Category: ICSE Solutions

ICSE Biology Previous Year Question Papers 2017 Solved for Class 10

General Instructions:

• Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
• You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
• This time is to be spent in reading the Question Paper.
• The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
• Attempt all questions from Section I and any four questions from Section II. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Section -1 [40 Marks]
(Attempt All questions from this section)

Question 1.
(a) Name the following :  [5]
(i) The process by which root hairs absorb water from the soil.
(ii) The organ which produces urea.
(iii) The kind of lens required to correct Myopia.
(iv) The pituitary hormone which stimulates contraction of uterus during child birth.
(v) The international health organisation which educates people in accident prevention.
Answer:
(i) Osmosis
(ii) Liver
(iii) Concave lens
(iv) Oxytocin
(v) Red cross

(b) Choose the correct answer from each of the four options given below: [5]
(i) The prime source of chlorofluorocarbons is :
A. Vehicular emissions
B. Industrial effluents
C. Domestic sewage
D. Refrigeration equipments
Answer:
D. Refrigeration equipments

(ii) Penicillin obtained from a fungus is :
A. Antibiotic
B. Antiseptic
C. Antibody
D. Antiserum
Answer:
A. Antibiotic

(iii) Marine fish when placed in tap water bursts because of:
A. Endosmosis
B. Exosmosis
C. Diffusion
D. Plasmolysis
Answer:
A. Endosmosis

(iv) Surgical method of sterilization in a woman involves cutting and tying of:
A. Ureter
B. Uterus
C Urethra
D. Oviduct
Answer:
D. Oviduct

(v) Synthesis phase in the cell cycle is called so, because of the synthesis of more:
A. RNA
B. RNA and proteins
C. DNA
D. Glucose
Answer:
C. DNA

(c) The statements given below are incorrect. Rewrite the correct statement by changing the underlined words of the statements. [5]
(i) The Graafian follicle, after ovulation turns into a hormone producing tissue called Corpus callosum.
(ii) Deafness is caused due to the rupturing of the Pinna.
(iii) Gyri and Sulci are the folds of Cerebellum.
(iv) Free movement of solutes in and out of the cell takes place across the cell membrane.
(v) The solvent used to dissolve the chlorophyll pigments while testing a leaf for starch is Soda lime.
Answer:
(i) The Graafian follicle, after ovulation turns into a hormone producing tissue called Corpus luteum.

(ii) Deafness is caused due to rupturing of the eardrum/tympanum.

(iii) Gyri and Sulci are the folds of Cerebrum.

(iv) Free movement of solute in and out of the cell takes place across the cell wall.

(v) The solvent used to dissolve the chlorophyll pigments while testing a leaf for starch is Methylated spirit / Alcohol.

(d) Given below are sets of five terms each. Rewrite the terms in correct order in a logical sequence. [5]
Example : Large intestine, Stomach, Mouth, Small intestine, Oesophagus.
Answer : Mouth → Oesophagus → Stomach → Small intestine → Large intestine.
(i) Fibrin, Platelets, Thromboplastin, Fibrinogen, Thrombin.
(ii) Cochlea, Malleus, Pinna, Stapes, Incus.
(iii) Receptor, Spinal cord, Effector, Motor neuron, Sensory neuron.
(iv) Uterus, Parturition, Fertilisation, Gestation, Implantation.
(v) Caterpillar, Snake, Owl, Frog, Green leaves.
Answer:
(i) Platelets, Thromboplastin, Thrombin, Fibrinogen, Fibrin.

(ii) Pinna, Malleus, Incus, Stapes, Cochlea.

(iii) Receptor, Sensory neuron, Spinal cord, Motor neuron, Effector.

(iv) Fertilisation, Uterus, Implantation, Gestation, Parturition.

(v) Green leaves, Catterpillar, Frog, Snake, Owl.

(e) Choose the ODD one out of the following terms given and name the CATEGORY to which the others belong : [5]
(i) Aqueous humour, Vitreous humour, Iris, Central canal
(ii) Formalin, Iodine, DDT, Lime
(iii) ACTH, TSH, ADH, FSH ‘
(iv) Phosphate, RNA, Sugar, Nitrogenous base
(v) Bile, Urea, Uric add, Ammonia
Answer:

(f) Given below are groups of terms. In each group the first pair indicates the relationship between the two terms. Rewrite and complete the second pair on a similar basis.
Example: Oxygen: Inspiration:: Carbon dioxide: Expiration [5]
(i) Eye: Optic nerve:: Ear :
(ii) Cytoplasm : Cytokinesis:: Nucleus :
(iii) TT: Homozygous:: Tt:
(iv) Foetus: Amnion:: Heart:
(v) Adenine: Thymine:: Cytosine :
Answer:
(i) Eye: Optic nerve:: Ear: Auditory nerve

(ii) Cytoplasm : Cytokinesis:: Nucleus: Karyokinesis

(iii) TT : Homozygous:: Tt: Heterozygous

(iv) Foetus: Amnion:: Heart: Pericardium

(v) Adenine: Thymine:: Cytosine: Guanine

(g) Match the items given in Column A with the most appropriate ones in Column B and rewrite the correct matching pairs.

Answer:

(h) The diagram given below represents the location and structure of an endocrine gland. Study the same and answer the questions that follow:

Answer:
(i) Thyroid gland

(ii) Thyroxine

(iii) Iodine

(iv) Cretinism

(v) Exophthalmic goitre / Grave’s disease.

Section – II [40 Marks]
(Attempt any four questions from this Section)

Question 2.
(a) Study the diagram given below which represents a stage during the mitotic cell division and answer the questions that follow: [5]

(i) Identify the stage giving suitable reasons.
(ii) Name the parts numbered 1 and 2.
(iii) What is the technical term for the division of nucleus?
(iv) Mention the stage that comes before the stage shown in the diagram. Draw a neat labelled diagram of the stage mentioned.
(v) Which is the cell division that results in half the number of chromosomes in daughter cells?
Answer:

(i) The stage is Telophase The reason is the nucleus and nucleolus reappears and spindle fibres disappeard.

(ii)

1. Centromere
2. Nuclear membrane/Nucleus

(iii) Karyokinesis

(iv) Anaphase

(v) Meiosis

(b) Differentiate between the following pairs on the basis of what is mentioned in brackets: [5]
(i) Active Transport and Diffusion [Significance in plants]
(ii) Demography and Population density [Definition]
(iii) Antibiotic and Antibody [Source]
(iv) Renal cortex and Renal medulla [Parts of the nephrons present]
(v) NADP and ATP [Expand the abbreviation]
Answer:

Question 3.
(a) The diagram given below represents a plant cell after being placed in a strong sugar solution. Study the diagram and answer the questions that follow: [5]

(i) What is the state of the cell shown in the diagram?
(ii) Name the structure that acts as a selectively permeable membrane.
(iii) Label the parts numbered 1 to 4 in the diagram.
(iv) How can the above cell be brought back to its original condition? Mention the scientific term for the recovery of the cell.
(v) State any two features of the above plant cell which is not present in animal cells.
Answer:
(i) The state of the cell is Plasmolysed.

(ii) Cell membrane.

(iii)

1. Cell wall
2. Strong sugar solution
3. Cell membrane
4. Nucleus.

(iv) By putting it in hypotonic solution/water.
The scientific term for the recovery of the cell is deplasmolysis.

(v) (i) Cell wall
(ii) Vacuole.

(b) Given below is a representation of a kind of pollution. Study the same and answer the questions that follow : [5]

(i) Name the kind of pollution.
(ii) List any three common sources of this pollution.
(iii) Mention three harmful effects of this pollution on human health.
(iv) Explain the term ‘Pollutant’.
(v) Name two soil pollutants.
Answer:
(i) Noise pollution.

(ii) Automobiles and road transport, jet aeroplanes, loudspeakers, radio and musical hands.

(iii) Nervous irritability, damage of eardrum, disturbs piece of mind.

(iv) The agents that cause pollution is called Pollutant.

(v) Pesticides, Styrofoam, Chemical fertilizers, domestic and industrial wastes.

Question 4.
(a) The diagrams given below represent the relationship between a mouse and a physiological process that occurs in green plants. Study the diagrams and answer the questions that follow: [5]

(i) Name the physiological process occurring, in the green plant that has kept the mouse alive.
(ii) Explain the physiological process mentioned above.
(iii) Why did the mouse die in bell jar B?
(iv) What is the significance of the process as stated in (i) for life on earth?
(v) Represent the above mentioned physiological process in the form of a chemical equation.
Answer:
(i) photosynthesis.

(ii) Photosynthesis is the process by which h green plants in the presence of sunlight and chlorophyll prepare food in the form of carbohydrates using carbon dioxide and water.

(iii) Mouse died in hell jar B because the source of oxygen i.e, the green plant was missing and the oxygen present in the bell jar was utilized in burning of candle.

(iv) Photosynthesis provides food and balances the oxygen and carbon cycle in the atmosphere.
Chlorophyll

(v)

(b) Mention the exact location of the following: [5]
(i) Prostate gland
(ii) Myelin sheath
(iii) Islets of Langerhans
(iv) Semi-circular canals
(v) Eustac hian tube.
Answer:
(i) Inferior to urinary bladder encircling urethra.

(ii) Inner sheath around the axon of a neuron.

(iii) In the pancreas.

(iv) Internal ear above utriculus.

(v) Between middle ear and pharynx.

Question 5.
(a) The diagram shown below Ls the longitudinal section of a testis of man. Study it carefully and answer the question that follow : [5]

(i) Label the parts numbered 1 to 3 in the diagram.
(ii) In which part of the testis are the sperms produced?
(iii) State the functions of the parts labelled 1 and 3 in the diagram.
(iv) Name the cells that. secrete Testosterone.
(v) Draw a neat, labelled diagram of a sperm.
Answer:
(i)

1. Scrotum
2. Sperm duct/vasa deferens
3. Epididymis

(ii) Seminiferous tubules.

(iii) Scrotum: Brings the temperature 2 – 3 °C for the maturation of sperms.
Epididymis: Store the sperms and help in their maturity.

(iv) Ley dig’s cells.

(v)

(b) Give biological reasons for the following statements: [5]
(i) Some women have facial hair like beard and moustache.
(ii) Cutting of trees should be discouraged.
(iii) In some xerophytes leaves are modified into spines.
(iv) There is frequent ruination in winter than in summer.
(v) The left ventricle of the heart has a thicker wall than the right ventricle.
Answer :
(i) Some women have facial hair like beard and moustache because of adrenal virilism, in which excess secretion of adrenal androgen takes place and causes this male effect in females.

(ii) Cutting of tree should be discouraged because it would lead to less utilization of Co₂ in photosynthesis due to which rise in Co₂ will lead to greater retention of solar radiation in the atmosphere causing global warming.

(iii) Since xerophytes grow in dry conditions where water is less, in order to reduce transpiration their leaves are modified into spines.

(iv) In winter, there is no sweating and most of the excess water is eliminated from body in the form of urine.

(v) It has to push the blood to the remotest parts of the body such as toes of the feet so the left ventricle of the heart has thicker wall.

Question 6.
(a) The diagram given below represents a section of the human heart. Answer the questions that follow: [5]

(i) Which parts of heart are in the diastolic phase? Give a reason to support your answer.
(ii) Label the parts numbered 1 and 2 in the diagram. What type of blood flows through them?
(iii) What causes the heart sounds ‘LUBB’ and ‘DUP’?
(iv) Name the blood vessels that supply oxygenated blood to the heart muscles.
(v) Draw neat labelled diagrams of a cross-section of an artery and a vein.
Answer:
(i) Ventricles, as the blood is flowing towards ventricle since tricuspid and bicuspid valves are open.

(ii)

1. Pulmonary artery
2. Left pulmonary veins.

(iii) The LUBB sound is caused due to the closure of the auriculo-ventricular valves while DUP sound is caused due to the closure of the semilunar valve.

(iv) Coronory arteries supply oxygenated blood to the heart muscles.

(b) Give appropriate biological/technical terms for the following: [5]

1. The type of immunity that exists in our body due to our genetic makeup.
2. The suppressed allele of a gene.
3. The accessory gland in human males whose secretion activates the sperms.
4. An apparatus that measures the rate of water uptake in a cut shoot due to transpiration.
5. The kind of twins formed from two fertilised eggs.
6. A pair of corresponding chromosomes of the same size and shape, one from each parent.
7. The mild chemical substance which when applied on the body kills germs.
8. The type of waste generated in hospitals and pathological laboratories.
9. The antiseptic substance in tears.
10. Cellular components of blood containing haemoglobin.

Answer:

1. Innate/Inborn immunity
2. Recessive
3. Seminal vesicles
4. Ganong’s potometer
5. Nomn identical/Fraternal
6. Homologous chromostone
7. Antiseptic
8. Biomedical Wastes
9. Lysozymes
10. Red blood cells / Red blood corpuscles

Question 7.
(a) In a homozygous pea plant, axial flowers (A) are dominant over terminal flowers (a). [5]
(i) What is the phenotype and genotype of the Fx generation if a plant bearing pure axial flowers is crossed with a plant bearing pure terminal flowers?
(ii) Draw a Punnett square board to show the gametes and offsprings when both the parent plants are heterozygous for axial flowers.
(iii) What is the phenotypic ratio and genotypic ratio of the above cross shown in (it)?
(iv) State Mendel’s Law of Dominance.
(v) Name two genetic disorders commonly seen in human males.
Answer:
(i) The phenotype of F | generation is all plants grow into axial flowers. The genotype of Fi generation is all plants are Aa.

(ii)

(iii) Phenotypic ratio : 3: 1
Genotypic ratio : 1:2:1

(iv) In heterozygous condition, out of the two alleles, one expresses itself morphologically and the other remains unexpressed. The allele which expresses itself phenotypically is called dominant and the other which remains unexpressed is called recessive.

(v) Colourblindness and Haemophilia.

(b) The diagram given below is an external view of the human brain. Study the same and answer the questions that follow : [5]

(i) Name the parts labelled A, B and C in the diagram.
(iii) What are the structural and functional units of the brain? How are the parts of these units arranged in A and C?
(iv) Mention the collective term for the membranes covering the brain.
(v) What is the function of Cerebrospinal fluid?
Answer:
(i) A. Cerebrum
B. Cerebellum
C. Spinal cord

(ii) A. It is the seat of memory, will power, emotions, experience, intelligence and controls all voluntary actions of the body.
B. Maintains balance of the body.

(iii) Neuron/Nerve cell.
In A grey matter is outside and white matter is inside while in C grey matter is inside and white matter is outside.

(iv) Meninges.

(v) It serves as shock absorbing medium. Protects brain and the rest of CNS against jerk and jolts. It maintains constant pressure in and around the brain.

ICSE Class 10 Biology Previous Years Question Papers

ICSE Physics Previous Year Question Paper 2017 Solved for Class 10

General Instructions :

• Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
• You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
• This time is to be spent in reading the Question Paper.
• The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
• Section I is compulsory. Attempt any four questions from Section II.
• The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Section -1 [40 Marks]
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1.
(a) A brass ball is hanging from a stiff cotton thread. Draw a neat labelled diagram showing the forces acting on the brass ball and the cotton thread. [2]
(b) The distance between two bodies is doubled. How is the magnitude of gravitational force between them affected ? [2]
(c) Why is a jack screw provided with along arm? [2]
(d) If the power of a motor be 100 kW, at what speed can it raise a load of50,000 N? [2]
(e) Which class of lever will always have MA > 1 and why? [2]
Answers :
(a) The diagram is as shown.

(b) It becomes one-fourth. This is because 

(c) As a large mechanical advantage is required by the jack screw used for cutting metal, hence its handle should be long and the blades short.
(MA = effort arm / load arm)

(d) P = Fυ, therefore, υ = P/F = 100000 / 50000 = 2 ms^-1

(e) Class II lever, because the effort arm is always greater than the load arm.

Question 2.
(a) Define heat capacity and state its SI unit. [2]
(b) Why is the base of a cooking pan generally made thick ? [2]
(c) A solid of mass 50 g at 150°C is placed in 100 g of water at 11°C, when the final temperature recorded is 20°C. Find the specific heat capacity of the solidfSpecific heat capacity of water – 4.2 J g ^-1 °C ^-1 ). [2]
(d) How is the refractive index of a material related to :
(i) real and apparent depth ?
(ii) velocity of light in vacuum or air and the velocity of light in a given medium ?
(e) State the conditions required for total internal reflection of light to take place. [2]
Answers:
(a) It is defined as the amount of heat required in raising the temperature of a unit mass of a substance through 1°C. Its SI unit is J kg^-1 K^-1.

(b) It is because thicker pans can have better heat distribution and heat retention due to thermal conductivity and thermal mass.

(c) Given mass of solid ms = 50 x 10^-3 kg
Mass of water m_w = 100 x 10^-3 kg
Temperature of solid = 1500°C
Temperature of water = 110°C
Final temperature = 200°C
Specific heat of water = 4.2 J kg^-1 °C^-1
Now, heat lost by the solid = heat gained by water
50 × 10^-3 × c × (1500 – 200) = 100 x 10^-3 × 4200 × (200 – 110)
Or  c = 581 J kg^-1 °C^-1

(d) (i) μ = \(\frac { real depth }{ apparent depth }\)
(ii) μ = \(\frac { c }{ \upsilon } \)

(e) (i) The incident ray should travel from the denser to the rarer medium.
(ii) The angle of incidence in the denser medium should be greater than the critical angle for the given pair of media.

Question 3.
(a) Draw a ray diagram to show the refraction of a monochromatic ray through a prism when it suffers minimum deviation. [2]
(b) The human ear can detect continuous sounds in the frequency range from 20 Hz to 20000 Hz. Assuming that the speed of sound in air is 330 ms^-1 for all frequencies, calculate the wavelengths corresponding to the given extreme frequencies of the audible range. [2]
(c) An enemy plane is at a distance of 300 km from a radar. In how much time the radar will be able to detect the plane? Take velocity of radio waves as 3 × 10⁸ m s^-1. [2]
(d) How is the frequency of a stretched string related to : [2]
(i) its length?
(ii) its tension?
(e) Define specific resistance and state its SI unit. [2]
Answers:
(a) The ray diagram is as shown:

(b) The corresponding wavelengths are λ_lowest =\(\frac { V }{ \upsilon } \) = \(\frac { 330 }{ 20000 }\) = 0.0165 m and λ_highest = \(\frac { V }{ \upsilon } \) =\(\frac { 330 }{ 20 } \) = 16.5 m.

(c) Given S = 300Km = 300000 m ,c = 3 × 10⁸ms^-1, t = ?
Using \(\frac { 2S }{ \upsilon } \) = \( \frac{2 \times 300000}{3 \times 10^{8}}\) = 2 × 10^-3 s

(d) (i) Inversely proportional to its length and
(ii) Directly proportional to the square root of tension.

(e) It is the resistance of unit cube of the material. Its SI unit is ohm-m.

Question 4.
(a) An electric bulb of resistance 500 Ω, draws a current of 0.4 A. Calculate the power of the bulb and the potential difference at its end. [2]
(b) State two causes of energy loss in a transformer. [2]
(c) State two characteristics of a good thermion emitter. [2]
(d) State two factors upon which the rate of emission of thermions depends. [2]
(e) When does the nucleus of an atom tend to be radioactive? [2]
Answers :
(a) Given R = 500 W, I = 0.4 A, V = ?, Using V = IR, we have V = 0.4 × 500 = 200 V

(b) Copper loss and iron loss.

(c) (i) Should have high melting point and
(ii) Should have low value of work function.

(d) (i) The nature of the metal and
(ii) Temperature of the metal surface.

(e) The nucleus tends to be radioactive when it becomes unstable.

Section – II [40 Marks]
(Attempt any four questions from this Section)

Question 5.
(a) A uniform half metre rule balances horizontally on a knife edge at 29 cm mark when a weight of 20 gf is suspended from one end.
(i) Draw a diagram of the arrangement
(ii) What is the weight of the half metre rule ? [3]
(b) A boy uses a single fixed pulley to lift a load of 50 kgf to some height. Another boy uses a single movable pulley to lift the same load to the same height. Compare the effort applied by them. Give a reason to support your answer.
(ii) How does uniform circular motion differ from uniform linear motion ?
(iii) Name the process used for producing electricity using nuclear energy. [3]
(c) A pulley system with VR = 4 is used to lift a load of 175 kgf through a vertical height of 15 m. The effort required is 50 kgf in the downward direction, (g = 10 N kg^-1). [4]
Calculate:
(i) Distance moved by the effort.
(ii) Work done by the effort.
(iii) M.A. of the pulley system.
(iv) Efficiency of the pulley system.
Answers :
(a) Let the weight of the half-meter scale be W.

To balance the half-metre scale at 29 cm mark, the 20 gf weight should be suspended from the 50 cm end as shown.
Moments due to W in anticlockwise direction = W gf × 4 cm
Moments due to 20 gf in clockwise direction = 20 gf × 21 cm
By the principle of moments we have Wgf × 4 = 20 gf × 21 20 × 21
Or W =\( \frac{20 \times 21}{4}\) = 105 gf

(b) (i) A single fixed pulley simply changes the direction of the action of the force. Therefore, for this pulley E = L = T = 50 kgf. Thus, it has a mechanical advantage 1.
For a single movable pulley, we have L = T + T= 2T and E = T = L/2 = 50/2 = 25 kgf, therefore, its mechanical advantage is 2.
(ii) In uniform circular motion, velocity is not constant, whereas in uniform linear motion velocity is constant.
(iii) Nuclear fission

(c) Given VR = 4, L = 175 kgf, distance moved by load = d_L = 15 m, E = 50 kgf, d_E = ?, W_E = ?, MA = ?, h = ?
distance moved by effort dE
Using the formula VR = \(\frac { distance moved by effort }{ distance moved by load }\) = \(\frac{d_{\mathrm{E}}}{d_{\mathrm{L}}}\) therefore, we have
d_E = VR × d_L 4 = 4 × 15 = 60 m
W_E = Effort x d_E = 50 × 10 × 60 = 30000 J
Now, MA = \(\frac { Load }{ effort }\) = \(\frac { 175 }{ 50 }\) = 3.5
Now, η =  \(\frac { MA }{ VR }\) = \(\frac { 3.5 }{ 4 }\) = 0.875 = 87.5%

Question 6.
(a) (i) How is the transference of heat energy by radiation prevented in a calorimeter ? [3]
(ii) You have a choice of three metals A, B and C, of specific heat capacities 900 J kg^-1 °C^-1, 380 / kg^-1 °C^-1 and 460 J kg^-1 °C^-1 respectively, to make a calorimeter. Which material will you select ? Justify your answer.
(b) Calculate the mass of ice needed to cool 150 g of water contained in a calorimeter of mass 50 g at 32°C such that the final temperature is 5°C.
Specific heat capacity of calorimeter 0.4 J g^-1 °C^-1
Specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 J g^-1 °C^-1
Latent heat capacity of ice 330 J g^-1 [3]
(c) (i) Name the radiations which are absorbed by greenhouse gases in the earth’s atmosphere.
(ii) A radiation X is focused by a particular device on the bulb of a thermometer and mercury in the thermometer shows a rapid increase. Name the radiation X.
(iii) Name two factors on which the heat energy liberated by a body depends. [4]
Answers :
(a) (i) This is done by polishing the inner and outer surface of the copper
calorimeter and the space between the copper vessel and the insulating container is filled with some poor conductor like wood wool or glass wool.
(ii) A, as it will gain less energy in a given time.

(b) Given m_w = 150 g, m_i = ?, m_C = 50 g, T_i = 0 °C, T_w = 32 °C, T_f= 5 °C
Specific heat capacity of calorimeter = 0.4 J g^-1 °C^-1
Specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 J g^-1 °C^-1
Latent heat capacity of ice 330 J gm^-1
Heat lost by 150 g water + 50 g of calorimeter in falling form 32 °C to 5 °C
= 150 × 4.2 × 27 + 50 × 0.4 × 27 = 17550 J
Heat needed to melt ice = m_i L = m_i × 330 = 330m_i
So 330m_i = 17550 or m_i = 17550/330 = 53.2 g

(c) (i) Infrared
(ii) Infrared
(iii) Temperature and surface area.

Question 7.
(a) A lens forms an upright and diminished image of an object when the object is placed at the focal point of the given lens.
(i) Name the lens.
(ii) Draw a ray diagram to show the image formation.
(b) A ray of light travels from water to air as shown in the diagram given below :
(i) Copy the diagram and complete the path of the ray. Given the critical angle for water is 48°.
(ii) State the condition so that total internal reflection occurs in the above diagram.

(c) The diagram below shows a point source P inside a water container. Four rays A, B, C, D starting from the source P are shown upto the water surface.

(i) Show in the diagram the path of these rays after striking the water surface. The critical angle for water air surface is 48°.
(ii) Name the phenomenon which the rays B and D exhibit:
Answers:
(a) Concave lens. The diagram is as shown.

(b) (i) The redrawn diagram is as shown :

(ii) The angle of incidence should be greater than the critical angle.

(c) (i) The diagram is as shown.

(ii) Ray B – Refraction, Ray D – Total internal reflection.

Question 8.
(a) Name the factor that determines :
(i) Loudness of the sound heard.
(ii) Quality of the note.
(iii) Pitch of the note. [3]
(b) (i) What are damped vibrations ?
(ii) Give one example of damped vibrations.
(iii) Name the phenomenon that causes a loud sound when the stem of a vibrating tuning fork is kept pressed on the surface of a table. [3]
(c) (i) A wire of length 80 cm has a frequency of 256 Hz. Calculate the length of a similar wire under similar tension, which will have frequency 1024 Hz.
(ii) A certain sound has a frequency of 256 hertz and a wavelength of 1.3 m.
(1) Calculate the speed with which this sound travels.
(2) What difference would be felt by a listener between the above sound and another sound travelling at the same speed, but of wavelength 2.6 m ? [4]
Answers :
(a) (i) Intensity/Amplitude.
(ii) Frequency of source and relative motion between the source of sound and the listener.
(iii) The number and the frequency of the overtones present in a given sound.

(b) (i) Those vibrations which die out with time.
(ii) Vibrations of a simple pendulum.
(iii) Resonance

(c) (i) Given L₁ = 80 cm, v₁ = 256 Hz, L₂ = ?, V₂ = 1024 Hz
We know that for a vibrating string Lv = constant. Therefore, we have

(ii) (1) v = 256 Hz, λ = 1.3 m, V = ?
Using V = vλ, we have V = 256 x 1.3 = 332.8 m s^-1
(2) He will hear a dull sound as the frequency of the sound wave of wavelength 2.6 m will be half the frequency (256/2 = 128 Hz) of the sound of wavelength 1.3 m.

Question 9.
(a) (i) Name the colour code of the wire which is connected to the metallic body of an appliance.
(ii) Draw the diagram of a dual control switch when the appliance is switched ‘ON’. [3]
(b) (i) Which particles are responsible for current in conductors ?
(ii) To which wire of a cable in a power circuit should the metal case of a geyser be connected ?
(iii) To which wire should the fuse be connected ? [3]
(c) (i) Explain the meaning of the statement ‘current rating of a fuse is 5A’.
(ii) In the transmission of power the voltage of power generated at the generating stations is stepped up from 11 kV to 132 kV before it is transmitted. Why ? [4]
Answers :
(a) (i) Green and Yellow strips
(ii) The diagram is a shown.

(b) (i) Electrons.
(ii) Earth wire.
(iii) Live wire.

(c) (i) It means that it can withstand a maximum current of 5 A before it “blows”.
(ii) Due to this the current flowing in the circuit decreases. As a result heat losses I²R decreases.

Question 10.
(a) Answer the following questions based on a hot cathode ray tube :
(i) Name the charged particles.
(ii) State the approximate voltage used to heat the filament.
(iii) What will happen to the beam when it passes through the electric field ? [3]
(b) State three factors on which the rate of emission of electrons from a metal surface depends. [3]
(c) (z) What are free electrons ?
(ii) Why do they not leave the metal surface on their own ?
(iii) How can they be made to leave the metal surface ? (State any two ways) [4]
Answers :
(a) (i) Electrons.
(ii) 5 to 6 V.
(iii) It is deflected by the electric field.

(b) (i) Nature of the metallic surface
(ii) Temperature of the metal surface and
(iii) Surface area of the metal surface.

(c) (i) These are the electrons which are not bound to the nucleus and are free to move in the metal.
(ii) Because it finds itself being pulled by the positive charge left behind as it becomes.
(iii) They can be made to leave the metal surface by (z) Thermionic emission (heating the metal surface) (ii) Photoelectric emission (By shining a radiation of sufficient frequency on the metal surface).

ICSE Class 10 Physics Previous Years Question Papers

ICSE Commercial Studies Previous Year Question Paper 2011 Solved for Class 10

ICSE Paper 2011
COMMERCIAL STUDIES

(Two Hours)
Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
This time is to be spent in reading the Question Paper.
The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
Attempt all questions from Section A and any four questions from Section B.
The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Section-A (40 Marks)
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1:
Distinguish between:
(a) Capital Receipts and Revenue Receipts. [2]
(b) Direct Costs and Indirect Costs. [2]
(c) Shareholders and Customers. [2]
(d) Budgeting and Forecasting. [2]
(e) A Trading Account and a Profit and Loss Account. [2]

Answer:
(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) Refer Ans. 1. (b), 2016.

(e)

Question 2:
(a) What is meant by formal communication? [2]
(b) Name four important methods used for training. [2]
(c) State any two methods of Marketing Research. [2]
(d) What are Liquid Assets? [2]
(e) Give two aims of The Consumer Protection Act 1986. [2]

Answer:
(a) Refer Ans. 2. (b), 2016.
(b) (i) Orientation Training, (ii) Job Training,
(iii) Refresher Training (iv) Promotional Training

(c) Refer Ans. 6. (b), 2016.

(d) ‘Liquid Asset’ means those assets which will yield cash very shortly. All current asset except stock and prepaid expenses are included in liquid asset. Liquid asset thus include cash, debtors, bills receivable and short term securities.
(e) Refer Ans. 4. (a), 2016.

Question 3:
(a) What is meant by Non-Insurable Risk? Give one example. [2]
(b) State any two general utility functions of Commercial Banks. [2]
(c) State any two characteristics of a Service. [2]
(d) Give two points of difference between Public and Private Warehouses. [2]
(e) State any two expectations of the general public from a business organization. [2]

Answer:
(a) Risk whose probability cannot be calculated and which cannot be insured against is known as non-insurable risk.
Example: Loss due to fall in demand, changing technology, changing fashion etc.
(b) General utility functions are:

1. Safe custody of valuables: Banks offer safe deposit vaults (called lockers) where customers can keep their jewellery, shares, debentures, insurance policies and other valuables. In this way banks assume safe custody of valuables and important documents of customers. Banks charge rent for this service.
2. Issue letters of credit, travellers cheques, etc: Commercial banks issue letters of credit to importers. They also issue cheques to travellers to make money available to them at the place of requirement. Travellers cheques relieve the tourists from the problem of carrying cash during the tour. Banks also provide credit card and ATM facilities to the customers.
3. Underwriting of capital issues: Banks underwrite shares and debentures issued by public limited companies. In this way banks help them in raising capital from the market. Many commercial banks also offer merchant banking facilities to the corporate sector.      (any two)

(c) Two characteristics of service are:

1. Services are intangible as they cannot be seen or touched. They have no physical shape.
2. Services cannot be stored for future use.

(d) Refer Ans. 1. (c), 2013.

(e) The two expectations of the general public from a business organisations are as follows:

1. To protect the-environment from all types of pollution.
2. To produce socially desirable product in accordance with national interest and priorities.

Question 4:
(a) State any two features of a Bearer Cheque. [2]
(b) What is meant by the term Capital Expenditure? [2]
(c) List two features of a Non-trading Organization. [2]
(d) State two methods or techniques of Sales Promotion. [2]
(e) State two advantages of a Campus Interview as a source of recruitment. [2]

Answer:
(a) Two features of a Bearer cheque:

1. It contains the words ‘or bearer’ along with the name of the payee.
2. The ownership of this cheque can be transferred by mere delivery.

(b) Capital expenditure means the expenditure the benefit of which is not exhausted within the current year but is enjoyed over a long time period. Such expenditure is of non-recurring nature and results in acquisition of permanent assets. Property acquired with the help of capital expenditure is utilised by the business for a long time and thereby it earns revenue. Thus, all expenditure incurred to acquire or increase the value of fixed assets which are used in the business for the purpose of earning revenue are called capital expenditure.

(c) Two features of a Non-trading organisation are:

1. Non trading organisations are established and operated only for the purpose of rendering services to the members and the society and not for earning profits.
2. Non trading organisation prepare:
   (a) Receipt and Payment account.
   (b) Income and Expenditure account.
   (c) Balance Sheet.

(d) Two methods or techniques of Sales Promotion are:

1. Dealers sales promotion techniques, eg., free displays and trials, special gifts, display coupons etc.
2. Customers sales promotion techniques, e.g., free samples, coupons, premium, fair and exhibitions etc.

(e) The two advantages of a campus interview as a source of recruitment are as follows:

1. Campus recruitment is very convenient and inexpensive because employer gets help from the placement cell of the educational institute in recruitment and selection.
2. Well educated persons become available very quickly without any advertisement.

Section – B (40 Marks)
(Answer any four questions from this section)

Question 5:
(a) State any five advantages of Road Transport over Water Transport. [5]
(b) Give any five expectations of employees from a business enterprise. [5]

Answer:
(a) Five advantage of road transport over water transport are as follows:

1. Special Needs: Road transport can reach rocky and hilly remote areas which are inaccessible to water ways.
2. Less formalities: For relatively short distances, road transport is quicker than water transport. Lesser time is wasted in booking the goods and in taking delivery. Therefore, road transport facilitates prompt delivery of goods.
3. Multipurpose nature: Roads can be used by several types of vehicles, e.g. motor cars, trucks, buses. Road transport is very convenient and controllable. It serves as a feeder to ocean transport. Road transport provides more personal and efficient services due to small and simple organisation.
4. Door-to-Door service: Road transport provides complete service by loading the goods at consignor’s door and unloading them at the consignee’s place. No elaborate loading arrangements are required and less time is involved in transportation. There is no need to wait for full load shipment.
5. Economy: For short distances and small loads, road transport is quicker and economical. Cost of packing and handling of goods are also comparatively low.

(b) Five expectations of employees from a business enterprise:

1. Security of job and continuity of service under congenial conditions.
2. A fair remunerations in the form of wages and salaries.
3. Safe and comfortable working environment.
4. Opportunity to participate in the profits and management of the organisations.
5. Protection of trade union rights.

Question 6:
(a) Explain any two functions of the Central Bank of a country. [5]
(b) Briefly explain any five principles of an Insurance Contract. [5]

Answer:
(a) Refer Ans. 7. (b), 2015.

(b) Five principles of an Insurance contract are:

1. Utmost good faith: An insurance contract is based on utmost good faith on the part of both the parties. One who wants to get an insurance policy it is his duty to disclose all the material facts about the subject to be insured. The amount of premium is fixed on the basis of the information supplied by the proposer.
2. Insurable Interest: Insurable interest is an essential element in every insurance contract. In the absence of insurable interest, a contract of insurance becomes a wagering contract which is null and void and unenforceable at law. Insurable interest means that the insured must be in such a position that he will suffer a primary loss by the happening of the event insured against. A person is said to have an insurable interest in the subject matter insured, if he is benefited by its existence and suffers a loss by its destruction.
3. Indemnity: Indemnity means a promise to compensate in case of loss. The object of every insurance contract is to place the insured as nearly as possible in the same financial position after the loss as he was before the loss. The insured is entitled to recover from the insurer only the amount of loss actually suffered. The maximum amount of compensation will be upto the sum insured on the value of the policy. The insured will not be allowed to make any profit out of the happening of any loss covered by insurance contract.
4. Doctrine of Subrogation: It implies that after indemnifying the insured for his loss, the insurer becomes entitled to all the rights and remedies to the property insured^ The insurer shall step into the shoes of insured. Doctrine of subrogation is applicable to all contracts of indemnity and it is not applicable to life insurance.
5. Mitigation of Loss: According to this principle, it the duty of the insured to take all possible steps to minimise the loss or damage in case of a mishap. The insured should not be careless in the event of any accidental loss just because the property is insured. He should behave like a prudent person and make reasonable effort to save the insured property.

Question 7:
(a) Explain any five qualities of a successful salesman. [5]
(b) Briefly explain the following:
(i) Role of Trade Unions in the welfare of workers.
(ii) Outdoor Advertising. [5]

Answer:
(a) Five qualities of a successful salesman are:

1. Knowledgeable: A good salesman should possess knowledge about his organization, product, market, customer and competitor. He should have knowledge about his product so that if any query is put to him by customer he can handle it easily and confidently. He should have knowledge about the customer related to his habits, tastes, preferences and time of buying so that the repeated sales can be made.
2. Physically and mentally fit: A good salesperson is one who is physically and mentally fit. Selling often requires extensive travelling and even visits to the prospects at odd hours; thereby putting the strain on salesman. Therefore, the salesman should be physically fit to overcome such strain. He should be mentally fit to understand what prospect says on one hand and on the other to make prospect understand what he says.
3. Cheerful: Any person having cheerful disposition and pleasing manners gets acceptance very easily. Same is the case in selling. A salesman who has a smiling face and is social, will get the acceptance from the prospect easily. To be a successful salesman, he should possess pleasing manners, politeness, sincerity and should be alert and attentive to the needs of customers.
4. Communication: Communication skill is an asset for the salesman. He should be able to speak freely, clearly and in a well-pitched voice. He must be a person who has a natural ability for conversation.
5. Determination: The salesman must have a sense of determination to secure the customer. He should not loose confidence and give up the customer so easily.

(b)

1. Role of trade unions: Trade unions perform the following main functions:
   • Protection: Trade unions safeguard workers against all sorts of exploitation by the employer and political parties. A union provides protection from unfair labour practices and atrocities of management. It also tries to revise the status of workers in industry and society.
   • Proper standard of living: Unions attempt to secure for workers fair wages, proper working conditions and welfare facilities like health, housing, recreation and social security so as to ensure desirable living standard for them.
   • Economic security: Unions protect their members from various economic hazards such as illness, accidental injuries, unemployment. They secure compensation from employers. Unions also provide financial assistance to workers dining distress.
   • Collective bargaining: A trade union negotiates and bargains with the management to settle terms and conditions of employment.
   • Participation: Trade unions work for achieving a better say of workers in the management of matters which directly influence the interests of workers. In this way unions attempt to establish democracy in industry.
   • Protests: Unions organise demonstrations, strikes and other forms of protest to press the demands of workers. During a strike the union may provide financial and other help to members when the employer stops wages.
   • Education: Many trade unions make arrangements for the education of workers and their family members. Unions make workers conscious of their rights and duties and aware of the need for techno-logical changes.
   • Welfare and recreation: Some unions provide recreation, sports, and other welfare facilities for their members.
2. Outdoor advertising takes place in the form of posters, bill-boards, electrical displays, wall writing etc. It is employed by business concerns to attract the attention of the people quickly. It is a relatively cheap medium of advertisement.
   Outdoor media of advertising refers to the media used to reach people when they are out of the doors. Therefore, outdoor advertising means exhibition of advertisements at street comers, railway stations, bus stations, on moving vehicles, etc., through posters, hoardings, electric or neon signs, sky writing, loud speakers, travelling announcers etc. It has a wide appeal and long life. Outdoor advertising is highly flexible and economical. Timeliness and repetition is another advantage of outdoor advertising. But outdoor advertising fails to tell the complete message and has a low retention value. It has a temporary appeal.

Question 8:
(a) Explain the elements in the process of communication. [5]
(b) Marketing is essential for the success of a business organisation.
Give four reasons to support your answer. [5]

Answer:
(a) The elements in the process of communication:

1. Sender: The sender is a person, group or organisation which initiates the communication process. Sender may be a speaker, a writer or an actor.
2. Message: Message is the physical form in which an idea is expressed. It consist of facts, opinions, feeling, decision, etc. Message may take the form of oral or written words.
3. Encoding: Encoding is the process by which the message is translated into symbols which can be transmitted. The symbol may be language, numbers, codes, signs, sounds, pictures etc.
4. Channel: Channel means the medium which carries the message to the receiver. It serves as a link between the sender and the receiver. Face to face conversation, telephone calls, letters, telegrams, fax, E-mail etc., are example of channel.
5. Receiver: Receiver is the person, group or organisation to whom the message is directed. Receiver may be a listener, a reader or a viewer.
6. Decoding: Decoding is the process by which the receiver translates the message into meaning from the symbols encoded by the sender.
7. Feedback: Once, the message is understood the receiver sends his reaction or response. This response is known as feedback. It verifies the message.

(b)

1. Foundation of business: Marketing is the focal point of all business activities. The end of all production is consumption and the success of a business enterprise depends on efficient marketing. Manufacturing, finance, personnel and other activities of business revolve around marketing. Marketing has become vital for the survival and growth of business due to large scale production, changing technology, and sophisticated tastes and preferences of customers.
2. Source of revenue: Marketing is the only source of generating revenue for business. Other activities of business such as manufacturing, finance, research and development and personnel incur expenditure. Marketing provides funds for all other departments by generating revenue. Efficient marketing creates demand and enlarges the market so that more revenue is earned for meeting costs. Marketing helps to reduce costs through optimum utilisation of resources.
3. Satisfaction of customers’ Needs: Marketing satisfies human needs and determines the pattern of consumption. It helps in assessing customer wants and facilitates transfer of ownership of goods. Marketing creates time, place and possession utilities.
4. Higher standard of living: Marketing helps in improving the standard of living by providing new and better varieties of goods to people. It brings to their knowledge new products and their uses. It brings about improvements in the quality of life of the common man.

Question 9:
(a) State the various stages of the Selection Process of workers in an organisation. [5]
(b) Suggest any five ways Society benefits from Advertising. [5]

Answer:
(a) Refer Ans. 8. (b), 2016.

(b) Five ways Society benefits from Advertising are:

1. Generates employment: Advertising provides direct employment to a large number of people engaged in designing, writing, and issuing advertisements. Indirectly, advertising increases employment opportunities by increasing the volume of production and distribution.
2. Standard of living: Advertising improves the standard of living of the people by promoting variety and quality in consumption. It educates people about new uses of products and provides information for developing better ways of life. To quote Franklin D. Roosevelt, the late President of America, “advertising brings to the greatest number of people actual knowledge concerning useful things, it is essentially a form of education and the progress of civilization depends on education.”
3. Sustains the press: Advertising provides an important source of revenue to newspapers, magazines, radio and television. As a result public gets news at lower rates and the circulation of newspapers and magazines increases. Press is the guardian of public opinion and by helping it to remain independent, advertising promotes liberty and democracy in the country.
4. Stimulates research and development: Advertising can be successful only when it is backed by new and better products. To derive maximum benefit from advertising in the competitive market, every producer tries to differentiate his products from the competitive products. Big business firms have research and development departments to develop new products and new uses.
5. Incentive to progress: Advertising motivates people to work hard and earn more to buy new and better products. According to Sir Winston Churchil, “Advertising nourishes the consuming power of man. It creates a desire for better standard of living. It spurs individual exertion and greater production.”

Question 10:
Prepare a Trading, Profit and Loss Ale and Balance Sheet of M/s Sultan Enterprises for the year ended 31st March, 2010 from the following Trial Balance. [10]

Answer:

ICSE Class 10 Commercial Studies Previous Years Question Papers

ICSE Commercial Applications Previous Year Question Paper 2016 Solved for Class 10

ICSE Paper 2016
COMMERCIAL APPLICATIONS

(Two Hours)
Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
This time is to be spent in reading the Question Paper.
The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
Section A is compulsory. Attempt any four questions from Section B.
The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Section-A (40 Marks)
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1:
State a difference between each of the following:
(a) Commodity market and Capital market. [2]
(b) Skimming pricing and Penetrating pricing. [2]
(c) Current Deposit Account and Saving Deposit Account. [2]
(d) Training and Education. [2]
(e) Money costs and Real costs. [2]

Answer:
(a) Difference between Commodity market and Capital market:

(b) Difference between a Skimming Pricing and Penetrating Pricing:

(c) Difference between Saving Account and Current Account:

(d) Difference between training and education:

(e) Difference between Money costs and Real costs:

Question 2:
(a) What is meant by ‘Variable Cost’? [2]
(b) What is Tidal energy? [2]
(c) Mention any four main reasons for the rapid growth of public relations. [2]
(d) What is ‘Balance Sheet’? [2]
(e) State two essential of a good advertisement. [2]

Answer:
(a) Variable Cost: Variable costs are those costs which vary in amount with changes in the level of output or activity. Such costs increase or decrease in the same proportion in which the level of output increases or decreases. Variable costs vary in total amount but remain constant per unit of production.
(b) Tidal Energy: The energy possessed by rising and falling water in tides is known as tidal energy. Tidal energy is harnessed for producing electricity by constructing a dam across a narrow opening to the sea. This is not a major source of energy.

(c) Four main reasons:

1. Communication gap.
2. Population growth.
3. Recognition of social responsibility.
4. Education in Public Relations.

(d) Balance Sheet: Balance sheet means a statement which shows the assets and liabilities of the organisation (including capital fund and other fund) on a particular date. It is a statement which reports the property values owned by the organisation and the claims of creditors and owners against these proper-ties. It depicts the financial position of the organisation on specified date.

(e) The two essentials of a good advertisement:

1. Prestige: This theme is used to popularize luxurious items like motor cars, refrigerators and furniture. Their possession acts as a symbol of prestige to their holders.
2. Comfort: This theme is used to advertise products like fans, air conditioners, refrigerators etc., as such products help to make life comfortable.

Question 3:
(a) What are Receipts and Payments Accounts? [2]
(b) What is understood by the ‘Principle of consistency’? [2]
(c) What is meant by ‘Discounting of a Bill of Exchange’? [2]
(d) What are the components of Marketing mix? [2]
(e) What is meant by In-house market? [2]

Answer:
(a) Receipt and Payment Account: It is the summary of Cash Book over a specified period. Actual cash receipts and actual cash payments dining the year are considered in this account. These cash receipts and cash payments are recorded under appropriate headings. Such an account necessarily commences with the initial cash and Bank Balances/overdraft and closes with the final cash and Bank Balances/overdraft.
(b) Principle of consistency states that accounting procedures and methods should remain consistent from one year to another. These should not be changed from year to year as otherwise the net profits of different years will not be comparable.
(c) Discounting of a bill means selling the bill before the due date to a bank at less than the face value. The banker takes the bill and in return gives cash which is equal to the amount of the bill minus the discount. The bank may collect the amount of the bill from the drawee on the due date. In case, the bill is dishonoured on maturity, the bank can recover the payment from the drawer.
(d) Components of Marketing Mix:

1. Product Mix.
2. Price Mix.
3. Place or Physical iJistribution Mix.
4. Promotion Mix.

(e) In-Home Market: Marketer carouse door-to-door selling through trained sales force. Initial contact may be made by phone or mailed-in-coupon. This method is costly but effective. In India Eureka Forbes is using this method.

Question 4:
Justify a reason either for or against each of the following:
(a) Services are not homogeneous. [2]
(b) Firms live forever (explain with reference to the concept of accounting). [2]
(c) Public relations is a propaganda. [2]
(d) The cost of sugarcane is an avoidable cost. [2]
(e) A cheque is an inconvenient method of making payments. [2]

Answer:
(a) For: Services are highly variable. It is difficult to control and measure.
(b) For: 

1. It is assumed that the business will continue to exist for a long period in the future. The transactions are recorded in the books of the business on the assumption that it is a continuing enterprise.
2. It is on this concept that we record fixed assets at their original cost and depreciation is charged on these assets without reference to their market value.

(c) Against:

1. Public Relations is not propaganda which is a instrument of politics and power for social control.
2. Propaganda does not necessarily require an ethical content and is guided solely by self-interest.

(d) For: The cost of sugarcane can be avoided by closing down the sugar factory for one year. But the cost of factory building cannot be avoided for the year.
(e) Against: A cheque is a very convenient method of making payment. There is no need of counting and checking notes when payment is made by a cheque.

Section – B (60 Marks)
(Attempt any four questions from this Section)

Question 5:
(a) Distinguish between a Product and a Service citing suitable examples. [5]
(b) Describe the various steps involved in Personal selling. [5]
(c) Explain the main principles of Accounting. [5]

Answer:
(a) Difference between Product and Service:

1. Tangibility: Products are tangible, i.e., they can be felt, seen, tasted, heard or smelled before they are purchased whereas services are intangible, i.e., they cannot be felt, seen, tasted or smelled before they are purchased. For example, a person wants to purchase a car. He/she can feel and see the car before purchase but a person going for a massage to the parlour, cannot feel the result before getting the massage done.
2. Variability: Services are highly variable but products are not. For example, if a patient wants to get his liver transplanted, the services given by a hospital situated in Delhi, which is equipped with all modern amenities for doing So, will be quite different from a hospital situated in rural areas of India.
3. Separability: Products are separable, i.e., products are manufactured, put into inventory, then through channel of distribution they reach the ultimate consumer. Thus, product is separable but this is not true in case of services, they are produced and consumed simultaneously. For example, a car is manufactured, put into inventory, distributed through their show¬rooms and then it is purchased by the customer but when a person travels by aeroplane, services of aeroplane (transportation) can be taken while it is flying, thus it is inseparable.
4. Perishability: Products can be stored whereas services cannot be stored. Thus, products are not perishable but services are. If a showroom keeps twenty scooters for sale during one month and they are not sold, they don’t perish. But if a passenger bus has to carry fifty passengers at one time and it carries only 30 then the service meant for 20 passengers perishes.
5. Homogeneity: Products are homogeneous in many respects. In case of standardized products, a product is a perfect substitute for another where it is impossible for an individual to distinguish one from another. Thus, if a person has to buy a Gillette shaving gel, he can pick any one lying at the store. But services are not homogeneous, they are heterogeneous. For example, if one wants to take medicine from doctor, he/she cannot choose any, but will choose the one which gives the best satisfaction.

(b) Various Steps in Personal Selling:

1. Preparation: First of all a well-trained and motivated sales force is developed. Salespersons must have knowledge of the firm and its products and services, competitors and their products and services, customers and selling techniques. They must be fully aware with the quality, uses, prices, etc., of the goods to be sold.
2. Prospecting: Prospecting means locating and identifying the potential buyers. A list of prospective customer can be prepared with the help, of dealers, salespersons, telephone and trade directories etc. Information about fhe age, income, education, family background, tastes, preferences, etc., of prospective buyers should be collected.
3. Approach: In this step, the salesperson makes face-to-face contact with the prospective buyer. The sales-person should introduce himself, greet the customer and start the conversation with him/her so as to create a good first impression.
4. Presentation: Now the salesperson displays and describes the product to be sold. He should tactfully demonstrate the product and explain its quality, utility, performance etc.
5. Closing: The salesperson concludes the sale by obtaining the consent of the buyer. Some concessions may be necessary for this purpose. He should assure the customer that he has made a wise choice and should thank the customer. In order to obtain repeat sales, the salesperson should carefully pack and deliver the product.

(c) Main Principles of Accounting:

1. The Business Entity Concept: According to this concept, a business firm is treated as a unit separate and distinct from its owners. A completely separate set of books is kept for the firm and business transactions are recorded from the firm’s point of view. The capital provided by the owner is treated as a liability of the firm. Interest on capital is treated as an expense of business. Similarly, the money/goods withdrawn by the proprietor from the firm for his personal use is treated as drawings. The concept of separate entity is necessary for ascertaining the true net profits and financial position of a business firm.
2. The Going Concern Concept: It is assumed that the business will continue to exist for a long time in the future. Transactions are recorded on the assumption that the business will exist for an indefinite period of time. It is on this assumption that a distinction is made between capital expenditure and revenue expenditure. Fixed assets are recorded at their original cost less depreciation. Market value of fixed assets is not recorded, as these assets are not to be sold in the near future.
3. Accounting Period Concept: It is due to this concept that financial statements are prepared at regular intervals, generally one year. This period is called accounting period. The net profit/net loss of business is ascertained separately for each accounting period.
4. Money Measurement Concept: On the basis of this concept, only those transactions are recorded in accounts which can be expressed in terms of money. For example, the retirement of the chairman of the company cannot be recorded because it is not possible to measure the monetary effect of retirement except in terms of gratuity and other benefits payable to the chairman.
5. The Matching Principle: According to this principle, cost of a particular period should be charged from the revenue of same period only. Only such matching of cost and revenue can reveal the true profit or loss for a period. When cost is associated with a particular product or service, revenue earned from that product or service should be matched to its cost. This principle provides the guidelines as to how the expenses are to be matched with revenue. It requires that in determining the net profit, all costs which are applicable to revenue of that period should be charged against that revenue.

Question 6:
(a) Describe any two stages of Marketing. [5]
(b) ‘Advertising is a Social waste’. Give reasons in support of your answer. [5]
(c) Explain any two causes responsible for the destruction of the ecosystem. [5]

Answer:
(a) From subsistence level and self-sufficiency to modem marketing has been a long journey. Advent of money led to the rise of markets and exchange system. The evolution of modem marketing can be traced through the following stages:

1. Production-Oriented Stage (1869-1930): In this stage the motto was ‘sell what can be produced’. There was acute shortage of goods and there was no need to create demand. Product was the focus of attention and communication with the buyer was not needed. Products were manufactured on the assumption that customer would search and buy well build and reasonably priced products. This was based on Say’s law: ‘Supply creates its own demand’. Production oriented stage lasted till the Great Depression.
2. Sales-Oriented Stage (1930-1950): Great Depression resulted in drastic changes in buying habits and behaviour of consumers, technological advancements in transportation and communication also changed the thinking. The focus shifted from production to selling. How to sell became a problem and the new motto was ‘get rid of what you have’. The focus was on increasing sales rather than on consumer satisfaction. Demand out stripped supply and it was still a seller’s market.
   In the last stage of marketing, i.e., Marketing oriented stage, customer satisfaction became the principal reason for corporate existence. They realised that in order to survive and grow in this highly competitive world, a company must first determine what consumers want. Then produce that will satisfy consumers.

(b) Advertising has been criticised on the following grounds:

1. Higher Prices: Advertising increases prices of products to consumers . because the expenses incurred on advertisements are passed on to consumers. However, advertising will not increase prices if it leads to large scale production.
2. Creation of Monopoly: Big firms spend huge amounts of money on advertising. Small firms cannot compete with them and ultimately fail. As a result, big firms become monopolies and use their monopoly power to exploit consumers.
3. Wastage of Resources: Money spent on advertising is sheer waste because it does not add to the utility of products and services. Most of the advertisements are either ignored or escape the attention of consumers. Advertisements do not create new demand but only shift demand from one product to another.
4. Deceptive and Untruthful: In order to impress upon the people, false statements and exaggerated claims are made in advertisements. As a result, innocent people are misled to buy inferior and even worthless products. Advertising offers scope for fraud and deception.
5. Extravagance: Advertising tempts people to buy goods which they cannot afford. They become extravagant and do not hesitate even to adopt corrupt practices to earn more. This creates frustration and corruption in society. People become greedy and self-centered, causing unrest and jealousy.

(c) Two Factors Responsible for the Destruction of the Eco System:

1. Population Growth: Population is growing rapidly but the land is static, which is a great threat to our eco system. This is resulting in deforestation, destruction of natural resources, soil erosion, falling water table, pollution of water sources and atmosphere.
2. Industrialisation: Increase in the number of industries is a great danger to our eco system. It is resulting into deforestation to get more and more land for industries, contamination of water by industrial wastes, air pollution and sound pollution.

Question 7:
(a) Explain any two types of interviews conducted by an Enterprise in the selection of its employees. [5]
(b) “Real investment in today’s society is not in plant and machinery: it is in people”.
With reference to the above statement, examine the importance of Human resources in a business otganisation. [5]
(c) Distinguish between a cheque and a Demand draft. [5]

Answer:
(a) (i) Structured or Patterned Interview: This interview is systematically planned in advance and is conducted in a pre-planned manner. The questions to be asked and the time to be allowed to a candidate are decided in advance. This is the most common type of selection interview.
(ii) Panel or Board Interview: In this type of interview, the candidate is ‘interviewed by a panel or board of selectors. Different interviewers ask questions on different topics. The candidates is judged on the basis of combined rating by the panel.

(b) The role of human resource in a business organisation: Human resource management can help an business organisation in achieving its goals more efficiently and effectively in the following ways:

1. Attracting and retaining the required talent through effective human resource planning, recruitment, selection, placement orientation, compensation and promotional policies.
2. Developing the necessary skills and right attitudes among the employees through training, development, performance appraisal etc.
3. Securing willing cooperation Of employees through motivation, participation, grievance handling etc.
4. Utilising effectively the available human resources.
5. Ensuring that the enterprise will have in future a team of competent and dedicated employees.

(c) Distinction between a Cheque and a Demand Draft

Question 8:
Write short notes on:
(a) Persuasion and Empathy as elements of Public Relations. [5]
(b) Benefits of Training to a Business Enterprise. [5]
(c) Uses of Income and Expenditure Accounts. [5]

Answer:
(a) (i) Empathy: Empathy means looking at things and events from the other’s point of view. It requires that the communicator be intune with communicate.
Empathy involves seeing and feeling matters as others see and feel. It enables an executive to be sensitive and sympathetic to the attitudes, expectations and problems of his workers and clients. A person with empathy can be receptive and appreciative of the ideas and opinions of others. Empathy contributes to success of public relations in several ways. It fosters greater understanding and improves relationship with the client. Empathy tells an executive when he should talk and when he should remain silent. It tells when to be firm and when to be restrained. An empathic executive is more accurate in interpreting what a client says or does.
(ii) Persuasion: Persuasion is an important element of public relations. It is through some kind of communication that persuasion takes place. To persuade means to convince another person of some idea, product, service or institution, to induce a person or group or to do something.
A message becomes persuasive when people behave in the source of the message. Messages coming from credible sources are generally accepted without any questions being asked. Reasonable messages presented in an attractive manner tend to be more persuasive. A flexible approach is helpful in persuading others. A sense of human interest is necessary for anyone indulging in persuasion. The speaker has to ensure that people understand, approve and accept him and his words.

(b) Need and Importance of Training: Training is necessary and useful for a Business enterprise. A trained work force is a very valuable asset to an organisation. For main advantages of training:
Increased productivity: Training helps to improve the quantity and quality of work performance. Well-trained employees produce more and better goods.

1. Better Utilisation or Resources: By training, employees learn new and better methods of doing jobs. They make better use of materials and machinery. As a result, wastage of resources and cost of production are reduced.
2. Better Safety: Training helps to improve the job knowledge and skills of employees. Trained employees operate machines and equipment more carefully and cause fewer accidents.
3. Less Supervision: Well-trained employees are less dependent on supervision. They are more disciplined, self-dependent and responsible. Therefore, need and cost of supervision are reduced.
4. Reduce Turnover and Absenteeism: As trained employees feel more satisfied and interested in jobs, labour turnover and absenteeism are reduced.
5. Expansion and Growth: With the help of trained staff, an enterprise can expand and grow easily and rapidly. Loss of a few employees does not threaten its survival. Trained employees can adapt more easily to technological advancements and competitive environment. Flexibility of the enterprise is improved.

(c) Use of Income and Expenditure Accounts:

1. Income and Expenditure Account shows the surplus or deficit arising from the activities of a non-trading concern during a year.
2. It shows all items of income and expenditure. With the help of this information, the organisation can take steps to increase income and reduce expenditure.
3. It serves as the basis for preparing the Balance Sheet of a non-trading organisation.
4. It fulfils the statutory requirements because non-trading organisation are legally required to prepare it.

Question 9:

Case Study

With a glorious history of more than 50 years blended with a futuristic outlook, ‘The Presidency Bank has become a leading financial institution. The Bank with its customer centric approach values transparency and nurtures knowledge and learning. It believes in the quality of its people and their efforts and therefore takes continuous initiatives for hiring the best talent and ensuring their development, motivation and growth through intensive training.
The Bank offers excellent career opportunities to dynamic individuals. In addition to exposure to a variety of banking segments, the Bank also provides personal growth opportunities for its employees.
With reference to the above:
(a) Suggest a suitable source of recruitment for the Bank. Give reasons to support your answer. [5]
(b) What Employment tests should be conducted by the Bank to select its employees? [5]
(c) What type of Training methods should be adopted by the Bank to train its employees? Why? [5]

Answer:
(a) Sources of Recruitment:

1. Advertisements: Advertisements in newspaper and journals are the most widely used methods of attracting persons for jobs in banks. The requirement of the job and qualification of candidates are given in newspapers. This method helps to bring talented employees.
2. Placement Agencies: Another sources of recruitment for the bank can be placement agencies. Bank can engaged private employment agencies for recruiting staff. These agencies advertise the vaccancies, receive applications, conduct interviews and short list candidates on behalf of bank.
3. Educational Institutions: Management institutes and universities can be another source of recruitment. Here bank can find out best talent among the students.
4. Promotion: For personal growth of its employees bank can transfer a performing and dynamic individuals from one banking segment to another.

These source of recruitment are suitable for bank because of following reasons:

1. Wide Choice: It offer a wider choice in the selection of candidates because a large number of persons apply for jobs.
2. Fresh Outlook: Recruitment of persons from outside brings in new ideas and fresh thinking.
3. Familiarity: The internal employees are already aware of the policies, rules and working conditions of the bank.

(b) (i) Proficiency Tests:

1. Achievement Tests: These tests measure the skills and knowledge which the candidate already posseses at the time of testing. These tests help to determine whether the claims made by the candidate about his knowledge and skills are correct or not.
2. Intelligence Tests: These tests measure a person’s capacity for listening and compretension in terms of his vocabulary, mental alertness, memory, etc.

(ii) Aptitude Tests:

1. Personality Tests: These tests are designed to judge the emotional balance, temperament and maturity of a candidate. They reveal the ability of the person to adjust to new surrounding.
2. Interest Tests: These tests are aimed at assessing type of work in which a candidate shows special interest and involvement.

(c) Banks adopt various methods of imparting training to its employees so that their efficiency improves and enhances the productivity of the organisation. These are:

1. Induction Training: It is an On-the-job training method. It involves providing relevant information about the organisation, its key personnel, terms and conditions of employment, rules and procedures of the organisation, etc.
2. Internship: This programme of training is a combination of theory and practice. It involves practical training of theoretical knowledge. During this period, only stipend is paid to them.
3. Vestibule Training: It is an off-the-job training method. In this method, the workers are trained in a separate working away from the job place in almost a similar working environment using same type of technology.
4. Apprentivesting Programmes: This programme involves putting the trainee under the guidance of skilled worker. Dining this period, trainee is paid less than the skilled worker. It is on-the-job training method.

Question 10:

Case Study

Mbees Tec Ltd. has added its latest addition the Zt and Zht smartphones to its smartphone family. These have created a record of sorts by selling more than 1 lac phones in three days since they were launched.
However Mr. Pawan, CEO of Mbees Tec Ltd, believes that the Company could have bettered their sales if the supply was met as per the demand for its exciting new range of smartphones.
Mr. Pawan also added that the company stands to deliver on its promises and hence the production capacity has been increased to meet the ever rising demands of its newly launched smartphones that have unmatched features at highly competitive prices.
With reference to the above:
(a) Explain the pricing strategy the Company has adopted to sell its new smartphones. [5]
(b) Suggest a suitable media to advertise the newly launched smartphones of M/s Mbees Tech Ltd. [5]
(c) Explain the stage of the product lifecycle of the smartphones as mentioned in the above case study with the help of a diagram. [5]

Answer:
(a) Mbees Tec Ltd. has adopted the skimming the cream pricing strategy to sell its new smartphones. This strategy involves charging high prices in the initial stages of the life of the product. The initial high prices serve to skim the cream of the inelastic market and the initial investment is recovered quickly. The producer sets high price of his product to obtain high immediate profits for fear of competition at a later stage. This pricing policy has the following merits:

1. In the early stages the product is distinctive and imitations has not taken effect. Therefore, price is less likely to effect sales volume.
2. High price in the initial stages will provide funds for expansion into the big volume segments of the market.
3. By setting initial price at a high level the producer can restrict demand to the level which he can meet.

(b) The most suitable media to -advertise the newly launched smartphones can be visual advertising i.e., televison advertising. It is very popular and effective due to the combined force of picture and sound. It has a dramatic impact on the minds of viewers. On television, products can be demonstrated and their use can be explained. The message has a wide appeal and geographical selectivity is possible.

(c) The PLC concept consists of four stages i.e., Introduction, Growth, Maturity and Decline. And the company is in its launching period thus it is in introduction stage. This stage starts when the new product is first launched. Introduction takes 00 time, and sales growth is apt to be slow.
In this stage as compared to either stages, profits are negative or low because of the low sales and high distribution and promotion expenses. Much money is needed to attract distributors and build their inventories. Promotion spending is relatively high to inform consumers of the new product and get them to try it.

ICSE Class 10 Commercial Applications Previous Years Question Papers

ICSE Biology Previous year Question Paper 2018 Solved for Class 10

General Instructions:

• Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
• You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
• This time is to be spent in reading the Question Paper.
• The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
• Attempt all questions from Section I and any four questions from Section II.
• The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Section-I [40Marks]
(Attempt all questions from this section)

Question 1.
(a) Name the following: [5]
(i) The organization which procures and supplies blood during an emergency.
(ii) The blood vessel which supplies blood to the liver.
(iii) The number of chromosomes present in a nerve cell of a human being.
(iv) The layer of the eyeball that forms the transparent Cornea.
(v) The wax-like layer on the epidermis of leaves which reduces transpiration.
Answer:
(i) Red cross

(ii) Hepatic artery [Hepatic Portal Vein can also be the answer because the type of blood is not specified].

(iii) 46 [This part of the question must not be under name the following].

(iv) Sclera / sclerotic layer / sclerotic coat / scleroid

(v) Cuticle

(b) Choose the correct answer from each of the four options given below: [5]

(i) The number of Spinal nerves in a human being are :
A. 31 pairs
B. 10 pairs
C. 21 pairs
D. 30 pairs.
Answer:
A. 31 pairs

(ii) Which one of the following is non-biodegradable?
A. DDT
B. Vegetable peel
C. Cardboard
D. Bark of trees
Answer:
(ii) DDT

(iii) Aqueous humour is present between the :
A. Lens and Retina
B. Iris and Lens
C. Cornea and Iris
D. Cornea and Lens
Answer:
D. Corena and Lens

(iv) A strong chemical substance which is used on objects and surfaces in our surroundings to kill germs :
A. Cresol.
B. Carbolic arid
C. Iodine
D. Mercurochrome
Answer:
A. Cresol

(v) Which one of the following is a Greenhouse gas?
A. Oxygen
B. Methane
C. Sulphur dioxide
D. Nitrogen
Answer:
B. Methane

(c) Complete the following paragraph by filling in the blanks (i) to (v) with appropriate words: [5]
To test a leaf for starch, the leaf is boiled in water to (i)________. It is then boiled in Methylated spirit to (ii) ________.The leaf is dipped in warm water to soften it. It is placed in a petri dish, and (iii) ___________. solution is added. The region of the leaf which contains starch, turns (iv) _________. and the region which does not contain starch, turns (v) _________.
Answer:
(i) to kill the cells / destroy the enzymes
(ii) Remove chlorophyll / to decolourize it
(iii) Iodine
(iv) Blue black
(v) Brown/yellow

(d) Match the items given in Column A with the most appropriate ones in Column B and rewrite the correct matching pairs. [5]

Answer:

(e) CorrectThefollowing statements by changing the underlined words : [5]
(i) Normal pale yellow colour of the urine is due to the presence of the pigment Melanin.
(ii) The outermost layer of Meninges is Pia mater.
(iii) The cell sap of root hair is Hypotonic.
(iv) Xylem transports starch from the leaves to all parts of the plant body.
(v) Nitrogen bonds are present between the complementary nitrogenous bases of DNA.
Answer:
(i) Urochrome
(ii) Dura mater
(iii) Hypertonic
(iv) Pholem
(v) Hydrogen

(f) Choose between the two options to answer the question specified in the brackets for the following: [5]
An example is illustrated below.
Example: Corolla or Calyx (Which is the outer whorl ?) Answer: Calyx
(i) Blood in the renal artery or renal vein (Which one has more urea?)
(ii) Perilymph or endolymph (Which one surrounds the organ of Corti?)
(iii) Lenticels or stomata (Which one remains open always?)
(iv) Sclerotic layer or choroid layer (Which one forms the his?)
(v) Blood in the pulmonary artery or pulmonary vein (Which one contains less oxyhaempglobin?)
Answer:
(i) Blood in renal artery
(ii) Endolymph
(iii) Lenticels
(iv) Blood in pulmonary artery
(v) Air pollution

(g) Given below is a representation of a type of pollution. [5]
Study the picture and answer the questions :

(i) Name the type of pollution shown in the picture.
(ii) Name one source of this pollution.
(in) How does this pollution affect human health?
(iv) Write one measure to reduce this pollution.
(v) State one gaseous compound that leads to the depletion of the ozone layer and creates’Ozone holes’.
Answer:
(i) Air pollution

(ii) Smoke from vehicles / harmful gases from industries

(iii) so₂ causes bronchitis, Lead causes blood cell shortage, Smog leads to asthma and poor visibility, Oxides of nitrogen decreases oxygen carrying capacity of blood.

(iv) Use of lead free petrol and CNG

(v) Chloroflourocarbon

(h) Choose the ODD one out from the following terms given and name the CATEGORY to which the others belong: [5]
Example: Nose, Tongue, Arm, Eye
Answer: Odd Term – Arm, Category – Sense organs.
(i) Detergents, X-rays, sewage, oil spills
(ii) Lumen, muscular tissue, connective tissue, pericardium
(iii) Dendrites, Medullary Sheath, Axon, Spinal cord
(iv) Centrosome, Cell wall, Cell membrane, Large vacuoles
(v) Prostate gland, Cowper’s gland, seminal vesicle, seminiferous tubules.
Answer:
(i) Odd term – X rays, Category – Water pollution

(ii) Odd term – Pericardium, Category – Parts of blood vessels

(iii) Odd term – Spinal cord, Categoiy – Parts of Neuron

(iv) Odd term – Centrosome, Category – Parts of plant cejl

(v) Odd term – Seminiferous tubule, Category – Accessory glands of male reproductive system

Section – II (40 Marks)
(Attempt any four questions from this section)

Question 2.
(a) The diagram given below represents a stage during cell division. Study the same and answer the questions that follow :

(i) Identify whether it is a plant cell or an animal cell. Give a reasop in support of your answer.
(ii) Name the stage depicted in the diagram.
What is the unique feature observed in this stage?
(iii) Name the type of cell division that occurs during :

1. Replacement of old leaves by new ones.
2. Formation of gametes.

(iv) What is the stage that comes before the stage shown in the diagram ?
(v) Draw a neat, labelled diagram of the stage mentioned in (iv) above keeping the chromosome number constant.
Answer:
(i) Animal cell. Centriole is present. [It can be a plant cell also as it is double layered (cell wall present) and astral rays are absent].

(ii) Metaphase. Unique feature is chromosomes are arranged at the equatorial plate (metaphasic) plate.

(iii)

1. Mitosis
2. Meiosis

(iv) Prophase

(v)

(b) Mention the exact location of the following: [5]
(i) Epididymis
(ii) Lacrimal gland
(iii) Malleus
(iv) Hydathodes
(v) Pulmonary semilunar valve
Answer:
(i) A knot like structure in the upper portion of testes

(ii) Upper side portion of the orbit of eye

(iii) Middle ear attached to tympanum and incus

(iv) Margin of leaves

(v) Opening of right ventricle into pulmonary artery

Question 3.
(a) Given below are diagrams showing the different stages in the process of fertilisation of an egg in the human female reproductive tract. [5]
Study the diagrams and answer the questions :

(i) Arrange the letters given below each diagram in a logical sequence to show the correct order in the process of fertilisation.
(ii) Where does fertilisation normally take place? What is ‘Implantation’ that follows fertilisation?
(iii) Mention the chromosome number of the egg and zygote in humans.
(iv) Explain the term’Gestation’. How long does Gestation last in humans?
(v) Draw a neat, labelled diagram of a mature human sperm.
Answer:
(i) DCBA [It can also be CBAD as there is not a clear difference between egg cell and zygote]

(ii) In the fallopian tube (Oviduct). Attachment of blastocyst/embryo/ fertilized ovum in the uterine wall (endometrium) of mother.

(iii) Egg-23 Zygote – 46

(iv) Duration of embryonic development in the uterus starting from implantation upto the birth of a child. Gestation lasts in human for 280 days.

(v)

(b) A potted plant with variegated leaves was taken in order to prove a factor necessary for photosynthesis. The potted plant was kept in the dark for 24 hours and then placed in bright sunlight for a few hours. Observe the diagrams and answer the questions. [5]

(i) What aspect of photosynthesis is being tested in the above diagram?
(ii) Represent the process of photosynthesis in the form of a balanced equation.
(iii) Why was the plant kept in the dark before beginning the experiment?
(iv) What will be the result of the starch test performed on leaf ‘A’ shown in the diagram? Give an example of a plant with variegated leaves.
(v) Draw a neat labelled diagram of a chloroplast.
Answer:
(i) Chlorophyll is necessary for photosynthesis

(ii)

(iii) To destarch the leaves

(iv) The green part of the leaf turns blue black and the pale yellow part will turn brown with iodine solution at the end of starch test.
Examples: Coleus/Geranium/Croton/Tradescantia

(v)

Question 4.
(a) The diagram given below shows the internal structure of a spinal cord depicting a phenomenon. Study the diagram and answer the questions : [5]

(i) Name the phenomenon that is depicted in the diagram. Define the phenomenon.
(ii) Give the technical term for the point of contact between the two nerve cells.
(iii) Name the parts numbered 1, 2 and 3.
(iv) How does the arrangement of neurons in the spinal cord differ from that of the brain?
(v) Mention two ways by which the spinal cord is protected in our body.
Answer:
(i) Reflex action. Reflex action is a spontaneous, involuntary and automatic response to any stimulus without the involvement of brain.

(ii) Synapse

(iii)

1. Sensory neuron
2. Motor neuron
3. Grey mater

(iv) In brain, grey mater is outside and white mater is inside.
In spinal cord, grey mater is inside and while mater is outside

(v) Meninges and Vertebral column

(b) Give appropriate biological or technical terms for the following : [5]

1. Process of maintaining water and salt balance in the blood.
2. Hormones which regulate the secretion of other endocrine glands.
3. Movement of molecules of a substance from their higher concentration to lower concentration when they are in direct contact.
4. The condition in which a pair of chromosomes carry similar alleles of a particular character.
5. The complex consisting of a DNA strand and a core of histones.
6. The onset of menstruation in a young girl.
7. Squeezing out of white blood cells from the capillaries into the surrounding tissues.
8. The fluid which surrounds the foetus.
9. The relaxation phase of the heart.
10. The difference between the birth rate and the death rate.

Answers:

1. Osmoregulation
2. Tropic hormone
3. Diffusion
4. Homozygous
5. Nucleosome
6. Menarche
7. Diapedesis
8. Amniotic fluid
9. Diastole
10. Growth rate of population

Question 5.
(a) The diagram given below is that of a structure present in a human Kidney study the same and answer the questions that follow: [5]

(i) Name the structure represented in the diagram.
(ii) What is the liquid entering part’ 1′ called?
Name two substances present in this liquid that are reabsorbed in the tubule.
(iii) What is the fluid that comes to part ‘2’ called? ,
Name the main nitrogenous waste in it.
(iv) Mention the three main steps involved in the formation of the fluid mentioned in (in) above.
(v) Name the substance which may be present in The fluid in part ‘2’ if a person suffers from Diabetes mellitus.
Answer:
(i) Nephron / Uriniferous tubule

(ii) Glomerular filtrate. Glucose and water soluble salts

(iii) Urine; Urea

(iv)

1. Ultrafiltration
2. Selective reabsorption
3. Tubular secretion

(v) Glucose

(b) Differentiate between the following pairs on the basis of what is indicated in the brackets. [5]
(i) Leaf and Liver [ form in which glucose is stored]
(ii) ATP and AIDS [expand the abbreviations]
(iii) Testosterone and Oestrogen [organ which secretes]
(iv) Ureter and Urethra [function]
(v) Hypotonic solution and Hypertonic solution [condition of a plant cell when placed in them]
Answer:

Question 6.
(a) Given below is a diagram of a human blood smear study the diagram and answer the questions that follow: [5]

(i) Name the components numbered ‘V to ‘4’.
(ii) Mention two structural differences between the parts ‘1’ and ‘2’.
(iii) Name the soluble protein found in part ‘4’ which forms insoluble threads during dotting of bipod.
(iv) What is the average lifespan of the component numbered T?
(v) Component numbered “V do not have certain organelles hut are very efficient in their funcLion. Explain.
Answer:
(i)

1. Red blood t ells / Erythrocytes
2. White blood cells / Leucocytes
3. Platelets / Thrombocytes
4. Blood plasma

(ii)

(iii) Fibrinogen

(iv) 140 days

(v) Loss of Nucleus increases their surface area for absorbing more oxygen, loss of mitochondria means RBCs cannot use oxygen for themselves and loss of endoplasmic reticulum increases flexibility of RBCs for their movement through narrow capillaries.

(b) Give biological explanations for the following : [5]
(i) Education is very important for population control.
(ii) The placenta is an important structure for the development of a foetus.
(iii) All the food chains begin with green plants.
(iv) Plants growing in fertilized soil are often found to will if the soil is not adequately watered.
(v) We should not put sharp objects into our ears.
Answer:
(i) Helps people know about family planning and consequences of having large families.

(ii) Placenta allows diffusion of substances like oxygen, COz, hormones, nutrients, excretory products, etc. from the mother to the foetus or from foetus to the mother.

(iii) All food chains begin with green plants as they manufacture food for all living organisms by photosynthesis.

(iv) Water makes the roots and all parts of plants turgid and their deficiency may lead to wilting of these parts.

(v) Tympanum is very delicate and sharp object may rupture them leading to deafness.

Question 7.
(a) The diagram below represepts a process in plants. [5]
The setup was placed in bright sunlight. Answer the following questions :

(i) Name 6the physiological process depicyed in the diadram
Why was oil added to the water?
(ii) When placed in bright sunlight for four hours, what do you observe with regard to the initial and final weight of the plant?
(iii) What happens to the level of water when this setup is placed in:

1. Humid conditions?
2. Windy conditions?

(iv) Mention any three adaptations found in plants to overcome the process mentioned in (i).
(v) Explain the term Guttation.
Answer:
(i) Transpiration. Oil was added in order to prevent evaporation from the round bottom flask.

(ii) The plant will loose weight as in bright sunlight, the rate of transpiration will he maximum.

(iii)

1. Remains same
2. Decreases

(iv) Thick cuticle/loss of leaves / narrow leaves / fewer stomata / sunken stomata

(v) Loss of water in the form of liquid as droplets from the margins of leaves is called guttation.

(b) A pea plant which is homozygous for Green pods which are inflated [GG1I] is crossed with a homozygous plant for yellow pods which are constricted [ggii]. Answer the following questions: [5]
(i) Give the phenotype and genotype of the F, generation.
Which type of pollination has occurred to produce Fj generation?
(ii) Write the phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation.
(iii) Write the possible combinations of the gametes that can be obtained if two F1 hybrid plants are crossed.
(iv) State Mendel’s law of ‘Segregation of Gametes’.
(v) What is the scientific name of the plant which Mendel used for his experiments on inheritance ?
Answer:
(i) Phenotype of F₁ generation – All plants with green coloured pods and with inflated pod shape
Genotype of F₁ generation – All plants with Ggli.
Cross pollination

(ii) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

(iii) Possible combinations of gametes are as follows GI, Gi, gl, gi

(iv) The two factors or genes controlling one character separate or segregate without blending or influencing each other during the formation of gametes so that each gamete receives one factor or gene for each character.
OR
Two members of a pair of factors separate during the formation of gametes.

(v) Pisum sativum

ICSE Class 10 Biology Previous Years Question Papers

ICSE Commercial Applications Previous Year Question Paper 2011 Solved for Class 10

ICSE Paper 2011
COMMERCIAL APPLICATIONS

(Two Hours)
Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
This time is to be spent in reading the Question Paper.
The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
Section A is compulsory. Attempt any four questions from Section B.
The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Section-A (40 Marks)
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1:
Give one difference between each of the following:
(a) Mail order shopping and Tele-shopping. [2]
(b) Product Mix and Promotion Mix. [2]
(c) Shut Down Cost and Sunk Cost. [2]
(d) Savings Account and Current Account. [2]
(e) Advertising and Personal Selling. [2]

Answer:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) Refer Ans. 1. (c), 2015.

(e)

Question 2:
(a) Name four types of market on the basis of area. [2]
(b) Mention any two objectives of advertising. [2]
(c) Explain two main differences between recruitment and selection. [2]
(d) Give four elements of public relations. [2]
(e) Explain two main methods of training. [2]

Answer:
(a) Four types of market on the basis of area:

1. Local Market.
2. Regional Market.
3. National Market.
4. International Market.

(b) Two objectives of Advertising:

1. To introduce New Product: Producers and traders advertise to inform customers about the availability of a new product. They seek to develop a good image of the new product and persuade consumers to buy it.
2. To Eliminate Middlemen: Businessmen use advertisement to send their messages far and wide. They can establish direct contact with customers, thereby eliminating middlemen.

(c) Refer Ans. 1. (a), 2014.
(d) Refer Ans. 2. (a), 2013.

(e) Two Main Methods of Training:

1. On-the-Job Training (OJT): Under this method, employees are assigned a specific job and they learn by performing the job in the actual work situation. Therefore, it is also known as ‘learning by doing’. The employee learns work methods and job operations under the supervision of the supervisor or a senior employee. The employee works according to his orders and instructions and performs job activities as per his advice. It is step-by-step learning and the worker contributes towards production in . the course of learning.
2. Off-the-job Training: Under this method of training, trainee is separated from the job situation and his attention is focused upon learning the material related to his future job performance. Since the trainee is not distracted by job requirements, he can place his entire concentration on learning the job rather than spending his time in performing it. It is an opportunity for freedom of expression for the trainees. Off-the-job training can be given in the following ways-lecture method, conference or discussion, programmed instruction and role playing.

Question 3:
(a) Briefly list two qualities of a good salesman. [2]
(b) What is meant by Persuasive Advertising? [2]
(c) What is Marketing Mix? [2]
(d) Give two differences between Fixed. Cost and Variable Cost. [2]
(e) Give two differences between a stale cheque and a post-dated cheque. [2]

Answer:
(a) Refer Ans. 3. (a), 2016.
(b) Persuasive Advertising: This type of advertising is designed to persuade the consumers to buy a product or service or to support an idea. This advertising becomes more important when competition increases.
(c) Marketing mix is a combination of four elements-product, pricing structure; distribution system and promotional activities, used to satisfy the needs of an organisation’s target market(s) and at the same time, achieve its marketing objectives.

(d) Two differences between Fixed Cost and Variable Cost:

1. Fixed costs are those costs which remain fixed in amount irrespective of changes in the volume of output during a given period of time while variable costs are those costs which vary in amount with changes in the level of output or activity.
2. Fixed costs do not change with changes (increase or decrease) in the level of activity upto a certain limit while variable costs increase and decrease in the same proportion in which the level of output increases or decreases. Variable costs vary in total amount but remain constant per unit of production.

(e) Two differences between Stale Cheque and Post-dated Cheque:

1. A cheque that bears a date earlier than six months is a Stale cheque while a cheque bearing a later date is known as Post dated cheque.
2. A state cheque can not be honoured while a post dated cheque can be honoured.

Question 4:
Justify either for or against by giving two reasons for each of the following:
(a) Parity pricing is not relevant under the present marketing conditions. [2]
(b) Advertising is a social waste. [2]
(c) Accounts should disclose all material information.
(with reference to the concept of accounting) [2]
(d) The Central Bank of a country is the banker’s bank. [2]
(e) Recruitment is a positive process. [2]

Answer:
(a) Against. (i) Under parity pricing, a firm keeps its prices similar to the price level of the leading firm in the industry.
(ii) In a competitive market, it is a safe policy as it avoids price war.
(b) For. (i) Advertising creates employment opportunities for a large number of persons.
(ii) Advertising leads to variety in consumption and use of better quality products.
(c) For. (i) Accounts should be prepared in such a way that all the material information required by users of financial statement is clearly disclosed.
(ii) The disclosures can be by way of footnotes or annexure to the financial statements.
(d) For. (i) The Central Bank acts as the bank for all commercial banks in the country.
(ii) The Central Bank advises commercial banks on matters relating to their business.
(e) For. (i) Recruitment is the process of searching for and identifying the protective employees and encouraging them to apply for jobs in the enterprise.
(ii) The basic purpose of recruitment is to create a pool of qualified persons from which selection may be made.

Section – B (60 Marks)
(Attempt any four questions from this section)

Question 5:
(a) What is the role of marketing in a commercial organisation? [5]
(b) Marketing has gone through three distinct stages. Explain them in brief. [5]
(c) Distinguish between products and services with examples. [5]

Answer:
(a) Marketing contributes to the economic and social development of a nation. In a developing country like India, marketing is all the more important. It helps to make fuller utilisation of untapped assets and energies. Marketing contributes to the development of entrepreneurial and managerial talent. Development of marketing leads to the integration of agriculture, industry and other sectors of the economy.
Marketing in developed countries is more advanced than in developing countries. It also helps to increase exports and foreign exchange earnings of the nation. It generates employment and improves standard of living of the people. By increasing per capita income and by bringing new and better products and services to consumers marketing raises the quality of life of Indian economy.

(b) Stages of marketing:

1. Production oriented stage: In this stage, production and engineering departments shaped the company’s goals and strategy. The philosophy of this stage was that customers buy products which are low priced and easily available.
2. Product oriented stage: In this stage marketers believed that customers will buy the product if its quality was good. Firms made efforts to improve product features and performance.
3. Marketing oriented stage: The aim of marketing should be to know and understand the customer so well that the product or service fits him and sells itself. The modern concept of marketing recognizes the role of marketing as a direct contributor to profits as well as sales volume.
4. Social marketing stage: With growing population, pollution, poverty and resource shortages, the marketing concept was expanded to include social welfare.     (any three)

(c) Refer Ans. 5. (c), 2015.

Question 6:
(a) What is a Receipts and Payment Account? Describe its uses. [5]
(b) Explain any two generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP). [5]
(c) Explain the importance of selection of employees. [5]

Answer:
(a) Refer Ans. 3. (a), 2015.
Two uses of Receipt and Payment Account:

1. Receipt and Payment Account serves as the basis for preparing the Income and Expenditure Account and the Balance Sheet.
2. It tells at a glance the cash position of the organisation both at the beginning and end of the accounting year.

(b) (i) The Going Concern Concept: It is assumed that the business will continue to exist for a long time in the future. Transactions are recorded on the assumption that the business will exist for an indefinite period of time. It is on this  assumption that a distinction is made between capital expenditure and revenue expenditure. Fixed assets are recorded at their original cost less depreciation. Market value of fixed assets is not recorded, as these assets are not to be sold in the near future.
(ii) Accounting Period Concept: It is due to this concept that financial statements are prepared at regular intervals, generally one year. This period is called accounting period. The net profit/net loss of business is ascertained separately for each accounting period. Similarly, the financial position of business is ascertained on the last day of an accounting period. Under tax laws, the accounting period starts from 1st April and ends on 31st March next year.

(c) Importance of Selection of Employees: Selection of employees involves comparison between job requirements and qualifications of candidates. The purpose of selection is to choose the right candidate for the right job.
Proper selection of employees will result in:

1. Improving efficiency and profitability by choosing a qualified person for every job.
2. Ensuring job satisfaction to employees by matching the candidates with the job.
3. Minimising labour turnover and absenteeism.
4. Facilitating higher quantity and quality of performance.

Question 7:
Write short notes on:
(a) Overdraft facility. [5]
(b) Brand Promotion. [5]
(c) Empathy as one of the elements of public relations. [5]

Answer:
(a) Overdraft Facility: Commercial banks lend money to businessmen, farmers, artisians and others in many ways and one of the facility is overdraft facility. Overdraft means an arrangement under which a current account holder is allowed to withdraw more than the balance to his credit upto the specified limit given by the bank. Overdraft is allowed for a short period and interest is charged on it. Commercial banks provide overdraft facility on the security of some assets or on the personal security of the account holder.
(b) Refer Ans. 9. (b), 2016.
(c) Refer Ans. 6. (b), 2016.

Question 8:
(a) Explain in brief the external sources of recruitment. [5]
(b) Explain any two functions of the Human Resource Development. [5]
(c) What is a Balance Sheet? State its main features. [5]

Answer:
(a) Refer Ans. 6. (c), 2016.
(b) (i) Developmental Functions: HRD is the process of improving the knowledge, skills, aptitudes and values of employees so that they can perform the present and future jobs more effectively. It involves the following activities:

1. Performance Appraisal: It implies systematic evaluation of employees with respect to their performance on the job and their potential for development.
2. Training: It is the process by which employees learn knowledge, skills and aptitudes to further achieve organisational and personal goals.
3. Career planning and development: It involves planning the career of employees with the help of promotions and transfers and implementing these career plans so as to fulfil the career aspirations of people.

(ii) Compensation Functions: These refer to providing equitable and fair remuneration to employees for their contribution to the attainment of organisational objectives. It consist of the following activities:

1. Job Evaluation: It is the process of determining the relative worth of a job.
2. Wage and Salary Administration: It implies developing and operating a suitable wage and salary programme by conducting various surveys on wage and salary structure in different organisations.
3. Bonus: It involves payment of bonus under the payment of Bonus Act, 1965, as well as non-statutory bonus and other incentives.

(c) Refer Ans. 2. (d), 2015.
Features of Balance Sheet: The main features pf Balance Sheet are as follows:

1. A Balance Sheet is always prepared on a particular date.
2. It is prepared after the preparation of Income and Expenditure account.
3. It is not an account but a statement.
4. It shows the financial position on a specified date.
5. Assets are shown on the right hand side and liabilities are shown on the left hand side.
6. It contains personal and real accounts and the net result of nominal account.

Question 9:

Case Study

Hindustan Lever Ltd.’s (HLL) much-talked-about foray into the water business is not about water per se. It is about a small device called Pureit, which can be attached to the kitchen tap to purify potable water at a minimum cost. If sources are to be believed, HLL’s main aim is to make the product extremely affordable so that it remains attractive to all income groups.
Sources said if HLL manages to sell the idea to consumers who are conscious about both price and health, companies selling 20-litre water jars to the. residential segment may run into rough weather. Sources also pointed out that companies in the Rs. 9,000-15,000 price band (Aqua Guard and Pentair) will not be affected much as they operate in a different segment altogether. “HLL plans to take the small metros, towns and cities so that it does not remain an urban phenomenon,” sources said.
When contacted, the HLL spokesperson said, “HLL is not going to enter water, the way other companies have entered. We have a very different framework. HLL’s venture involves new patented technology solution and creation of a new business model. We hesitate to say anything further on the venture because of competitive reasons. The company has a fixed target and is exactly on course with that target.
HLL is very excited with the opportunity, because of its growth potential and huge benefit to the consumer.”
Industry sources said HLL stayed away from foraying into bottle water as speculated because the market is crowded and Lever as a late entrant would not enjoy the early mover advantage. The segment operates on wafer-thin margins and requires a distribution network of a different kind. Very few players are making money and Nestle pulled out completely two years ago.
On the other hand, water purifiers (residential segment) are growing at 22%-25% annually. It is a Rs. 550 crore industry with AquaGuard cornering more than 50% of the market. The rest is divided among Kent RO, Pentair, Ion Exchange and others.
“We have experienced healthy growth rates. The industry as a whole is growing too. Our study showed that in Delhi alone, the demand for packaged water is 60,000 litres a remaining 30,000 litres is not guaranteed. There is lot of scope for the organised industry,” said Gautam Khanna, Managing Director, Pentair Water.
(a) What is the sole objective of Hindustan Lever Ltd. entering the water purifier business? [5]
(b) In which segment does HLL’s competitors sell their product? Will Hindustan Lever Ltd., be able to affect the business of its rivals? [5]
(c) How will Hindustan Lever Ltd., maintain its identity and why has Hindustan Lever Ltd. not entered into the bottled water segment? [5]

Answer:
(a) Hindustan Lever Ltd. is having a sole objective of entering the water purifier business as to make the product extremely affordable so that it remains attractive to all income groups, along with it company wants to sell the idea to consumers who are living in the small metros, towns and cities so that it does not remain an urban phenomenon.
(b) Hindustan Lever Ltd’s competitors sell their product in middle income segment. Hindustan Lever Ltd. will not be able to affect the business of its rivals because they are operating in different segments. Company wants to reach those customers who are conscious about both price and health.
(c) Hindustan Lever Ltd will maintain its identity by introducing new patented technology solution and create a new business model.
Hindustan Lever Ltd has not entered into the bottled-water segment because already the market is flooded With competitors using the same technique. Hindustan Lever Ltd wants to remain attractive to all income groups, it wants to produce a new patented technology, solution and create new ideas which will have better growth potential and huge benefit to the consumer.

Question 10:

Case Study

Like many other US-head-quartered IT companies, Symphony Services, a leading provider of technology-based business transformation outsourcing services, plans to build a 4,00,000 sq. ft. campus in Bangalore. With current staff strength of a 1,000 people, Symphony expects to grow to a 2,000 strong workforce by the end of 2010. “We want to leverage the tremendous intellectual capital that exists in India while we replicate a Silicon Valley environment in our organisation which nurtures innovation and entrepreneurship,” said Mr. Ajay Kela, President India Operation.
In a study by Symphony Services on captive cost and productivity, the company found that pure captive, offshore centres do not reach cost and productivity parity with offshore services firms until they reach a manpower strength of at least 1,000. Leading industry analysts have also corroborated these findings. Further, the company found that captive centres generally operate at low productivity levels for the first several years due to start-up inefficiencies and learning curves. Since offshore development is not their core business and because of lack of scale, captive centres generally operate at productivity levels of 70% to 80% of onshore teams.
The company’s base of clients include companies like Siebel, Manugistics, Autodesk, Schering-Plough, Viacom, La Quinta and IRL, among others.
(a) What are the major plan% of Symphony? [5]
(b) Explain the strategies of the company for the year 2010. [5]
(c) What are the findings of Symphony’s studies with regard to captive cost and productivity? Name a few clients of the IT company Symphony services. [5]

Answer:
(a) The major plans of symphony are to build a 4,00,000 sq. ft. campus in Banglore expects to grow to a 2,000 strong workforce by the end of 2010, further wants to use the tremendous intellectual capital that exists in India.
(b) Strategies of the company for year 2010 is to grow strong work force, use the intellectual capital that exists in India and replicate a silicon valley environment in the organisation which nurtures innovation and entrepreneurship.
(c) In a study by Symphony services with regard to captive cost and productivity the company found that pure captive, offshore centres do not reach, cost and productivity parity with offshore services firms until they reach a manpower strength of at least 1,000.
Further the company found that captive centres generally operate at low productivity levels for the first several years due to start-up inefficiencies and leaving curves.
Few clients of the IT company symphony services are Siebel, Autodesk, Viacom among others.

ICSE Class 10 Commercial Applications Previous Years Question Papers

ICSE Physics Previous Year Question Paper 2018 Solved for Class 10

General Instructions :

• Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
• You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
• This time is to be spent in reading the Question Paper.
• The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
• Section I is compulsory. Attempt any four questions from Section II.
• The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Section – I [40 Marks]
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1.
(a) (i) State and define the SI unit of power. [2]
(ii) How is the unit horse power related to the SI unit of power?
(b) State the energy changes in the following cases while in use: [2]
(i) An electric iron.
(ii) A ceiling fan.
(c) The diagram below shows a lever in use: [2]
(i) To which class of levers does it belong?
(ii) Without changing the dimensions of the lever, if the load is shifted towards the fulcrum what happens to the mechanical advantage of the lever?

(d) (i) Why is the ratio of the velocities of light of wavelengths 4000 A and 8000 A in vacuum 1:1?
(ii) Which of the above wavelengths has a higher frequency? [2]
(e) (i) Why is the motion of a body moving with a constant speed around a circular path said to be accelerated?
(ii) Name the unit of physical quantity obtained by the formula 2K/V² where K: kinetic energy, V: Linear velocity.[2]
Answer:
(a) (i) The SI unit of power is watt (W). The power of an agent is said to be one watt if it does one joule of work in one second.
(ii) 1 hp = 746 W

(b) (i) Electrical into heat energy
(ii) Electrical

(c) (i) Second class .
(ii)It increases

(d) (i) Because all wavelengths of light travel with the same velocity in vacuum
(ii) 4000 A

(e) (i) Because at every point of motion the direction of speed changes i.e., the body possesses velocity which changes with time.
(ii) J s ^-2 m ^-2

Question 2.
The power of a lens is -5D. [2]
(a) (i) Find its focal length.
(ii) Name the type of lens.
(b) State the position of the object in front of a converging lens if:[2]
(i) It produces a real and same size image of the object.
(ii) It is used as a magnifying lens.
(c) (i) State the relation between the critical angle and the absolute refractive index of a medium.
(ii) Which colour of light has a higher critical angle? Red light or Green light. [2]
(d) (i) Define scattering. [2]
(ii) The smoke from a fire looks white. Which of the following statements is true?
1. Molecules of the smoke are bigger than the wavelength of light.
2. Molecules of the smoke are smaller than the wavelength of light.
(e) The following diagram shows a 60°, 30°, 90° glass prism of critical angle 42°. Copy the diagram and complete the path of incident ray AB emerging out of the prism marking the angle of incidence on each surface.[2]

Answer:
(a) (i) f =\(\frac { 1 }{ P }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ -5 }\) = -0.2 m = 20cm
(ii) Concave

(b) (i) 2F
(ii) Between F and 2F

(c) (i) n = \(\frac { 1 }{ sin C }\)
(ii) Red

(d) (i) Scattering is a general physical process where light is forced to deviate from a straight trajectory by one or more paths due to localized non-uniformities in the medium through which it passes
(ii) Molecule of the smoke are bigger than the wavelength of the light.

(e) The diagram is as shown.

Question 3.
(a) Displacement distance graph of the two sound waves A and B, travelling in a medium, are as shown in the diagram below.

Study the two sound waves and compare their:
(i) Amplitudes
(ii) Wavelengths
(b) You have three resistors of values 2 Ω , 3 Ω and 5 Ω How will you join them so that the total resistance is more than 7 Ω? [2]
(i) Draw a diagram for the arrangement.
(ii) Calculate the equivalent resistance.
(c) (i) What do you understand by the term nuclear fusion? [2]
(ii) Nuclear power plants use nuclear fission reaction to produce electricity. What is the advantage ofproducing electricity by fusion reaction?
(d) (i) What do you understand by free vibrations of a body? [2]
(ii) Why does the amplitude of a vibrating body continuously decrease during damped vibrations?
(e) (i) How is the emf across primary and secondary coils of a transformer related with the number of turns of coil in them? [2]
(ii) On which type of current do transformers work?
Answer:
(a) (i) A_A/A_B = 20/10 = 2
(ii) λ_B > λ_A

(b) (i) All of these can be connected in series as shown

(ii) R = 5 + 3 + 2 = 10 Ω

(c) (i) K is a process in which two or more smaller nuclei combine to form a bigger nucleus.
(ii) There is no pollution in nuclear fusion.

(e) (i) \(\frac{\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{P}}}{\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{S}}}\) =  \(\frac{\mathrm{N}_{\mathrm{P}}}{\mathrm{N}_{\mathrm{S}}}\)
(ii) Alternating current

Question 4.
(a) (i) How can a temperature in degree Celsius be converted into SI unit of temperature? [2]
(ii) A liquid X has the maximum specific heat capacity and is used as a coolant in Car radiators. Name the liquid X.
(b) A solid metal weighing 150 g melts at its melting point of800 °C by providing heat at the rate of 100 W The time taken for it to completely melt at the same temperature is 4 mm. What is the specific latent heat of fusion of the metal? [2]
(c) Identify the following wires used in a household circuit: [2]
(i) The wire is also called as the phase wire.
(ii) The wire is connected to the top terminal of a three-pin socket.
(d) (i) What are isobars? [2]
(ii) Give one example of isobars.
(e) State any two advantages of electromagnets over permanent magnets. [2]
Answer:
(a) (i) 1°C = 273 K
(ii) Water

(b) Using Q=mL, 100 x 4 x 60 x =150 x 10^-3 x L or L =\(\frac{100 \times 4 \times 60}{150 \times 10^{-3}}\) = L = 1.6 x 10⁵ J Kg^-1

(c) (i) Live wire
(ii) Earth wire

(d) (i) Elements having same mass number but different atomic number.
(ii) ¹⁰S, ⁴⁰Cl, ⁴⁰Ar, ⁴⁰K, and ⁴⁰Ca.

(e) (i) Strength can be increased or decreased during working
(ii) Polarities can be changed during working.

Section – II [40 Marks]
(Attempt any FOUR Questions from this Section)

Question 5.
(a) (i) Derive a relationship between SI and C.G.S. unit of work. [3]
(ii) A force acts on a body and displaces it by a distance S in a direction at an angle θ with the direction of force. What should be the value of θ to get the maximum positive work?
(b) A half metre rod is pivoted at the centre with two weights of 20 gf and 12 gf suspended at a perpendicular distance of 6 cm and 10 cm from the pivot respectively as shown below [3]

(i) Which of the two forces acting on the rigid rod causes clockwise moment?
(ii) Is the rod in equilibrium?
(iii) The direction of 20 kgf force is reversed. What is the magnitude of the resultant moment of the forces on the rod?
(c) (i) Draw a diagram to show a block and tackle pulley system having a velocity ratio of 3 marking the direction of load(L), effort(E) and tension(T).
(ii) The pulley system drawn lifts a load of 150 N when an effort of 60 N is applied. Find its mechanical advantage.
(iii) Is the above pulley system an ideal machine or not? [4]
Answer:
(a) (i) 1 J = 1 kg × 1 m² × 1 s^-2 = 10³ g × 10⁴ cm² × 1 s^-2 = 10⁷ g cm² s^-2 = 10⁷ erg
(ii) W = FS cos θ = FS (maximum) if cos θ = 1 or θ = 0°

(b) (i) 12 gf
(ii) yes
(iii) 120 +120 = 240 dyne cm

(c) (i) The diagram is as shown.

(ii) Actual MA number of pulleys in the system = 3. Observed MA = \(\frac { load }{ effort }\) = \(\frac { 150 }{ 60 }\)=2.5

(iii) Since Observed MA is lesser than the theoretical MA therefore, the machine is not an ideal machine.

Question 6.
(a) A ray of light XY passes through a right angled isosceles prism as shown below [3]

(i) What is the angle through which the incident ray deviates and emerges out of the prism?
(ii) Name the instrument where this action of prism is put into use.
(iii) Which prism surface will behave as a mirror?
(b) An object AB is placed between O and F₁ on the principal axis of converging lens as shown in the diagram.

Copy the diagram and by using three standard rays starting from point A, obtain an image of the object AB.
(c) An object is placed at a distance of 12 cm from a convex lens of focal length. 8 cm. Find: [4]
(i) the position of the image
(ii) nature of the image
Answer:
(a) (i) 90°
(ii) Periscope
(iii) AB

(b) The figure is as shown.

Given u = – 12 cm,f= + 8 cm, v = ?, nature= ?
Using the lens formula \(\frac{1}{f}=\frac{1}{v}-\frac{1}{u}\) we have
\(\frac{1}{f}=\frac{1}{v}-\frac{1}{u}\) = \(\frac{1}{8}+\frac{1}{-12}\) = \(\frac{3-2}{24}\) = \(\frac{1}{24}\)
Or v = 24 cm, Image will be real and inverted.

Question 7.
(a) Draw the diagram of a right angled isosceles prism which is used erect. [3]
(b)
[3]
The diagram above shows a wire stretched over a sonometer. Stems of two vibrating tuning forks A and B are touched to the wooden box of the sonometer. It is observed that the paper rider (a small piece of paper folded at the centre) present on the wire flies off when the stem of vibrating tuning fork B is touched to the wooden box but the paper just vibrates when the stem of vibrating tuning fork A is touched to the wooden box.
(i) Name the phenomenon when the paper rider just vibrates.
(ii) Name the phenomenon when the paper rider flies off.
(iii) Why does the paper rider fly off when the stem of tuning fork B is touched to the box?
(c) A person is standing at the sea shore. An observer on the ship, which is anchored in between a vertical cliff and the person on the shore, fires a gun. The person on the shore hears two sounds, 2 seconds and 3 seconds after seeing the smoke of the fired gun. If the speed of sound in the air is 320 m s^-1 then calculate:
(i) the distance between the observer on the ship and the person on the shore.
(ii) the distance between the cliff and the observer on the ship. [4]

Answer:
(a) The diagram is as shown.

(b) (i) Forced vibrations
(ii) Resonance
(iii) The wire of the sonometer begins to vibrate with its natural frequency. This is called resonance. At resonance the amplitude of vibration becomes very large.

(c) Let distance between the observer on the ship and person on the shore be x. For the first sound which the person hears after 2 second, we have
v= \(\frac { x }{ t }\) => x = vt = 320 x 2 = 640 m
Let distance between the ship and the cliff be x, then in the second case
V = \(\frac{2 x+640}{t}\) ⇒2x + 640 = vt = 320 × 3 = 960
or
2x = 960 – 640 = 320m
x= \(\frac{320}{2}\) = 160 m

Question 8.
(a) (i) A fuse is rated 8 A. Can it be used with an electrical appliance rated 5 kW, 200 V? Give a reason. [3]
(ii) Name two safety devices which are connected to the live wire of a household electric circuit.
(b) (i) Find the equivalent resistance between A and B. [3]

(ii) State whether the resistivity of a wire changes with the change in the thickness of the wire.
(c) An electric iron is rated 220 V, 2 kW. [4]
(i) If the iron is used for 2 h daily find the cost of running it for one week if it costs ₹ 4.25 per kWh.
(ii) Why is the fuse absolutely necessary in a power circuit?
Answer:
(i) The current which will pass through the electrical device will be I = \(\frac { P }{ V }\) = \(\frac { 5000 }{ 200 }\) = 25A
The fuse cannot be used as it will blow off when the current exceeds 8 A.
(ii) Fuse, MCB

(b) (i) 6 Q and 3 Ω are in parallel therefore,
\(\frac{6 \times 3}{6+3}\) =  \(\frac{18}{9}\)= 2Ω
4 Ω and 12 Ω are in parallel therefore,
\(\frac{4 \times 12}{4+12}\) = \(\frac{48}{16}\) = 3Ω
The above two are now in series therefore, R = 2 + 3 = 5
(ii) Resistivity is independent of the dimensions of the wire. Therefore, no change,

(c) (i) V = 220 V, P = 2 kW = 2000 W

Hence cost = 28 x 4.25 = ₹ 119
(ii) A fuse blows off when the maximum current in the circuit is exceeded. This helps in saving the devices connected in the circuit.

Question 9.
(i) Heat supplied to a solid change it into liquid. What is this change in phase called ? [3]
(ii) During the phase change does the average kinetic energy of the molecules of the substance increase?
(iii) What is the energy absorbed during the phase change called?
(b) (i) State two differences between “Heat Capacity” and “Specific Heat Capacity”. [3]
(ii) Give a mathematical relation between Heat Capacity and Specific Heat Capacity.
(c) The temperature of 170 g of water at 50°C is lowered to 5°C by adding certain amount of ice to it. Find the mass of ice added. Given: Specific heat capacity of water = 4200 J kg^-1 °C^-1 and Specific latent heat of ice 336000 J kg^-1. [4]
Answer:
(a) (i) Melting
(ii) Yes
(iii) Heat of fusion.

(b) (i) The two differences are

(ii) The relation is, heat capacity = specific heat x mass of substance.

(c) Given mass of ice = mg
Mass of water = 170 g
Initial temperature of water = 50 °C
Let the final temperature of the mixture = 5 °C
The latent heat required to change m g of ice at 0 °C to mg of water at 0 °C
= m x 336 = 336 m J
Now heat required to change m g of water at 0 °C to 5 °C
= m x 4.2 x (5 – 0) J = 21m J
Now heat lost by 170 g of water to reach 5 °C from 50 °C
= 170 x 4.2 x (50 – 5) = 32 130 J
Heat lost = Heat gained
336 m + 21 m = 32 130
357 m = 32 130
m = 90 g

Question 10.
(a) The diagram shows a coil wound around a U shape soft iron bar AB.
(i) What is the polarity induced at the ends A and B when the switch is pressed?
(ii) Suggest one way to strengthen the magnetic field in the electromagnet.
(iii) What will be the polarities at A & B if the direction of current is reversed in the circuit? [3]

(b) The ore of Uranium found in nature contains ₉₂U²³⁸ and ₉₂U²³⁵. Although both the isotopes are fissionable, it is found out’experimentally that one of the two isotopes is more easily fissionable.
(i) Name the isotope of Uranium which is easily fissionable.
(ii) Give a reason for your, answer.
(iii) Write a nuclear reaction when Uranium 238 emits an alpha particle to form a Thorium (Th) nucleus. [3]
(c) Radiations given out from a, source when subjected to an electric field in a direction perpendicular to their path are shown below in the diagram. The arrows show the path of the radiation A, B and C. Answer the following questions in terms of A, B and C. [4]
(i) Name the radiation B which is unaffected by the electrostatic field.
(ii) Why does the radiation C deflect more than A?

(iii) Which among the three causes the least biological damage externally?
(iv) Name the radiation which is used in carbon dating.
Answer:
(i) A north and B south
(ii) Increasing the current through the coil.
(iii)A South and B North

(b) (i) ₉₂u²³⁵
(ii) It readily absorbs thermal neutrons and becomes unstable.
(iii) The reaction is ₉₂U²³⁸ → ₉₀Th²³⁴ + ₂He⁴

(c) (i) Gamma radiation
(ii) Because it is lighter than A.
(iii) Alpha (A)
(iv) Carbon-14

ICSE Class 10 Physics Previous Years Question Papers

ICSE Maths Previous Year Question Paper 2018 Solved for Class 10

General Instructions :

• Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
• You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
• This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
• The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
• Attempt all questions from Section A and any four questions from Section B.
• All working, including rough work, must be clearly shown and must be done on the same sheet as the rest of the answer.
• Omission of essential working will result in the loss of marks.
• The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].
• Mathematical tables are provided.
  

Section A [40 marks]
(Answer all questions from this Section.)

Question 1.
(a) Find the value of x’ and y’ if : [3]

(b) Sonia had a recurring deposit account in a bank and deposited 3600 per month for 244 years. If the rate of interest was 10% p.a., find the maturity value of this account. [3]
(c) Cards bearing numbers 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14, 16, 18 and 20 are kept in a bag. A card is drawn at random from the bag. Find the probability of getting a card which is : [4]
(i) a prime number.
(ii) a number divisible by 4.
(iii) a number that is a multiple of 6.
(iv) an odd number.
Answer:

⇒ 2 JC + 6 = 10 ⇒ 2x = 4 ⇒ x = 2
And 2y – 5 = 15 ⇒ 2y = 20 ⇒ y = 10
Hence, the values of x and y are x = 2 and y = 10

(b) Here, amount deposited per month = ₹ 600
Number of months = 2 x 12 + 6 = 30  [∵ v T = \(2 \frac{1}{2}\) years]
Rate of interest = 10% p.a.

Hence, the amount received by Sonia on maturity is ₹ 20325.

(c)Total number of cards in the bag = 10
(i) Total prime numbers = 1 i.e., 2
∴ Required Probability = \(\frac{1}{10}\)
(ii) Total numbers divisible by 4 = 5 (i.e., 4, 8, 12, 16, 20]
Required Probability = \(\frac{5}{10}\) = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
(iii) Total numbers divisible by 6 or multiple of 6 = 3 [i.e., 6, 12, 18]
∴ Required Probability = \(\frac{3}{10}\)
(iv) Total odd number = 0
∴ Required Probability = \(\frac{0}{10}\) = 0.

Question 2.
(a)The circumference of the base of a cylindrical vessel is 132 cm and its height is 25 cm. Find the :
(i) radius of the cylinder
(ii) volume of cylinder, (use π = \(\frac{22}{7}\)) [3]
(b) If (k – 3), (2k + 1) and (4k + 3) are three consecutive terms of an A.P., find the value of k.
(c) PQRS is a cyclic quadrilateral. Given ∠QPS = 73°, ∠PQS = 55° and ∠PSR = 82 °, calculate: [4]
(i) ∠QRS
(ii) ∠RQS
(iii) ∠PRQ

Answer :
(a) Let r be the radius of the base of cylindrical vessel and ft = 25 cm be its height.
Now, circumference of the base = 132 cm
2πr = 132

Hence, the radius of the cylinder is 21 cm and volume of the cylinder is 34650 cm³

(b) Here, ft – 3, 2k + 1 and 4k + 3 are three consecutive terms of an A.P.
∴ 2k + 1 – (k – 3) = 4k + 3 – (2k + 1)
⇒ 2k + 1 – k + 3 = 4k + 3 – 2k – 1
⇒ k + 4 = 2k + 2
⇒ 2k – k =4 – 2
⇒ k = 2
Hence, the value of ft is 2.

(c) (i) Since PQRS is a cyclic quadrilateral
∠QPS + ∠QRS – 180°
⇒ 73° + ∠QRS = 180°
⇒ ∠QRS = 180° – 73°
∠QRS = 107°
(ii) Again, ∠PQR + ∠PSR = 180°
∠PQS + ∠RQS + ∠PSR = 180°
55° – ∠RQS + 82° = 180°
∠RQS = 180° – 82° – 55° = 43°
(iii) In ∆PQS, by using angles sum property of a ∆.
∠PSQ + ∠SQP + ∠QPS = 180°
∠PSQ + 55° + 73° = 180°
∠PSQ = 180° – 55° – 73°
∠PSQ = 52°
Now, ∠PRQ = ∠PSQ = 52° [Oop. ∠s of the same segment]
Hence, ∠QRS = 107°, ∠RQS = 43° and
∠PRQ = 52°

Question 3.
(a) If (x + 2) and (x + 3) are factors of x³ + ax + b, find the values of ‘a’ and ‘b’. [3]
(b) Prove that  [3]
(c) Using a graph paper draw a histogram for the given distribution showing the number of runs scored by 50 batsmen. Estimate the mode of the data : [4]

Answer :
(a) Given that (x + 2) and (x + 3) are factors of p(x) = x³ + ax + b.
∴ p(- 2) = (- 2)³ + o(- 2) + b = 0
⇒ – 8 – 2a + b = 0 => – 2a + b = 8 …….(i)
And p(- 3) = (- 3)³ + a(- 3) + b = 0
⇒ – 27 – 3a + b = 0 => – 3a + b = 27 ……..(ii)
Subtracting (i) from (ii), we obtain
(- 3a 4 – b) – (- 2a + b) = 27 – 8
– 3a + b + 2a – b = 19
-a = 19
⇒ a = 19
From (i), we obtain
– 2(19) + b = 8
– 38 + b = 8
⇒ b = 8 + 38
⇒ b = 46
Hence, the values of a and b are a = 19 and b = 46.

Question 4.
(a) Solve the following in equation, write down the solution set and represent it on the real number line: [3]
– 2 + 10x ≤ 13x + 10 < 24 + 10x, x ∈ Z
(b) If the straight lines 3x – 5y = 7 and 4x + ay + 9 = O are perpendicular to one another, find the value of a. [3]
(c) Solve x² + 7x = 7 and give your answer correct to two decimal places. [4]
Answer.
(a) Given that :

Thus, the required solution set is :

Using number line, we have

(b) Given lines are
3x – 5y = 1 ……….(i) and 4x + ay + 9 = 0  …………(ii)
Slope of line (i) (m₁) =  \(-\left(\frac{3}{-5}\right)=\frac{3}{5}\)
Slope of line (ii) (m₂) = \(-\left(\frac{4}{a}\right)\)

Also, given that two lines are perpendicular to one and another
∴ (m₁) (m₂) = – 1
⇒
Hence, the value of a = \(\frac{12}{5}\) .

(c) Here, x² + 7x = 7
⇒ x² + 7x – 7 = 0

SECTION – B [40 MARKS]
(Attempt any four questions)

Question 5.
(a) The 4^th term of a G. P. is 16 and the 7^h term is 128. Find the first term and common ratio of the series. [3]
(h) A man invests ₹ 22,500 in ₹ 50 shares available at 10% discount. If the dividend paid by the company is 12%c, calculate : [3]
(i) The number of shares purchased.
(ii) The annual dividend received.
(iii) The rate of return he gets on his investment. Give your answer correct to the nearest whole number.
(c) Use graph paper for this question (Take 2 cm = 1 unit along both x and y axis). ABCD is a quadrilateral whose vertices are A(2, 2), B(2, -2), C(0, -1) and D (0,1). [4]
(i) Reflect quadrilateral ABCD on the y-axis and name it as A’B’CD.
(ii) Write down the coordinates of A’ and B’.
(iii) Name two points which are invariant under the above reflection.
(iv) Name the polygon A’B’CD.
Answer.
(a) Let a and r be the first term and common ratio of given G.P.
∴ a₄ = 16
⇒ ar³ = 16
and a₇ = 128
⇒ a⁶ = 128
Dividing (ii) and (i), we obtain

a3 = 3
a³ = 2³
a = 2
⇒
From (i), we have
2(r³) = 16
r³ = 8
r³ = 23
⇒ r = 2
Hence, the first term and common ratio of the given series is 2 and 2.

(b) Total investment = ₹ 22,500
Face value of a share = ₹ 50
Market value of a share = ₹ (50 – 10% of 50) = ₹ (50 – 5) = ₹ 45
∴ No. of shares purchased = \(\frac{22500}{45}\) = 500
Annual dividend per share = 12 % of 50
= \(\frac{12}{100} \times 50\) = ₹ 6
Total annual dividend = ₹ 6 × 500 = ₹ 3000
Rate of return =\(\frac{3000}{22500}\) × 100
= 13.3 %
= 13% (Nearest whole number)
Hence, number of shares purchased are 500, total annual dividend is ₹ 3000 and rate of return on investment is nearly 13 % p. a.
(c) Scale used is : 2 cm = 1 unit along both x and y axis.
(i) Here, vertices of the quadrilateral ABCD are A(2, 2), B(2, -2), C(0, -1) and D(0, 1)

(iii) Two points which are invariant are C and D.
(iv) A’B’CD is a trapezium.

Question 6.
(a) Using properties of proportion, solve for x. Given that x is positive : [3]
[3]
(b) ,and, find AC + B² – 10C. [3]
(c) Prove that (1 + cot θ – cosec θ) (1 + tan θ + sec θ) = 2 [4]
Answer.

By componendo and Dividendo, we have

Squaring both sides, we have

Hence the value of x is \(\frac{5}{8}\)

(b) Given that

(c) L.H.S. = (1 +cot θ – cosec θ) (1 + tan θ + sec θ)

Question 7.
(a) Find the value of kfor which the following equation has equal roots. [3]
x² + 4kx + (k² – k + 2) =0
(b) On a map drawn to a scale of 1 : 50,000, a rectangular plot of land ABCD has the following daimentions AB = 6 cm;BC = 8 cm and all angles are right angles. Find :
(i) the actual length of the diagonal distance AC of the plot in km.
(ii) the actual area of the plot in sq. km.
(c) A(2, 5), B(-1, 2) and C(5, 8) are the vertices of a triangle ABC, ‘M’ is a point on AB such that AM : MB = 1:2. Find the co-ordinates of M’. Hence find the equation of the line passing through the points C and M. [4]
Answer.
(a) Given quadratic equation is :
x² + 4kx + (k² – k + 2) = 0
For equal roots, we have
b² – 4 ac = 0
⇒ (4k)2 – 4(1) (k2-k + 2) = 0
⇒ 16k² – 4k² + 4k – 8 = 0
⇒ 12k² + 4k – 8 = 0
or 3k² + k – 2 = 0
⇒ 3k² + 3k – 2k -2 = 0
⇒ 3k(k + 1) – 2(k + 1) = 0
⇒ (k + 1)(3k – 2) = 0
⇒ k + 1=0 or 3k – 2 = 0
k = – 1 or k = \(\frac{2}{3}\)

(b) Scale used on the map is 1 : 50,000
Dimensions of a rectangular plot ABCD are AB = 6 cm, BC = 8 cm Since each angle is right angle
∴ By using Pythagoras theorem, we have

(i) Actual length of the diagonal AC = 10 × 50000 cm
= \(\frac{500000}{100000}\) km
= 5 km
(ii) Area of the rectangular field ABCD on map
= 6 × 8 = 48 cm²
Actual area of the field = 48 × 500000 × 500000
= 12(10)¹⁰ sq. cm.
= 12 sq. km.

(c) Coordinates of the vertices of a ∆ ABC are A(2, 5), B(- 1, 2) and C (5, 8). Since M is a point on AB such that AM : MB = 1 : 2

Coordinates M are

Now, equation of the line CM is given as :

Question 8.
(a) ₹ 7500 were divided equally among a certain number of children. Had there been 20 less children, each would have received ₹ 100 more. Find the original number of children. [3]
(b) If the mean of the following distribution is 24, find the value of ‘a’. [3]

(i) Using ruler and compass only, construct a ∆ABC such that BC = 5 cm and AB = 6.5 cm and ∠ABC = 120°. [4]
(ii) Construct a circum-circle of ∆ABC.
(iii) Construct a cyclic quadrilateral ABCD, such that D is equidistant from AB and BC.
Answer.
(a) Total amount = ₹ 7500
Let the number of children be x
∴ Share of each child = ₹ \(\frac{7500}{x}\)
According to the statement

(x – 20) (7500 + 100a) = 7500 x
7500x + 100x² – 150000 – 2000x – 7500x = 0
100x² – 200x – 150000 = 0
x² – 20a – 1500 = 0
x² – 50x + 30x – 1500 = 0
x(x – 50) + 30(x – 50) = 0
(x – 50) (a + 30) = 0
⇒ a = 50 or a = – 30
Rejecting -ve value, because number of children cannot be negative.
∴ x = 50

Hence, the original number of children is 50.

Mean = 24 (given)
∴ \(\frac{15 a+810}{30+a}\) = 24
15a + 810 = 720 + 24a
⇒ 24a – 15a = 810 – 720
⇒ 9a = 90
⇒ a = 10
Hence, the value of a is 10.

Steps of Construction :

1. Draw a line segment AB = 6.5 cm.
2. At B, construct an angle of 120° and cut off BC = 5 cm.
3. Join AC, to have ∆ABC.
4. Draw the perpendicular bisectors of line segments AB and BC.
5. Let they intersect each other in 0.
6. With 0 as centre and radius OA or OB or OC, draw the circumcircle of ∆ABC.
7. Produce perpendicular bisector of line segment AB and let it intersect the circumcircle of ∆ABC at D.
8. Join AD and CD.
   Thus, quad. ABCD is the required quadrilateral.

Question 9.
(a) Priyanka has a recurring deposit account of ₹ 1000 per month at 10% per annum. If she gets ₹ 5550 as interest at the time of maturity, find the total time for which account has held. [3]
(b) In ∆ PQR, MN is parallel to QR and \(\frac{P M}{M Q}\) = \(\frac{2}{3}\) [3]

(i) Find \(\frac{M N}{Q R}\)
(ii) Prove that ∆OMN and ∆ORQ are similar.
(iii) Find, Area of ∆OMN: Area of ∆ORQ
(c) The following figure represents a solid consisting of a right circular cylinder with a hemisphere at one end and a cone at the other. Their common radius is 7 The height of the cylinder and cone are each of 4 cm. Find the volume of the solid. [4]

Answer:
Amount deposited per month = ₹ 1000
Rate of interest = 10% p.a.
Interest = ₹ 5550

n² + n = 1332
n² + n – 1332 = 0
n² + 37n – 36n – 1332 = 0
n(n + 37) – 36(n + 37) = 0
(n – 36) (n + 37) = 0
n = 36 or n = – 37
Rejecting – ve value of n, we have n = 36
Hence, the total time for which the account was held, was 36 month or 3 years.

(c) Given that:

In ∆PQR, MN is parallel to QR
∴ By using Basic Proportionality theorem, we have

(c) Here, radius of cone = radius of cylinder = radius of hemisphere = 7 cm
Height of cone = 4 cm
Height of cylinder = 4 cm

Question 10.
(a) Use Remainder theorem to factorize the following polynomial: [3]
2x³ + 3x² – 9x – 10.
(b) In the figure given below ‘O’ is the centre of the circle. If QR = OP and ∠ORP = 20°. Find the value of ‘x ’ giving reasons. [3]

(c) The angle of elevation from a point P of the top of a tower QR, 50 m high is 60 ° and that of the tower PT from a point Q is 30°. Find the height of the tower PT, correct to the nearest metre

Answer :
(a)  Let p(x) = 2x³ + 3x² – 9x – 10
Factors of constant term 10 are ± 1, ± 2, ± 5
Put x = 2, we have
p(2) =2(2)³ + 3(2)² – 9(2) – 10
= 16 + 12 – 18 – 10
= 0
∴ (x – 2) is a factor of p(x)
Put x = – 1, we have
P(-1) =2(-1)³ + 3(-1)² – 9 (-1) – 10
= – 2 + 3 + 9 – 10 = 0
∴ (x + 1) is a factor of p(x)
Thus, (x + 1) (x – 2) i.e.,x² – x – 2 is a factor of p(x)

Hence, (x + 1), (x – 2) and (2x + 5) are the factors of given polynomial 2x³ + 3x² – 9x – 10.
(b) Here, in ∆OPQ
OP = OQ = r
Also, OP = QR [Given]
OP = OQ = QR = r

In ∆OQR, OQ = QR
∠QOR = ∠ORP = 20°
And ∠OQP = ∠QOR + ∠ORQ
= 20° + 20°
= 40°
Again, in ∆ OPQ
∠POQ = 180° – ∠OPQ – ∠OQP
= 180°- 40° – 40°
= 100°
Now, x° + ∠POQ + ∠QOR = 180° [a straight angle]
x° + 100° + 20° = 180°
x° = 180° – 120° = 60°
Hence, the value of x is 60.

(c) Here, Height of the tower (QR) = 50 m
Height of the tower (PT) = h m
Inrt. ∠ed ∆ PQR, ∠RPQ = 60°

Also, inrt. ∠ed ∆ QPT, ∠TQP = 30°

Hence, the required height of tower PT is 17 m (nearest to metre).

Question 11.
(a) The 4^th term of an A. P. is 22 and 15^th term is 66. Find the first term and the common difference. Hence find the sum of the series to 8 terms. [4]
(b) Use Graph paper for this question. [6]
A survey regarding height (in cm) of 60 boys belonging to Class 10 of a school was conducted. The following data was recorded :

Taking 2 cm = height of 10 cm along one axis and 2 cm = 10 boys along the other axis draw and give of the above distribution. Use the graph to estimate the following:
(i) the median
(ii) lower Quartile
(iii) if above 158 cm is considered as the tall boys of the class. Find the number of boys in the class who are tall.
Answer.
(a) Let a and d be the first term and common difference of the required A.P.
∴ a₄ = 22
⇒ a + 3d = 22 ………(i)
And a₁₅ = 66
⇒ a + 14d = 66 ………..(ii)
Subtracting (i) from (ii), we have
(14d – 3d) = 66 – 22
11d = 44
d = 4
From (i), we have
a + 3(4) = 22
a = 22 – 12 = 10
Thus, a = 10 and d = 4
Now, S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\) [2a + (n – 1)d]
⇒ S₈= \(\frac{8}{2}\) [2(10) + (8-1)4]
S₈ = 4 [20 + 28]
S₈ = 4 x 48 S₈ = 192

(b) Given data was recorded as :

Plot the points (140,4), (145,12), (150,32), (155,46), (160,53), (165,59) and (170,60). Join them free hand to get the required ogive.
Now, from the graph, we obtain :

(i) Median height (in cm) = 149.5 cm
(ii) Lower Quartile = 146 cm ‘
(iii) Number of boys who are tall e., height above 158 cm = 60 – 51 = 9.


ICSE Class 10 Maths Previous Years Question Papers

ICSE Physical Education Previous Year Question Paper 2015 Solved for Class 10

ICSE Paper 2015
PHYSICAL EDUCATION

(Two Hours)
Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
This time is to be spent in reading the Question Paper.
The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
Attempt all questions from Section A and two questions from Section B.
The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

SECTION-A  (50 Marks)
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1:
(a) Mention two steps that may be taken to maintain personal cleanliness. [2]
(b) State two causes of obesity in children. [2]
(c) Give three precautions an athlete should take while exercising. [3]
(d) Define the term organic disease. Give two examples. [3]

Answer:
(a)

1. Take bath everyday in the morning, but in summer one should take bath twice a day.
2. Teeth should be brushed twice a day.

(b) Two causes of obesity in children:

1. Faulty habit of eating.
2. Heredity.

(c)

1. Exercise should be taken in open air.
2. Exercise should be done in the early morning or evening.
3. Proper rest should be taken.

(d) Organic Disease: A disease of a particular abnormal condition, a disorder of structure or function that affects a part or all parts of an organism is called organic disease.
Examples: Ulcer, Brain Tumor.

Question 2:
(a) What is meant by ‘hereditary disease’? [2]
(b) Name any two types of heart diseases. [2]
(c) What is a prescribed drug? How is it different from a non-prescribed drug? [3]
(d) Differentiate between innate immunity and acquired immunity. [3]

Answer:
(a) Hereditary Disease: Disease which is transmitted from parents to their children is called Hereditary disease.
(b) Two types of heart disease:

1. Cardiac failure
2. Hypertension.

(c) Prescribed Drug: A prescribed drug is a pharmaceutical drug that legally requires a medical prescription to be dispensed.
It is different from a non-prescribed drug because it can only be bought at a doctor’s prescription.

(d) Innate immunity: This immunity is present in the body since the birth.
Acquired immunity: This immunity is acquired by infection or vaccination or by the transfer of antibody.

Question 3:
(a) Write the full form of WHO and CPR. [2]
(b) State two symptoms of Insomnia. [2]
(c) Suggest three measures to avoid accidents caused by a fire. [3]
(d) State any three causes of a bad posture. [3]

Answer:
(a) WHO: World Health Organization.
CPR: Cardio Pulmonary Resuscitation.
(b) Two symptoms of Insomnia:

1. General tiredness
2. Irritability.

(c) Three measures to avoid accidents caused by a fire:

1. Match boxes, burning stoves, open fire should be kept out of reach of children.
2. Avoid burning papers or leaves out of door on windy day.
3. Don’t smoke while in bed.

(d) Three causes of a bad posture:

1. Injury
2. Obesity
3. Lack of awareness.

Question 4:
(a) What is understood by the term ‘cramp’? [2]
(b) What is meant by the term ‘sprain’? [2]
(c) Differentiate between a defect and an injury. [3]
(d) What is meant by the term ‘RICER’? [3]

Answer:
(a) Cramp: A cramp is a sudden, severe and involuntary contraction of muscle.
(b) Sprain: A sprain is damage to one or more ligaments in a joint, often caused by trauma or the joint being taken beyond its functional range of motion.
(c) Defect: Defect is an imperfection or problem in an individual’s body which causes hindrance in its proper functioning.
Injury: Injury is defined as a physical harm, damage or hurt to any part of the body.
(d) RICER: RICER means Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation and Referral. These are essential elements for a qiuck recovery from an injury.

Question 5:
(a) State any four steps to treat a bone injury. [2]
(b) Name any two diseases spread by a virus. [2]
(c) State three causes of accidents that occur due to an electric shock. [3]
(d) What first aid must be administered to an athlete suffering from cramps? [3]

Answer:
(a)

1. The patient should be warned not to move.
2. If there is bleeding it should be stopped immediately.
3. Injured part should be immobilized and anti shock measure should be taken.
4. A doctor or an ambulance should be summoned at once.

(b) Two disease spread by virus:

1. Common cold
2. Chickenpox

(c) Three causes of accidents due to electric shock:

1. Due to faulty appliances.
2. Use of faulty wires and cords.
3. Work with electricity with wet hands.

(d) First Aid to an athlete suffering from cramps:
The first aid for muscle cramps is provided to the patient to relax the affected muscle. This involves stretching, massages and heat application.

SECTION-B  (50 Marks)
Attempt two questions from this Section.
You must attempt one question on each of the two games of your choice.

CRICKET

Question 6:
(a) Briefly explain the following terms:

1. An overthrow.
2. A boundary for six.
3. A yorker.
4. Popping crease. [8]

(b)

1. When is a ball deemed ‘lost’ during play? What procedures are then adopted in case the ball is declared ‘lost’?
2. State three instances when the ball is considered a ‘dead ball’.
3. Mention three situations when a team’s innings is said to be complete? [9]

(c)

1. Identify the colour of the cricket ball used in test and one day matches. What is the reason behind using coloured balls?
2. When is a ‘follow on’ implemented during the course of a test match?
3. What is the umpire’s decision in the following cases:
   1. When a batsman obstructs a fielder trying to catch the ball.
   2. When a batsman hits the ball intentionally twice in succession. [8]

Answer:
(a)

1. An Overthrow: An overthrow is an extra run scored by a batsman as a result of the ball not being collected by a fielder in the centre, having been thrown in from the outfield.
2. A Boundary for Six: It is a way of scoring run when a batsman hit the ball with the bat and ball touches the ground out side the boundary.
3. A Yorker: A ball bounced very close to the batsman’s crease.
4. Popping Crease: A crease from where the batsman plays the ball which is delivered by the bowler, is called popping crease.

(b)

1. When a ball in play cannot be found or recovered, any fielder may call lost ball. When “lost ball” is called the batting side fixes a penalty that would have been in fact run before the call of lost ball was made.
2. Three situations when the ball is considered a dead ball:
   1. If it lodges in an umpire’s clothing.
   2. If it hits any equipment kept in the field.
   3. If it reaches the batsman in more than one tip on the ground after been released from bowler’s hand.
3. Three situations when an inning is said to be complete:
   1. When 10 batsmen of the batting team are declared out.
   2. In one day cricket match, when prescribed overs are completed.
   3. When the given target of runs is achieved by the batting side.

(c)

1. Colours of Ball: Test match — Red
   One day match — White.
   Red Colour Ball: Red colour ball retains its colour till completion of 80 overs and the batsman can easily pick this ball in test matches.
   White Colour Ball: White colour ball is more visible in flood light than red colour ball.
2. Follow on: When a team bats first and leads by at least 200 runs in 5 days’ match.
   150 runs in 3 day match.
   100 runs in 2 day match.
   In a one day match with two innings per side, 75 runs.
3. 1. Obstructing the field — Out
   2. Hitting the ball twice — Out.

Question 7:
(a) Briefly explain the following terms:

1. A bouncer.
2. The third umpire.
3. Scorers.
4. A hat-trick. [8]

(b)

1. Mention any three instances when a bowler does not get credit for wickets being taken.
2. State any three situations where a batsman can be declared out even when a ‘no ball’ has been bowled.
3. What is meant by ‘extra runs’? Give two examples of extra runs. [9]

(c)

1. State any two conditions due to which a pitch may be changed.
2. Mention the length of the cricket pitch.
3. What will be the umpire’s decision in the following cases:
   (a) If the ball becomes unfit for play during the course of the game
   (b) If a batsman touches the ball with his hands? [8]

Answer:
(a)

1. A bouncer is a type of delivery which is pitched short so that it bounces on the pitch well short of the batsman and rears upto chest or head height as it reaches the batsman.
2. Third Umpire: The third umpire (or TV umpire) is an off-field umpire who makes the final decision in matters referred to him by the two on-field umpires.
3. Scorers: The scorer is someone appointed to record all runs scored, all wickets taken, the number of overs bowled.
4. A Hat-trick: A hat-trick is when a bowler takes three wickets on consecutive deliveries, dismissing three different batsmen.

(b)

1. 1. When the batsman is run out.
   2. When the batsman is timed out.
   3. Obstructing the field if the bastsman given out.
2. 1. Run out
   2. Hit the ball twice
   3. Stumped-out.
3. Extra Runs: An extra is a run scored by a means other than a batsman hitting the ball. Examples: No ball, Wide ball, Bye, Leg bye.

(c)

1. When the pitch is unfit to play.
2. When the pitch has uneven bounce, with the consent of both captains, the umpire can change the pitch.
3. Length of pitch = 22 yard or 20.12 mts.
   (a) Umpire will change the ball with the same number of over played ball.
   (b) Handling the ball (bastsman will be declared out)

FOOTBALL

Question 8:
(a) Explain the following terms:

1. The technical area.
2. The optional mark.
3. Centre circle.
4. A corner kick. [8]

(b)

1. What is a ‘kick-off? Give any two instances when it is initiated.
2. What is the procedure adopted to restart a match when there is a situation of a dropped ball.
3. Mention any three circumstances where the referee awards an indirect free kick against the goalkeeper. [9]

(c)

1. State any two conditions when the ball is called ‘out of play’.
2. What should he the width of the goal line, touchline and goalpost?
3. Define a direct free kick.
4. How many substitutions may be permitted in an official competition organized under the auspices of FIFA. [8]

Answer:
(a)

1. Technical Area: The area outside the playfield where coach, manager and players sit is known technical area.
2. Optional Mark: It is a mark 9.15 mts from corner on the goal line towards the goal post.
3. Centre Circle: It is a circle of 9.15 mts in the centre of playfield from where the kick off is taken.
4. Corner Kick: It is awarded when ball passes the goal fine last touched by defenders. It is taken from corner arc.

(b)

1. Kick-off: When the game is started from the centre circle after toss is known as kick-off.
   Kick-off is initiated:
   1. after halftime
   2. after each goal scored.
2. Dropped Ball: Referee will restart the match after a situation of dropped ball. Ball will be dropped in between the two players of opposite team, when the ball touches the ground game will start.
3. 1. When goalkeeper touches the ball with his hand, after it is passed to him by his own team player.
   2. When the goalkeeper delays to restart or kick the ball after holding the ball in his hand for more than six seconds.
   3. When he touches the ball outside the penalty area with his hand.

(c)

1. Out of play:
   1. When the ball wholly crosses the goal fine.
   2. When the half time is over.
   3. When the ball crosses the touch line wholly.
2. Width of goal line – 5 inches = 12 cms
   Width of touch line – 5 inches = 12 cms
   Width of goal post – 5 inches = 12 cms.
3. Direct Free Kick: A direct free kick is a method of restarting the game. A goal may be scored directly from a direct free kick.
4. Three substitutions are permitted in a game.

Question 9:
(a) Explain the following terms:

1. Corner arc
2. Ball in play
3. Penalty mark
4. A goal kick. [8]

(b)

1. State the three methods of restarting a game in football.
2. Mention three instances for which a direct free kick is awarded.
3. State any three types of fouls committed by a player that may invite a red card from the referee. [9]

(c)

1. What procedure may be adopted if the ball is damaged or becomes defective during the course of play?
2. Mention three circumstances when time is lost or wasted during the course of play and that is added at the end of each playing session.
3. Define an indirect free kick.
4. What colour warning cards are shown by a referee during the course of playing in a football match? What does the colour of a warning card indicate? [8]

Answer:
(a)

1. Corner Arc: It is the arc of one metre inside the playfield on each corner from when the corner kick is taken.
2. Ball in Play: When the ball rebounds off a goal frame, corner flag, referee or assistant referee, assuming that they are on the field of play at the time and goal can be scored is known as ball in play.
3. Penalty Mark: Penalty mark is a mark of 11 metres away from the centre of goal post towards the centre line from where the penalty kick is taken.
4. Goal Kick: When the ball crosses the goal line last touched by the offensive player. The defending team is awarded goal kick.

(b)

1. Three methods of restarting the game:
   1. By the dropped ball
   2. By the throw in
   3. By the corner kick.
2. Direct free kick is awarded:
   1. When any player kicks or attempts to kick an opponent.
   2. Jumps at an opponent
   3. Charges an opponent.
3. Fouls for which red card is shown to a player:
   1. He spits at an opponent or any Other person.
   2. When he is guilty of serious foul play.
   3. Receives a second caution in the same match.

(c)

1. When the ball becomes defective during the game, referee stops the game and changes the ball.
2. Time lost during the play:
   1. In injury.
   2. In substitution.
   3. In fouls.
3. Indirect Free Kick: It is given when some foul or injury to player has occurred outside the penalty area.
4. Colours of warning card shown during the match are Red and Yellow:
   1. Yellow Card: It indicats a caution to a player.
   2. Red Card: It indicates that the player to be sent off the game or disqualification of a player.

HANDBALL

Question 10:
(a) Explain the following terms:

1. 4 metre line
2. 9 metre line
3. IHF
4. Goalposts [8]

(b)

1. Mention three situations of unsportsmanlike conduct during the game.
2. State any three advantages a handball goalkeeper enjoys?
3. List any three goal shooting techniques used by players in a handball game. [9]

(c)

1. When is a time out necessary?
2. State any two occasions when a goalkeeper may be disqualified by the referee.
3. What will the referee’s decision be when a player enters his own goal area and in trying to stop the ball with his foot deflects it into MS own goal?
4. What is the maximum time a player can hold on to a ball in a match? [8]

Answer:
(a)

1. 4 metre line: A 4 metre line is 15 cm long line directly in front of the goal line. It is parallel to the goal line and 4 metres away from it.
2. 9 metre line: 9 metres line is known as free throw line. It is drawn 3 metres outside the goal area line.
3. IHF: International Handball Federation.
4. Goal posts: It is wooden post made with inner dimension of 1 m height and 3 m length. The wooden log must be 8 cm thick.

(b)

1. Unsportsmanlike conduct:
   1. Pull or hit the ball out of the hand of an opponent.
   2. Block or force away an opponent.
   3. Restrain, push, run or jump into an opponent.
2. Refer Ans. 10 (b) (iii), 2016.
3. Three goal shooting techniques:
   1. Jump throw
   2. 7 metre throw
   3. Fall away throw.

(c)

1. Time out is necessary when there is any typical reason like injuries, suspensions or court cleaning.
2. Goalkeeper my be disqualified:
   1. For fouls which endanger the opponent’s health.
   2. Because of a third suspension to the goalkeeper.
3. Goal will be counted and yellow card will be shown to player.
4. A player can hold the ball for a maximum of 3 seconds.

Question 11:
(a) Explain the following terms:

1. 7 metre line
2. Substitution line
3. Safety zone
4. Score keeper. [8]

(b)

1. Mention any three restrictions imposed on a handball goalkeeper?
2. List any three situations when a goalkeeper throw is awarded?
3. State any three types of passes used in the game of handball? [9]

(c)

1. How many timeouts are permitted and of what duration?
2. What is meant by ‘running’ in a game of handball?
3. What will the referee’s decision be if the ball is in the defending team’s goal area and is picked by the opposition team’s player who then scores a goal?
4. What is the width of the marking lines of a playing field in a game of handball?

Answer:
(a)

1. 7 metre line: The 7 metre line is a one meter long line, directly in front of the goal. It is parallel to the goal line and 7 metre away from it.
2. Substitution Line: The substitution line for each team extends from the center line to a point at a distance of 4.5 metres from the center line.
3. Safety Zone: The safety zone surrounding the court has a minimum width of atleast one metre along the sidelines and 2 m behind the goal lines.
4. Score Keeper: A person who keeps track of goals, fouls and time in a handball game is known as score keeper. He is also responsible for team roasters.

(b)

1. Three Restrictions on Goalkeeper:
   1. He cannot touch the ball when it is rolling or stationary outside the goal area.
   2. He will not re-enter the goal area from the playing area with the ball.
   3. Endanger the opponent while in the act of defence.
2. Goalkeeper throw:
   1. A player of the opposing team has entered the goal area in violation.
   2. When the ball goes out from the end lines (goal line).
   3. When the player of opposing team touches the ball when it is rolling or stationary in the goal area.
3. Types of passes in the Game:
   1. Bounce pass.
   2. Chest pass, Hook pass, Overhead pass, Jump pass, Side arm pass, Shoulder pass.

(c)

1. No. of time out in a game: Three time-outs.
2. Duration of time-out: One minute.
3. Running: When a player holding the ball in the hands moves in any direction without bouncing the ball is called running.
4. Goal will not be scored and the goalkeeper’s throw will be awarded.
5. Width of the marking line in the game of Handball – 5 cm.

HOCKEY

Question 12:
(a) Explain the following terms:

1. A stroke
2. A scoop
3. Backline
4. A hit [8]

(b)

1. What is meant by a ‘centre-pass’?
2. Briefly explain the warning cards used in a game of hockey.
3. What is understood by a ‘manufactured foul’? [9]

(c)

1. What is meant by a ‘long corner’?
2. What is an ‘advantage’ in a game of hockey?
3. What will the referee’s decision be if a player enters the field before completion of a 5 minute suspension and a goal is scored by his/her team simultaneously during that duration of play?
4. Give two instances when the ball is declared out of play in a game of hockey? [8]

Answer:
(a)

1. A Stroke: A stroke is a technique to send the ball from one place to another or his own team players.
2. A Scoop: To hit under the ball, causing it to rise. It is a foul, if it is raised dangerously.
3. Backline: The backline is a width line of playfield on which goalpost is fixed or kept.
4. A Hit: The stroke used for moving the ball over long distance or for shooting.

(b)

1. Centre Pass: Centre pass is a push or hit made in any direction to start the game or to restart the game after a goal has been scored.
2. The three different colour cards are used in a game of hockey—Green, Yellow and Red.
   1. Green Card: It is used to caution the player.
   2. Yellow Card: It is used for the temporary suspension.
   3. Red Card: It is used for disqualification from the game.
3. Manufactured Foul: When the equipments are not manufactured according to the rules is called manufactured foul.

(c)

1. Long Corner: When the ball is unitentionally hit across the end line by a defender or goalkeeper a long corner is awarded.
2. Advantage: The rules do not allow the person who kicked the ball to gain advantage from the kick, so the ball will automatically be passed on to the opposing team.
3. Goal will not be counted and the player will be disqualified or sent off the game.
4. Ball is out of play:
   1. When the ball crosses the side line.
   2. When referee stops the game.

Question 13:
(a) Explain the following terms:

1. A push
2. A raised ball
3. Sideline
4. A flick [8]

(b)

1. What is meant by a side line hit?
2. State any three situations when a penalty corner is said to be complete.
3. List any six basic equipments worn by a hockey goalkeeper. [9]

(c)

1. What is the height of the flag posts placed on the hockey field?
2. State the full form of FIH.
3. What decision will the referee take if the ball is hit outside the backline intentionally by the defender?
4. What is meant by the term ‘back-stick’ in a game of hockey? [8]

Answer:
(a)

1. A Push: Moving the ball along the ground using a pushing movement of the stick after the stick placed close to the ball.
2. A Raised Ball: When the ball is hit and ball leaves the ground and goes on waist hit it is called raised ball.
3. Side Line: Line of 90 mts in the length is called side line.
4. A Flick: Pushing the ball so that it is raised off the ground.

(b)

1. Side Line Hit: When the ball wholly crosses the side line and to restart the game a hit is taken from place from where ball is passes.
2. Three situations when a penalty corner is taken as complete:
   1. The penalty corner when a goal is scored.
   2. When the ball after push crosses the shooting circle more than 5 mts.
   3. When the ball is pushed from the corner point and it stops on shooting circle and after that it is hit and crosses goal line.
3. Six equipments worn by a hockey goal keeper:
   1. Helmet
   2. Chest guard
   3. Gloves
   4. Pad
   5. Shoes
   6. AD guard.

(c)

1. Height of flag posts placed on hockey field = 1.20 mt to 1.50 mts.
2. FIH: International Hockey Federation.
3. Long corner will be awarded if the ball is intentionally hit outside the backline.
4. Back Stick: An illegal shot in which the ball strikes the rounded face of the hockey stick.

BASKETBALL

Question 14:
(a) Explain the following terms:

1. A jump ball
2. Travelling
3. A foul
4. A free throw [8]

(b)

1. Mention three situations when the ball is considered ‘live’ in a game of basketball.
2. Mention any three duties of a scorer in a basketball match.
3. Explain in brief the term ‘jump shot’. [9]

(c)

1. How many time-outs can a team avail during a basketball match?
2. What is understood by the term ‘duntt in basketball?
3. Differentiate between unsportsmanlike foul and disqualifying foul.
4. State any two types of shooting baskets. [8]

Answer:
(a)

1. Jump Ball: An official tosses the ball between two players of opposing team to start the game at a common point.
2. Travelling: Travelling is the illegal movement of one or both feet beyond the limits outlined any direction while holding a live ball on the court.
3. Foul: A foul is an infraction of the rules concerning illegal personal contact with an opponent.
4. A Free Throw: A free throw is an opportunity given to a player to score one point, uncontested, from a position behind the free throw line.

(b)

1. When the ball is considered ‘live’ in a game:
   1. During the jump ball, the ball is legally topped by a jumper.
   2. During a free throw the ball is at the disposal of the hue throw.
   3. During throw in, the ball is at the disposal of a player for the throw-in.
2. Three duties of scorer:
   1. Scorer shall keep a record of teams by entering the names and numbers of players.
   2. Scorer maintains running summary of points scored.
   3. Indicates the number of fouls committed by each player.
3. Jump Shot: When a player jumps in the air by having live ball and attempts to convert the ball in the basket is called jump shot.

(c)

1. The number of time-outs a team can avail during the match is 5 time-outs.
2. Dunk: When a player jumps high enough to get the ball up and over the ring to press it forcefully into the ring it is called Dunk.
3. Unsportsman Like Foul: In this a player’s contact foul which, in the judgement of the official, is not a legitimate attempt to directly play the ball according the rules.
   Disqualifying Foul: A disqualifying foul is any flagrantly unsportsmanlike action of a player, coach substitute or team follower etc.
4. Two types of shooting baskets:
   (a) Lay-upshot (b) Dunk shot.

Question 15:
(a) Explain the following terms:

1. Alternating possession
2. Double dribble
3. Player out of bounds
4. A throw in [8]

(b)

1. State three passing techniques used by players in a basketball match.
2. Mention the three types of baskets that are scored from different areas of a court and state the points awarded for each type.
3. Explain the term ‘low dribble’. [9]

(c)

1. What is the penalty imposed on a team for a team foul committed?
2. What are player foul markers?
3. When is a ball out of bounds?
4. Explain the term ‘double foul’ in a game of basketball. [8]

Answer:
(a)

1. Alternating Possession: When a shot bounces off the rim and away from the basket, players from opposing team grab the baftand fight for possession it is called alternating possession. .
2. Double Dribble: When any player after dribble holds the ball and again starts dribbling it is called double dribble.
3. Player out of Bounds: The player is out of bounds when he touches the floor or any object on or outside a boundary.
4. Throw in: When the ball crosses the side line a throw in is awarded.

(b)

1. Three passing techniques are:
   1. Chest pass.
   2. Bounce pass.
   3. Overhead pass.
2. Three types of basked scared with points are:
   1. Lay-up shot: 2 Points
   2. Free throw: 1 Point
   3. Dunk shot: 2 Points
3. Low Dribble: Low Dribbling is used when the offensive in the ball is being guarded closely. Low dribble is controlled dribble.

(c)

1. When a team foul is committed two free throws are awarded.
2. Players foul marker is a marker which indicates the foul committed by the player.
3. When the ball goes out of the side line it is called ball out of bound.
4. Refer Ans. 14 (a) (ii), 2016.

VOLLEYBALL

Question 16:
(a) Explain the following terms in:

1. Change of Courts
2. The penalty area
3. Side bands
4. Libero replacement zone [8]

(b)

1. What is understood by the term ‘attack hit’?
2. What is meant by the term ‘Libero’?
3. Define the terms ‘Setter’ and ‘Ace’ in a game of volleyball. [9]

(c)

1. List any two faults that players commit while playing the ball.
2. State the full form of FIVB.
3. State the maximum number of Libero players a team can include in the team list.
4. What is the duration of a time-out? [8]

Answer:
(a)

1. Change of Courts: When a set of play is complete both the teams changetheir side is called change of court.
2. The Penalty Area: A penalty area, sized 1 × 1 mt equipped with two chairs is located in the control area outside the prolongation of each end line.
3. Side Bands: Two white bands are fastened vertically to the net and placed . directly above each side line.
4. Libero Replacement Zone: The Libero replacement zone extends from the attack line to the end line.

(b)

1. Attack Hit: All actions which direct the ball towards the opponents with the exception of service and block are considered attack hits.
2. Libero: One player among 12 players is designated as Libero who wears different coloured uniform and can be substituted infinite times.
3. Setter: A person raising the ball for spike/smash.
   Ace: A serve which lands in the receiving team’s court without being touched by the receiving team.

(c)

1. Two fouls commit by players in a game:
   1. Double contact
   2. Net touch
   3. Rotation foul.
2. FIVB: The International Volleyball Federation.
3. Maximum No. of Lebero player: One in a team.
4. Duration of time-out is 30 seconds.

Question 17:
(a) Explain the following terms:

1. Aspiker
2. Warm up area
3. A ball “in”
4. An assisted hit [8]

(b)

1. State any three specific rules related to a Libero player.
2. List the various sanction cards used by the referee along with the offence for which they are used.
3. List three types of service techniques used by volleyball players. [9]

(c)

1. When is the ball considered “out”?
2. What is the maximum number of time-outs and substitutions per set for a team?
3. Explain the term‘four hits’.
4. List two conditions when a team is compelled to substitute a player. [8]

Answer:
(a)

1. A Spiker: A player who hits the ball hard or smashed the ball is a spiker.
2. Warm up Area: Warm up area is of 3 × 3 mts at both the ends of service zone where a player warms up before substitute.
3. A ball ‘in’: The ball is in when it touches the floor of the playing court including the boundary lines.
4. An Assisted Hit: A player takes support from a team-mate or any structure in order to reach the ball within the playing area.

(b)

1. Three rules related to Libero:
   1. Libero cannot serve the ball after a point score.
   2. Libero cannot smash the ball.
   3. Libero will not boost the ball.
2. Cards are used in game of volleyball which sanction:
   1. Warning: Verbal or hand signal, no card
   2. Penalty: Yellow Card
   3. Expulsion: Red Card
   4. Disqualification: Yellow + Red card (jointly).
3. Three service techniques are:
   1. Under arm service
   2. Overhead service (Tennis Service)
   3. Round arm service.

(c)

1. The Ball Considered ‘out’: The part of the ball which contacts the floor is completely outside the boundary lines.
2. Maximum No. of Time-outs Per Set: Four time outs.
   Substitution Per Set: Six substitutions.
3. Four Hits: The team is entitled to a maximum of three hits for returning the ball. If more are used, the team commits the fault of “Four Hits”.
4. Team compelled to substitute a player:
   1. When the player is injured.
   2. When the player is not performing well in the game.

SOFTBALL

Question 18:
(a) Explain the following terms in softball:

1. Bunt
2. Over slide
3. The dug out
4. A Fly ball

(b)

1. Mention any three circumstdnces when the batter is out.
2. List three situations when an umpire calls a ball.
3. State three situations when an umpire can suspend play. [9]

(c)

1. When is a pitcher credited with a loss?
2. List two situations when a base hit shall not be recorded.
3. What will the decision of the referee be when the ball in play is overthrown or is blocked?
4. List two instances when the umpire declares no pitch. [8]

Answer:
(a)

1. Bunt: A bunt is batted ball that is not hit with full force and swing.
2. Over Slide: When a player allows the foot of your straightened leg to slide over the base, is over slide.
3. The Dug Out: Area where coaches, players, substitutes or other bench persons sit or remain is called dug out.
4. A Fly Ball: A ball that is batted in a high arc, usually to the out field.

(b)

1. When batter is out:
   1. When the third strike is caught by catcher.
   2. When the ball is caught by any player.
   3. When he/she bunts foul after second strike.
2. Umpire calls a ball: For each legally pitched ball that—
   1. does not enter the strike zone.
   2. touches the ground before reaching home plate and does not swing.
   3. touches home plate and at which the batter does not swing.
3. Umpire can suspend play:
   1. An umpire may suspend play when in his judgement, conditions justify such action.
   2. In case of injury.
   3. The umpire shall suspend play whenever a batter or pitcher, steps out of position for a legitimate reason.

(c)

1. A pitcher shall be charged with a loss, regardless of the number of innings he has pitched, if he is replaced when his team is behind in the score and his team thereafter fails to tie the score or gain the lead.
2. Base hit shall not be recorded:
   1. When a runner is forced out by a batted ball.
   2. When a player fielding a batted ball retires a preceding runner with ordinarey efforts.
3. When the ball is in play and it is overthrown or is blocked the next base will be awarded.
4. Umpire declares no pitch: No pitch shall be declared when—
   1. The pitcher pitches during a suspension of play.
   2. The ball slips frdm the pitcher’s hand during his windup or during the back swing.

Question 19:
(a) Explain the following terms:

1. Appeal play
2. A batted ball
3. Fair territory
4. Base path [8]

(b)

1. State three situations when a ball is declared a ‘blocked ball’?
2. List three situations when an umpire calls a strike.
3. Write three instances when an umpire calls a delayed dead ball. [9]

(c)

1. When are stolen bases credited to a runner?
2. List two situations when a runner is declared ‘not out’.
3. What will the decision of the referee bt when the ball gets lodged in the clothing of an opponent player?
4. When does the pitch start? [8]

Answer:
(a)

1. Appeal Play: An appeal play occurs when a member of the defensive team calls the attention of an umpire to an infraction which he would otherwise ignore.
2. A Batted Ball: A fair ball which is hit by the batter is called batted ball.
3. Fair Territory: The area between the home and first base or home and third base is called fair territory.
4. Base Path: An imaginary line three feet to either side or direct line between the bases.

(b)

1. When a ball is declared a ‘blocked ball’:
   1. When the ball is stopped by a person not engaged in the game.
   2. When the ball touches any objects which is not part oftheoffical equipment.
   3. When the ball touches official playing area.
2. Umpire calls a strike:
   1. For each legally pitched ball entering the strike zone before touching the ground and at which the batter does not swing.
   2. For each pitched ball struck and missed by the batter.
3. When an umpire calls a delayed dead ball:
   1. An illegal pitch
   2. Catcher’s obstruction
   3. Plate umpire interference.

(c)

1. Stolen bases are credited to a runner whenever he advances one base unaided by a hit, a putout, an error, a force out, a fielder’s choice or an illegal pitch.
2. Runner is declared not out:
   1. A runner shall not be out when he reaches the next base.
   2. A runner shall not be out if he obstructed in the middle of base path.
3. The ball which gets lodged in the clothing of an opponent player and the runner changes the bases or runs to next base, base will be awarded.
4. The pitch starts after the hands have been placed together, and one hand is taken off the ball.

ICSE Class 10 Physical Education Previous Years Question Papers

ICSE Physical Education Previous Year Question Paper 2013 Solved for Class 10

ICSE Paper 2013
PHYSICAL EDUCATION

(Two Hours)
Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
This time is to be spent in reading the Question Paper.
The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
Attempt all questions from Section A and two questions from Section B.
The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

SECTION-A  (50 Marks)
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1:
(a) Define the term Obesity. [2]
(b) State any two preventive measures to be taken against Communicable Diseases. [2]
(c) State any three symptoms of Rheumatic fever. [3]
(d) State any three causes of a Sprain Injury. [3]

Answer:
(a) Obesity is a medical condition in which excess body fat has accumulated to the extent that it may have a negative effect on health, leading to reduced life expectancy and/or increased health problems.
(b) Two preventive measures to be taken against communicable diseases are:

1. Vaccination: Administration of vaccines to increase resistance of a person against infectious diseases.
2. Controlling the Agent: This is the first step to be taken in the prevention of communicable diseases by keeping the atmosphere around you healthy and clean.

(c) Three symptoms of Rheumatic fever are:

1. Damaged muscle tissue of the heart.
2. Central nervous system is also affected.
3. Low blood pressure.

(d) Three causes of a sprain injury are:

1. Accidents that involve fall.
2. Lifting heavy objects.
3. Over stressing the muscles.

Question 2:
(a) Briefly explain the nature of defect associated with health. [2]
(b) List any two transmission modes of Venereal Diseases. [2]
(c) What is meant by Pathogen? List any two examples. [3]
(d) Mention six causes of Insomnia. [3]

Answer:
(a) The lack of something necessary or desirable for completion or perfection is called defect. It can be physical, social or mental.
Physical Disorder: Flat foot, rickets, etc.
Defect to Eyes: Myopia, hypermetropia, etc.
Defect of Speech: Stammering, etc.
Social Defects: Hunger, poverty, etc.
Mental Defects: Feeble minded, etc.
(b) Two Transmission modes of venereal diseases are:

1. Sexual activity with infected person.
2. Bacterial transmission by germs called Gonoecoccus and spirochaete.

(c) Pathogen is a disease producing agent such as virus, bacterium or other micro-organism.
Examples: (1) Diplococcus pneumoniae, (2) Tubercle bacilli.
(d) Six causes of Insomnia are:

1. Anxiety or depression
2. Nicotine, caffeine or alcohol
3. Air travel which causes jet lag
4. Poor sleep habits
5. Shift work/overtime
6. Not being active in the daytime.

Question 3:
(a) State any two preventive measures undertaken to protect our sense of hearing. [2]
(b) What is Oral hygiene? How can it he implemented? [2]
(c) List any three safety measures to prevent poisonous substances being consumed by children. [3]
(d) Mention six harmful effects of smoking. [3]

Answer:
(a) Two preventive measures to protect our sense of hearing are:

1. Avoid listening to loud music.
2. Drop mustard oil in the ears at intervals of week.

(b) The care of teeth, gums and tongue properly, i.e., care of the mouth is called oral hygiene.
It can be implemented by:

1. Rinsing the mouth: It should be done after each meal. This helps to remove food particles struck between spaces of teeth and thus prevents tooth decay.
2. Brushing your Teeth: Twice a day, i.e., in the morning and before going to bed should be done. Acacia and Neemtwig are the best medicines.

(c) The three safety measures taken are:

1. Unused prescribed drugs should be disposed off quickly.
2. Medicines, disinfectants, insecticides and other such things should be out of reach of children.
3. If the expiry date of a medicine is over, it should not be used.

(d) The six harmful effects of smoking are:

1. Causes insomnia
2. Causes lung cancer
3. Cardiovascular diseases
4. Asthma
5. Leads to premature, preventable death
6. Pregnant smoker is at higher risk of having her baby born too early and with an abnormal low birth weight.

Question 4:
(a) Define the term Recreation. [2]
(b) Differentiate between Antibiotics and Antiseptics. [2]
(c) What is meant by a Balanced Diet? Name its various nutrients. [3]
(d) State the procedure involved for providing first-aid to a person rescued from drowning. [3]

Answer:
(a) Recreation is an activity or pastime that relaxes one’s mind and provides enjoyment to him.
(b)

(c) Balanced diet is a diet that contains adequate amounts of all the necessary nutrients required for healthy growth and activity.
Balanced diet contains of seven main nutrients:
(1) Proteins      (2) Carbohydrates      (3) Minerals
(4) Fats             (5) Vitamins                (6) Water
(7) Antioxidants

(d) The procedure involved for providing first aid to a person rescued from drowning is as follows:

1. Roll the person on the stomach, it will help to drain out the water from the lungs.
2. Pull the tongue forward lest the individual had swallowed the water that comes out. Remove as much water as possible in this way.
3. Keep the victim warm. Ring up the hospital for ambulance to transfer the person to the hospital.
4. Start artificial respiration at the earliest possible.

Question 5:
(a) What changes occur inside the human body on consumption of medicines or life saving drugs? [2]
(b) List any two important precautions to be taken to avoid heart related diseases. [2]
(c) What are the symptoms of Pneumonia? [3]
(d) List any six preventive steps to avoid accidents related to sporting activities. [3]

Answer:
(a) When medicines or life saving drugs are consumed, they increase the resistance of the body towards the diseases and fight against trauma causing factor.
(b) Two Important precautions to be taken to avoid heart related diseases are:

1. By taking healthy and nutritious balanced diet.
2. By exercising regularly.

(c) The symptoms of Pneumonia are:

1. High fever
2. Chills
3. Shortness of breath
4. Increased breathing rate
5. A worsening cough that may produce discoloured or bloody sputum.
6. Sharp chest pains.

(d) The six preventive steps to avoid accidents related to sporting activities are:

1. If you play any sport, you should adequately train for that sport.
2. The rules are designed, impart, to keep things safe and avoid accidents related to sporting activities.
3. Protective pads, mouth guards, helmets, gloves and other equipments keep your knees, hands, teeth, eyes and head safe.
4. Athletes should take some rest at regular intervals.
5. Avoid playing when very tired or in pain.
6. The proper warm up is essential for injury prevention.

SECTION-B  (50 Marks)
Attempt two questions from this Section.
You must attempt one question on each of the two games of your choice.

CRICKET

Question 6:
(a) Briefly explain the following terms.

1. Handling the ball
2. A double hit
3. A time out
4. Clean-bowled. [8]

(b)

1. What do you mean by ball tampering?
2. What is the difference between a hook shot and a pull shot?
3. Draw a neat diagram of a Cricket Pitch and mark the following:
   (1) The bowling crease (2) The popping crease (3) The return crease.  [9]

(c) Define the following terms:

1. The danger-area
2. A stance
3. A china-man
4. A runner.   [8]

Answer:
(a)

1. Handling the ball is a method of dismissing a batsman when he can be given out if he intentionally touches the ball with a hand that is holding the bat with out the permission of the fielding side.
2. Refer Ans. 6 (a) (iv), 2016.
3. Time-out is a method of dismissal when an incoming batsman is not ready to play within three minutes of the previous batsman being out.
4. Clean-bowled is a method of dismissal if the batsman’s wicket is put down by a ball delivered by the bowler.

(b)

1. Refer Ans. 7(b) (ii), 2016.
2. Hook Shot: Played to a bouncer and intended to hit the ball high in the air over square leg hopefully for six runs.
   Pull Shot: It is a horizontal bat spot which pulls the ball around the batsman into the square leg area.
3. Refer Ans. 7(b) (i), 2016.

(c)

1. The danger-area is the central portion of the pitch, a rectangle running down the middle of the pitch, two feet wide, and beginning five feet from each popping crease.
2. Refer Ans. 7 (c) (i), 2016.
3. Refer Ans. 7 (a) (iv), 2016.
4. In cricket, a runner is a team member who runs between the wickets for an injured batsman. When a runner is used, the batsman stands in position and plays shots as normal.

Question 7:
(a) Briefly explain the following terms:

1. A googly
2. A full-toss
3. An over
4. Obstructing the field. [8]

(b)

1. Name six fielding positions on the off-side of the field.
2. Name six strokes played by a batsman.
3. What do you understand by the term Substitute? [8]

(c)

1. What is the difference between a bye and an over-throw?
2. What signals will the umpire give in the following cases?
   (1) A dead ball                  (2) A free hit
   (3) To be declared out    (4) To contact the third umpire. [9]

Answer:
(a)

1. Refer Ans. 7 (a) (iii), 2016.
2. Refer Ans. 7 (c) (ii), 2016.
3. An over is a series of six balls bowled from one end of a cricket pitch.
4. Obstructing the field is a mode of dismissal in cricket. Here, a batsman uses some part of his body or the bat purposely to block the ball from going to any member of the other team.

(b)

1. The six fielding positions on the off-side of the field are:
   (1) Point        (4) Mid-off
   (2) Cover       (5) Slip
   (3) Gully        (6) Long-off
2. The six strokes played by a batsman are:
   (1) Block                 (2) Square Cut
   (3) Pull Spot          (4) Hook Spot
   (5) Straight drive  (6) Leg Glance.
3. Refer Ans. 7 (b) (iii), 2016.

(c)

1. Bye: A bye is a run scored by the batting team i.e. extras when the ball has not been either hit by the bat or has hit the batsman’s body.
   Over-throw: It is also an extra run when the players are misfielding in the centre, throwing the ball in the outfield.
   1. The umpire signals a dead ball by crossing and uncrossing his wrists below his waist with the call dead ball.
   2. The umpire signals a free hit by raises his right hand in the air and move it in a circular manner.
   3. The umpire signals out by raising his index finger above his head.
   4. The umpire signals to contact the third umpire by using both hands to drawing a large square shape in air.

FOOTBALL

Question 8:
(a) Define the following terms:

1. A goal scored
2. A free kick
3. Sent off
4. A through pass [8]

(b)

1. What is the procedure of resuming the game from a corner kick?
2. Name three places from where the ball is passed to an offside player but an offside is not given.
3. List any three offences for which a Red Card is shown to a player. [9]

(c) What decision will the referee give in the following cases?

1. When the goal is scored unintentionally by the centre referee.
2. At a kick off the same player touches the ball a second time.
3. During a penalty kick the ball rebounds from the crossbar and the same player kicks in the ball to score a goal.
4. A defense player intentionally handles the ball in the penalty area. [8]

Answer:
(a)

1. A goal is scored when the whole ball passes across the goal line, which lies between the goal posts, and under the cross bar provided that no violation of the laws of the game has been committed by the team scoring the goal.
2. Refer Ans. 9 (c) (ii), 2016.
3. Sent-off is an activity when the player, substituted player has been given a red card and is sent back, i.e., sent out of the play field if he has committed any offence or not followed the rules of the game.
4. Refer Ans. 9 (c) (ii) (2), 2016.

(b)

1. When a corner kick is awarded, the following procedure is followed:
   1. The ball is placed inside the corner are at the nearest corner flagpost.
   2. Opponents move atleast 10 yds away from the corner arc until the ball is in play.
   3. The ball is kicked by the player of attacking team.
   4. As the ball comes in play, the kicker does not play the ball a second time until the player has touched another player.
2. A player is not in an offside position if:
   1. He is in his own half of the field of play.
   2. He is level with the second last opponent.
   3. He is level with the last two opponents.
3. A red card is shown to a player when:
   1. He uses excessive force or brutality against an opponent when challenging for the ball in play.
   2. He is violating the rules of the game intentionally.
   3. He prevents a goal keeper from releasing the ball from his hands.

(c)

1. When the goal is scored unitentionally by the centre referee, the goal is counted but that referee is removed from the match.
2. In this case, the game is continued whether same player touches the ball twice or not.
3. In this case, the goal is considered to be scored.
4. Refer Ans. 9 (b) (ii) (2), 2016.

Question 9:
(a) Draw a diagram of a Football field showing the following areas with dimensions:

1. Touch lines
2. Goal lines
3. The goal area
4. The penalty area
5. The penalty mark
6. The penalty arc
7. The centre circle
8. The corner arc.

(b)

1. Mention three fouls of a Goalkeeper that result in an indirect free kick being awarded.
2. List any three duties to be performed by the Captain of the team.
3. When is the ball considered out of play?

(c)

1. Give the proper procedure to replace a player with a substitute player.
2. Explain the following: 1. An off-side, 2. Extra Time.

Answer:
(a) Refer Ans. 8 (a), 2016.
(b)

1. The three fouls of a goalkeeper that results in an indirect free kick are:
   1. Exceeds six seconds holding the ball with his hands and not releasing it.
   2. Touches the ball for the second time after releasing it and not being touched by another player.
   3. Touches the ball with his hand and after he has received it directly from a throw-in taken by a team-mate.
2. The three duties of the captain are:
   1. He takes part in the coin toss at the start of the game.
   2. If there is any issues regarding the rules of the game, then the captain directly consults the referee.
   3. On the victory of the team, the captain leads the team to take their medals.
3. The ball is out of play:
   1. When the referee has stopped by game because of a fault.
   2. When the goal is scored and the game is not restarted again.

(c)

1. The procedure followed to replace a player by a substitute are:
   1. A player may only be substituted during a stoppage in play and with the permission of the referee.
   2. The player to be substituted (outgoing player) must have left the field of play before the substitute (incoming player) may enter the field of play.
   3. The incoming player may only enter the field at the half-way line.
   4. As the substituted player comes in play, the substitution is complete.
   1. Refer Ans. 9 (c) (i), 2016.
   2. Extra-time is the additional time given at the end of the match to compensate the time lost in injuries, in substitutions, in penalties, etc. or the match has drawn. Thus to give a conclusion to the match, extra-time is awarded.

HANDBALL

Question 10:
(a)

1. What is the height of the goal post from the ground level?
2. What is the weight of the ball?
3. Mention the duration of the match.
4. Mention the number of officials required to conduct a match. [8]

(b)

1. List any three important duties that are performed by the captain of the team.
2. When is a goal scored?
3. When is the ball considered to be in play? [9]

(c) Draw a neat diagram of a Handball court giving all its measurements. [8]

Answer:
(a)

1. The height of a goal post from the ground level is 2 metres.
2. Weight of the ball for males = 425 to 475 gms
   Weight of the ball for females = 325 to 400 gms.
3. Duration of match = 2 halves of 30 minutes and half time break of 10 minutes (for men).
   Duration of match = 2 halves of 25 minutes with half time break of 10 minutes (for women).
4. The number of officials to conduct a match are 4.

(b)

1. The three duties of the captain in handball are:
   1. He leads the team especially in tense situations.
   2. If there is an issue regarding the rules of the game, the captain speaks to the referee.
   3. He may also lay down the law by giving rules to the team-mates for what they can do and what they cannot do.
2. A goal is scored when whole ball crosses the goal line completely without any violation of the rules by thrower, teammate or any team official during or before the throw. If there is a violation of the rules by defender but the ball still goes into the goal, then also goal is scored.
3. The ball is in play as soon as the referee blows his whistle to indicate the start of the game. As the game starts the time keeper also starts the official time of the match.

(c)

Question 11:
(a)

1. What are the number of court players in a team?
2. State the number of players required to participate in a game at a given time.
3. What is the duration of the interval?
4. What is the circumference of the ball? [8]

(b)

1. List any three duties of a Recorder.
2. What is the utility of the Goal Area?
3. When is a corner Throw awarded? [9]

(c) Define the following terms:

1. A throw-off
2. A goal-throw
3. A line-cut
4. A goal-area. [8]

Answer:
(a)

1. At the time of play, not more than 7 players should be present on the court out of 14 total players. The remaining 7 players are substitutes.
2. At a given time, dining the match, one of the player should be a goalkeeper. He can become a court player at any time and vice-versa. A team should have 5 players in the starting and can be increased up to 14 at any time, including overtime.
3. The duration of the interval in any case is 10 minutes. If the game is tied at the end, then 5 minutes overtime can be given.
4. The circumference of the ball for males is 58-60 cms and for females, it is 54—56 cms.

(b)

1. The three duties of the recorder are:
   1. Assists the referee about the score dining the match.
   2. Enters the names of the players who are not entitled to participate.
   3. To maintain the score board at every time of the match.
2. The utility of the goal area is that only the goalkeeper is allowed to enter into the goal area. When a court player enters the goal area, the goalkeeper-throw, free throw or 7 meters throw are the decisions given by the referee.
3. A corner throw is awarded when the defender, other than the goalkeeper, has knocked the ball over the goal line. The game is restarted by means of a throw from the corner of the court.

(c)

1. Refer Ans. 11 (a) (iii), 2016.
2. A goal-throw is awarded when the ball rebounds off the goalkeeper over the endline. The ball is thrown over the endline by the attacking team.
3. When the ball crosses the goal line, the opposing team player throws the ball inside the field without touching the goal line. If the line is cut or touched then it is said a line-cut.
4. Refer Ans. 10 (a) (i), 2016.

HOCKEY

Question 12:
(a) Define the following terms:

1. An obstruction
2. A centre pass
3. A side-line hit
4. A carried. [8]

(b)

1. List six types of equipment required on the technical table to conduct a match.
2. What do you understand by the term Pass Back?
3. Mention six important positions of a player on the field. [9]

(c) Draw a neat diagram of the Hockey field and mark the following with their measurements:

1. A sideline
2. A penalty spot
3. A shooting circle
4. A corner flag post. [8]

Answer:
(a)

1. Refer Ans. 12(a) (iv), 2016.
2. Centre pass is a set piece used to start a game and to resume play after a goal has been scored. It is always played from the center line and the ball must be passed back to a teammate.
3. The ball is put on the line wherever it went out, then a player of the team who did not touch the ball last has a free hit. This type of hit is called a side-line hit.
4. Refer Ans. 13 (a) (i), 2016.

(b)

1. The six equipments required on the technical table are:
   1. Two clocks for keeping the time.
   2. A Hooter for indicating the start and stop of the game.
   3. A score sheet to record the scores.
   4. Three whistles.
   5. Green card to indicate the fault.
   6. Yellow card to indicate the fault.
2. Pass back is always taken from the centre of the field and used to start the game, restart after half time arid after a goal has been scored.
3. The six important positions of a player on the field are
   (1) Halfback             (2) Fullback
   (3) Mid fielder/inner or striker (4) Defenders
   (5) Goal keeper        (6) Sweeper.

(c)

Question 13:
(a) Explain the following terms:

1. A rolling substitution
2. A back stick
3. A corner
4. A penalty stroke. [8]

(b)

1. What is the basic compulsory equipment required by a player?
2. What is the duration of the game and interval?
3. When is the ball considered to be out of play? [9]

(c) What decisions will be given in the following situations?

1. When the goalkeeper commits a breach and hinders an opportunity to score a goal.
2. When the ball crosses over the goat line to be finally touched by a forward player.
3. When the goalkeeper catches the ball or it lodges itself in his pads.
4. When the ball crosses the goal post under the cross bar and the goal lines. [8]

Answer:
(a)

1. Refer Ans. 13 (a) (ii), 2016.
2. A back stick is a type of illegal spot in which the ball is touched by the rounded face of the hockey stick which is considered a penalty.
3. Refer Ans. 13 (a) (iii), 2016.
4. A penalty stroke is awarded when a defender against an opponent intentionally in the circle prevents the probable scoring of a goal or crossing over the back- line before permitted during the taking of penalty corners.

(b)

1. Basic compulsory equipments required by a player are:
   1. Field players should wear uniform.
   2. Gloves for protection.
   3. Shin, ankle and mouth protection to protect yourself.
   4. A goalkeeper wears a different coloured shirt with a protective headgear.
   5. Stick with a handle and a curved head which is flat on its left side.
2. Duration of the game = two halves of 35 minutes each
   Duration of interval = 5-10 minutes for rest.
3. The ball is out of play when:
   1. The ball is over the side-line.
   2. The ball is over the back-line by an attacker.
   3. The ball is over the back-line unintentionally by a defender.

(c)

1. It is given a foul by the umpire, i.e., and IFK is awarded to the goalkeeper.
2. A penalty stroke is awarded to the opposing team player.
3. Penalty stroke is given.
4. It is considered as a goal to be scored.

BASKETBALL

Question 14:
(a) What is meant by:

1. A direct shot.
2. A restricted area.
3. An inside pivot.
4. A two handed bounce pass. [8]

(b) Explain the following terms:

1. A personal foul
2. A screening
3. A technical foul. [9]

(c) What signals will the official give in the following situations?

1. The cancellation of a throw.
2. A charged time out.
3. No free throws are to be awarded.
4. Pushing and charging a player. [8]

Answer:
(a)

1. A direct spot is a shot which hits directly on the rim of the basket and then goes inside the basket.
2. The restricted area is a semi-circular arc drawn around the area directly underneath the basket. Defending team players cannot draw charging fouls in this area.
3. An inside pivot is used by die player when he/she is open before the catch or he/she is on the move. In such case, he/she should plant the inside foot and rise into the shot.
4. Two handed bounce pass is done so as to avoid the defender player who has blocked the way or who is not letting the ball to pass to another players. It is same as the chest pass with a difference of one bounce on the ground and then received by the next player.

(b)

1. A player shall not hold, block, push, charge or trip the progress of the opponent by extending any part of his/her body or by bending his/her body into an ‘abnormal’ position nor shall be involved in any rough or violent play.
2. Screening is a blocking move by an offensive player, by standing beside or behind a defender to free a teammate to shoot, receive a pass or drive into score.
3. A technical foul is any infraction of the rules penalized as a foul which does not involve physical contact between opposing players on the court or is a foul by a non-player.

(c)

1. Scissor like action with arms, once across chest.
2. The refree blows the whistle simultaneously. He forms a T-shape with index finger showing.
3. The referee crosses both the arms over each other.
4. The referee shows a limitate push.

Question 15:
(a) State:

1. The number of substitutes in a team and the required number of field players.
2. The radius of the centre circle along with the height of the board.
3. The number of referees and umpires required to conduct a match.
4. The thickness of the backboard and the diameter of the ring. [8]

(b)

1. Mention three important duties of the officials before the start of the match.
2. What is a Team Foul?
3. What is the procedure adopted to decide the winner if the match ends in a tie? [9]

(c) Define the following terms:

1. A blind pass
2. A freeze
3. Extra time
4. A post player [8]

Answer:
(a)

1. Number of substitutes = 7 and Required number of field players = 5.
2. Radius of centre circle = 1.80 metres. Height of the board = 2.75 metres.
3. There is one referee and one or two umpires to conduct a match.
4. Thickness of the backboard = 30 mm
   Diameter of the ring = 45 cm

(b)

1. The three duties of the officials before the start of the match are:
   1. Inspect and approve all equipment to be used during the game.
   2. Designate the official game clock, twenty-four second device, stopwatch and recognise the table officials.
   3. Select a game ball from at least two used balls provided by the home team.
2. If a team is over their team foul, the player on the opposing team who was fouled will shoot 2 free throws, as if they were in the act of shooting.
3. If the score is tied, the teams go to overtime which is only 5 minutes long instead of 12 minutes for a normal quarter. This goes on until the result is determined.

(c)

1. A blind pass is a pass from a ball handler who does not look at the receiver while delivering the pass.
2. A freeze is a form in basketball when the ball comes in the possession of two opponent players, i.e., one player from each team simultaneously.
3. An extra time is given to conclude the match. In this, all fouls that are committed at the end of play time is considered to have occurred during an interval of play and the free throws are administered before the beginning of the extra time.
4. A post player who is standing comparatively near to the basket.

VOLLEYBALL

Question 16:
(a) Define the following terms:

1. A double touch.
2. A ball out of play.
3. A disqualification.
4. A service. [8]

(b)

1. Define the ball under the following headings:
   1. weight.
   2. circumference.
   3. air pressure.
2. Draw a neat diagram of a Volley Ball court and mark the following.
   1. sideline
   2. service line
   3. attack line
   4. front zone
   5. rotation position
   6. back zone. [9]

(c)

1. List the responsibilities of the Linesman during the match.
2. List any four responsibilities of the Coach of the team. [8]

Answer:
(a)

1. A double touch occurs when the ball touches two parts of a player’s body in successive or when a player touches the ball twice in a row.
2. A ball is out of play once a fault has occurred and is whistled by a referee.
3. A team member who is disqualified shall not play for the rest of the set and must remain seated in the penalty area with no other consequences.
4. Service is the act to putting the ball into play. This is done in order to send the ball over the net into the opponent’s court.

(b)

1. 1. Weight of the ball = 260 to 280 gms
   2. Circumference of the ball = 65 to 67 gms
   3. Air pressure of the ball = 0.3 – 0.325 kgf/cm²
2. Refer Ans. 17 (c), 2016.

(c)

1. The responsibilities of the linesman during the match are:
   1. They have a red flag to indicate that the ball is in the court or not.
   2. They judge if the player crossed the line when serving the ball.
   3. They help the referee to make signals and decisions about the ball’s position.
   4. They also check whether the ball is touching the antennae or not.
2. The four responsibilities of the coach of the team are:
   1. The coach of the team trains the player without focusing more on the outcome.
   2. He decides which player will be on the court to play based on the palyer’s performance.
   3. He decides when the substitution is to be made during the match.
   4. He also takes the time-out to guide his/her team for the rest of the game.

Question 17:
(a) Briefly explain the following terms:

1. A service zone.
2. A substitution zone.
3. An attack line.
4. A substitution [8]

(b)

1. When is the ball considered in and out of play?
2. What do you mean by expulsion?
3. Explain how a set and a match is won by a team? [9]

(c)

1. What is the procedure adopted to start a game?
2. How many contacts are permitted in returning the ball over the net?
3. Explain the procedure. [8]

Answer:
(a)

1. A service zone is the spot on the court in which the player tries to serve the ball, i.e., 9 m wide area between each end line.
2. A substitution zone is an area between the attack lines and the center lines along the sideline where substitutes remain to enter into the game.
3. An attack line separates each side of the court into a front zone and a back zone. The line is parallel to the net and 10 ft from the centre line.
4. Substitutions may be called only in between points or at the beginning of a set and may not be called during a point or after the referee has authorized a service.

(b)

1. The ball is in play from the serve, i.e., start of the rally till the ball lands on the ground or court to win the point. A ball hit into the net may still be kept in play (upto 3 hits) provided that a player does not make contact with the net.
   The ball is not in play when the referee declares the fault or if two opposing players touch the net simultaneously, the ball is declared dead and is replayed.
2. An expulsion is a very extreme condition.
   Extremely offensive conduct results in the red and yellow cards held together, expulsion from the remainder of the game. Expelled players must leave the playing court and remain seated in the penalty area until the start of a new game. This is known as expulsion.
3. To win a set, the team that first scores 25 points with a minimum two point advantage (no scoring cap) wins.
   The best of three games will win matches. If there is a deciding game, it will be i won by the team that first scores 15 points with a minimum two point advan tage.

(c)

1. 1. The toss is done to decide which team takes the service first and which team chooses which side.
   2. Then ball is served from behind the line at the back of the court.
   3. Thus a rally becomes and it continues until the ball rests on the court. The players have to cross the ball to the opponent’s side within three hits until the fault happens.
2. When the ball is served to the receiving team, the ball should be returned back within three hits. The fourth hit is counted as a fault and gives a point to the other team. A single player cannot hit the ball consecutively less it will again be a fault. When two or more players of the same team touch the ball simultaneously, then it is considered as a single contact.

SOFTBALL

Question 18:
(a) Define the following terms:

1. A foul ball.
2. An illegal pitcher.
3. A play ball.
4. The strike zone. [8]

(b)

1. Mention three important skills of a soft ball player.
2. When does a player become an official?
3. What happens when the batting order is changed? [9]

(c)

1. What rule must be remembered in case of a substitution?
2. What is the method adopted in starting the game? [8]

Answer:
(a)

1. A foul ball is a ball that is hit outside of the foul lines on the field. A ball that bounces in fair territory then goes into foul territory before it passes a base if considered a fair ball.
2. A player is said to be an illegal pitcher when the team exceeds the charged conference limit. The player cannot return to the pitching position for the rest of the game.
3. When the ball comes back into play again on the order of the umpire to start the game is called play ball.
4. The strike zone is a zone to where the pitcher usually throws the ball. It is an area over home plate.

(b)

1. The three important skills of a soft ball player are:
   1. Pitching: Throwing the ball from the middle of the pitcher’s mound.
   2. Batting: Uses the bat to try tb hit the pitch forward into fair territory.
   3. Fielding: The act of stopping the runs made by opposing team players.
2. Before the game, a meeting is called. In this meeting, the line-up card is inspected and approved by the umpire and team representative to make the player official.
3. If the batting order is changed during the middle of the game or without informing the umpire, then it is considered a fault as the rules of the game is not followed.

(c)

1. The coach and the team representative, if find the’ need of any substitution, they immediately inform the plate umpire before entrance of the substitution. This change is informed to the scorer by the umpire. The substitution does not become official until the ball has been played.
2. Before starting the game, all field positions are set. The batter is send to the home plate and the pitcher comes at the pitcher’s mound. The ball is thrown to the striking zone to be played by the batter. The ball is thrown by the underhanded motion to the batter. Before the game, the batting order is fixed and cannot be changed any time during the match.

Question 19:
(a) Define the following terms:

1. A foul tip
2. In Jeopardy
3. A fair ball
4. A dead ball. [8]

(b) Draw a neat diagram of the Softball field and mark the following positions of the players on the field of play:

1. A pitcher
2. A catcher
3. The first base
4. The second base
5. The third base
6. A short stop
7. A soft fielder
8. A central fielder
9. A right fielder. [9]

(c)

1. What do you mean by a legally caught ball?
2. How is a run scored in the game? [8]

Answer.
(a)

1. Refer Ans. 19(b) (ii), 2016.
2. A Jeopardy is a state in which the ball is considered as the play ball and the offensive player is not allowed to play in the game.
3. If the batter has hit the ball between the first and the third base lines, then the ball is said to be fair ball.
4. A dead ball is a ball when the game has been stopped by the umpire or the ball is not in play. It remains as a dead ball until the game is started again.

(b)

(c)

1. The catch is considered legal if the fielder of the opposing team holds the ball before it touches the ground or before he releases it.
2. Refer Ans. 18 (c) (i), 2016.

ICSE Class 10 Physical Education Previous Years Question Papers

ICSE Commercial Applications Previous Year Question Paper 2016 Solved for Class 10

ICSE Paper 2016
COMMERCIAL APPLICATIONS

(Two Hours)
Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
This time is to be spent in reading the Question Paper.
The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
Section A is compulsory. Attempt any four questions from Section B.
The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Section-A (40 Marks)
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1:
State a difference between each of the following:
(a) Marketing and Selling [2]
(b) Renewable resources and Nonrenewable resources. [2]
(c) Apprenticeship Training and Internship Training. [2]
(d) Direct Cost and Indirect Cost. [2]
(e) Cash Credit and Overdraft. [2]

Answer:
(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

Question 2:
(a) What are convenience products? Give two examples. [2]
(b) What is understood by the Going Concern Concept of Accounting? [2]
(e) Mention any four causes of the Greenhouse Effect. [2]
(d) What are the advantages of‘Account Payee’ crossing of a cheque? [2]
(e) What is a ‘Recurring Deposit Account’? [2]

Answer:
(a) Convenience Products: The products which customer purchases for personal convenience and are purchased frequently, immediately and with minimum efforts, are known as convenience products. For example, news-paper, cigarettes etc.
(b) In going concern concept of accounting, it is assumed that the business will continue to exist for a long time in the future. A firm is said to be a going concern when there is neither the intention nor the necessity to wind up its affairs. This concept also implies that the existing liabilities will be paid at maturity. Unsold stock of goods are taken to the next year.
(c) Four causes of greenhouse effect are: Carbon dioxide, Water vapour, Methane and Ozone.
(d) Advantage of ‘Account Payee’crossing of a cheque is:

1. To prevent fraudulent encashment.
2. Crossing provides a protection or safeguard against loss to the securing payment through a bank.

(e) Recurring Deposit Account: In this account, the account holder is required to deposit a specific amount every month for a specified period of time. After the expiry of the specified period, the depositer gets back his total deposit amount with interest thereon. A pass book is issued to the depositer but no cheque book is issued.

Question 3:
(a) Explain any two qualities of a good salesman. [2]
(b) What are Open Market Operations of a Central Bank? [2]
(c) Why are interviews an essential part of the selection procedure? [2]
(d) What is ‘Indirect Labour Cost’? [2]
(e) Mention any two features of a Balance Sheet. [2]

Answer:
(a) Two qualities of a salesman:

1. Cheerful: Pleasing manners and a smiling face are necessary for a successful salesman. He should be polite and courteous.
2. Sensitive: A good salesman should be sensitive to the needs and expectations of customers. He is a good listener and has patience.
3. Knowledgeable: A good salesman should have adequate and up-to-date knowledge about his firm, product, market, competitors and customers.
   (any two)

(b) Open Market Operations: The open market operations mean the sale and purchase of securities by the central bank in the open market. When the central bank wants to reduce the volume of credit, it sells securities in the market. Similarly, when the central bank wants to expand credit, it buys securities in the open market. This increases the money supply in the banking system.
(c) Interviews are essential part of the selection procedure because employer can judge the candidate’s suitability for a job by assessing his/her facial expression, postures, gestures and speaking skills. Interviews are also beneficial !to the candidate as he/she gets the opportunity to know about the job and the organisation.
(d) Indirect labour cost is the wages paid to the labour which indirectly helps in the production process, which cannot be wholly and directly identified with a particular product.
Example: Wages paid to storekeeper, foreman, timekeeper, inspectors.
(e) Features of Balance Sheet:

1. A Balance Sheet is always prepared on a particular date.
2. It is prepared after the preparation of Income and Expenditure account.
3. It is not an account but a statement.
4. It shows the financial position on a specified date.
5. Assets are shown on the right hand side and liabilities are shown on the left hand side.
6. It contains personal and real accounts and the net result of nominal account.          (any two)

Question 4:
Justify a reason either for or against each of the following:
(a) On the job training includes practical and theoretical learning. [2]
(b) A demand draft is preferable to a cheque. [2]
(c) Central Bank is the ‘lender of last resort’. [2]
(d) Training is related to improving skills for performing a job. [2]
(e) In a competitive market, parity pricing is the appropriate strategy. [2]

Answer:
(a) Against: Under on the job training, employees are assigned a specific job and they learn by performing the job in actual work condition.
(b) For: A demand draft is preferable to a cheque because it is payable to the person named in it or to his order. It is always payable on demand and is, therefore known as ‘demand draft’.
(c) For: The Central Bank acts as the bank for all commercial banks in the country. Commercial banks are required to keep a cash reserve with the Central Bank so as to control credit in the country.
When a commercial bank needs funds it can obtain loans and rediscount to bills with the Central Bank.
(d) For: Training increases adaptability of employees to new methods and new technology. It helps the employees to do the job more efficiently.
(e) For: Parity-pricing involves charging according to what competitors are charging. Under this pricing strategy a business firm adjusts its own price policy to the general pricing structure in the industry.

Section – B (60 Marks)
(Attempt any four questions from this section)

Question 5:
(a) Explain ‘Sales-Oriented Stage’ and ‘Marketing-Oriented Stage’ of Marketing. [5]
(b) Why is Service becoming more important than a Product? Give five reasons. [5]
(c) Explain any five steps generally involved in the selection of employees. [5]

Answer:
(a) Sales Oriented Stage: In this stage, the focus shifted from production to selling. ‘How to Sell’ became a problem and the new motto was ‘get rid of what you have’. Products cannot be sold without an effective sales force. It required emphasis on increasing the sales even at the cost of consumer satisfaction. Thus, the sales-oriented stage was characterised by hard selling. The sales concept paid little attention to whether the product was actually needed or not.
Marketing-oriented Stage: A company philosophy focused on discovering and meeting the needs and desires of its customers through its product mix. Consumer awareness forced the producers to promote marketing. The aim of marketing should be to know and understand the customer so well that the product or service fits him or her and thus sells itself. In this stage the key questions became:
What do customers want?
How can we develop it?
How can we keep our customers satisfied?

(b) Service is becoming more important than a Product because:

1. Economic Planning: Government of India launched five year plans in 1951 to achieve rapid growth of the country. Industrialisation requires industrial infrastructure (transport, communication, power, insurance, banking, finance etc.) and social infrastructure (education, medical facilities, community services etc.). Therefore, these services have expanded rapidly in the country.
2. Increasing Urbanisation: Urbanisation has been another cause of expansion of Service sector in India. There has been shifting of population from rural to urban areas. Urbanisation leads to rise in demand for infrastructure services such as communications, public utilities and distribution services.
3. Media: Television, internet and other media have led to spurt in tourism. Modem technology has made business more comfortable. Tourism in turn has promoted all types of services such as hotel, restaurants, travel agents, amusement parks, event management etc. Expanding world trade has also had a demonstration effect.
4. Rise in Per Capita Income: Growing per capita income has led to demand for new and better services. Interior decoration, garden care, beauty parlours, slimming centres, health clubs etc. are examples of these services. More leisure time creates demand for recreation and
   entertainment services such as water parks, etc.
5. Women Workforce: Higher percentage of women in workforce has created demand for baby sitting, household domestic help and such other personal services.

(c) Various stages of the Selection Process of employees in an organisation are:

1. Preliminary Interview: This is the first step in the process of selection which is conducted to know the minimum qualification, experience and age of the candidates.
2. Application Form: After qualifying Preliminary interview the candidates are asked to fill in the prescribed application form to get the written details of the candidates.
3. Employment Test: This is conducted to check the required skills in the candidates.
4. Selection Interview: It is a method of checking the information obtained through application and employment test, through face to face communication with the candidates. It also helps the candidate to acquire knowledge about the job details and the company.
5. Checking References: It is the process of verifying the names given by the candidate, of the people who knows about him, his previous job and his character.
6. Medical Determination and Final Approval: A medical test is conducted to ensure the physical fitness of the candidate which leads to the final approval. The finally approved candidate are issued appointment letters.            (any five)

Question 6:
(a) Explain the five consumer rights as per the Consumer Protection Act, 1986. [5]
(b) Explain any two elements of Public Relations. [5]
(c) ‘All vacancies at various levels in an organisation cannot be filled through an internal sources of recruitment’.
Explain any five external sources of recruitment. [5]

Answer:
(a) The Consumer Protection Act provides for the following rights of consumer:

1. The right of safety: This is the right to be protected against the marketing of goods which are hazardous to life and property. There are various risks involved in the consumption and use of products, such as food, drugs, toys, electrical appliances, etc. For example, gas cylinder, if not sealed properly may cause injury or even death. The consumers have the right to get protection against such risks.
2. The right to choose: The consumer should be assured access to a variety of goods at competitive prices. This means the seller should not use aggressive selling techniques to sell the product to the consumer. There should be freedom to choose from alternative products. This requires free competition in the market. If enough varieties of products at competitive prices are available in the market, consumers have the opportunity to make a free choice.
3. The right to be informed: The consumer has the right to be informed about the quality, potency, purity, standard and price of the goods he intends to pin-chase.
4. The right to be heard: The consumer has a right to register his dissatisfaction and get his complaint heard at appropriate forums. This right includes the right to make protest. The above three rights are meaningless without the right to be heard. Therefore, grievances and claims of consumers must be heard and considered.
5. The right to seek redressal: It means the right to get claims and complaints settled against manufacturers or sellers due to unfair trade practices and exploitation by them. The consumer has been granted the right of redress if the performance, quality, etc., of a product is unsatisfactory. The product must be repaired, replaced of taken back by the seller. The right to seek redressal will reduce post-purchase doubts and grievances of consumers.

(b) ‘Empathy’: Empathy means looking at things and events from the other’s point of view. It requires that the communicator be in tune with the communicate. The former should understand the attitude of the latter. For, example, a good speaker should know the emotions and sentiments of his audience. Put yourself in the shoes of the listener before you speak.
Empathy involves seeing and feeling matters as others see and feel. It enables an executive to be sensitive with problems of his workers arid clients. A person with empathy can be receptive and appreciative of the ideas and opinions of others. Public relations managers and executives must acquire and master the art of empathy. This requires planned practice, experience and experimentation. Empathy is different from sympathy.
‘Dialogue’: Dialogue means a conversation between two persons with a purpose. If a person goes on talking without allowing other to participate in the discussion or talk, then it is a monologue. In a civilised society, dialogue is the only weapon of reasoning and understanding. Democracy and freedom cannot survive without discussion and debate. In a dialogue each person presents facts and views and considers the fact and views presented by others. It is a reasonable exchange of ideas and opinions. Dialogue reveals the true personality of a person. It helps to reduce prejudice and builds up mutual confidence. Effective dialogue requires impartial listening and understanding.
A good way to start a dialogue is by asking questions and listening to the answers. Dialogue requires a topic about which the participants are informed and to which all can make a contribution by original thinking and discussion.

(c) External Sources of Recruitment: External sources of recruitment means recruitment of employees from the sources outside the organisation. External sources of recruitment are given below:

1. Advertisements: Advertisements in newspapers and journals are the most widely used method of attracting candidates for all types of jobs. Advertisements bring in a large number of applications due to wide circulation of a national newspaper. This method is convenient and economical also.
2. Placement Agencies: Private employment agencies advertise the vacancies, receive applications, conduct interviews and short-list candidates on behalf of employers. These agencies have become a popular source for recruiting managerial and technical personnel.
3. Employment Exchanges: Employment exchanges run by the Government are another external source of recruitment. Anyone seeking employment can get himself registered with the employment exchange. Employers notify job vacancies to employment exchanges. The exchange supplies a list of candidates to fulfil required qualifications.
4. Gate Hiring: Small firms make recruitment at the factory gate. Workers gather at the factory gate after reading the notice of vacancies. The suitable candidates are selected. This method is used to fill temporary and casual vacancies.
5. Unsolicited Applicants: Persons in search of employment visit offices of companies. They carry their resume and certificates. A record of such candidates may be maintained and they may be considered if there is a vacancy. Unsolicited applicants are also known as casual callers.
6. Educational Institutions: Representatives of companies hold interviews in educational institutions and select the qualified students. This source is also known as campus recruitment. It is suitable for recruiting engineers, computer experts and managers.
7. Jobbers mid Contractors: When workers are to be hired at a short notice and without going through the usual selection procedure, jobbers and contractors serve as a useful source of recruitment.
8. Recommendations: Applicants introduced by friends and relatives can be a source of recruitment. When an existing employee or a business friend recommends a person, a sort of preliminary screening takes place.                             (any five)

Question 7:
(a) Explain fixed cost with suitable example. [5]
(b) Explain variable cost and semi-variable cost with suitable examples. [5]
(c) Explain the first two stages of Product Life cycle. [5]

Answer:
(a) Fixed cost: Fixed costs are those costs which remain fixed in amount irrespective of changes in the volume of output during a given period of time. Such costs do not change with changes (increase or decrease) in the level of activity upto a certain limit.
For Example: A sugar mill wholly remains closed for about three months during a year due to non availability of raw material (sugar-cane). But the mill-owner has to incur certain costs like the rent of factory building, factory manager’s salary, insurance premiums and municipal taxes. These costs are called fixed costs or supplementary costs or overhead costs. They remain the same irrespective of quantity of production during the short period. Fixed cost line is parallel to X axis indicating that the fixed costs remain constant.

(b) Variable Cost: Variable costs are those costs which vary in amount which changes in the level of output or activity. Such costs increase and decrease in same proportion in which the level of output increases or decreases. Variable costs vary in total amount but remain constant per unit production.
For example: When the level of output increases from 3,000 units to 4,000 units, the amount of variable costs increase from Rs. 15,000 to 20,000. In this case, the variable cost per unit remains unchanged at Rs. 5 (15,000 ÷ 3,000 and 20,000 ÷ 4,000). Thus, there js a linear relationship between volume of production and total variable costs.
Semi-Variable Cost: Semi variable costs are those costs which vary but not in direct proportion to changes in the volume of production. They are a combination of fixed and variable costs. Such costs are neither perfectly fixed nor absolutely variable.
For example: Telephone charges – Rent remains fixed whereas the charges for calls made during a month are variable.

(c) First two stages of Product Life Cycle:

1. Introduction: In this stage, the new product will be launched in the market. Cost incurred in launching the product will be high and sales may be low. Since the product is of a new variety, competition is virtually absent, market is limited and prices are relatively high. This stage is also very risky because a high percentage of new products fail during this period. Effective strategies like introductory offer, money-back guarantee, removing technical mid other deficiencies etc., may be employed.
2. Growth: In this stage, Demand and Sales increase and competitors enter the market. Having covered its research and development costs the product becomes profitable. In this stage, promotional focus shifts from “buy my product to buy my brand”. Strategies like heavy advertising, expanding distribution channels and keeping the price at competitive levels may be employed.

Question 8:
Write short notes on:
(a) (i) Principle of Timeliness.
(ii) Money Measurement Concept. [5]
(b) Newspapers as a media for advertising. [5]
(c) Narmada Bachao Andolan and the Chipko Movement. [5]

Answer:
(a) (i) Principle of Timeliness: According to this principle, an accounting system should be established in such a fashion that it provides information to all users in a timely manner. If timely information is available to the management, corrective steps can be immediately taken. In India, there is a provision for publishing half-yearly financial reports of the companies. This provides timely information to investors and potential investors to make their investment decisions.
(ii) Money Measurement Concept: According to this principle only those transactions can be recorded in the books of accounts, which can be expressed in the terms of money. This makes accounting records relevant, simple and easy to understand. For example, the retirement of the chairman of the company cannot be recorded because it is not possible to measure the monetary effect of retirement except in terms of gratuity and other benefits payable to the chairman.

(b) Newspapers: Educated and civilised people all over the world read newspapers as a matter of habit. Newspapers reach all places and are read by all types of people. Therefore, newspapers advertising has a general and wide appeal. Newspapers can be classified into several categories on the basis of frequency of publication, (daily,weekly, monthly), language (Hindi, English etc.), retion, time (morning, evening and day editions). The choice of particular newspaper for advertising depends upon the circulation of the paper, the type of readers it serves, the geographical region in which it is popular, the cost of space and general reputation of the paper.
The features of newspapers as a media of advertising are:

1. Newspapers has a wide circulation and therefore, the advertisement reaches a large number of persons.
2. The choice of a particular newspaper for advertising depends upon the circulation of the paper, language, types of readers it serves etc.
3. Newspaper are printed daily and therefore the advertisement can be repeated daily.

(c) Narmada Bachao Andolan: This was started in 1986 under the leadership of Medha Patkar. It aimed primarily to educate those directly affected about the social and environmental impact of large development projects.
It began as a protest against the construction of dams in the Narmada valley. The Andolan mobilised and organised residents of the Narmada Valley on human rights, and environmental issues related to big dams. The leaders of this movement are fighting against displacement and disregard of the rights of the people.
Chipko Movement: It is a tree-embracing movement started in April 1973 in Mandal Village in Uttrakhand against felling of trees by forest contractors. It is a spontaneous peoples movement started by the village women based upon non¬violent resistance reflecting awareness of the local people against environ-mental degradation. Mr. Chandi Prasad Bhatt and Mr. Sunderlal Bahuguna led the movement from the front.

Question 9:

Case Study

Maruti Nero, a product of the Maruti group has created a very good reputation in the automobile market. It has nearly 180 outlets and operates in nearly 100 cities. The company provides genuine spare parts and 24/7 roadside assistance with longest warranty coverage. It has collaboration with Tata Motors regarding its sale, service and spares. There are many dealers of Tata motors in Delhi and outskirts, so this has rapidly increased the sale of the car. The company normally goes for institutional advertising in most of the cases. It is indeed a reality that Maruti with minimum advertising has become a popular brand.
With reference to the above:
(a) What is Institutional advertising? State and explain the other types of advertising. [6]
(b) What is a brand promotion? Explain the methods used for brand promotion. [5]
(c) Suggest and explain any two suitable media to be used by the company to advertise its product. [5]

Answer:
(a) Institutional Advertising: The aim of this type of advertising is to build a favourable image of the organisation rather than to promote the sale of a product or service.
Other types of Advertising: Advertising can be classified in the following categories:

1. Product Advertising: The main objective of product advertising is to promote the sale or reputation of a particular product, brand or service. It is sponsored by manufactures, traders and other organisations to promote the uses, features, benefits and image of their products and services.
2. Informative Advertising: This type of advertising contains information about a product/service or institution. It makes consumers aware of the existence, features, uses of goods and services. For example, advertisements suggesting how to save petrol or avoid accidents are informative advertising.
3. Persuasive advertising: This type of advertising is designed to persuade the consumers to buy a product or service or to support an idea.
4. Reminder Advertising: It attempts to remained people about the product/service or idea.
5. Concept Advertising: This is also known as ‘primary demand advertising’ or ‘pioneering advertising’. Its purpose is to stimulate demand for a new type of product. Advertisements designed to change life style of people is concept advertising. For example, ‘a diamond is forever’ seeks to promote diamond jewellery as a concept.

(b) Brand promotion: Brand promotion comprises all the activities which a business performs to persuade and motivate people to buy the brands of the company. It is done by the manufacturer but sometimes wholesalers and retailers may also undertake brand promotion. The main purpose is to build a market for a brand and to meet competition. For example, several brands are advertised on TV like Pepsodent toothpaste, Lux soap, Titan watches, and so on. In short, brand promotion means making a brand popular.
Methods used for brand promotion:

1. Advertising: It is a widely used medium for brand promotion.
   Advertisements on TV, radio, newspapers and magazines reach a large number of people. It is due to repeated advertisements that Pepsodent toothpaste, Rin detergent powder, Surf Excel, Hero Honda bike, Maruti car, Nokia mobile, Maggi noodles, Horlicks and other brands have become popular in the market.
2. Sales Promotion: These are the short-term incentives to promote the sale of a brand. It induces buyers to purchase a brand through various incentives like discount coupons, prize contents, money refund. It provides the buyers incentives to purchase the brand ‘now’—immediately and without any delay. In fact, available only for a specified short period. It temporarily raises the demand and when incentives are withdrawn, the demand falls down. Now-a-days mobile companies are using sales promotion techniques which induces consumers to buy a connection from-a particular company.
3. Maintaining and Improving Quality: In order to promote their brands, business firms are continuously maintaining and improving the quality of their brands. Brands continue to enjoy confidence of consumers only when their quality is maintained and improved.

(c) Company should use Television and Newspapers for advertising its product:

1. Television: Television is comparatively a new but fast growing medium of advertising. It has become very popular and effective due to the combined force of picture and sound. It has a dramatic impact on the minds of viewers. On television, products can be demonstrated and their use can be explained. Therefore, advertisement has to be repeated frequently.
2. Newspapers: Educated and civilised people all over the world read newspapers as a matter of habit. Newspapers reach all places and are read by all types of people. Therefore, newspaper advertising has a general and wide appeal. The choice of a particular newspaper for advertising depends upon the circulation of the paper, the type of readers it serves, the geographical region in which it is popular, the cost of space and general reputation of the paper.
   A daily newspaper &as a wide circulation so that the message can quickly reach a large number of people. The advertisement can be repeated daily to remind customers and to create a lasting impression. Because of its repetition value, newspaper advertising is very useful in the introduction of a new product or brand name. There is the benefit of selectivity. Desired markets or regions can be approached through local or regional news¬papers. There is greater flexibility as the advertisement can be changed daily and presented in a new form for greater impact.

Question 10:
This statistic shows the global smart phone market share held by Nokia each quarter from 2007 to 2013. In the third quarter of 2007, Nokia’s market share was 48.7 percent. By the third quarter of 2012 the company’s market share had slipped to just 3.5 percent.
Nokia is a Finnish company head-quartered in Espoo, Finland. The company has a long history dating as far back as 1865 and first began developing what would later be modern mobile phone technology in the 1960s. The company has previously been a very strong competitor in the mobile phone and telecommunication market. While the company has struggled to maintain a significant share of the smart phone market, and has also recorded multiple losses in recent quarters, when it comes to feature phones, the company does maintain a relatively secure share of the market when compared to other vendors. The company also continues to perform well in the Asia-Pacific region as well as in the Middle East and Africa were they have previously recorded the greatest sales. Across the North American market however, the company has recorded very poor sales.
Previously Nokia used the operating system Symbian for its smartphones. Until 2010, Symbian was, performing well in the global market but has since been overtaken by the very dominant Android system and also Apple’s iOS. As of February 2011, Nokia made the announcement that they would be switching to the Microsoft Windows OS. The company was hoping to be able to make a comeback in the smart phone market with the adoption of the Windows operating system. In 2012 however, sales saw another decrease when compared to the previous 2 years. The Windows mobile operating system did not prove to be popular and market share slipped further. Even after Nokia’s high-profile acquisition by Microsoft; the market share of the brand still remains at a dismal 3 percent.
With reference to the above:
(a) Explain any five uses of Product Life Cycle to a business enterprise like Nokia. [5]
(b) Explain the various steps taken by Nokia after 2010 to improve the brand image. [5]
(c) What are the promotional activities that can be undertaken to increase the market share of Nokia? [5]

Answer:
(a) Uses of Product Life Cycle:

1. When the product life cycle is known the firm can prepare an effective product plan.
2. Management can take advance steps before the decline of the product.
3. The maturity stage can be extended by finding new uses of the product.
4. Technological innovations can be adopted to improve the quality, features and design of the product.
5. Product life cycle points out the needs for significant and periodic adjustments in the marketing strategy or marketing mix of the firm.

(b) Steps taken by Nokia:

1. After 2010, Nokia switched to the Microsoft Windows OS from Symbian operating system.
2. Nokia sell its acquisition to Microsoft to improve its brand image.

(c) Nokia can adopt following promotional activities to increase its market share:

1. Exchange Offers: Company can announce the exchange of an old mobile phone with a new mobile after payment of a specified amount.
2. Price-off offers: Company can offers modern and new products at below the normal price.
3. Prize Contests: Company can announce prize for dealers, salesman, customers, distributors under various activities.

ICSE Class 10 Commercial Applications Previous Years Question Papers

ICSE Commercial Applications Previous Year Question Paper 2009 Solved for Class 10

ICSE Paper 2009
COMMERCIAL APPLICATIONS

(Two Hours)
Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
This time is to be spent in reading the Question Paper.
The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
Section A is compulsory. Attempt any four questions from Section B.
The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Section-A (40 Marks)
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1:
Give one difference between each of the following:
(a) Receipt and Income. [2]
(b) Promotion and Transfer. ** [2]
(c) Normal cost and abnormal cost. [2]
(d) Central Bank and Commercial Bank. [2]
(e) Produce cost and Period cost. [2]
** Answer has not given due to out of the present syllabus.

Answer:
(a) Refer Ans. 1. (b), 2014.
(c)

(d)

(e)

Question 2:
(a) What is a brand? How is it different from branding? [2]
(b) Give two uses of Receipts and Payments Account. [2]
(c) Give two differences between recruitment and training. [2]
(d) With the help of an example, explain the clearing house function of RBI. ** [2]
(e) On the basis of ownership, distinguish between a Product and a Service. [2]
** Answer has not given due to out of the present syllabus.

Answer:
(a) Brand means any identification mark (such as trade name, mark, symbol, picture, design, colour etc.) used to identify the product of a seller and to differentiate it from the products of competitors.
Branding is the process of assigning a: distinctive name to the product by which it is to be known and remembered. It is the process by which a product is branded. It is a general term concerning various activities such as giving a brand name to a product, designing a brand mark and popularising it.
(b) Refer Ans. 6. (a), 2011.
(c) Two differences between recruitment and training:

(e) Refer Ans. 3. (a), 2013.

Question 3:
(a) Why is it said that Marketing is Pervasive? [2]
(b) Explain Promotion Mix. [2]
(c) Give two features of Salesmanship. [2]
(d) Describe the. importance of Public Relations to a business enterprise [2]
(e) Give two differences between Direct and Indirect Labour Cost. [2]

Answer:
(a) Marketing operates within the framework of total environment which comprises economic, social, legal, political and other forces. Marketing is required in business as well as in social and other organisations.

(b) Promotion Mix consists of all the. activities aimed at persuading customers to buy the product. The various elements of promotion mix are:

1. Advertising.
2. Personal Selling.
3. Sales Promotion.
4. Publicity.

(c)

1. Salesmanship involves direct, personal or face-to-face contact between the seller or his representative and the buyers.
2. It involves contact with a limited number of persons.

(d) The need for communication between business enterprises and their public is being increasingly recognised. Public relations functions is required to bridge this communication gap.

(e)

1. The labour which can be wholly and directly identified with a particular product is called direct labour whereas indirect labour means the labour which cannot be wholly and directly identified with a particular product.
2. Direct labour includes labour engaged in actual production of the product whereas indirect labour is the labour employed for performing tasks incidental to manufacture.

Question 4:
Give two reasons either for or against each of the following:
(a) Ethics has no place in public relations. [2]
(b) Every transaction has four effects on accounting records. [2]
(c) Training is very costly. [2]
(d) Banking is a relationship oriented industry. [2]
(e) Public relations is just a gimmick. [2]

Answer:
(a) Against:

1. Publicity not backed by good action is unethical. It will damage rather than improve the image of the organization.
2. Accurate and timely communication with the public is essential for good public relations.

(b) Against:

1. Every business transaction has a double effect on the business. This double effect can be recognised only by recording both the aspects of energy transaction. If one account is debited, any other account must be credited and vice-versa.
2. It is due to the principle of Dual Aspect that the two sides of Balance Sheet are always equal.

(c) Against:

1. Training helps to improve the quantity and quality of work performance. Well-trained employees produce more and better goods.
2. By training, employees learn new and better methods of doing jobs. They make better use of materials and machinery. As a result, wastage of resources and cost of production are reduced

(d) For:

1. Banking is a service based industry trying to satisfy the needs of the customer.
2. Banking is relationship oriented as there is an agency relationship between the banker and the customer based on mutual trust and confidence.

(e) Against:

1. Public relations is an essential element in the communication system that enables individuals to be informed on many aspects of subjects that affect their lives.
2. Public relations helps promotion of a company s goods oi services and builds up image.

Section – B (60 Marks)
(Attempt any four questions from this section)

Question 5:
(a) How does open market operations help m credit control ? ** [5]
(b) What is place mix? State its components. [5]
(c) What are the qualities of a good salesman? Explain any three in detail [5]
** Answer has not given due to out of present syllabus

Answer:
(b) Place mix relates to distribution of products is an important element of marketing mix. A channel of distribution or trade channel is the route or path along which products flow from the point of production to the point of ultimate consumption or use. It starts with the producer and ends with the consumers. In between there may be several intermediaries or middlemen who operate to facilitate the flow of the physical product or its ownership from the producer to the consumer.
Components of Place Mix: (1) Channels of distribution and (2) Physical distribution.

1. Channels of distribution: Channels of distribution are the routes through which goods move from the producer to consumers. A firm has to decide whether to sell directly or to sell through middlemen. The number and type of middlemen have also to be decided.
2. Physical distribution: Physical distribution includes all those activities which are involved in moving products or services from manufacturers to consumers. It consists of transportation and storage of goods.

(c) The qualities of a good salesman are:

1. Good physique
2. Cheerful
3. Sincerity
4. Sensitiveness
5. Knowledge

A good salesman should possess:

1. Good Physique: A good salesman must have sound health, good appearance, cheerful disposition and an impressive voice. He should be properly dressed.
2. Cheerful: Pleasing manners and a smiling face are necessary for a successful salesman. He should be polite and courteous.
3. Sincere: A good salesman is always loyal and committed to his work. He is dependable and courageous.

Question 6:
(a) Mention two advantages and two disadvantages of cost plus pricing strategy of product life cycle. [5]
(b) Explain Asset and Liability. Name the different types of Liabilities. ** [6]
(c) Distinguish between Advertising and Sales Promotion. [5]

Answer:
(a) Two Advantages:

1. It is a safe approach to pricing. It ensures full coinage of cost and helps in achieving a reasonable return on capital employed.
2. The method is logical and can be defended on moral grounds. It discourages cut-throat competition in the market.

Two Disadvantages:

1. It is very often difficult to determine accurately the cost per unit due to common overheads and joint products.
2. It fails to reflect competition in the market.

(c) Difference between Sales promotion and Advertising:

Question 7:
(a) Why are services becoming important? Give three reasons. [5]
(b) Explain Cash Reserve Ratio and Statutory Liquidity Ratio. ** [5]
(c) Explain the present status of public relations by pointing out the reasons for its rapid growth. [5]

Answer:
(a) Services are becoming important due to the following reasons:

1. Economic Planning: Government of India launched five year plans in 1951 to achieve rapid growth of the country. Industrialisation requires industrial infrastructure (transport, communication, power, insurance, banking finance, etc.). Therefore, these services have expanded rapidly in the country.
2. Increasing Urbanisation: Urbanisation has been another cause of expansion of service sector in India. There has been shifting of population from rural to urban areas. Urbanisation leads to rise in demand for infrastructure, services such as communication, public utilities and distribution services.
3. Media: Television, internal and other media have led to spurt in tourism. Modem technology has made business more comfortable. Tourism in turn has promoted all types of services such as hotels, restaurants, travel agents, amusement parks, event management, etc. Expanding world trade has also had a demonstration effect.

(c) The main reasons for the rapid growth of public relations are:

1. Communication Gap: The need for communication between organisations and their public is being increasingly recognised. Public relation function is required to bridge this communication gap.
2. Population Growth: A significant factor contributing to the development of public relations has been the increase in population and the resulting expansion of business, social and political organisations.
3. Recognition of Social Responsibility: Public relations has made the corporations realise that they have a social responsibility to serve the public.
4. Big Government: Growing government activity, legislation, taxes and criticism of business by politicians have all contributed to the expansion of public relations in to the field of public affairs and relations with local, state and national government.
5. Development of Communication Media: Tremendous growth in ideo and cable systems has enabled rapid and widespread transmission of information.
6. New Ethical Standards: High moral standards and ethical conduct in business have contributed to the development of public relations.
7. Consumerism: Increasing emphasis on consumer service has caused many companies seeking the goodwill and support of consumers to respond to consumer pressure. This pressure represents a significant change in direction, one which presents to business both an opportunity and challenge.
8. Education in Public Relations: Growing emphasis on public relations education is in good measures responsible for the increasing prestige of public relations.        (any five)

Question 8:
Write short notes on:
(a) Importance of HRO in a Commercial organisation. [5]
(b) Institutional Advertising and Persuasive advertising. [5]
(c) Role of balance sheet in decision making. [5]

Answer:
(a) The importance of human resource development in a commercial organisation are as follows:

1. Attracting and retaining the required talent through effective human resource planning, recruitment, selection, placement, orientation, compensation and promotional policies.
2. Developing the necessary skills and right attitudes among the employees through training, development, performance appraisal, etc.
3. Securing willing cooperation of employees through motivation, participation, grievance, handling, etc.
4. Utilising effectively the available human resources.
5. Ensuring that the enterprise will have in future a team of competent and dedicated employees.

(b)

1. Institutional advertising: It presents information about the advertiser’s .business, or it tries to create a favourable attitude towards the organisation. For example, to build goodwill or image. Thus, it is basically not intended to sell a specific product directly, but is solely aimed at creating a particular positive image for the company by building prestige and public respect for it. It is a long term and sustained effort. Advertisements undertaken to promote admit education, family planning, commercial harming, public hygine, safe driving, energy conservation, environmental protection are examples of institutional advertising.
2. Persuasive Advertising: This type of advertising is designed to persuade to consumers to buy a product or service or to support an idea. It is undertaken primarily by business firms. Advertisements of Colgate toothpaste, cocacola soft drinks, lux soap, cadbury chocolate, Me Donald burger are examples of persuasive advertising.

(c)

1. Balance sheet shows the assets owned by a trading organization.
2. It reveals the liabilities of the organisation.
3. It shows the financial position of the organisation.
4. It depicts the capital fund of the organisation.
5. It fulfils the statutory requirements as a non-trading organisation is legally required to prepare a Balance Sheet.

Question 9:

Case Study

Price cuts have enabled FMCG companies like HLL and P & G to increase the sales volume. The sale of major detergent brands have increased by 15-17 percent. Analysts in fact expect Surf Excel to be a success story for HLL. The company expects more sale from the brand this year.
Launching sachets and positioning the brand in affordable category was necessitated by a number of highly competitive smaller brands in the market like Henko, Nirma and Ghari detergents. Friendly wash by many other smaller brands have challenged the giants by offering prices which attracted the value conscious Indian consumer. In fact unbranded players are offering packs which are twice the size of a branded product with similar or better quality at a cheaper price. Very clearly FMCG majors ham to either maintain the plethora of freebees to push the brand or just simply cut prices.
The manufacturers attribute the price drops to internal cost efficiencies especially with the supply chain. Analysts say the FMCG companies will have to drop prices further to get the right value equation in the market. There is no other way to grow. The companies have tried innovations and relaunch. The fact is, there is a cut in the price and they cannot afford to overprice their product. The companies are just going to do what Nestle did sometime back to get the price equation right.
(a) How did sales volume of detergents increase? [5]
(b) In view of the fact that unbranded products have put up a challenge to branded items, do you think branding is useless? Give reasons. [5]
(c) In addition to price cuts what other measures should FMCG firms take to grow in future. [5]

Answer:
(a) Sales volume of detergent increase by the following ways: The various types of incentives used for this purpose are: percent off, special discount, free gifts, free extra quantity in the pack, three for two offer (take three, pay for two), coupons, contests etc. Making immediate sales clearing over-due stocks, attracting new buyers, launching a new product quickly, catching impulse buyers (who buy on the spur of moment without planning) and meeting competition successfully are the major merits of sales promotion. Many brands in the market like Henko, Nirma and Ghari detergents have launched sechets which also increase the sales volume of detergent Advertising of detergents also increases the sales volume. It creates a positive impact on the consumer towards the product.

(b) No branding is not useless. Branding helps the consumers to identify and recognise the product. It simplifies, therefore purchase and sale and reduces the time and efforts of the consumers.
Branding acts as a market identity: A brand helps position a company’s product offering in terms of price level, quality, service, prestige and other factors that are important to buyers in the firm’s target market. Consumers often use brand image as a proxy for quality and dependability, particularly if they find it difficult to evaluate the product because of its newness or complexity. Brand identity may itself increase margins and profits by enhancing the perception of quality.

(c) To grow in future FMCG should take care of:

1. The quality of the product. Products should be invariably packed which prevents adulteration and helps to preserve the quality of the product.
2. Advertising of a particular product should be there which increases the sales volume. It creates a positive impact on the consumer towards that product.
3. Technological Advancement should be there time to time. Companies should invest in research and development aimed at advances in technology and should make regular improvement at all stages of life cycle.
4. Dynamic: One should follow the dynamic techniques in marketing which can be adopted according to the tastes and preferences of the consumers.

Question 10:

Case Study

The Public sector banks are witnessing a period of transition in India. They are at the cross roads, where they, without giving up social responsibilities should remain healthy. They need to undertake risky experiments, yet to perform innovatively. They should make forays into new areas which are rarely taken up by them and lose no emerging opportunities. It should also be understood that absence of any bad advance is not a good sign of an efficient banking system. It only indicates immense conservatism. However, there is no guarantee for profit.
There should be a balance between liquidity and risk. Past sins should be forgiven. Novel and pragmatic techniques should be adopted without which banks would be in danger.
(a) Describe the importance of Public Sector Banks at present. [5]
(b) What are the functions other than main and agency functions that should be performed by these banks to be socially responsible. [5]
(c) Our Public Sector Banks have a strong base. Do you think that they have to follow the foreign Commercial Banks in granting loans? Yes or No. Give reasons. [5]

Answer:
(a)

1. Fuller Employment: Only under socialised production will of the fullest possible employment to all adult workers, in accordance with the aptitude on each be secured.
2. Better Deal to Workers: Exploitation, job uncertainty and wretched conditions are to be replaced by just rates of pay, security of service and improved working conditions under state enterprise.
3. Greater Economy and Coordination: There is greater harmony and coordination among the various industries which are brought under or initiated under state control.
4. Assistance in economic Development: The surplus profit of nationalised undertaking can be used to finance schemes of national economic development.
5. Safety of Money: Money deposited in a bank remains safe. Precious articles too can be kept in the safe custody of bank in lockers.

(b)

1. Issuing Credit Instruments: Banks issue letters of credit, drafts and travellers cheques to their customers. People can transfer funds from one place to another without carrying currency notes with them.
2. Underwriting Capital Issues: Banks underwrite the shares and debentures issued by companies.
3. Safe Custody of Valuables: Banks accept jewellery, documents and other valuables for safe-keeping.
4. Advice and Information: Banks offer advice on financial matters. They provide information about credit worthiness of customers to enable them to obtain credit facility from suppliers.

(c) No, there is no guarantee for profit. There should be a balance between liquidity and risk. Past sins should be forgiven. Novel and pragmatic techni-ques should be adopted without which banks would be in danger.

ICSE Class 10 Commercial Applications Previous Years Question Papers