कविता]

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

प्रश्न क-i:
निम्नलिखित पद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
धर्मराज यह भूमि किसी की, नहीं क्रीत है दासी,
हैं जन्मना समान परस्पर, इसके सभी निवासी।
सबको मुक्त प्रकाश चाहिए, सबको मुक्त समीरण,
बाधा-रहित विकास, मुक्त आशंकाओं से जीवन।
लेकिन विघ्न अनेक सभी इस पथ पर अड़े हुए हैं,
मानवता की राह रोककर पर्वत अड़े हुए हैं।
न्यायोचित सुख सुलभ नहीं जब तक मानव-मानव को,
चैन कहाँ धरती पर तब तक शांति कहाँ इस भव को।
कवि ने भूमि के लिए किस शब्द का प्रयोग किया हैं और क्यों?

उत्तर:
कवि ने भूमि के लिए ‘क्रीत दासी’ शब्द का प्रयोग किया हैं क्योंकि किसी की क्रीत (खरीदी हुई) दासी नहीं है। इस पर सबका समान रूप से अधिकार है।

प्रश्न क-ii:
निम्नलिखित पद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
धर्मराज यह भूमि किसी की, नहीं क्रीत है दासी,
हैं जन्मना समान परस्पर, इसके सभी निवासी।
सबको मुक्त प्रकाश चाहिए, सबको मुक्त समीरण,
बाधा-रहित विकास, मुक्त आशंकाओं से जीवन।
लेकिन विघ्न अनेक सभी इस पथ पर अड़े हुए हैं,
मानवता की राह रोककर पर्वत अड़े हुए हैं।
न्यायोचित सुख सुलभ नहीं जब तक मानव-मानव को,
चैन कहाँ धरती पर तब तक शांति कहाँ इस भव को।
धरती पर शांति के लिए क्या आवश्यक है?

उत्तर :
धरती पर शांति के लिए सभी मनुष्य को समान रूप से सुख-सुविधाएँ मिलनी आवश्यक है।

प्रश्न क-iii:
निम्नलिखित पद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
धर्मराज यह भूमि किसी की, नहीं क्रीत है दासी,
हैं जन्मना समान परस्पर, इसके सभी निवासी।
सबको मुक्त प्रकाश चाहिए, सबको मुक्त समीरण,
बाधा-रहित विकास, मुक्त आशंकाओं से जीवन।
लेकिन विघ्न अनेक सभी इस पथ पर अड़े हुए हैं,
मानवता की राह रोककर पर्वत अड़े हुए हैं।
न्यायोचित सुख सुलभ नहीं जब तक मानव-मानव को,
चैन कहाँ धरती पर तब तक शांति कहाँ इस भव को।
भीष्म पितामह युधिष्ठिर को किस नाम से बुलाते है? क्यों?

उत्तर:
भीष्म पितामह युधिष्ठिर को ‘धर्मराज’ नाम से बुलाते है क्योंकि वह सदैव न्याय का पक्ष लेता है और कभी किसी के साथ अन्याय नहीं होने देता।

प्रश्न क-iv:
निम्नलिखित पद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
धर्मराज यह भूमि किसी की, नहीं क्रीत है दासी,
हैं जन्मना समान परस्पर, इसके सभी निवासी।
सबको मुक्त प्रकाश चाहिए, सबको मुक्त समीरण,
बाधा-रहित विकास, मुक्त आशंकाओं से जीवन।
लेकिन विघ्न अनेक सभी इस पथ पर अड़े हुए हैं,
मानवता की राह रोककर पर्वत अड़े हुए हैं।
न्यायोचित सुख सुलभ नहीं जब तक मानव-मानव को,
चैन कहाँ धरती पर तब तक शांति कहाँ इस भव को।
शब्दार्थ लिखिए – क्रीत, जन्मना, समीरण, भव, मुक्त, सुलभ।

उत्तर:

शब्द	अर्थ
क्रीत	खरीदी हुई
जन्मना	जन्म से
समीरण	वायु
भव	संसार
मुक्त	स्वतंत्र
सुलभ	आसानी से प्राप्त

प्रश्न ख-i:
निम्नलिखित पद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
जब तक मनुज-मनुज का यह सुख भाग नहीं सम होगा,
शमित न होगा कोलाहल, संघर्ष नहीं कम होगा।
उसे भूल वह फँसा परस्पर ही शंका में भय में,
लगा हुआ केवल अपने में और भोग-संचय में।
प्रभु के दिए हुए सुख इतने हैं विकीर्ण धरती पर,
भोग सकें जो उन्हें जगत में कहाँ अभी इतने नर?
सब हो सकते तुष्ट, एक-सा सुख पर सकते हैं;
चाहें तो पल में धरती को स्वर्ग बना सकते हैं,
‘प्रभु के दिए हुए सुख इतने हैं विकीर्ण धरती पर’ – पंक्ति का आशय स्पष्ट कीजिए।

उत्तर:
प्रस्तुत पंक्ति का आशय यह है कि ईश्वर ने हमारे लिए धरती पर सुख-साधनों का विशाल भंडार दिया हुआ है। सभी मनुष्य इसका उचित उपयोग करें तो यह साधन कभी भी कम नहीं पड़ सकते।

प्रश्न ख-ii:
निम्नलिखित पद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
जब तक मनुज-मनुज का यह सुख भाग नहीं सम होगा,
शमित न होगा कोलाहल, संघर्ष नहीं कम होगा।
उसे भूल वह फँसा परस्पर ही शंका में भय में,
लगा हुआ केवल अपने में और भोग-संचय में।
प्रभु के दिए हुए सुख इतने हैं विकीर्ण धरती पर,
भोग सकें जो उन्हें जगत में कहाँ अभी इतने नर?
सब हो सकते तुष्ट, एक-सा सुख पर सकते हैं;
चाहें तो पल में धरती को स्वर्ग बना सकते हैं,
मानव का विकास कब संभव होगा?

उत्तर:
कमानव के विकास के पथ पर अनेक प्रकार की मुसीबतें उसकी राह रोके खड़ी रहती है तथा विशाल पर्वत भी राह रोके खड़े रहता है। मनुष्य जब इन सब विपत्तियों को पार कर आगे बढ़ेगा तभी उसका विकास संभव होगा।

प्रश्न ख-iii:
निम्नलिखित पद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
जब तक मनुज-मनुज का यह सुख भाग नहीं सम होगा,
शमित न होगा कोलाहल, संघर्ष नहीं कम होगा।
उसे भूल वह फँसा परस्पर ही शंका में भय में,
लगा हुआ केवल अपने में और भोग-संचय में।
प्रभु के दिए हुए सुख इतने हैं विकीर्ण धरती पर,
भोग सकें जो उन्हें जगत में कहाँ अभी इतने नर?
सब हो सकते तुष्ट, एक-सा सुख पर सकते हैं;
चाहें तो पल में धरती को स्वर्ग बना सकते हैं,
किस प्रकार पल में धरती को स्वर्ग बना सकते है?

उत्तर:
ईश्वर ने हमारे लिए धरती पर सुख-साधनों का विशाल भंडार दिया हुआ है। सभी मनुष्य इसका उचित उपयोग करें तो यह साधन कभी भी कम नहीं पड़ सकते। सभी लोग सुखी
होंगे। इस प्रकार पल में धरती को स्वर्ग बना सकते है।

प्रश्न ख-iv:
निम्नलिखित पद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :
जब तक मनुज-मनुज का यह सुख भाग नहीं सम होगा,
शमित न होगा कोलाहल, संघर्ष नहीं कम होगा।
उसे भूल वह फँसा परस्पर ही शंका में भय में,
लगा हुआ केवल अपने में और भोग-संचय में।
प्रभु के दिए हुए सुख इतने हैं विकीर्ण धरती पर,
भोग सकें जो उन्हें जगत में कहाँ अभी इतने नर?
सब हो सकते तुष्ट, एक-सा सुख पर सकते हैं;
चाहें तो पल में धरती को स्वर्ग बना सकते हैं,
शब्दार्थ लिखिए – शमित, विकीर्ण, कोलाहल, विघ्न, चैन, पल।

उत्तर:

शब्द	अर्थ
शमित	शांत
विकीर्ण	बिखरे हुए
कोलाहल	शोर
विघ्न	रूकावट
चैन	शांति
पल	क्षण

ICSE Class 10 English Solutions Where the Mind is Without Fear [Poem]

Passage 1

Question 1
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

Where the mind is without fear and the head is held high
Where knowledge is free
Where the world has not been broken up into fragments
By narrow domestic walls
Where words come out from the depth of truth

What prayer does the poet make for his countrymen in the first line of the extract? Why?

Answer:
The poet prays that the people of his country may have no fear in their minds. He makes this prayer as this poem was written during the colonial rule in India when radical thoughts and free-spirited people were repressed.

Question 2
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

Where the mind is without fear and the head is held high
Where knowledge is free
Where the world has not been broken up into fragments
By narrow domestic walls

Where words come out from the depth of truth
What could be the dangers if knowledge is restricted?
Answer:
When knowledge is restricted, various blocks are imposed on the people trying to acquire knowledge. These restrictions are based on wealth, caste, class, gender, religion, etc.

Question 3
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

Where the mind is without fear and the head is held high
Where knowledge is free
Where the world has not been broken up into fragments
By narrow domestic walls
Where words come out from the depth of truth

What is meant by ‘narrow domestic walls’? Explain how these ‘walls’ can be detrimental to the country’s progress.
Answer:
The narrow domestic walls are those of caste, creed, religion, colour, and superstitions. If people get trapped within these ‘walls’ they will never become broad-minded and progress in life. As a result, the country’s progress will be affected.

Question 4
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

Where the mind is without fear and the head is held high
Where knowledge is free
Where the world has not been broken up into fragments
By narrow domestic walls
Where words come out from the depth of truth

Do you agree with the poet when he states that we must always give importance to ‘truth’?

Answer:
Yes, truth must be given a lot of importance. It is the truth that prevails in the end. No matter how bitter it is to experience, a single truth is better than thousand sugar coated lies.

Question 5
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

Where the mind is without fear and the head is held high
Where knowledge is free
Where the world has not been broken up into fragments
By narrow domestic walls
Where words come out from the depth of truth

How does the poet reflect the true meaning of freedom through the poem?

Answer:
In the poem, the poet has expressed a desire for his countrymen to be free not only from physical bondage but also from emotional barriers. He says that the characteristics of truth, fearlessness, clarity of thought and progressive thinking along with freedom from any kind of bondage is necessary for every human being.

Passage 2

Question 1
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

Where words come out from the depth of truth
Where tireless striving stretches its arms towards perfection
Where the clear stream of reason has not lost its way
Into the dreary desert sand of dead habit

What does ‘from the depth of truth’ refer to?

Answer:
The phrase ‘from the depth of truth’ refers to honesty. The poem was written during the time India was a British colony and Tagore used this phrase to urge Indians to be courageous and speak their hearts out before the world.

Question 2
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

Where words come out from the depth of truth
Where tireless striving stretches its arms towards perfection
Where the clear stream of reason has not lost its way
Into the dreary desert sand of dead habit

What does the phrase ‘tireless striving’ mean? What does the poet want people to achieve through tireless striving?

Answer:
The phrase ‘tireless striving’ is used by the poet to urge his countrymen to break free from sloth and inactivity and struggle hard constantly to achieve perfection in whatever they choose to do and thus make their country a free nation.

Question 3
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

Where words come out from the depth of truth
Where tireless striving stretches its arms towards perfection
Where the clear stream of reason has not lost its way
Into the dreary desert sand of dead habit

Name and explain the figure of speech in ‘clear stream of reason’?

Answer:
The figure of speech is metaphor because reason has been compared to ‘a clear stream’. A mind without reason and rationality is stagnated and unable to achieve its goal. On the other hand, a mind that thinks clearly will be able to achieve its goals.

Question 4

Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

Where words come out from the depth of truth
Where tireless striving stretches its arms towards perfection
Where the clear stream of reason has not lost its way
Into the dreary desert sand of dead habit

What does ‘dead habit’ refer to? How does it affect a person?

Answer:
Dead habit’ refers to mindless practicing of obsolete customs and traditions, old beliefs, superstitions and a narrow-minded attitudes. This habit corrodes the mind and renders it useless.

Question 5
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

Where words come out from the depth of truth
Where tireless striving stretches its arms towards perfection
Where the clear stream of reason has not lost its way
Into the dreary desert sand of dead habit

Give two examples of alliteration from the extract.

Answer:
(i)Where tireless striving stretches its arms towards perfection
(ii) Into the dreary desert sand of dead habit

Passage 3

Question 1
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

Where the mind is led forward by thee
Into ever-widening thought and action
Into that heaven of freedom, my Father, let my country awake.

Whom does ‘thee’ in the above extract refer to?

Answer:
The ‘thee’ in the above extract refers to the Almighty God to whom the poem is dedicated.

Question 2
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

Where the mind is led forward by thee
Into ever-widening thought and action
Into that heaven of freedom, my Father, let my country awake.

Whom does the poet ask the Almighty to lead?

Answer:
The poet is asks the Almighty to lead and guide the minds of the people of India who are under the British rule.

Question 3
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

Where the mind is led forward by thee
Into ever-widening thought and action
Into that heaven of freedom, my Father, let my country awake.

What is meant by ‘ever widening thought and action’?

Answer:
The phrase ‘ever widening thought and action’ refers to a process where people break all obsolete rules, attain thoughtfulness and put those thoughts into action as they fight for freedom from colonial rule.

Question 4
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

Where the mind is led forward by thee
Into ever-widening thought and action
Into that heaven of freedom, my Father, let my country awake.

Explain the phrase ‘let my country awake’.

Answer:
The phrase ‘let my country awake’ is an indication of a prayer to the almighty to help the people of India fight for their freedom and break free from the bondages of British rule.

Question 5
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

Where the mind is led forward by thee
Into ever-widening thought and action
Into that heaven of freedom, my Father, let my country awake.

Why has the poet associated freedom with heaven?

Answer:
In the poem, the poet talks about freedom on two levels, the freedom of every individual and India’s freedom from the British rule, which lasted from 1857 to 1947. After almost a century of bondage, misery and discrimination, the poet feels that it is natural for freedom to feel like heaven. Hence, he has associated freedom to heaven in the given extract.

ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Chapter 14 Mahatma Gandhi & The National Movement (1919-1934) Solutions

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Very Short Questions

Question 1: When and where was Gandhiji born? What was his full name?
Answer: Gandhiji was born on 2nd October 1869 at Porbandar in Kathiawar (Gujarat). His full name was Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi.

Question 2: Name the movement and its purpose, which he started in South Africa.
Answer: Gandhiji started the ‘National Indian Congress’ in South Africa against racial discrimination.

Question 3: Why did Gandhiji appeal to the people to help the British Empire with men and money during the First World War?
Answer: He had a strong faith that India would be free only when the people helped the British Empire at such a critical juncture.

Question 4: When and where did Gandhiji set-up his Ashram?
Answer: Gandhiji set-up his ashram in Ahmedabad in May 1915 on the bank of the river Sabarmati.

Question 5: What was the code of conduct set by Gandhiji for the inmates of the Ashram?
Answer: The people living in the ashram were supposed to observe a strict code of conduct. They were expected to be truthful, non-stealing, non-possessing, non-violent (Ahimsavadi) and to use swadeshi goods fearlessly.

Question 6: Mention the reason, why Gandhiji in his struggle for freedom evolve the method of non-violence?
Answer: Gandhiji knew that Indians were not strong enough to get freedom by any physical force. Only non-violence was the weapon to defeat the British imperialism.

Question 7: Name the title that was awarded to Gandhiji for his services to the British Empire during World War I.
Answer: Kaiser-i-Hind.

Question 8: Name two important methods adopted by Gandhiji in the freedom struggle.
Answer: Satyagraha and Non-Cooperation.

Question 9: What is meant by Satyagraha?
Answer: Satyagraha means the force born out of truth and non-violence.

Question 10: When and why did Gandhiji organise the Champaran Satyagraha in Bihar?
Answer: Gandhiji organised the Champaran Satyagraha in 1917 in Bihar to fight for the right of the farmers against indigo planters.

Question 11: What is meant by Swadeshi?
Or
What does the word ‘Swadeshi’ as used by Gandhiji imply?
Answer: Swadeshi means use of the goods produced within one’s country and by one’s countrymen.

Question 12: Why did Gandhiji put emphasis on manual labour and Charkha?
Answer: Gandhiji’s Swadeshi programme was directed towards the social and economic upliftment of society, especially of the villages. Hence, he emphasised on manual labour and Charkha.

Question 13: Name the two greatest Movements organised by Gandhiji during the freedom struggle.
Answer: The two great Movements organised by Gandhiji during the freedom struggle were:
(i) Non-Cooperation Movement. (ii) Civil Disobedience Movement.

Question 14: When did the Congress decide to start the Non-Cooperation Movement? Who was the leader of this movement?
Answer: Congress decided to start the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1920. Gandhiji was the leader of that movement.

Question 15: Why was the Rowlatt Act (1919) passed?
Answer: The Rowlatt Act (1919) was passed to counter all political unrest, which manifested itself in many situations.

Question 16: Name the Act by the British Government in the year 1919, which gave them the authority to arrest and detain suspected Indians.
Answer: Rowlatt Act.

Question 17: Who was the British General, responsible for ‘The Jallianwala Bagh Massacre’?
Answer: General Dyer.

Question 18: Which was the tragic incident that prompted Gandhiji to launch the Non-Cooperation Movement?
Answer: The inhuman act of the British Government at Jallianwala Bagh shattered the faith of Mahatma Gandhi and promoted him to launch the Non-cooperation Movement.

Question 19: What do you understand by the term Non-Cooperation?
Answer: For the smooth functioning of any government, the willing co-operation of the people is essential. The strategy of not extending such co-operation to the government for the goodwill of the people of the country is Non-Cooperation movement.

Question 20: When and where was the resolution to start the Non-Cooperation Movement launched?
Answer: The resolution to start the Non-Cooperation Movement was launched in its Nagpur session on August 15 1920.

Question 21: Mention one item each of the positive and negative programme of the Non-Cooperation Movement.
Answer: (i) Positive Programme—Hindu-Muslim Unity.
(ii) Negative Programme—Boycott of British goods.

Question 22: How did the Khilafat Movement come to an end?
Answer: The Khilafat Movement came to an end when Mustafa Kamal Pasha dethroned the Turkish Sultan and declared Turkey a secular republic

Question 23: Why is the Khilafat Movement significant in the history of the National Movement?
Answer: Khilafat Movement is significant in the history of the National Movement because it contained vast possibilities of achieving Hindu-Muslim unity and of putting up a joint front against British Imperialism.

Question 24: Why was ‘Swaraj Party’ organised and by whom?
Or
Name the two leaders of the Swaraj Party. Why were they said to be Pro Changers?
Answer: Motilal Nehru and C. R. Das organised the Swaraj Party. They were of the opinion that the Congressmen should stand for election to the Legislative Councils.

Question 25: Give two offshoots of the political excitement created by protests against the Simon Commission.
Answer: The Nehru Report and the Demand for Poorna Swaraj were the two offshoots of the political excitement created by protests against this commission.

Question 26: Name the national leader who succumbed to the lathi charge during the protest Movement against the Simon commission.
Answer: Lala Lajpat Rai.

Question 27: Why is the Congress session, held at Lahore, in 1929, significant in the history of India’s
freedom Movement?
Answer: Because it passed the important resolution of India’s Poorna Swaraj (Complete Independence).

Question 28: When and where was resolution of complete independence (Poorna Swaraj) passed?
Answer: The resolution of complete independence (Poorna Swaraj) was passed at the annual session of the Congress held at Lahore in December 1929.

Question 29: What is the historical importance of 26th January 1930?
Answer: The historical importance of 26th January 1930 is that on this day the first ‘Independence Day’ was celebrated in Calcutta.

Question 30: What did the programme of Civil Disobedience consist of?
Answer: The programme of Civil Disobedience consisted of non-violent satyagraha, boycott of schools, colleges, courts and foreign goods, breaking of salt laws and ‘no-tax’ campaigns.

Question 31: When and by whom w as the Civil Disobedience Movement launched?
Answer: Gandhiji started the Civil Disobedience Movement on 12th March 1930 with his famous Dandi March.

Question 32: Why was the Dandi March undertaken by Mahatma Gandhi?
Answer: The Dandi March was undertaken to violate the salt laws, which forbade anyone to manufacture salt and to start the Civil Disobedience Movement.

Question 33: Why was the Dandi March important in the history of the National Movement?
Answer: The Dandi March was important in the history of the National Movement because as a result of this Movement the British administration was put out of gear in many places.

Question 34: How did the British Government react to the Dandi March?
Answer: The British Government tried to suppress the movement. A large number of leaders and volunteers were beaten and imprisoned.

Question 35: Who is popularly known as the Frontier Gandhi?
Answer: Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan is popularly called Frontier Gandhi.

Question 36: What was Irwin’s declaration on Dominion Status for India?
Answer: Lord Irwin made an announcement that India will be provided self-Government as an integral part of the British Empire.

Question 37: Why was the British Government eager to have the Gandhi-Irwin Pact?
Answer: The British Government was eager to have the Gandhi-Irwin Pact because they wanted Gandhiji to call off the Civil Disobedience Movement.

Question 38: When was the Second Round Table Conference held?
Answer: The Second Round Table Conference was held from 7th September to 2nd December 1931 in London.

Question 39: Why was Gandhiji disgusted at the Second Round Table Conference?
Answer: Gandhiji was disgusted at the Second Round Table Conference because nobody paid any attention to his demands for immediate and full responsible Government for India.

Question 40: What was declared by the British by the Communal Award of 1932?
Answer: The Communal A ward provided for separate Hindu, Harijan and Muslim electorates for the new Federal Legislature, treating Hindus and Harijans as two separate political entities.

Question 41: What change in the Communal Award was brought about by the Poona Pact? Who was responsible for bringing about this change?
Answer: According to the Poona Pact the system of separate electorates was replaced by reservation of seats for Harijans. Dr. Ambedkar was responsible for bringing about this change.

Question 42: When did the Third Round Table Conference take place?
Answer: The Third Round Table Conference took place in London from 17th November to 24th December 1932.

Short Questions – I

Question 1: Mention any two effects of the Satyagraha and Non-Cooperation Movement started by Gandhiji.
Answer: The two effects of Satyagraha and Non-cooperation Movement started by Gandhiji are as follows:
(i) The Indian people made Khadi cloth by making use of Charkhas.
(ii) Several national institutions like Jamia Millia, Kashi Vidhyapeeth were set-up.

Question 2: Briefly state, how Gandhiji introduced moral values into politics?
Answer: Gandhiji introduced moral values into politics. He used human courage, patience and suffering as vehicles to achieve higher goals in life. He advocated legal and extra legal methods but not immoral and dishonest methods to achieve India’s freedom.

Question 3: What would a satayagrahi do against injustice?
Or
How does the philosophy of Satyagraha affect the evil doer?
Answer: A Satyagrahi would refuse to submit to whatever he considers to be wrong and would remain peaceful under provocation. He would suffer but would not inflict sufferings on others. This attitude of the Satyagraha will arouse the conscience of the evil doer.

Question 4: Give two examples to show that Gandhiji showed concern for the poor and the oppressed.
Answer: Following are the two example to show that Gandhiji showed concern for the poor and oppressed.
(i) He worked for the abolition of untouchability.
(ii) He set-up the Village Industries Association.

Question 5: In what way did Gandhiji involve Indian masses in the National Movement? In this respect, how did he differ from the Moderates?
Answer: Gandhiji involved masses—women, workers, farmers in the Non-Cooperation Movement, Civil Disobedience Movement and Quit India Movement. He differed from the Moderates who felt that India could be freed with the help of foreign rulers. Gandhiji made use of the masses and extra-constitutional mass action in the freedom struggle.

Question 6: What was the Khilafat Movement? Name the leaders of the Khilafat Movement that was launched in India to Champion the cause of the Caliph of Turkey.
Or
Who were the leaders of the Khilafat Movement?
Answer: The harsh treatment meted out to the Khalifa of Turkey generated anti-British feelings among the Muslims. Under the leadership of the Ali brothers, Mohammed Ali and Shaukat Ali a powerful agitation was launched. This agitation was known as the Khilafat Movement.

Question 7: What did the Khilafat Movement consist of?
Answer: The Khilafat Movement consisted of boycott of Legislative Councils, Foreign goods, Government schools and colleges, Government functions and surrendering of titles and distinctions.

Question 8: Name any three leading figures who participated in the Non-Cooperation Movement:
Answer: The three leaders who participated in the Non-Cooperation Movement were:
(i) Dr. Zakir Hussain (ii) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (iii) Rabindranath Tagore.

Question 9: Why did Gandhiji suspended the Non-Cooperation Movement?
Answer: Violence broke out at Chauri-Chaura, a village near Gorakhpur where a violent mob stormed and burnt a police station killing twenty-two policemen. Since Gandhiji believed in non-violence he decided to suspend the Non-Cooperation Movement.

Question 10: How did the Non-Cooperation Movement instil confidence among the Indians?
Answer: The Non-Cooperation Movement instilled confidence among the Indians and made them bold- The Indians realized by experience that passive resistance was more powerful than weapon used by the British. The Indians also realized and came to understand that if they were united the road to freedom was not far away.

Question 11: In what way did the Non-Cooperation Movement provide a national base to the Congress?
Answer: The Non-Cooperation Movement provided a national base to the Congress making it a genuine, revolutionary organisation. It followed the aims and objectives of the militant nationalism but tempered them with its creed of non-violence.

Question 12: What were the main provisions of the Rowlatt Act?
Or
Mention any two provisions of the Rowlatt Act, by which people were shocked and enraged. Answer: Answer: According to the Rowlatt Act:
(i) The Government could use the extraordinary repressive powers it had during the war.
(ii) The British Government could arrest any person without assigning any reason for the arrest, search any place without a warrant and imprison anyone without trial.

Question 13: What was the reaction of the Indians to the Rowlatt Act?
Answer: The Indians opposed the Rowlatt Act like wild fire. An All-India hartal was observed on 8th April, 1919. Meetings were held all over the country to show people’s resentment to the inhuman repressive measures. The Indian press also gave full support to the mass agitation.

Question 14: Name three Congressmen who were opposed to the principles of the Swaraj Party.
Answer: The three Congressmen who were opposed to the principles of the Swaraj Party were:
(i) Jawaharlal Nehru (ii) Sardar Patel (iii) Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

Question 15: Mention any two achievements of the Swaraj Party.
Answer: (i) The leaders got opportunity to get familiar with the rules and procedures of legislative assemblies.
(ii) They drew attention of the government towards the problems such as protection to Indian industries, necessity to reduce taxes and duties and railways fares etc.

Question 16: What did the Swaraj Party advocate?
Answer: The Swaraj Party advocated a new line of political activity and returned to Constitutional agitation. Its leaders held that the Congress should contest elections to the Legislatures and oppose the British Government from within the Council.

Question 17: Why was the Simon Commission set-up? Why was the Commission so called?
Answer: The Simon Commission was set up in 1927 to assess the merits of the Government of India Act of 1919. It was known as the Simon Commission after its Chairman, Sir John Simon.

Question 18: What was the reaction of the Indians to the Simon Commission?
Or
Why was the Simon commission boycotted by the Indians?
Answer: All the political parties including the Congress and Muslim League decided to boycott the Commission because it was an all-white Commission with no Indian was associated with it. The Simon Commission was received with black flags, mass demonstrations, hartals and slogans of ‘Simon Go Back’ all over the country.

Question 19: What was the reaction of the Muslim League to the Nehru Report?
Answer: Jinnah opposed some provisions Of the Nehru Report on behalf of the Muslim League. In 1929, Jinnah put forward his famous Fourteen Points as the minimum conditions acceptable to the League for any political settlement.

Question 20: Mention any two events which led to the Civil Disobedience Movement of 1930.
Answer: (i) The congress declared the attainment of complete independence as its aim in Lahore session, and decided to laurich a Civil Disobedience Movement.
(ii) It was decided to celebrate 26th January 1930 as the Independence Day all over the country.

Question 21: Why was the ‘Civil Disobedience Movement’ of March 1930, withdrawn?
Or
What assurance did Gandhiji withdraw the Civil Disobedience Movement.
Answer: The famous Gandhi-Irwin Pact was signed in March 1931. Gandhiji agreed to suspend the Civil Disobedience Movement. The British Government was agreed to release all political prisoners except those guilty of violence and to withdraw the ordinances promulgated during the movement. The government permitted manufacturing of salt for personal use and promised to return the Congressmen their confiscated properties.

Question 22: Trace the programme and progress of Civil Disobedience Movement under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhiji with reference to the Dandi March, 1930.
Answer: Gandhiji started the Civil Disobedience Movement on 12th March, 1930 with his famous Dandi March. Many volunteers joined him forming a non-violent column. Gandhiji made salt from sea water and violated the salt-laws which forbade anyone to manufacture salt except the British Government.

Question 23: Briefly state the outcome of the Civil Disobedience Movement.
Answer: Although the Civil Disobedience Movement failed to achieve its set objective, but it succeeded in creating political awakening among the people. It exposed the true nature of the British rule in India. The Government crushed the movement with force, failed to subdue peoples spirit of revolt and their nationalism and patriotism.

Question 24: Why did the Congress decide to boycott the First Round Table Conference?
Answer: The Congress decided to boycott the First Round Table Conference because it wanted the summoning of a Constituent Assembly to draft a Constitution for India which the British Government refused.

Question 25: What was agreed upon by both sides in the Gandhi-Irwin Pact?
Or
Mention any one provision each of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact signed in 1931.
Answer: Gandhiji called off the Civil Disobedience Movement and agreed to attend the Second Round Table Conference in London. He also agreed to stop boycotting the British goods. The Viceroy agreed to withdraw ordinances promulgated against Civil Disobedience Movement, release people who had been imprisoned, in connection with that Movement, and return the seized property.

Question 26: With the coming of Gandhiji the National Movement started witnessing major and minor eventful happenings that made history. On the basis of this statement, describe about Champaran Satyagrahas in brief.
Answer: Champaran (Bihar) Satyagrahas was organised by Mahatma Gandhi. Mahatma Gandhi fought for the rights of indigo cultivators, who were subjected to illegal collection by British planters. The uprising later led to setting up a Commission which finally ruled in favour of the planters. This was one of the early successes of Mahatma Gandhi’s non-violent campaign.

Short Questions – II

Question 1: Give one incident in Gandhiji’s life in South Africa which taught him the technique of Satyagraha.
Answer: Gandhiji’s life in South Africa helped him in his fight for freedom in India. Once while he was travelling in a coach, Gandhiji was forced to sit on the foot-board. He wanted to occupy a vacant seat but the conductor of the coach beat him because Indians were not allowed to sit on the seats meant for the EuropeAnswer: Gandhiji suffered all the insults and pain without resisting. The passengers took pity on him and Came to his rescue. This incident taught Gandhiji the technique of Satyagraha or passive resistance.

Question 2: Gandhiji introduced new ideas in politics and adopted new methods to give a new direction of The political movement. In this context, discuss Gandhiji doctrine of Satyagraha.
Answer: Gandhiji’s philosophy was based on non-violence. Satyagraha was one of his great weapons. Satyagraha means to “disobey the law without restoring to violence.” According to him passive resistance was the weapon of the weak while satyagraha was the weapon of the strong. He believed that a satyagrahi must be morally and spiritually strong so that he could fight injustice with non violence. He laid stress upon peaceful talks, non-cooperation, picketing, strike, social boycott, hunger strike, civil disobedience etc. to realize him aim of satyagraha.

Question 3: Explain briefly the tragedy at the Jallianwala Bagh.
Answer: Peaceful strikes were organised at Amritsar to protest against the Rowlatt Act. Two prominent Congress leaders Dr. Kitchlu and Dr. Satyapal were arrested. The people asked the Deputy Commissioner to release the leaders but the British opened fire. The mob turned violent and killed a few officers.
On 13th April, 1919 people organised a peaceful general meeting in a small garden in Amritsar. General Dyer on 12th April forbade public meetings and processions of which people were not aware. General Dyer with his troops blocked the only exit and ordered his troops to open fire killing a large number of people.

Question 4: What did the Non-Cooperation Movement consist of?
Answer: The Non-Cooperation Movement consisted of the following:
(i) Surrendering of titles of offices and resignation from nominated posts in the local bodies.
(ii) Boycott of Government schools, colleges and law courts.
(iii) Boycott of Foreign goods and adoption of Swadeshi.
(iv) Boycott of election and other Government functions.

Question 5: Explain the new method of Non-Cooperation advocated by the party member after the suspension of the Non-Cooperation movement by Gandhiji.
Answer: The Swaraj party advocated a new line of political activity and returned to Constitutional agitations. When they were elected to the Legislative Council, they found opportunity to criticise the Government. The Swaraj party opposed the Government and on many occassions the Viceroy and the Governors had to use their special powers to keep up the administration. This party continued its struggle for self-Govemment from within the Legislature from 1923 to 1927.

Question 6: Give one example each to show that the following participated in the Non-Cooperation Movement, (i) Gandhiji (ii) Educated Indians and (iii) Indian masses.
Answer: (i) In order to give an example from his own life, Gandhiji returned the medals, he had been awarded from his work in South Africa.
(ii) Many educated Indians also returned their degrees, titles and honours.
(iii) People boycotted Government functions. The lawyers gave up their legal practice, students left their schools and colleges, teachers submitted their resignation and worked for the Movement.

Question 7: Why was the Simon Commission appointed by the British Government? Why did the Congress boycott the Commission.
Answer: The Simon Commission was appointed by the Government to look into the working of the Government of India Act 1919 and suggest further reforms.
The Congress decided to Boycott it because:
(i) It was an ‘all white’ Commission. No Indian was included in it.
(ii) It refused to accept the demand for Swaraj.

Question 8: How did the people of India react of the appointment of Simon Commission.
Answer: The Simon Commission submitted its report on 27th May, 1930. The National leaders were not at all happy over the report. The Commission proposed only a limited transfer of power to the provinces and that too with so many restrictions. The major political parties totally rejected the
proposals made by the Commission. The nationalists wanted the immediate setting up of fully responsible Governments, both at the Centre and in the Provinces. This Commission’s report, in fact, became a turning point in India’s struggle for freedom. The Indians expressed their discontent by starting Civil Disobedience Movement, another weapon against the British imperialism, no less than the Non-Cooperation Movement. The Nehru Report was its reaction in which the Indians demanded Poorna Swaraj.

Question 9: State any three recommendations of the Simon Commission.
Or
Mention any two recommendations of the Simon Commission.
Answer: Three recommendations of the Simon Commission were:
(i) There should be complete autonomy in the provinces including the department of law and order but the Governor should be given over-riding power in certain matters like internal security.
(ii) There should be a federal Government at the Centre, consisting of British India and the Princely states.
(iii) Provincial Legislative Councils should be enlarged.

Question 10: State four recommendations of the Nehru Report.
Answer: Four recommendations of the Nehru Report were:
(i) Attainment of Dominion status to India at an early date.
(ii) Safeguarding the interests of religious minorities and giving them full protection.
(iii) Executive to be made responsible to the Legislature.
(iv) Indian to be a federation, built on the basis of linguistic provinces and provision of provincial autonomy.

Question 11: How successful was the second round table conference? What was Gandhi’s response?
Answer: The Second Round Table conference was held in London from September to December 1931. Gandhiji was the sole representative of the Congress. The Sikh, Muslim, Christians representative wanted to safeguard their interests. Gandhiji presented some of his demands but no attention was paid to it. Nothing could be achieved from the Second Round Table Conference. Gandhiji was disappointed, he came back and started the Civil Disobedience Movement.

Long Questions

Question 1: The advent of Mahatma Gandhi into the Indian National Congress is 1919 brought a dramatic change in the National Movement. In this context explain four ideological tenets of the Mahatma Gandhi.
Answer: The four ideological tenets of Mahatma Gandhi were:

1. Satyagraha: The term Satyagraha is made us of two words Satya – truth and Agraha (insistence to hold). Thus, Satyagraha means insisting on to uphold the truth. Here, truth means righteousness. It means moral force bom out of truth and non-violence. A Satyagrahi was to be fearless, truthful as well as peaceful, suffering willingly while refusing to submit to what is wrong. But while resisting evil, he would not hate the evil door.
2. Swadeshi: It means producing necessary items indegeneosuly for our own use without being dependent on imported goods. Gandhiji emphasized manual labour and use of the Charkha and Khadi. The programme was directed towards social and economic upliftment.
3. Mass Movement: Gandhiji has sympathy as well as understanding for the Indian peasants. Therefore, he was able to them and bring them into the mainstream of freedom movement. He united all sections of society.
4. Rights of Women and other Reforms: He adovcated rights of women and wanted them to have rights equal to men. He opposed purdah system.

Question 2: How did Gandhiji display his concern for the downtrodden and the weak people.
Answer: Gandhiji was a great social reformer. He was against the caste system and considered untouchability to be a curse on the Hindu society. He called the untouchables. ‘Harijans’ and requested people to respect them like human beings. In fact he lived with them in their colonies. Under this guidance the congress adopted the programme for their upliftment.
He even advanced for equal rights and status for women and inspired them to play an important role in the National Movement. He also introduced a new system of Basic Education wherein the children learnt some art so that they could earn while learning. He attached great importance to character building and acquiring skills and stressed upon simple and Moralistic life.

Question 3: Which mass struggle was launched by Gandhiji on non-violence lines in 1920? Explain in brief the programmes of such a campaign.
Answer: In 1920 Gandhiji launched the Non-Cooperation Movement. Non-Cooperation means withdrawal of all support and co-operation. The target of this programme was the British Government. It had only one objectives, and that was to cripple the Government and to create such problems of the administration that would make it difficult to function without the willing cooperation of the Indian people. Another objective was to make it known to the British that they could not run the administration of India even for a day unless the Indians cooperated with them. The people returned all titles, honours, award, degrees given by the government. They boycotted government functions, lawyers gave up their practice, student left school and colleges, teachers resigned from their post. People started boycotting Assembly and provincial elections and gave up their seats. People observed strikes and refused to pay taxes. Khadi became the symbol of freedom.

Question 4: In 1919 Gandhiji plunged into India’s struggle for freedom. He guided the affairs of the Indian National Congress with new techniques. Through various national movements he got the public support to win freedom for India. In this context explain, the reasons leading to the Non-Cooperation Movement.
Answer: The Reasons leading to Non-cooperation Movement: The Non-cooperation Movement (1920-22) was launched under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi. Following are the main reasons leading to the launching of this movement.

1. Local movement of Champaran, Kheda and Ahmedabad: The Champaran movement of 1917 was launched for the rights of indigo planeters in Bihar. Gandhiji fought for the rights of peasants in Kheda agitation in Gujarat in 1918. In the same year Gandhiji supported the cause of Ahmedabad mill workers in Gujarat. These Movements, launched by Gandhiji brought him closer to people and prepared him for National Movement.
2. Reaction to the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms: Against the expectations of the Indian leaders and masses, these reforms could not promise, self-government to India. Indian people supported British during the World War I in the hope that they would grant self-government to them. Therefore, people felt dejected and cheated by these reforms.
3. The Rowlatt Act, 1919: This act known as ‘Black Bill’ gave sample powers to the police to search a place and arrest any person without warrant. The Act was described as a measure of ‘No Dalil’, No ‘Wakil’ and ‘No appeal’. The act was vehemently opposed by Indians.
4. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre: One the day of Baisakhi festival 13 April, 1919, the people organised a peaceful meeting at Jallianwala Bagh to protest the arrest of Dr. Satpal and Dr. Kitchlew, arrested by the police. However, British forced led by General Dyer, without warning massacred nearly 400 people, attending this meeting, thousands were wounded. This incident hardened the feeling of bitterness among Indian people.
5. Khilafat Movement: This movement was launched in 1919 to oppose the abolition of post of Caliph in Turkey by British Government after the World War I. Gandhiji supported Khilafat Movement, which brought the unity of Hindus and Muslims against the British rule.

Question 5: Discuss the impact of Non-Cooperation Movement in Indian struggle for freedom.
Answer: The impact of Non-Cooperation Movement in India’s struggle for freedom: The Non-Cooperation Movement (1920-22) was the first major national movement launched under the leadership of Gandhiji The impact on the movement was far reaching which can be described under the following points:

1. Broadening the base of Congress and National Movement: Through Non-Co-operation for the case of national movement. The Congress, which was hitherto a middle class organisation, became for the first, a mass based organisation. All section of society like- peasants, workers, women, students etc. participated in this movement.
2. It undermined the power and prestige of British Government: The movement intensified Anti-British feeling among the people. There was total loss of faith in the present system of government. The people wanted to get rid of their rulers.
3. The movement enforced Hindu-Muslim unity: For the first time during the course of
   this movement. Hindus and Muslim came together to oppose the British Government under the leadership of Congress. The base of this unity was created during the Khilafa movement is 1919.
4. It proved the viability of Gandhian techniques: This movement proved that the Gandhian technique of non-violet agitation were largely successful in mobilising masses. Boycott of foreign goods and services and promotion of Khadi and native gods became part of national movement. The idea of Swadeshi became a national during this movement.

Question 6: Why was the Non-Cooperation Movement withdrawn? How did this decision lead to the formation of the Swaraj Party?
Answer: A tragedy of Chauri Chaura, a village in Gorakhpur, Uttar Pradesh occured in February 5, 1922. A procession of about 3000 peasants marched to the police station to protest against the police officer who had beaten some volunteers picketing a liquor shop. The police fired upon the peasants. This infuriated the demonstrators and they set the nearby police station on fire, killing 22 policemen who were inside the station.
Gandhiji a firm believer of ‘Ahimsa,’ was greatly shocked at this incident and he withdrew the Non-Cooperation Movement on Feb. 12, 1922.
The withdrawal of the Non-Cooperation Movement demoralised the congress party. Some of the leaders like C. R. Das and Moti Lai Nehru suggested that they should end the boycott of the Legislative Councils. On the contrary, they should enter them and obstruct every work of the Council. They held the view that it would not be giving up Non-Cooperation but continuing it in a more effective form. In 1923, C. R. Das, the President of Congress and Moti Lai Nehru, its secretary resigned from their offices. They formed the Congress Khilafat Swaraj Party, popularly known as Swaraj Party.

Question 7: Mahatma Gandhi’s decision to withdraw Non-Cooperation Movement was criticized from all quarters. In this context, briefly explain the formation and achievement of the Swaraj Party.
Answer: After the withdrawal of the Non-Cooperation Movement by Gandhiji, there prevailed calmness in the All India National Congress. Most of the leaders were in jail, and those who were not jailed showed not much of a zeal in pushing Gandhiji’s scheme. They were disappointed. At the same time, leaders like C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru advocated a new line of political activity. They were of the opinion that the congressmen should stand for election to the Legislative Councils. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel opposed this suggestion. He was of the opinion that it would weaken the national zeal. At this stage Motilal Nehru and C.R. Das formed a new group within the Congress and called it the ‘Swaraj Party’. Many other leaders also joined the ‘ Swaraj Party.’
The Swarajist’s Party went ahead with its programme. They took part in the elections held in 1923 and won 43 seats in the Central Legislative Assembly. Their great achievement was that they boldly and fearlessly criticized the wrong policies of the British Government from within. Another great achievement of the Swarajists was that they re-awakened the political consciousness which had been lowered due to the withdrawal of the Non-Cooperation Movement. These elected members exerted considerable influences on the Government machinery which became more actively fruitful in some way. Their party also succeeded in getting Vithalbhai Patel elected as President (Speaker) of the Central Legislative Assembly. C. R. Das was elected as Mayor of Calcutta. They continued struggling for self-government from within.

Question 8: Explain the term Swadeshi and Boycott in the context of the National Movement in India.
Answer: Swadeshi:

1. Swadeshi means producing necessary items in one’s own country and using them for ones own use without being depending on foreign goods.
2. It aimed at producing necessary goods in indigenous industries for strengthening the nation. Great leaders like Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Lala Lajpat Raf were the supporters of swadeshi Movement.
3. Gandhiji emphasized manual labour and the use of the Charkha and Khadi i.e., Swadeshi products. The programme was directed towards social and economic upliftment.

Boycott: It means ‘abstaining from the purchase of British Goods’ Gradually, it became more comprehensive in scope and a four-hold programme of Boycott was advocated. It included:

1. Boycott of English cloth, salt, sugar etc.
2. Rejecton of English speech.
3. Rejection of Government posts, courts, educational institutions and seats in Legislative Councils.
4. Social Boycott of people who purchased or used foreign goods.
   Swadeshi and Boycott were the two sides of the coin; they were complementary to each other.

Question 9: Explain the reason behind the launching of the Khilafat Movement in India. Why were the Khilafat and Non-cooperation Movements merged in 1920?
Answer: The reason for launching Khilafat Movement are as follows:
In the World War I, Turkey, a Muslim nation was defeated along with Germany. The victorious allies divided the territories of Turkish empire amongst themselves, which caused anger among Muslims.
They also abolished the office of Khalifa (Caliph) of Turkey, who was regarded as religious head of all Muslims.
This caused a wave of pro-turkey or pro-caliph or Khilafat sentiments. Thus, Indian Muslims started a powerful agitation known as Khilafat Movement. Under the leadership of Ali Brothers-Mohammed Ali and Shaukat Ali, Maulana Azad, Hasrat Mohain, a country wide agitation was organised.
Gandhiji saw is in this movement. He advised the Khilafat Committee to adapt a policy of non-cooperation with the government. As their objectives, aims and programmes were similar by the end of 1920, the Khilafat Movement and the Non-Cooperation Movement merged into one nation wide movement.
Gandhiji saw in the movement an opportunity of uniting the Hindus and the Muslims. He advised the khilafat Committee to adapt a policy of non-cooperation with the Government. As their objectives, aims and programmes were similar, by the end of 1920, the khilafat movement and the Non-Cooperation Movement merged into one nation wide movement.

Question 10: The British Government announced the formation of the Simon Commission in 1927. In this context briefly explain the purpose of its formation and its main recommendations.
Answer: The British Government sent a Commission under the chairmanship of Sir John Simon in November 1927 to prepare a report on the working of the reforms of 1919. The Congress decided to boycott it because no Indian was appointed to this Commission. The people protested against this Commission and raised a cry ‘Simon Go Back’. It took a serious turn at Lahore, where Lala Lajpat Rai received serious injuries in the Lathi charge. He was so seriously wounded that he died. Shortly after the whole country rose in great anger.
However, the Simon Commission completed its task and submitted its report. The following were the main features of the report:

1. Complete autonomy in the Province, including the department of law and order, but the Governor was given over-riding powers in certain matters.
2. British troops and British officers to stay on in Indian regiments for many years.
3. Federal Government at the centre, embracing not only British Indian but the Princely States as well.
4. Provincial Legislative Councils to be enlarged.
5. The Governor General to select and appoint members of his cabinet.
6. High Courts to be under the administrative control of the Government of India.

Question 11: Discuss why Congress demand for complete independence in 1929 led to the launch of the Civil Disobedence Movement.
Answer: Although the Congress in 1928 gave an ultimatum to the British Government to grant India Dominion Status by 31st December, 1929, a resolution on complete independence was passed at the Lahore session. The Congress had become a mass organisation. People of all shades had fallen heart and soul behind the Indian National Congress. Jawaharlal Nehru was the President of the Indian National Congress. The annual session of the Congress was held at Lahore (now in Pakistan) in December 1929. A resolution for complete independence or Poorna Swaraj has passed with an overwhelming majority by the participants in the session. They even celebrated the first Independence Day on 26th January, 1930, since the British Government had failed to concede to their demand of earlier resolution and ultimatum. The Indian National Flag was hoisted in Calcutta, and the members took the pledge to observe this day every year, till India would become independent. It was on this day that the Constitution of free India was promulgated in 1950.

Question 12: With the help of the Motilal Nehru Report 1928, briefly describe the events that led to the launching of the Civil Disobedience Movement.
Answer: The Secretary of State for India, Lord Birkenhead, asked the Indian leaders to prepare and produce a Constitution for India which should be acceptable to all the political parties of India. He threw this challenge twice. First in 1925 and again in 1927. This time the National Congress accepted this challenge. An All Party Conference was held at Bombay under the Presidentship of Mrs. Annie Besant in May 1928. There, a small sub committee was constituted under Motilal Nehru, to draft a Constitution for British India. The committee submitted the report, which is called the Nehru Report. It recommended the following main features of the proposed Constitution:

1. Attainment of Dominion Status by India at an early date.
2. The religious minorities be given full protection and their interests be safeguarded.
3. The Executive had to be responsible to the Legislature, and
4. India to have a Federal form of Government, with provisions of provincial autonomy.
5. Linguistic organisation of the British provinces.
6. The Governors to work on the advice of the Provincial Executive Councils.

The committee rejected the idea of separate electorates, but favoured the protection of minorities. Shortly thereafter, the All-Party Conference was held again in December 1928 at Calcutta to consider and give final shape to Nehru’s Report which was also called ‘Nehru’s Constitution.’ Jinnah who represented the Muslim League, opposed some of its provisions. Jinnah demanded that certain safeguards for the minorities be incorporated in the Constitution. On the basis of this amendment, the Muslim League provisionally approved the Nehru Report. But the League totally rejected the report when Jinnah announced his famous Fourteen Points Plan, as the minimum condition, acceptable to the League for any political settlement.

Question 13: Mahatma Gandhi suspended the Civil Disobedience Campaign and agreed to attend the Second Round Table Conference in London, from where he returned empty handed to India. In the context describe renewal of civil disobedence movement, 1932.
Answer: Gandhiji returned to India and reached Bombay on 28th December, 1931. The first step he took was to renew the Civil Disobedience Movement. This decision was taken in the Congress Working Committee meeting on 1st January, 1932. The British Government came into action immediately and declared the Congress as an illegal organisation. Prominent leaders like Gandhiji, Jawaharlal Nehru and Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan were jailed along with hundred of others.
But no repressive measure on the part of the British Government could create any fear in the hearts of the people. In fact, the more drastic action the Government took against the movement, the stronger it became. People organised salt satyagrahis and violated forest laws. They also refused to pay rents and revenue. The Congress still continued its activities and held meetings even though it had been declared as an illegal organisation. The Government even confiscated properties of many nationalists and used in human methods to suppress the movement. Since most of the nationalists leaders were in jail, the communal forces became active. This was a noteworthy curse that had fallen upon the country during the second phase of the Civil Disobedience Movement. The British Government took advantage of the situation, and to perpetuate the policy of ‘Divide and Rule’ declared the Communal Award early in 1932.
This award was provided for separate Hindu, Muslim and Harijan electorates for the new Federal Legislature. Gandhiji opposed this move and he was sent to yerwada jail near Poona (Pune).

Question 14: The Civil Disobedience Movement was significant in the history of the National Movement. With-reference to this movement, write short notes on the circumstances leading to Civil Disobedience Movement.
Answer: The following circumstances lead to Civil Disobedience Movement.

1. The Simon Commission appointed on 8 November, 1927 landed at Mumbai on 3rd February, 1928 and then it came again on October 11, 1928. On both occasions cries of ‘Simon Go Back’ rented the air because there was no Indian among the seven members of the Commission.
2. Nehru Report or the Constitution drawn by the Motilal Nehru Committee accepted the Dominion Status as the goal. The All Party Conference held at Calcutta failed to accept the suggestions. The report only fanned communal passions because it had not accepted the demand for communal electorate.
3. Lahore Session of the Congress in December 1929 gave the call for ‘Purna Swaraj’ and declared 26th January as the Independence Day. At the mid-night of December 31 the newly adopted Indian Tricolour was unfurled amidst jubilant scenes.
4. Earlier on May 29, 1928 the Labour Prime Minister M. Ramsay MacDonald had given an indication that Dominion Status for India would be considered but on 23 December, 1929 Lord Irwin the Viceroy was totally silent on the issue when the Indian leaders met him.
   These and other factors compelled Gandhiji to launch the Civil Disobedience Movement on March 12, 1930.

Picture Based Questions

Question 1: Answer the following:

(i) Identify the male personality in the given picture.
(ii) Mention four ideological tenets of this Indian leader.
Answer: (i) Mahatma Gandhi.
(ii) Four ideological tenets of this Indian leader are:
(a) Non-violence   (b) Satyagraha
(c) Swadeshi          (d) Truth

Question 2: Identify the picture as shown and answer the following:

(i) With which movement it is associated?
(ii) When and where the movement took place?
Answer: (i) This picture is associated with the Dandi March.
(ii) Dandi March was started on 12 March 1930 from Sabarmati Ashram at Ahmedabad.

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