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Check the below ICSE Class 10 Geography Goyal Brothers Solutions Chapter 8 Mineral and Energy Resources 1 with Questions and Answers Pdf free download. Students can also read Minerals in India Class 10 ICSE Solutions.

ICSE Class 10 Geography Goyal Brothers Solutions Chapter 8 Mineral and Energy Resources 1

Question 1.
Name the prominent minerals of India.
Answer:
Iron, manganese, bauxite and copper are the prominent minerals of India

Question 2.
Name the state that leads in the production of Iron ore in India.
Answer:
Karnataka.

Question 3.
Name two places in India where bauxite is found?
Answer:
Jharkhand and Madhya Pradesh are two places where bauxite is found on a large scale.

Question 4.
State two uses of Bauxite?
Answer:
Uses of Bauxite :

• It is used for making air crafts, ships and utensils etc.
• It is used in electrical industry for its good conductivity.
• It is also used in cement, chemicals, soda cans and dishwashers.
• It is also used for making headlight reflector, mirrors and telescope.

Question 5.
Why is it necessary to conserve mineral resources?
Answer:
It is necessary to conserve mineral resources due to following reasons:

• It is Backbone of industries they provide raw materials.
• They are non-renewable resources. They are exhaustible over time. They take long time to develop geologically and cannot be replenished immediately.

Question 6.
Name three states where Iron ore is found in India.
Answer:
Iron ore deposits are found in Karnataka (Magnetite), Odisha (Haematite) & Chhatisgarh (Haematite).

Question 7.
What are the uses of Manganese?
Answer:
Uses of Manganese :

• It is used for making iron and steel.
• It is used for Preparation of organic and inorganic chemicals,
• It is also used for manufacturing bleaching powder, insecticides, dry batteries and china clay.
• It is used in paints, pigments and ceramics.

Question 8.
Why is Manganese important for making iron and steel?
Answer:
As an alloy, it decreases the brittleness of steel, and it makes steel strong, remove impurities and makes it immune to rusting and in Iron is resistant to corrosion.

Question 9.
State the main uses of copper.
Answer:
The main uses of copper are –

• It is mainly used in electrical machinery, automobile industry, stainless steel and telephones.
• Copper is also used in railway equipment industry and other engineering works.
• Copper, fairly resistant to atmosphere corrosion, is widely used for making alloys such as brass (copper+zinc), and with tin as bronze.

Question 10.
Name the states where copper is found.
Answer:
Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Jharkhand.

Question 11.
Why is copper important for electrical machinery?
Answer:
Copper is important for electrical machinery because of its high thermal and electrical conductivity.

Goyal Brothers Prakashan Class 10 ICSE Geography Solutions

ICSE Geography Class 10 Question Bank Chapter 1 Interpretation of Topographical Maps 1

 I. Short answer questions:

Question 1.
What is a ‘map’?
Answer:
A map is a representation of the earth’s crust or a part of it on a flat surface having been shown the natural, as-well-as man made features, too.

Question 2.
State the essential features of a map.
Answer:
There are five essential features of a map. These are:

• Title – It indicate the subject of the map. e.g, distribution of natural vegetation, water bodies, climate, etc.
• Scale – It denotes the relationship between map distances and actual ground distances.
• Direction – It refers to the cardinal direction, i.e., North, South, East and West, Conventionally, a map is aligned with the North towards the top.
• Key or Legend – It explains the meaning of the symbols that are used in the map.
• Grid system, usually formed by the cross-conjugation of the lines of longitudes and latitudes.

Question 3.
What do you mean by the ‘Key’ of a map?
Answer:
The ‘ Key’ of a map explains the meaning of the symbols used in the map.

Question 4.
Into how many categories have the maps been classified?
Answer:
The maps have been basically classified into two categories:

• Large Scale Maps.
• Small Scale Maps.

Question 5.
What are the topographical maps?
Answer:
Topographical maps show natural as well as man-made features of an area. They are usually drawn on large scales, so it is possible to show considerable details of natural and man-made features, such as hills, forests, rivers, villages, towns, roads, canals, railways, bridges and telegraph lines etc.

Question 6.
What are the contours maps? State their properties.
Answer:
The imaginary lines which are drawn on a map to joining places having the same height above the sea level.
Properties of the contours are as follows:

• Contour lines join all places of the same height above sea level.
• Distant contour lines indicate gentle slopes.
• Closely spaced contour lines indicate the steepy slopes.
• Uniformly spaced contour lines indicate a uniform slope.
• Contour intervals also differ according to the scale of the map.
• Contour lines generally do not intersect each other on the map. However, in some places they intersect, where it indicates a steeper cliff or a waterfall.

Question 7.
What is a National Grid Reference (NGR)?
Answer:
A system of co-ordinates in which the area is divided into 100 km × 100 km squares, with each square identified by two letters such as PQ, UA, UQ, etc. Each 100 km square is further subdivided into suares of one km. This system of map drawing is known as the National Grid Reference (NGR).

It was prepared by the Survey of India about a hundred year ago dividing the then Indian sub-continent into 137 divisions. Each division was divided into sixteen parts, and each part denoted by capital letters from A to P. Each part is further divided into sixteen parts. These are prepared on a scale of 1:1000000 and named as National Grid Reference.

Question 8.
What are‘hachures’?
Answer:
The short, disconnected lines drawn along the direction of the steepest slope are called ‘hachures’.

Question 9.
What is the ‘Bench Marks’?
Answer:
Bench marks:
The marks inscribed on a stone or been shown on a building to mainifest the exact height being determined through surveys.

Question 10.
What do you understand by V.I. and H.E.?
Answer:

• Vertical Interval (V.I.):
  The vertical distance between any two contour lines is called Vertical Interval (V.I.).
• Horizontal Equivalent (H.E.):
  The actual distance between two points on two contour-lines is called Horizontal Equivalent (H.E.).

Question 11.
What advantages do contours have over hill shading and hachuring?
Answer:
Hill shading and hachuring only give an impression of the slope but do not indicate the heights of the land above sea level, whereas the contours show both impression of the slope as well as the heights of the land above the sea level.

Question 12.
What does the intervisibility mean?
Answer:
When two places in two different contours are mutually visible, they are called intervisible.

II. Distinguish between:
(a) Eastings and Northings
(b) Four-figure grid reference and Six-figure grid reference
Answer:
(a)

(b) Four-figure reference:

• The four-figure grid reference is used to find out the location that lies within a particular square.
• In this type of reference, the first two figures give the Eastings, whereas the last two give the Northings.
  For example: large lakes, meanders, streams, settlements, embankments, physical features, etc.
• These pinpoint locations roughly.

Six-figure reference:

• In six figure reference we obtained the location of a place to the nearest 100 metres, e.g. spot heights, benchmarks, causeways, temples, post offices, police stations, wells, bridges, etc.
• In the six-figure grid reference the first three figures are the Eastings and the last three are the Northings.
• These pinpoint locations with greater accuracy.

III. Structured Questions

Question 1.
Give the four-figure reference for points X, Y, Z in the figure given on the right-hand side.
Answer:
X = 6135
Y = 6133
Z = 6334

Question 2. Give the six-figure reference for A, B, C, D, E in the figure given on the right-hand side.
Answer:
A = 615354
B = 634356
C = 625346
D = 635337
E = 618337

ICSE Geography Class 10 Question Bank

ICSE Geography Class 10 Question Bank Chapter 6 Natural Vegetation

 Questions Based on Natural Vegetation

I. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What is meant by natural vegetation?
Answer:
Natural vegetation refers to the plant cover that has not been disturbed over a long time, so as to allow its individual species to adjust themselves fully to the climate and soil conditions. Grasses, shrubs and trees, which grow on their own without any interference, constitute the natural vegetation of an area.

Question 2.
Name the area where tropical rain forests are found.
Answer:
The Western Ghats, the Island groups of Lashad weep and the Andaman Nicobar Islands are marked with tropical rain forests.

Question 3.
Mention two main characteristics of Tropical Rain Forests.
Answer:

• These forests are dense, multi-layered and have many types of trees and shrubs.
• In these forests, trees reach great heights of more than 45 m or above.
• The carpet layer of herbs and grasses cannot grow because of the dense canopy of trees which do not allow enough sunlight to reach the ground.

Question 4.
Mention two reasons why Tropical Evergreen Forests are difficult to exploit for commercial purposes.
Answer:
Because these forests are:

1. Very dense forests and great heights of more than 60 m or above.
2. The carpet layer of herbs and grasses cannot grow because of the dense canopy of trees which do not allow enough sunlight to reach the ground.

Question 5.
Name two varieties of the Tropical Deciduous Forests.
Answer:

1. The moist deciduous forests; and
2. The dry deciduous forests.

Question 6.
Give two characteristic features of Alpine Forests.
Answer:
(i) The wet temperature forests between an altitude of 1000- 2000m. In the higher mountain ranges of northe a stemindia, hilly areas of West Bengal and Uttarakhand, evergreen broad leaf trees like chestnut and oak are found. Between an altitude of1500 and 1750m, pine forests are found with Chir pine as an important tree. Blue pine and spruce occur at altitutdes of 2250 and 3000m.

(ii) Temperate grasslands also occur at many places in this zone. In the higher reaches, Alpine forests and pastures are found.

Question 7.
What are ‘Tidal forests’? Name two typical trees found there.
Answer:
Littoral or swampy forests are also known as Tidal forests. These forests are found in and around the deltas, estuaries and creeks prone to tidal influence and as such are also known as delta or swampy forests.
The trees found here are Sundri, Keora, Amur.

Question 8.
Name the type of forests found in the western part of the Western Ghats. Give two reasons why these forests are so named.
Answer:
Tropical Evergreen forests.
Reasons:

1. Since it receives rainfall of about more than 250 cm, therefore, these forests are dense, multi layered & hence many types of trees and shrubs are found.
2. Trees of such forests do not have fixed time to shed their leaves, to flower or for fruition. That is why these forests appear green all the year round.

Question 9.
Give two characteristics of tidal forests.
Answer:
Characteristics of Tidal forests are:

• Trees can survive in fresh as well as brackish water,
• Aerial, stilt like roots.
• Can be about 30 metres high,
• Trees grow in muddy and marshy areas,
• They can occur in tidal and coastal areas.

Question 10.
Why are the Sunderbans so called?
Answer:
Littoral forests have Sundri trees after the name of which these forests are known as ‘ Sunderbans’ in the Ganga Delta.

Question 11.
Why are the forests grown around the cities having the Iron and Steel Industries?
Answer:
The level of pollution is much higher in the cities having Iron and Steel Plants, pollution generated is more than the cities not having these plants. This is because during the manufacture of steel, air emissions from the manufacturing plants emit particulate matter, sulphur oxides, nitrogen oxides, hydrocarbons and hydrogen fluoride which pollute the air.

Besides, these steel plants emit significant dust levels of about 20 kilograms per metric ton of steel. To prevent pollution, trees are planted around the cities having Iron and Steel Industries. The trees act as a barrier for the dust and purify the air.

Question 12.
What is Social Forestry?
Answer:
Social forestry means the management and protection of forests and afforestation on barren lands with a purpose of helping in the environmental, social and rural development.

Question 13.
What is meant by Agro-Forestry?
Answer:
Agro-forestry refers to “the sustainable system of managing a piece of land through combined production of agricultural crops and forest crops and animal rearing, to ensure the most efficient land use under a management system in accorded with socio¬cultural practices of the local people”.

Question 14.
Briefly explain two reasons for forests being an important natural resource.
Answer:

1. Forests supply timber for building purposes, furniture making, ship building, etc.
2. Soft wood like bamboos and grasses supply raw materials for wood pulp, paper and rayon industries.

Question 15.
Mention three methods for the conservation and development of forests in India.
Answer:

1. Increasing area under forest.
2. Stop indiscriminate felling of trees,
3. Using alternative sources of energy.

Question 16.
Mention three reasons why forests must be conserved.
Answer:
Forests must be conserved because of many utility of forests. Some of them are as:

• Forests provide favorable influence on temperature and rainfall,
• It helps to control air Pollution.
• It controls soil erosion,
• It helps in water percolation and so maintains groundwater levels.
• It supplies oxygen.

Question 17.
Name any two trees that grow in the Tropical Deciduous Forests which provides Timber.
Answer:
(i) Teak:
Its wood is moderately hard, durable and easy to work. It is used for construction purposes, ship building, furniture making, railway carriages, sleepers and bridges.

(ii)Shisham:
Its wood is hard,heavy with great strength,elasticity and durability. It is used for construction purposes, for making furniture, bullock-carts, agricultural implements, musical instruments and railway sleepers. It can be worked into decorative ornamental carvings.

Question 18.
Name a tree, leaves of which have commercial value.
Answer:
Tendu leaves are used as wrappers for bidi making.

Question 19.
Name the tree the timber of which could be used for the following:
(a) A soft and white timber used for making toys and match boxes.
(b) A hard durable timber used for ship building and furniture making.
(c) A sweet smelling timber which yields an oil, used for making handicrafts.
Answer:
(a) Semul or Chir
(b) Teak
(c) Sandal wood.

Question 20.
Name the two trees found in Tropical Evergreen Forests and give their economical value.
Answer:

• Chaplas:
  It provides strong and durable timber and is used for ship-building, furniture making and packing boxes.
• Rosewood:
  It is used in furniture-making floorboards, wagon parts, etc. It is used as decorative wood for carving and ornamental ply-boards and veneers.

II. Complete the Table:

Answer:

III. Distinguish between the following :

(a) Vegetation and Forest.
Answer:

(b) Tropical Evergreen and Tropical Deciduous Forests.
Answer:

(c) The Northern Mountain Forests and the Southern Mountain Forests.
Answer:

(d) Social Forestry and Agro-Forestry.
Answer:

• Social forestry is people-oriented, value based joint management of forests with a major objective of satisfying the needs, wants and aspirations of both the people and the government.
• It embraces almost a limitless range of activities on uncultivated land and thus, reduces the pressure on the nation’s forest resources.
• Social Forestry is also known as extension forestry, mined forestry, urban forestry, tree farming, Vanamahotsava, recreation forestry, livestock forestry, etc.
• Most of these names indicate utility of the forest features of Social Forestry.
• Agro-forestry is different from the traditional forestry in the sense that it is not vulnerable to population stresses.
• It is created in accordance with the socio-cultural practices of the population.
• In fact, agro-forestry co-ordinates with local population and reduces the pressure of population on traditional forestry.

III. Structured Questions.

Question 1.
(a) What are the climatic conditions under which Tropical Evergreen Forests develop?
Answer:
These forests are developed in the areas where the amount of annual rainfall is more than250 cm, average annual temperature is between 25°C and 27°C and average annual humidity exceeds 77 percent.

(b) Name the two type of deciduous forests.
Answer:

1. The moist deciduous forests; and
2. The dry deciduous forests.
   The common trees of such forests are sal, teak, arjun, shisham, mahua, mulberry, palas, semul, sandalwood, etc.

(c) What are the characteristic features of deciduous forests?
Answer:
These forests have a transition into moist deciduous, while on the drier margins they degrade into thorn forests. During the dry season, the trees in these forests shed their leaves completely and give the forests a look of a vast grassland with naked trees.

(d) Give a geographical reason for the following:
(i) The Western Ghats covered with thick evergeen forests while the Eastern Ghats are covered by deciduous forests.
Answer:
Western Ghats receives more rainfall as it is one the windward side, so Western Ghats is covered with thick evergreen forests whereas eastern side of the Western Ghats is on the leeward side which receives less rainfall so Eastern Ghats are covered by deciduous forests.

(ii) Forests appear green all the year round?
Answer:
The trees in these forests do not have a fixed time to shed their leaves, to flower or for fruition. That is why these forests appear green all the year round.

(iii) Deciduous forests commercially the most exploited ones?
Answer:
The trees of these forests provide timber, fruits and other useful products. Large tracts of these forests have been cleared for agricultural activities.

Question 2.
(a) Mention the areas where Tropical Desert Vegetation thrives.
Answer:
These forests are chiefly distributed in south-western Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, central and eastern Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat.

(b) Under what climatic conditions do Littoral forests develop?
Answer:
These forests are developed in wet marshy areas, in river deltas, in saline or ther swampy areas and along the sea coasts.

(c) What are the characteristic features of tropical desert vegetation?
Answer:
Due to paucity of rainfall, the trees are stunted with large patches of coare grasses. In these forests, plants remain leafless for most part of the year and look like scrub vegetation.

(d) What are the characteristic features of Littoral forests?
Answer:
These forests have mainly evergreen species of varying density and height, usually associated with wetness. The tree trunks are supported by a number of stilt like roots which are submerged under water and profuse growth with tangle of climbers.

Question 3.
Describe the methods of protecting forests under the following heads:
(a) Increasing the area under forest.
(b) Afforestation
(c) Using alternative source of energy.
(d) People’s participation.
Answer:
(a) Increasing the area under forest –
Loss of forests can be remedied by a massive programme of tree plantation. Planting trees on degraded lands and land that is unfit for agriculture will not only help in improving the environment but will also relieve, harvesting pressure on these forests.

(b) Afforestation –
There should be a strict ban on felling of naturally growing trees. If a tree has to be cut, necessary permission has to be obtained. Besides, proper replacement of trees by planting saplings at least in the ratio of 1:10(1 tree to 10 saplings) should be undertaken.

(c) Using alternative source of energy.
Answer:
In many parts of the world including India, trees are felled for providing firewood. So, in order to conserve forests, we must use non-conventional or renewable sources of energy, like solar energy, tidal energy, hydel energy, etc.

(d) People’s participation.
Answer:
Participation of the people (local community) is of utmost significance if any plan has to be enforced since the local inhabitants are the ultimate users. Most programmes now involve local communities in planning, decision-making and implementation.

Question 4.
(a) What is agro-forestry?
Answer:
(a) Agro-forestiy is an ideal eco-friendly system of occupation for solving various problems in agriculture and forestry and promoting new scientific methods to cherish both agriculture and forest realm with respect to the increasing demands of human life.The definition of agro-forestry is the sustainable system of managing a piece of land through combined production of agricultural and forest crops. It may include animal rearing, forest based industries on the basis of available resources and efficiency of the local people.

(b) What is social forestry?
Answer:
It refers to the management and protection of forests and afforestation on barren lands with the purpose of helping in the environmental, social and rural development.

(c) What are the objectives of agro-forestry?
Answer:
The objectives of agro-forestry are the best utilisation ofavailable resources by scientific farming, soil and forest conservation, healthy animal rearing, promote crop yields and variety, forest based industries tourist industry recreation parks in order to get best result for human health, wealth and prosperity.

(d) What is the difference between agro-forestry and traditional forestry.
Answer:

ICSE Geography Class 10 Question Bank

Goyal Brothers Prakashan Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 2 Factors Leading to the Growth of Nationalism and Foundation of the Indian National Congress

Question 1.
What is Nationalism?
Answer:
Nationalism denotes patriotism or ‘devotion to the nation ’. One who is ‘patriotic’, loves his or her country and feels very loyal towards it.

Question 2.
By whom and when was the Brahmo Samaj founded?
Answer:
Raja Rammohan Roy founded the Brahmo Samaj in 1828.

Question 3.
Mention any two social evils that came in for severe criticism by Raja Rammohan Roy (or the Brahmo Samaj).
Answer:
The Brahmo Samaj attacked the caste system, the practice of polygamy, child marriage and the Sati system. Rammohan Roy started his anti-Sati crusade in 1818.

Question 4.
When and by whom was the Bengali weekly Samvad Kaumudi started?
Answer:
Raja Rammohan Roy had started a Bengali Weekly called the ‘Samvad Kaumudi’ in 1821.

Question 5.
Mention any one important effort made by Rammohan Roy in support of Freedom of Press.
Answer:
Rammohan Roy started a Persian paper called Mirat-ul-Akbhar. Which had a Distinct Nationalist and progressive character. He argued that whatever civil liberties were enjoyed by the people of England, should also be enjoyed by Indians.

Question 6.
Mention any two social reforms favoured by Jyotiba Phule.
Answer:

1. He wanted to liberate the depressed classes and make them aware of their rights by educating them.
2. He founded the Satya Shodhak Samaj in 1873 with the aim of securing social justice for the weaker sections of society.

Question 7.
When and by whom was the Satya Shodhak Samaj founded?
Answer:
Jyotiba Phule founded the Satya Shodhak Samaj on 24 September 1873.

Question 8.
What did the Satya Shodhak Samaj endeavour to do?
Answer:
The Society endeavoured to mitigate the distress and sufferings of Dalits, women and the common people.

Question 9.
By whom and when was the Arya Samaj founded?
Answer:
Arya Samaj was founded in 1875 by Swami Dayananda.

Question 10.
Who was the founder of the Ramakrishna Mission?
Answer:
The Ramakrishna Mission was founded in 1896 by Swami Vivekananda.

Question 11.
Who was the founder of the Aligarh Movement? What was its main objective?
Answer:
Sir Syed Ahmed Khan founded Aligarh Movement in 1875 with an objective to instil a desire for Western education and culture among the Muslims.

Question 12.
What role did the Press (Newspapers and Magazines) play in fostering patriotism among our countrymen in the 19^th century?
Answer:
The Newspapers and Magazines played a big role in carrying ideas to the people. Raja Ram Mohan Roy’s Magazines ‘Samvad Kaumudi,’ Dada Bhai Naoroji edited ‘Rast Goftar’ and Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar started ‘Shome Prakash’ in Bengali in 1858. All these Journals had a distinct Nationalist character.

The Dailies (NewsPapers) like ‘Times of India (1861) ‘Pioneer’ (1865) and ‘Statesman’ (1875) although supported the policies of the government, yet kept people informed of rapid political development in the country. Press went a long way in fostering patriotism and ideas of liberty and justice in our country. Through his Writing in the ‘Kesar’ and the ‘Mahratta’, Tilak spread the gospel of freedom and natural rights.

Question 13.
Name Bankim Chandra’s novel that has been called the ‘Bible of modern Bengalee patriotism’.
Answer:
Bankim Chandra’s famous novel ‘Anand Math is known as the Bible of modern Bengalee patriotism.

Question 14.
Give two evidences to suggest that the British pursued the policy of economic exploitation in India.
Answer:
The increase in the indebtedness of the Indian peasants under the British rule was a clear sign of policy of economic exploitation. The Indian peasants had to sell their produce at cheap prices in order to satisfy the greed of Money-lenders, Zamindars and Government officials.
Further, the policy of free trade, hard hit the Indian handicrafts.

Question 15.
Give one reason why the Indian handicrafts declined during the British rule.
Answer:
The policy of free trade was an important factor which led to the decline of Indian handicrafts. India, which had once won worldwide fame as an exporter of fine cloth, was turned into an importer of machine-made cloth and other factory goods from England.

Question 16.
Give two evidences to suggest that the British pursued the repressive colonial policies.
Answer:
British pursued the policy of racial discrimination in India which was evident in their attitude towards Indians. Infact, they never cultivated social relations with Indian. Secondly, there were exclusive clubs and railways coaches for European, where the entry of Indians was forbidden. At the district headquarters there were exclusive residential areas, popularly knowm as Civil Lines, where only Europeans could live.

Question 17.
Name the Act of Lord Lytton’s regime which sought to limit the freedom of the press.
Answer:
The Vernacular Press Act of Lord Lytton in 1878 sought to limit the freedom of the press.

Question 18.
What was the main provisions of the Indian Arms Act of 1878?
Answer:
The Indian Arms Act of 1878, made it a criminal offence for Indians to keep or bear arms without licence.

Question 19.
In whose Viceroyalty did the Ilbert Bill controversy take place?
Answer:
Ilbert bill controversy took placed under the Viceroyalty of Lord Ripon (1880-84).

Question 20.
What was the objective of the Ilbert Bill ? Why was it not passed?
Answer:
The objective of the Ilbert Bill was to remove racial discrimination. Lord Ripon, wanted to give the Indian Judges the authority to hear cases against the Europeans. However the Europeans oppossed this tooth and nail and thus it could not be passed.

Question 21.
Name any two Associations which acted as the precursors (forerunners) of the Indian National Congress.
Answer:

• The East India Association by Dada Bhai Naorji in 1866.
• Poona Sarvajanik Sabha under Justice Ranade in 1870.

Question 22.
When and by whom was East India Association founded in London?
Answer:
The East India Association was founded by Dada Bhai Naorji on October 1, 1866.

Question 23.
Who founded the Indian Association at Kolkata in 1876?
Answer:
Indian Association was founded by Surendernath Banerjea.

Question 24.
Name any two objects of the Indian Association founded by Surendranath Banerjea.
Answer:

1. To unite Indians on the basis of common Political interests and beliefs.
2. To agitate for a Constitutional Government.

Question 25.
Where and when was the Indian National Conference convened by Surendranath Banerjea?
Answer:
The Indian National Conference was convened by Surendranath Banerjea at Kolkata in 1833.

Question 26.
When and by whom was Indian National Congress founded?
Answer:
The Indian National Congress was founded in 1885 by A.O. Hume, a retired civilian in the British Government.

Question 27.
Where Was the First Session of the Indian National Congress held? Who was the first President of Indian National Congress?
Answer:
The First Session of Indian National Congress was held at Bombay in December 1885.
W.C. Bannetjea was the First President of Indian National Congress.

Question 28.
Where was the Second Session of the Indian National Congress held? Who presided over this Session?
Answer:
The Second Session of the Indian National Congress was held at Kolkata in 1886. Dadabhai Naoroji as President presided over this i Session.

Question 29.
Name any two European scholars who projected the richness of India’s cultural heritage.
Answer:

1. William Jones
2. Charles Wilkins.

Question 30.
What feelings did the rediscovery of India’s past by Western scholars arouse among our people?
Answer:
The British projected Indians as rough barbarians while the rediscovery of India’s past, rendered valuable help in restoring rich heritage of India. Secondly, to arouse Nationalist passions against foreign rulers. Lastly, a feeling grew among Indians that they must built an India, yet greater than she has been.

Question 31.
What was the influence of Western education on the minds of educated Indians in the 19th century?
Answer:
Western education instilled in the minds of educated classes, the Western ideas of equality and liberty. Revolutionary ideas contained in the writings of Rousseau, Mazzini and other liberal thinkers, brought about social awareness and national consciousness among educated Indians.

Question 32.
What role did the English language play in National awakening in the 19th century?
Answer:
English language gave them common language which made it possible for them to understand each other and plan a common programme of action.

Question 33.
Name two Western thinkers whose works inspired Indians to work for the Political Independence of their nation.
Answer:
The works of Locke and Voltaire inspired Indians to work for the Political Independence of their Nation.

Question 34.
In what way did the Zamindars exploit the peasants in India?
Answer:
Under the Zamindari System, the peasants were at the mercy of the Zamindar, who could drive them off their land at any time due to non-payment of dues.

Question 35.
How did money lenders exploit peasants during the British rule?
Answer:
Under the Ryotwari system, the Indian peasants had to sell their produce at cheap prices in order to satisfy the greed of the moneylenders, the zamindars and the government officials.

Question 36.
Why did the British construct railways and develop roadways in India?
Answer:
Lord Dalhousie had taken an active interest in the development of railways and telegraph services. These projects were considered necessary from the point of administrative efficiency and the investment of surplus British Capital in India.

Question 37.
How did the introduction of railways and other means of transport help in uniting Indians against the British?
Answer:
The introduction of new means of transport knit up the vast country and gave a sense of oneness. Thus, the Educated Indians living in different parts of the country could interact with each other and discuss national issues. Secondly, the provincial loyalties gave way to patriotic Nations.

Question 38.
Give any two immediate objectives of the Congress as formulated by its President in 1885.
Answer:

1. To promote a feeling of national unity by putting an end to racial, religious and provincial prejudices.
2. To formulate popular demands on vital Indian problems and then presentation before the government.

Question 39.
Mention any two of the demands of the Congress in its infancy?
Answer:

1. Expansion of the Legislative Councils.
2. Holding of Indian Civil Service Examination both in England and India.

Structured Questions

Question 1.
With reference to the picture given here of the person who heralded the coming of the ‘Modern Age’ in Indian history answer the questions that follow :
(a) Who was that one of India’s great persons?
(b) What were his views on Liberty and Freedom of the Press?
(c) What were his economic ideas?
Answer:
(a) Raja Rammohan Roy

(b) Rammohan Roy started a Persian paper called Mirat-ul-Akbhar. Which had a distinct nationalist and progressive character. He argued that whatever civil liberties were enjoyed by the people of England, should also be enjoyed by Indians. Along with a few other eminent persons, Roy presented a Petition to the Supreme Court for legal action to be taken against Press Regulations.

(c) His Economic Ideas :
Rammohan Roy was sympathetic to the cause of the poor peasants. He wanted the Military Budget to be reduced, so that more funds were available for activities concerned with the health and education of the people. He sailed for England in 1830. It gave him an opportunity to appear before a Select Committee of the British Parliament. He apprised the Committee of the poor economic conditions of the people in India.

Question 2.
Jyotiba Pliule was a highly respected Social Reformer of the 19th century. In this context describe.
(a) His contribution to uplift lower Castes and Women.
(b) Formation of Satya ShodHak Samaj and its aims and activities.
Answer:
(a) Jyotiba Phule was an urban-educated member of low caste. His education and personal experiences had made him critical of Hindu religion and customs. In 1854, he established a school for untouchables and started a private orphanage for the widows. He wanted to liberate the depressed classes and make them aware of their rights by educating them.

(b) He founded the Satya Shodhak Samaj in 1873 with the aim of securing social justice for the weaker sections of society. He pioneered the widow remarriage movement in Maharashtra and worked for the education of women.

Question 3.
The social and religious reformers of the 19th century became the early pioneers of Indian nationalism. Describe any three ways in which the Reform Movements of the 19th century aroused nationalist ideas.
Answer:
The Reform Movements of the 19th century went a long way towards arousing nationalistic passion against British in the following ways.

• All these reformers denounced untouchability and the rigidities of the caste system. The ideas of brotherhood and equality attracted the attention of the so-called lower castes.
• At a time when national was seized with despair and idleness, Swami Dayananda and Swami Vivekananda boldly preached the gospel of strength and self-reliance.
• All these reformers believed that “the uplift of women must come first and then only can any good come about for the country”.
• All these reformers were inspired by the spirit of Nationalism.

Question 4.
With reference to the growth of national consciousness in India explain the relevance of each of the following :
(a) Growth of Press in the nineteenth century
(b) India’s economic exploitation by the British rulers
(c) English language and Western Education
Answer:
(a) The Press played a big role in carrying ideas to the people. Raja Ram Mohan Roy’s ‘Samvad Kaumudi,’ Dada Bhai Naoroji edited ‘Rast Goftar’ and Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar started ‘Shome Prakash’ in Bengali in 1858. All these Journals had a distinct Nationalist character.

The Dailies like ‘Times of India (1861) ‘Pioneer’ (1865) and ‘Statesman’ (1875) although supported the policies of the government, yet kept people informed of rapid political development in the country. Press went a long way in fostering patriotism and ideas of liberty and justice in our country. Through his Writing in the ‘Kesar’ and the ‘Mahratta’, Tilak spread the gospel of freedom and natural rights.

(b) The land-revenue system i.e., Zamindari, Ryotwari and Mahalwari, introduced by the British, reduced the peasants to misery and poverty. Poor peasants had to sell their produce at cheap prices in order to satisfy the greed of moneylenders, Zamindars and the Government officials.

British turned Indian self-sufficient economy into an Agricultural Colony. India being an exporter of fine cloth, became the importer of finished goods in England. Handicrafts crippled under the policy of free-trade. As William Hunter once remarked that 40 million Indians go through life .on insufficient food.

(c) Western education and the English language, went a long way to create national consciousness among the masses. Western education instilled in the minds of educated classes, the Western ideas of liberty and equality. Nationalists in India drew inspiration from the American War of Independence and French Revolution.

The young men, who went to England to receive education, got first hand information on the working of their Government. Besides English language gave them a common language which made it possible for them to understand each other and plan a common programme of action.

Question 5.
With reference to the following Acts and Regulations, explain how did repressive colonial policies cause an annoying sense of humiliation in the minds of educated Indians :
(a) The Vernacular Press Act, 1878
(b) The Arms Act, 1878
(c) Ilbert Bill controversy.
Answer:
(a) The educated Indians, had full faith in the British sense of justice and fair play. However, Lord Lytton (1876-1880) intensified discontent in the the country through his policy and deeds. Imperial Durbar was held in Delhi 1877, when the whole country was in grip of terrible famine Vernacular papers reacted sharply, though government tried to silent the opposition by enacting the Vernacular Press Act of 1878.

The Act crushed the freedom of the Vernacular papers, as it required the editors to publish nothing that would excite disaffection against the government.This humiliation at the hands of British, inflamed the feelings of educated Indians.

(b) The Indian Arms Act of 1878 made it a criminal offence for Indians to keep or bear arms without licence. Surendranath Bannerjea reacted sharply against the act and termed as an badge of racial inferiority imposed on India. The masses at large were exposed to the evils of the British administration. They soon, gathered the mass public opinion on the wrongs in the administration.

(c) Lord Ripon wanted to bring equality among English and Indians. Accordingly, a bill was introduced in 1883 by Ilbert, law member of the Executive Council. The Bill gave rights to the Indian Judges to try European offences, though soon it was followed by wild agitation by the Anglo-Indian Community.

The Government had to ultimately withdraw the bill, but negotiated a compromise. As a result, Indian District Magistrate and Judges were empowered to try European offenders on condition that the accused were to have the benefit of Jury. Agitation against the Ilbert bill demonstrated the growing British
imperialism.

Question 6.
A number of political associations came into existence in the latter half of the 19th century. In this context answer the following questions :
(a) What were the objectives and activities of the East India Association founded in 1866?
(b) What were the objectives of the Indian Association established at Kolkata in 1876 by Surendranath Banerjea?
Answer:
(a)The East India Association :
Dadabhai Naoroji founded in London on October 1, 1866. The East India Association. It aimed at providing members of the British Parliament information regarding India’s genuine grievances. The Association attracted a large number
of Englishmen who sympathised with India’s distress. It also suggested such measures as could remedy some of the wrongs.

For example, it recommended the abolition of cotton duties and petitioned the Government to withdraw the Vernacular Press Act. The Association became popular and soon had branches in Mumbai, Kolkata and Chennai.

(b) The Indian Association Headed by Surendranath Banerjea :
In 1876 came up in Kolkata the Indian Association founded by Surendranath Banerjea. The objects of the Association were :

• to unite the Indians upon the basis of common political interests and beliefs:
• to promote brotherly feelings between Hindus and the Muslims; and
• to agitate for a Constitutional Government. The Association launched agitation against the Arms Act and the Vernacular Press Act. Surendranath Banerjea led on all-India campaign for a better representation of Indians in the Indian Civil Service.

Question 7.
With reference to the picture given below answer the questions that follow :
(a) Identify the person
(b) What was his role in the foundation of the Indian National Congress?
(c) What were the immediate objectives of the Indian National Congress?

Answer:
(a) Sir A.O. Hume founder of Indian National Congress

(b) Sir A.O. Hume, a retired civil servant addressed circular letter to the graduates of Calcutta University in which he said, “whether in the individual or the nation, all vital progress must spring from within, and it is to you, her most cultured and enlightened minds… that your country must look for the initiative.”

He added, “if only fifty men, good and true, can be found to join as founders, the thing can be established and the future development would be comparatively easy.” The appeal had the desired effect. The Indian National Congress was thus founded and the first session was held in December 1885 at Bombay.

(c) Immediate Objectives of the Indian National Congress :

• To enable national workers from all parts of Indian to become personally known to each other.
• To end all racial, religious and provincial prejudices and to promote a feeling of national unity among all lovers of the country.
• The formulation of popular demands on vital Indian problems and their presentation before the government.
• To train and organise public opinion in the country.
• To decide upon the political tasks or jobs to be undertaken during the ensuing year.

ICSE History and Civics Class 10 Goyal Brothers Prakashan Solutions

Check the below ICSE Class 10 History Goyal Brothers Solutions Chapter 1 The First War of Independence (1857) with Questions and Answers Pdf free download. Students can also read The First War Of Independence 1857 Class 10 ICSE Solutions.

Goyal Brothers Prakashan Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 1 The First War of Independence (1857)

Question 1.
What is meant by the Doctrine of Lapse?
Answer:
The Doctrine of Lapse, introduced by Lord Dalhousie meant that when a ruler of a dependent State died without a natural heir, the State passed back to the hands of English.

Question 2.
Name any two States that fell victim to Dalhousie’s Doctrine of Lapse.
Answer:

• Satara 1848
• Jhansi 1853
• Nagpur 1854

Question 3.
Which acts of Lord Dalhousie and Lord Canning smacked of discourtesy to the Mughal Emperor?
Answer:
Lord Dalhousie announced that after the death of Mughal Emperor Bahadur Shah, his successor would have to leave the Imperial Palace. (Red Fort)
Later in 1856, Lord Canning forbade Bahadur Shah’s successors to use the imperial title i.e., ‘King’.

Question 4.
What was the main grouse of the Rani of Jhansi against the British?
Answer:
The application of the Doctrine of Lapse, irked the Rani of Jhansi, when after the death of the ruler of Jhansi, their adopted son Anand Rao was not recognised as a legitimate successor to the throne.

Question 5.
Who was Nana Saheb? What was his main grievance against the British?
Answer:
Nana Saheb was the adopted son of Peshwa Baji Rao II. His main grievance against the British was Lord Dalhousie’s refusal to grant him, any pension.

Question 6.
When and on what ground was Awadh annexed to the Company’s dominions?
Answer:
On Feb. 7,1856, Awadh was annexed to the Company’s Dominions on grounds that Awadh was not being managed well.

Question 7.
Mention any two activities that caused fear that the British government was determined to convert Indians to Christianity.
Answer:

• The teaching of Christian Doctrine was made compulsory in the set up by the Christian missionaries.
• The officials openely preached Christian Doctrines in Mosques and Temples.
• The police force was also being used for conversions.

Question 8.
Name any two acts (Laws) that interfered with the religion and customs of the people.
Or
Mention any two social evils that existed in India during the 19th century. What measures were taken by the Biritsh to control them?
Answer:

• The Act of 1850 enabled the conversion from Hinduism to inherit the property of his father.
• The Widow-Remarriage Act of 1856 was a progressive measure.

Or
There existed many social evils in India. In the 19th century the British took measures to control some of the evils. The Widow Remarriage Act, passed in 1856, was a progressive measure. Earlier Sati and female infanticide had been prohibited.

Question 9.
What was the people’s reaction to the introduction of railways in the mid 1850s?
Answer:
The railways and telegraphs were looked down upon as means to break social order and caste rules, since people of all castes had to sit together.

Question 10.
How did the indignities hurled at Indians alienate the British from the Indian masses?
Answer:
The Englishmen in India could insult, humiliate and even kill the Indians at will. Besides, if an Indian was on horse back, he had to dismount and stand in respectable manner until the European had passed him. Such indignities alienated the British from the Indian masses.

Question 11.
What were people’s fears regarding the introduction of English language?
Answer:
The introduction of English language was thought to be an attempt to discourage Hindu and Islamic studies. Secondly, people feared that the object was not promotion of literature rather, inducing the people to-become Christians.

Question 12.
How did the British rulers cripple Indian handicrafts? What were its consequences?
Answer:
The popularity of Indian textiles alarmed the policy-makers in England.,An Act of 1720 prohibited the use of Indian silks and Calicoes in England. Secondly, heavy duties were imposed on Indian silk and cotton textiles in Britain.
Hence, it had following consequences :

• By the mid of 19 A. D, export of cotton and silk from India practically ceased.
• The art of spinning and weaving became extinct.
• Manufacturing towns of Dhaka, Murshidabad and Surat now looked helpless.

Question 13.
How was India converted into an agricultural colony of the British?
Answer:
British converted India into an agriculture colony by forcing Bihar, Bengal and Awadh to export jute, opium and indigo. Secondly, India became the supplier of raw materials like-cotton and oilseed for Industries in England.

Question 14.
What did the British do to reduce the landed aristocracy to poverty?
Answer:
The British in 1852, through the Inam Commission annexed the rent-free lands, when the land owners pleaded their inability to produce required title deeds due to passage of time. Government did not accept the plea and confiscated some 20,000 estates.

Question 15.
Mention any two grievances harboured by the Indian soldiers which created an atmosphere favourable to the Great Uprising of 1857.
Answer:

• Low Salary and Poor Prospects of Promotion.
• General Service Enlistment Act of 1856, which provided that all the recruits to the Bengal army should be ready for service, within or outside India.

Question 16.
What was the main provision of the General Service Enlistment Act of 1856?
Answer:
The Act provided that all the recruits to the Bengal army should be ready for service within or outside India.

Question 17.
What impact did the defeat of the British in the first Afghan War have on the morale of the Indian soldiers?
Answer:
The defeat in the First Afghan war, increased the self-confidence of the Indian soliders, who felt they could challenge the British in India, too.

Question 18.
How did the introduction of Enfield Rifles become an immediate cause of the War of Independence in 1857?
Answer:
The Enfield Rifles, required to bite the end of Cartridges with their teeth before fitting them in the rifles. A rumour spread that they were greased with fat of cow and the pig. Both Hindus and Muslims got infuriated and rose a revolt.

Question 19.
When was the 1857 Uprising supposed to have begun?
Answer:
31st May, 1857 was the fixed date for the Revolt of 1857.

Question 20.
Name the act that transferred the Government of India from the Company to the Crown. When was it passed?
Answer:
The Act of 1858, transferred the Government of India from the Company to the Crown. It was passed on 2nd August, 1858.

Question 21.
What was the result of the First War of Indian Independence as far as the East India Company was concerned?
Answer:
The First War of Independence ended the East India Company’s rule in India since the British statesmen thought it unwise to leave the government of vast country in the hands of private trading company.

Question 22.
Who became the first Viceroy of India under the Act of 1858?
Answer:
Lord Canning (1858 – 62) became the first Viceroy of India.

What assurance was given to the Indian Princes by Queen Victoria in her Proclamation of 1858?
Answer:

• The British government.would not annex the Indian states.
• All the treaties that the Princes had concluded with the company would be honoured.
• Their rights of adoption and succession were also recognised.

Question 23.
What impact did the Uprising of 1857 have on the Mughal Rule (Mughal Imperial Dynasty)?
Answer:
Bahadur Shah along with his favourite wife, Begum Zinat Mahal, was exiled to Rangoon (in the present day Myanmar), where he died on 7 November, 1862. The two sons of the king and one of his grandsons were shot dead by Lt. Hodson and thus Mugal Rule come to an end.

How was the Army organised after the First War of Indian Independence?
Answer:
The policy of balance and counter check became the prominent feature of the military administration.

• The proportions of the British to Indian soliders were increased.
• Artillery along with other effective weapons were reserved for the British troops. *
• All the key positions in the army were kept exclusively for the British.
• The Army was organised in such a way that no sentiment of unity could arise among them.

Question 24.
What is meant by the policy of ‘Divide and Rule’ pursued by the British in India?
Answer:
The policy of Divide and Rule was meant to create misunderstanding between the Hindus and the Muslims, since English learnt the lesson that strength of the uprising in 1857 lay in Hindu-Muslim unity.

Question 25.
How did the War of 1857 continue to inspire Indians in their struggle against the British Raj?
Or
How can we say that the First War of Independence was important landmark in India’s struggle against the British Raj?
Or
What was the effect of the First War of Independence as regards to the rise of Nationalism in India?
Answer:
The war became a symbol of challenge to the mighty British power in India. Popular songs in praise of Tantia Tope, the Rani of Jhansi and others kept the memory of their heroic deeds alike. The Rani of Jhansi became Indian’s Joan of Arc, whose very name revived the spirit of patriotism.

Question 26.
What rumour was circulating to make people believe that the days of the Company’s rule in India were numbered?
Answer:
People believed that the British came to power in 1757, after the Battle of Plassey and their rule would come to an end in 1857.

Question 27.
Name any two social reformers who attacked Sati and female infanticide.
Answer:

1. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
2. Keshab Chander Sen

Question 28.
What were people’s apprehensions regarding the introduction of telegraph service in India?
Answer:
People looked down upon the introduction of telegraphic service as means to break social order. Another rumour was that the telegraphic poles would be used for hanging people who were against Company’s rule in India.

Question 29.
What advantages did the Indian soldiers have because of disproportion between Indian and British troops in 1857 ?
Answer:
Lord Dalhousie’s inability to enlist British soldiers definitely gave Indians both the advantage of number and courage to take up arms against the English.

Question 30.
Name the two great patriots who hailed the Uprising of 1857 as the War of Independence?
Answer:

1. Netaji Subhash Chander Bose.
2. Veer Savarkar.

Question 31.
Who was Mangal Pandey? What episode is associated with his name?
Answer:
Mangal Pandey was a Brahmin solider, who refused to use the greased cartridges on 29th March, 1857 and killed two English officers. He was hanged consequently, this resulted in general uprising in Meerut, Delhi, Kanpur, Lucknow and Jhansi.

Question 32.
What did the Indian soldiers (sepoys) at Meerut do for which they were sentenced to 10 years’ imprisonment in May 1857 ?
Answer:
The real trouble started at Meerut on May 6, 1857 when Indian soldiers gathered force and cut across North India like a sword. About 86 sepoys refused to use the greased cartridges. Hence they were dismissed and sentenced to 10 years’ imprisonment.

Structured Questions

Question 1.
Using the following points describe main political causes which led to the First War of Independence in 1857 :
(a) British policy of Annexations. (Annexations of Awadh and Territorial Expansion under the pretext of the Doctrine of Lapse).
(b) Treatment meted out to the Mughal Emperor
(c) Treatment meted out to Nana Saheb.
Answer:
(a) Dalhousie was the Governor-General of India from 1846 to 1856. His policy of annexations and conquests showed clearly that the territory of no Indian Prince was safe. The Doctrine of Lapse created a sense of alarm among the ruling chiefs. Dalhousie claimed that heirs adopted without the consent of the Company could inherit only the private property of the deceased ruler, and not his territory.

Annexation of Awadh :
On 7 February, 1856, Nawab Wazid Ali Shah was deposed on grounds that Awadh was not being managed well. On February 13, the Court of Directors ordered Awadh’s complete annexation to the Company’s dominions. The annexation of Awadh was certainly a case of high-handedness on the part of the Company. The Nawab of Awadh had been loyal to the Company throughout. The British seemed to have broken all their pledges and promises to the ruling chiefs. This caused resentment among those soldiers of the British Indian army who came from Awadh.

(b) The House of the Mughals were also humbled when the English announced that after the death of Bahadur Shah II, the Mughals would lose the title of ‘King’ and his successors would have to leave the Red fort. It greatly hurt the sentiments of the Muslims.

(c) The last Peshwa Baji Rao II, adopted Nana Sahib as his son. After his death, English refused to acknowledge Nana Sahib as the ruler of the Marathas, Hindus too turned against the English. He was pensioned off to far away Bithur.

Question 2.
Social and Religious causes were also at work in causing the Great Upsurge of 1857. In this context briefly describe :
(a) Fears regarding mass Conversion to Christianity.
(b) Laws that interfered with the Religion and Customs of the people.
(c) Indignities hurled at Indians (Policy of Racial Discrimination)
Answer:
(a) The activities of the Christian missionaries created a sense of alarm among both the Hindus and the Muslims. Their fear was actively supported by

• The teaching of Christian doctrine was made compulsory in the schools established by Christian missionaries.
• The Bible was introduced in all the government schools.
• Prisoners began to be instructed in Christianity.
• The officials openly preached Christian doctrines in Mosques and Temples.
• Lastly, police force too was being used for conversions. Hence, panic gripped people that they all would be lured to Christianity by hook or by crook.

(b) The practice of Sati was abolished in 1829, along with child marriage female infanticide and polygamy. Act of 1856 legalised Widow- Remarriage. The people thought that English were unnecessarily interfering in their socio-religious matters and wanted to ruin their social order. Hence, they became resentful toward the English. The Act of 1850 which enabled even the Hindu converts to inherit the property made cry that their religion was in danger.

(c) The English belonged to the ruling class and had a feeling of superiority. They looked down upon Indian to insult, humiliate and even kill at will. The English crossed all limits of decency and humiliated by calling them ‘swines’ and branded them as ‘heathens’
In short, there was unrest among the masses because they felt that the government was interfering in their social order, destroying their religious customs and converting them into Christians.

Question 3.
Economic exploitation of the country caused grave discontent that culminated in the Great Uprising of 1857. Examine this factor with reference to the following:
(a) The Ruin of Trade and Handicrafts (Unhappiness of Indian Artisans and Craftsmen)
(b) Impoverishment of the Cultivators
(c) Subordination of Indian economy to British Interests (Making India an Agricultural Colony of British capitalism)
Answer:
(a) The East India Company was established in 1600 as a trading concern. Soon after 1668, Indian textiles became so popular in England, that an Act was passed in 1720 prohibiting the use of Indian silks and calicoes in England. The British deliberately crippled Indian handicrafts by

• Imposing heavy duties on Indian silk and cotton textiles in England.
• British goods were imported into India at a nominal duty.
• The art of spinning and weaving became extinct.
• Manufacturing towns of Dhaka, Murshidabad and Surat now looked desolate.
  Hence, deplorable economic condition paved the way for Revolt of 1857.

(b) The Cultivators impoverished under the land-revenue policies of the Engish. Be it Permanent settlement in Bengal and Bihar, Ryotwari system in Bombay or Mahalwari System, almost half the net produce was claimed as land-revenue. Bad monsoons brought famines that further increased the poverty of the peasants. Unable to pay land-revenue, the farmers were driven more and more in the clutches of money-lenders. What could impoverished asked other than driving the English out of India.

(c) The English subordinated the Indian economy to the interests of British trade and Industry. Indian Industry began to decline because heavy duties were imposed on the Indian silk and cotton textiles. The English exported raw material from India and poured into India large quantities of goods manufactured in England. In short, India was reduced to the Agriculture colony. Her trade and commerce began to be controlled and dominated by the English.

Question 4.
The discontent against the British Raj was by no means confined to the civil population, but also extended to the Indian section of the Company’s Army. In this context of the military causes of the First War of Independence given an account of the following:
(a) Discontent on account of low Salary and poor prospects of Promotion.
(b) Discontent and Disaffection in the Bengal Army
(c) The General Service Enlistment Act
(d) Introduction of Greased Cartridges
Or
What were the main causes of Sepoys’ discontentment which became a major contributory factor to the Revolt of 1857?
Answer:
(a) The wages of the Indian soldiers were too small to support their families. An English soldier was paid more than 8 times the English sepoy even though his duties were of similar nature. Besides, they had no chance of promotion. The highest rank held by an Indian was that of Subedars. Artillery and other key weapons were only reserved for the English soldiers. Indian soldiers resented discriminatory policy adopted by the English.

(b) Bengal army composed of the sepoys and officers of high caste 130 Arundeeps History & Civics-10 Hindus (Brahmins and Rajputs) of Awadh. During the First Anglo- Afghan war of 1839-1842, they had to cross the Sindhu and go outside India. This was disliked because they thought that sea voyage was forbidden by their religion. In 1844, some Bengali regiments reiused to serve in Sindh till extra allowances were given to them.

(c) Lord Canning passed the General Enlistment Act. The Act caused bitterness among the sepoys, as it bound them to be sent to fight to an overseas front. ActTvas contrary to their religious beliefs. Political, Social and Economic atmosphere was conducive for an outbreak, but it could not erupt as long as the Indian soldiers were loyal to the English. Though above mentioned military causes roused discontentment among the sepoys as well, who started the revolt.

(d) The cartridges to be used by soldiers for the Enfield Rifles were greased with the fat of cows and pig. The cow, is scared for the Hindus and pig for Muslims., for this reason the army posed a threat to the British Rulers.

Question 5.
Describe the results of the First War of Independence with reference to the following :
(a) Changes relating to Constitutional or the Administrative Set¬up of the British territories in India
(b) Rights granted to the Indian Princes and Chiefs
Answer:
(a) The war ended the EIC’s rule in India. The Act of 1858 transferred the Government of India from the company to the crown. Secondly, the Board of control and court of directors were abolished. Their powers were transferred to the secretary of state, who was to be assisted by the Indian Council consisting of 15 members. Secretary of state was to draw salary and allowances from the revenues of India.

Thirdly, appointments to the civil service were to be made by open competition. Lastly, Governor-General received the additional title of viceroy. The title denoted the new position of the Governor-General as the representative of the Crown in India vis-a vis the native princes and Nawab.

(b) Queen Victoria declared in her Proclamation of 1858 that the British government would not annex the Indian states. Secondly, all the treaties that the princes had concluded with the company would be honoured. Thirdly, their right of adoption and succession were to be recognised.

At the same British government took all possible steps to render Indian states militarily weak by limiting their number of troops.

Question 6.
With reference to the consequences of the First War of Independence, 1857 answer the following questions :
(a) How was the Army organised after the War of Independence?
(b) What was the effect of the First War of Independence as regards the rise of Nationalism in India?
Or How did the First War of Independence become an important landmark in India’s struggle against the British Raj?
(c) How India became the big field of Economic Exploitation by the Britishers after First War of Independence?
Answer:
(a) The policy of balance and counter check became the prominent feature of the military administration.

• The proportions of the British to Indian soliders were increased.
• Artillery along with other effective weapons were reserved for the British troops.
• All the key positions in the army were kept exclusively for the British.
• The Army was organised in such a way that no sentiment of unity could arise among them.

(b) The war became a symbol of challenge to the mighty British power in India. Popular songs in praise of Tantia Tope, the Rani of Jhansi and others kept the memory of their heroic deeds alike. The Rani of Jhansi became Indian’s Joan of Arc, whose very name revived the spirit of patriotism.

(c) In the first place, recruitment of English in both private and public was a large drain on the country’s resources. Secondly, India was turned into an agriculture colony exporting raw material and importing finished goods. Thirdly, rapid rise of indebtedness of the peasants reduced them to poverty and slavery. Fourthy, British invested their surplus capital in railways, plantation and coal mines in India, which was a total drain on commercial interests of Indians. Even the dividends were distributed among the share-holders of the company.
On the whole the Indians were reduced to misery and poverty.

Question 7.
With reference to the picture given below, answer the questions that follow :
(a) Identify the Queen seated on the throne
(b) What solemn promises did she make to the people of India in her Proclamation of 1858?
(c) Why did the British follow the policy of ‘Divide and Rule’ after 1857? What was its consequence?
Answer:

(a) Seated on the throne is Queen Victoria.

(b) Solemn promises made to the People of India

• Queen Victoria in her Proclamation of 1858 promised not to interfere with the religious of India.
• The Queen also promised equal treatment to all her subjects, Indians and Europeans. All appointments, declared the Queen, would be strictly on the basis of education, ability and integrity.
• An official pardon was granted to people, excepting such persons as had been guilty of the murder of British subjects.
• The Proclamation ended with a promise that the material and moral advancement of the people would henceforth be the main concern of the Government.
• Queen promised material and moral advancement of her subjects.

(c) The Hindus and the Muslims had showed utmost zeal and enthusiasm in the Rising of 1857. Hence, British pursued the policy of creating misunderstanding between the two communities so as to perpetuate the British rule. Muslims started harboring hatred and mistrust against the Hindus because of the role played by the Sikhs and Gorkha soldiers in perpetuating excesses upon them.

The British turned against the Muslims, after the revolt of 1857. At a later stage, nationalism displayed by the Hindus, made them unfriendly- in the eyes of the British. The Muslims were taken back into the confidence and favour.

Hence policy of divide and rule was exploited to widen the gap between the two communities and ensure British rule in India.

ICSE History and Civics Class 10 Goyal Brothers Prakashan Solutions

ICSE Geography Class 10 Question Bank Chapter 19 Need and Method for Reducing, Reusing & Recycling Waste

Questions Based on Need and Method for Reducing,
Reusing and Recycling Waste

I. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the three R’s of waste management?
Answer:

• Reducing the Waste :
• Reusing the Waste ; and
• Recycling the Waste.

Question 2.
Give one example of reusing of waste.
Answer:
Some of the waste materials like old glass bottles, steel tyres, tin cans are reused. For example, shoes or chappals are made from old tyres, water bags are made from leather, lamps are made from tin cans, etc.

Question 3.
Why are recycled plastic bags considered harmful for environment?
Answer:
The plastic bags which are extensively used in India are made from recycled plastic. The recycled plastic bags are harmful because the melting of plastic and plastic products breaks some polymer chains into smaller units which are harmful

Question 4.
Give three examples to show how social initiatives can help minimise the use of resources.
Answer:
The society has to play an important role in maintaining environmental standards in the following ways:

• If air and water resources in an area are unfit and do not meet the acceptable standard, the people of the area can organise themselves and force the responsible agencies to take necessary action.
• If suitable action is not forthcoming they can, under the laws of the land, file a Public Interest Litigation (PIL) and get their problems solved.
• Society is made of individuals together. So it is the duty of each individual to see that his/her actions do not pollute the environment

II. Structured Questions

Question 1.
(a) Explain clearly how the waste can be reduced by changing the process of production.
Answer:
Change of Process :
By changing a modem method to make the best use of raw materials reduces the waste generation in industries.
In zinc electroplating chlorides are used in the process instead of using the sulphate salt in order to eliminate the production of cyanides.

(b) Explain how reusing the waste can reduce the burden of waste disposal.
Answer:
Many waste collectors roam about in residential areas and industrial units to collect the solid waste. They segregate them and supply them to specialised artisans who make utility articles from such material and make a living from their skill. For example, a very beautiful garden has been created by Nek Chand in Chandigarh using waste products like tin cans, bottles, broken pieces of crockery etc. Waste collectors, thus, help in making new production processes. Thus, they reduce the burden of waste disposal.

(c) Explain the role of government in waste management.
Answer:
In India, the Ministry of Environment and Forests is the main nodal agency for generating environment consciousness and making and implementing schemes for environmental protection. The Government’s environmental policy focuses on the following areas:

• To check degradation of land and water through Wasteland Management and Restoration of river water quality programmes:
• To provide for conservation of natural resources by direct action such as declaration of reserved forests, biosphere reserves, wetlands, mangroves and protection of endangered species:
• To monitor development through Environment protection and to initiate penal measures against those who violate these laws.

(d) Give reasons :
(i) Recycling of waste to produce paper can reduce deforestation.
Answer:
Bagasse can be used in the manufacture of paper pulp. This would save trees which are normally used for making paper pulp.

(ii) Sugarcane waste can be recycled into useful products.
Answer:
We have tonnes of bagasse from surgarcane during a particular season. Bagasse can be used in the manufacture of paper pulp. This would save trees which are normally used for making paper pulp. Bagasse is also used for making packaging material of daily products. Paper industry recycles wood, cloth and used paper.

(iii) We should avoid using polythene carry bags and styrofoam cups?
Answer:
We should avoid using polythene carry bags and styrofoam cups because the melting of plastic and plastic products breaks some polymer chains into smaller units which are harmful.

Question 2.
(a) What harm is done to the environment by building big dams?
Answer:
Building a big dam disrupts the ecosystem of the river and destroys the aquatic as well as terrestrial life around it. Some of the environmentalists argue that dams intensify the effect of natural disasters like earthquakes. For example, if an earthquake takes place, them along with the cracks in the ground, there would also be a flood and large pieces of the broken dam have to be coped with.

(b) How are the people in the area affected by the construction of big dams?
Answer:
Environmental activists have been urging the Government not to construct big dams. They urge that for the construction of such big dams large areas of forest and agricultural lands get submerged in water. These developments have adverse environmental and socio-economic consequences.

(c) What can an individual do to reduce waste at home as well as in the office?
Answer:
Each individual should change his or her lifestyle in such a way as to reduce environmental pollution. It can be done by following ways:

• Use carry bags made of paper or cloth instead of polythene.
• Help more in pollution prevention than pollution control.
• Use eco-friendly products.
• Cut down the use of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) as they destroy the ozone layer. Do not use styrofoam cups that have chlorofluorocarbon (CFC) molecules in them which destroy ozone layer.
• Use the chemicals derived from peaches and plums to clean computer chips and circuit boards instead of CFCs.
• Use CFC-free refrigerators.
• Save electricity by not wasting it when not required because electricity saved is electricity generated without polluting the environment. For example, put on warm clothes rather than switching on a heater.

(d) Give a reason for the following :
(a) Plant more trees.
(b) Use organic manure instead of chemical fertilizers.
(c) Use mass transport system.
Answer:
(a) Plant more trees, as trees can absorb toxic gases and purify the air by releasing oxygen.
(b) Use organic manure instead of chemical fertilizers will save groundwater from contaminating.
(c) Vehicular pollution can be minimised by adopting car pool method. This will also save huge amounts of money spent on importing petroleum from other countries.

ICSE Geography Class 10 Question Bank

ICSE Geography Class 10 Question Bank Chapter 18 Waste Generation & Management – Methods of Safe Disposal of Waste

Questions Based on Waste Generation and Management
Methods of Safe Disposal of Waste

I. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by segregation of waste? How does it ensure safe waste disposal?
Answer:
Sorting out of the re-usable materials from heaps of waste is called segregation.

We can ensure a safe waste disposal by segregating domestic waste into different dustbins like biodegradable and non- biodegradable and then convert biodegradable ones into other useful products like compost or gobar gas. Urban residential colonies should undertake collective efforts for safe disposal of domestic waste as well as sweepings from the gardens and public parts. These sweepings can be converted into compost and used for the maintenance of these gardens and parks.

Question 2.
What is open dumping of wastes?
Answer:
In this method waste materials are dumped in open low lands far away from the city.

Question 3.
What is a sanitary landfill?
Answer:
Sanitary landfill is a way of disposing refuse on land without creating nuisances or hazards to public health or safety.

Question 4.
Give two advantages of dumping waste in sanitary landfill.
Answer:

• It is free from air pollution from burning.
• The health problems are minimised since flies, rats and other pests cannot breed in the landfill because of the covered wastes.

Question 5.
What is composting?
Answer:
Composting of waste is an aerobic (in the presence of air) method of decomposing solid wastes. The process involves decomposition of organic waste into humus known as compost which is a good fertiliser for plants.

II. Structured Questions

Question 1.
(a) Name two useful products which can be made from biodegradable domestic waste.
Answer:
Compost or Gobar gas and recycled paper.

(b) What service is indirectly done by the rag-pickers for the disposal of waste?
Answer:
In a country like India, the poor garbage collectors make a living from discarded solids. In this way they do a good job by removing much of the waste from the garbage dumps. Pieces of metal, glass, rubber, plastics etc., are removed to be recycled to get finished products.

(c) What steps should be taken by the municipal authorities for the safe disposal of solid waste?
Answer:

• Organising house-to-house collection of municipal solid wastes.
• Devising collection of waste from slums and squatter areas or localities including hotels, restaurants, office complexes and commercial areas.
• Bio-medical wastes and industrial wastes should not be mixed with municipal solid wastes.
• Horticultural and construction wastes should be separately collected and disposed of.
• The waste should be segregated into biodegradable and non- biodegradable.
• Waste (garbage, dry leaves) should not be burnt.
• Stray animals should not be allowed to move around waste storage facilities.

(d) How is compost made? Give three advantages of using compost.
Answer:
Composting of waste is an aerobic (in the presence of air) method of decomposing solid wastes. The process involves decomposition of organic waste into humus known as compost which is a good fertiliser for plants. The composting process produces carbon dioxide and heat which can be used for various purposes like cooking. The organic wastes from households are made to undergo decomposition in such a way that bacteria and other micro-organisms break them down and product a safe, clean and soil-like material called compost.

The major advantages of composting are :

• It enhances soil nutrients and water retention capacity of soils.
• It suppresses plant diseases.
• It rejuvenates poor soils by adding humus.
• It absorbs odours and degrading volatile organic compounds.
• It prevents pollution by preventing pollutants in storm water run-off from draining into water resources.
• It checks soil erosion and silting on embankments.
• It reduces cost by reducing the need for excess water, fertilisers and pesticides.

Question 2.
(a) Why is open dumping not considered as an environment friendly method?
Answer:
The open pits spoil the site of the area and become a breeding ground for mosquitoes, flies, insects etc., that are the carriers of harmful diseases. They give out foul .odour. The burning of waste material in the open dumps pollutes the air. Another danger of open dumping is that rainwater could carry the harmful substances to the nearby streams, ponds or lakes and if the water seeps down it could pollute the groundwater.

(b) How is the water polluted by open dumping of waste?
Answer:
Rainwater could carry the harmful substances to die nearby streams, ponds or lakes and if the water seeps down it could pollute the groundwater.

(c) How is waste disposed of in a sanitary landfill?
Answer:
The sanitary landfill system of disposing of waste is essentially a biological method. The waste undergoes the following five phases.

• During the first phase of operation, aerobic bacteria deplete the available oxygen and as a result the temperature increases.
• In the second phase, anaerobic conditions become established and hydrogen and carbon dioxie are evolved.
• Phase three establishes population of bacteria and the beginning of methanogenic activity, i.e., production of methane from the decomposition of organic matter.
• In the fourth phase the methanogenic activity becomes stabilished.
• The fifth phase depletes the organic matter, and the system returns to aerobic state.

(d) What are the advantages of sanitary landfill as compared to open dumping?
Answer:
The advantages of sanitary landfill as opposed to open dumping are:

• It is free from air pollution from burning.
  The health problems are minimised since flies, rats and other pests cannot breed in the landfill because of the covered wastes.
• It is mostly free from fire hazards.

ICSE Geography Class 10 Question Bank

ICSE Geography Class 10 Question Bank Chapter 9 Mineral and Energy Resources 2

Questions Based on Conventional Sources of Energy

I. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What are conventional sources of energy?
Answer:
Conventional sources of energy are those which have been used by man for a long time and are still being tapped and used abundantly. These include coal, petroleum, natural gas and hydel power.

Question 2.
Name the quality of Gondwana Coal reserves.
Answer:
Gondwana Coal is almost free from moisture and contains sulphur and phosphorus in small variable quantities.

Question 3.
Name the Coalfield in West Bengal.
Answer:
Raniganj is the Coalfield in West Bengal.

Question 4.
Name two main coal bearing areas of India.
Answer:
West Bengal – Raniganj, Jharkhand – Jharia

Question 5.
Name two States that have huge deposits of the Gondwana coal.
Answer:
West Bengal, Jharkhand.

Question 6.
Name two industries that use high quantity of coal.
Answer:

1. It is used in metal industries in blast furnace especially in smelting iron.
2. In thermal power station to produce electricity.

Question 7.
Name one important area that has large coal deposits in the States of Jharkhand and West Bengal.
Answer:
Jharia in Jharkhand and Raniganj in West Bengal.

Question 8.
Which variety of coal is popular for domestic use? Give a reason for your answer.
Answer:
Anthracite : It is the best quality of coal and contains over 80% carbon. It is very hard, compact jet black coal having a semi-metallic lustre. It has the highest heating value and burns without smoke or soot, which makes it suitable for domestic use in India.

Question 9.
Name one important oilfield in India.
Answer:
Mumbai High, Digboi, Ankaleshwar and Navagaon are the important oilfields in India.

Question 10.
Name the two main belts of India where oil is found.
Answer:
The entire oil production of India so fat comes from the Assam-Arakan belt, the Gujarat Cambay belt and the Mumbai High off shore zone.

Question 11.
Where is the oldest oil-field located in India.
Answer:
Digboi in Assam is the oldest oil-field in India.

Question 12.
Why is petroleum called ‘liquid gold’?
Answer:
There is not even a tiniest part of crude petroleum which goes waste or remains unused. That is why petroleum is called ‘liquid gold’.

Question 13.
Which state is the largest producer of mineral oil?
Answer:
Assam state.

Question 14.
Name two coastal and two inland oil-refineries in India.
Answer:

1. Two coastal oil refineries:- Kochi (BPCH), Chennai (IOC).
2. Two inland oil refineries:- Diglaoi (IOL), Trombay (BPCL).

Question 15.
What is Natural Gas? Name two variants of natural gas.
Answer:
Natural gas occurs in association with mineral oil. Therefore, an oilfield yields natural gas almost invariably. It is mainly composed of methane (95%) with small amounts of propane and ethane. It is a fossil fuel.

• Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG):
  The gas supplied for household use is called LPG (Liquefied Petroleum Gas) and is a by-product obtained after refining crude oil.
• Compressed Natural Gas (CNG):
  It is being used as an alternative to petrol and diesel for transport of vehicles. Delhi has totally switched over to CNG where buses and autorickshaws run on this fuel.

Question 16.
Mention any two advantages of hydel power.
Answer:

1. Hydel power is a clean, non-polluting source of energy. The water used does not contaminate air or water by producing harmful wastes or poisnous bi-products.
2. It does not produce any Greenhouse Gases and prevents us
3. It is a renewable sources of energy which can be used again
4. The dams built to produce hydroelectricity help to save and restore water.

Question 17.
Where is the Bhakra Nangal Dam located?
Answer:
The Bhakra Nangal Project is a joint venture of Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan Governments.

Question 18.
Where is Hirakud Dam located. Give any three of its uses.
Answer:
Hirakud Dam is built across the Mahanadi River, about 15 km from Sambalpur in Odisha.
The lam regulates the flow of the Mahan di River and produces hydroelectricity through several hydroelectric plants.
The dam helps control floods in the Mahanacli delta and irrigates 75,000 square kilometres of land.

II. Give geographical reasons for each of the following:

Questions
(a) Anthracite is used for domestic purposes
(b) Oil refineries are located close to oil fields or near ports.
(c) The location of coal fields is an important factor in industrial development
Answer:
Geographical reason:
(a) Anthracite is used for domestic purposes because it bums slowly, without smoke or soot, less ash and less residues.
(b) Oil refineries are located close to oil fields or near ports because it saves on transportation costs when oil is imported.
(c) The location of coal fields is an important factor in industrial development because coal is a bulky commodity with a low specific value and therefore transportation over long distances involves high costs.

III. Structured questions:

Question 1.
(a) Why does India have to import oil?
Answer:
India is deficient in Petroleum, so India have to import oil.

(b) Name one refinery which belongs to the private sector and one in the public sector.
Answer:
Jamnagar refinery belongs to the private sector.
Guwahati refinery (Assam) belongs to the public sector.

(c) Name the two coastal oil-refineries, one on the west coast of India and the other on east coast of India? Name one inland oil refinery. List the sources of crude oil for these refineries.
Answer:
The two coastal oil-refineries are as follows:

• Koyali Refinery (IOC).
  It refines and processes crude from Ankleshwar oilfields and others in Northern Gujarat.
• Digboi refinery (IOC).
  It is India’s oldest refinery in eastern region. It gets crude oil from Moran and Naharkatiya field.
  Inland refinery: Mumbai High is the inland oil field refinery.

(d) Where are the deposits of Petroleum normally located? Why is called ‘liquid gold’?
Answer:
The entire oil production of India so far comes from the Assam- Arakan belt, the Gujarat-Cambay belt and the Bombay High offshore zone. The first belt runs from extreme north-east of Assam to the eastern border of the Brahmaputra and Surma valley. The second belt extends from Mahesana (Gujarat) in the north to the continental shelf off the coast of Ratnagiri (Maharashtra) in the south.

There is not even a tiniest part of crude petroleum which goes waste or remains unused. That is why petroleum is called ‘liquid gold’.
Or
Petroleum is referred to as liquid gold because of its scarcity and diversified uses.

Question 2.
(a) Why is coal often used near the source of its mining whereas mineral oil is transported to great distances?
Answer:
Coal is often used near the source of production because most of the industries are situated near the coal fields whereas oil refineries are situated very much far away from oil fields that’s why minerals oil is transported to great distances.

(b) What is Mumbai High? What is Sagar Samrat?
Answer:
‘Mumbai High’ is the large oil deposit 176 km away from Mumbai in Arabean sea.
‘Sagar Samrat’ is a self-profelled jack-up type drilling platform, extracting oil from the depth over 1400 metres.

(c) Name the region in which India’s main coal fields are located ? What is the quality of coal found here? What are its uses?
Answer:
The oldest coalfield in India is in Raniganj in West Bengal and the largest coalfield is in Jharia in Jharkhand.

Quality of coal found in India are:
In India, coal occurs in rock sequences mainly of two geological ages, namely, Gondwana, little over 200 million years in age and in Tertiary deposits which were found at a much later geological epoch, i. e., about 55 million years ago.

India does not have extensive deposits of the highest grade (90% carbon) anthracite coal. The coal of the Gondwana fields, that is, mainly of bituminous quality (50% to 80% of carbon) is mostly available in India.

Ueses :
Coal is used in bulk in India in the following three ways:

• In the generation of thermal power.
• In iron and steel industry.
• In brass foundries.

(d) The cost of building a dam is very high but its advantages for outweigh its cost. Justify.
Answer:

• Hydel power is a clean, non-polluting source of energy. The water used does not contaminate air or water by producing harmful wastes or poisnous bi-products.
• It does not produce any Greenhouse Gases and prevents us from the harmful effects of Global Warming.
• It is a renewable sources of energy which can be used again and again.
• The dams built to produce hydroelectricity help to save and restore water.
• It is çpnoinica1 and sustainable as it saves on fossil fuels and is cheaper an electricity pro4uced from fossil fuels and nuclear power.

Questions Based on Non-Conventional Sources of Energy

I. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are non-conventional sources of energy?
Answer:
Non-Conventional sources of energy are those which have been developed in the recent past as an alternative to conventional sources of energy. These include solar energy, wind energy, tidal energy, geothermal energy, nuclear energy and biogas. They are renewable and therefore, inexhaustible, non- poluting, less expensive and easy to maintain.

Question 2.
State two differences between conventional and non- conventional sources of energy.
Answer:

Question 3.
How is India in an advantageous position to harness solar energy?
Answer:
The advantageous position to harness solar energy in India due to following:
(i) Location of India:
India is fortunate enough to receive higher amount of solar energy, equivalent to 5,000 trillion kWh per year. This is because of India’s location on the Tropic of Cancer. Most parts of the country have 300 clear sunny days in a year and per hour per square km availability of solar energy is between 5 to 7 kW.

(ii) Thar desert :
India has desert which can become solar powerhouse of India.

(iii) Different uses :
Solar energy can be used for cooking, pumping water, refrigerator, and street lighting. So its demand will increase in future.

(iv) Developing country:
India is a developing country so there is every possibility of increase in consumption of power.

Question 4.
Name any three devices used to harness solar energy.
Answer:
The devices used to harness solar energy are:
(i) Solar cells/photovoltaic cells:
It converts sunlight directly into electricity.
Uses:
Calculators, electronic watches, street lighting, traffic signals, water pumps etc.

(ii) Solar cooker :
Solar cooker use solar heat by reflecting the solar radiations using a mirror on to a glass sheet which covers the black insulated box, with black paint inside for efficient absorption of light.
Use:
For making food.

(iii) Solar water heater:
Sunlight is allowed to fall on the flat-plate collectors, which are shallow rectangular trays filled with water and it consist of an insulated box painted black from inside and having a glass lid to collect and store solar heat.
Use:
Water heating.

Question 5.
Name the device used to harness wind energy.
Answer:
Windmill or wind turbine is used to harness wind energy. A number of windmills are installed in a definite pattern in clusters called wind farms. They generate amount of electricity.

Question 6.
Give two advantages of using wind energy.
Answer:
The advantages of using wind energy are following:

• Wind energy is a renewable source of energy which can be produced again and again.
• It is the cleanest form of renewable energy which produces no pollution.
• It reduces our dependence on fossil fuels.

Question 7.
State two advantages of using tidal energy.
Answer:
The advantages of using tidal energy are following:

• There are no carbon emissions from tidal energy plant, making it an energy source that does not negatively affect the global environment.
• Tidal energy can be produced even if the water moves at low speed.
• Tides are controlled by the gravitational pull between the earth, sun and moon. This means that as the earth is being orbited by the moon, the tides will continue to be there producing energy and tidal energy is an inexhaustible source of energy.

Question 8.
What is geothermal energy? How is geothermal energy used to produce electricity?
Answer:
Geothermal energy: Geothermal energy is the heat contained in the rock and fluid that fills the fractures and pores within the rock in the earth’s crust. It is clean and sustainable.

Generation of Geothermal Energy :
Resources of Geothermal Energy range from the shallow ground to steam; hot water and hot rock accessed by drilling wells up to thousands of feet beneath the earth’s surface. The extremely high temperatures in the deeper geothermal reservoirs are used for the generation of electricity. The high pressure steam spins a turbine that rotates a generator and produces electricity.

Hot water is pumped from deep underground through a well under high pressure. When the water reaches the surface, the pressure is dropped, which causes the water to turn into steam. The steam spins a turbine, which is connected to a generator that produces electricity. The steam cools off in a cooling tower and condenses back to water. The cooled water is pumped back into the Earth to begin the process again.

Question 9.
What is nuclear power?
Answer:
Nuclear power: Nuclear power is obtained from energy stored in the nuclei of atoms of naturally occuring radioactive elements like Uranium, Thorium and Plutonium.

Question 10.
What is biogas?
Answer:
Biogas: It is an energy gas which is produced from the organic waste such as farm waste, shrubs, animal and human waste.

• It is a non-conventional source of energy.
• It has higher thermal efficiency in comparison to kerosene, cowding, coal and charcoal.

II. Structured Questions

Question 1.
(a) Why are non-conventional sources of energy preferred to conventional sources of energy?
Answer:
The non-conventional sources of energy preferred to conventional sources of energy due to following reasons:
(i) Environmental Friendly:
The conventional energy resources other than hydropower, are non-eco-friendly resources they release huge carbon emission while non-conventional resources do not cause any pollution.

(ii) Cost and Maintainence:
The maintainence of the conventional sources of energy is very expensive and they are transporated in tankers and pipelines, petroleum spills at sea can have an adverse effect on marine life on other hand non-conventional sources are cheap and easy to maintain it.

(iii) Abundance of Renewable Energy resource :
India is a tropical country so it has enormous possibilities of trapping solar and wind energy. While conventional sources of energy are non-renewable except hydropower.

(b) State briefly how the sun’s energy can be used to generate power.
Answer:
Solar photovoltaic systems and solar collectors are being used for powering.

Solar cells:
They are known as photovoltaic cells. Solar cells are made of thin wafers of semi conductor materials from silicon and gallium. When the sun’s radiations strike on them, the sun’s energy is converted into electricity.
A group of solar cells join together in a solar panel can give out a large amount of solar energy and can produce electricity. Solar cells are widely used in rural, forest, hilly and desert areas for lighting, power of railway signalling rural telecommunication system etc.

(c) How is wind energy generated to produce electricity?
Answer:
The wind energy is obtained by making use of windmills. The blades of the windmill rotate due to the force of the wind. Wind mills or wind turbines constructed to capture the wind’s kinetic energy in a rotor consisting of two or more blades mechanically coupled to an electrical generator that converts kinetic energy to mechanical or electrical energy using suitable devices.

(d) What are the benefits of installing wind turbines?
Answer:
The turbines are mounted on tall tower to enhance the energy
capture. Numbers of wind turbines are installed at one site to build a wind farm of the desired power generation capacity.

Question 2.
(a) What are the advantages of using geothermal energy?
Answer:
Advantages of using geothermal energy are following:

• It is easily accessible because of its extensive distribution.
• It is environment friendly in nature; has low emission of sulphur, Carbondioxide.
• It is independent of external supply and demand effects and fluctuations in exchange rates.
• It is independent of weather and season.

(b) Name two places in India where geothermal plants are located?
Answer:
Two projects have been set up in India to harness geothermal energy.

• One of them is located in Paravati Valley near Manikaran in Himachal Pradesh.
• The other project is located in the Puga Valley of Ladakh region in Jammu and Kashmir.

(c) How is biogas produced? What are the chemical components of biogas?
Answer:
Generation of Biogas:
A digester tank is placed underground. The digester tank receives the dung-water mixture through inlet pipe while the other side discharges the spent slurry through outlet pipe. In the digester tank, there is a gas outlet which is controlled by a pipe. Waste Recycling and Resources Recovery Programmes (WRRSE) are now being used from the organic plant waste and night soil. This helps in improving the sanitary conditions in our cities and villages.
The plant generate enriched organic manure useful for supplementing chemical fertilisers.

Chemical components of biogas:
The chemical components of Biogas is composed of methane, Carbondioxide, hydrogen and hydrogen sulphide. It is produced by anaerobic degradation of animal and plant wastes in the presence of bacteria.

(d) What are the advantages of using biogas?
Answer:
The advantages of using Biogas are following:

• Biogas is a clean, non-polluting and cheap.
• There is direct supply of gas from the plant. Therefore, there is no storage problem.
• The sludge left behind is a rich fertiliser containing bacterial biomass.

ICSE Geography Class 10 Question Bank

ICSE Geography Class 10 Question Bank Chapter 8 Mineral and Energy Resources 1

 Questions Based on Minerals Resources

Question 1.
What is a mineral? State two characteristic of minerals.
Answer:
Minerals are natural substances of organic or inorganic origin
with definite chemical and physical properties.
Characteristics of minerals;

• Minerals are not evenly distributed over space.
• Minerals have inverse relationship in quality and quantity, i. e. good quality minerals are less in quantity than low quality minerals.
• Minerals are exhaustible over time. They take long time to develop geologically and cannot be replenished immediately when needed.

Question 2.
Name two uses of iron ore.
Answer:
(i) About 90 percent of iron-ore is used to make steel. Raw iron by itself is not as strong and hard as needed for construction and other purposes. So it is alloyed with other elements to strengthen and harden it, making it useful for construction, automobiles and other forms of transportation such as trucks, trains and train-tracks.

(ii) Powered iron is used in manufacturing metallurgy products, magnets, high frequency cores, auto-parts and catalysts.

(iii) Radioactive iron (iron is 59 per cent) is used in medicine as tracer element and in biochemical and metallurgical research.

Question 3.
Name two varieties of Iron ore used in industry.
Answer:
Two varieties of iron ore used in industry are Hematite and Magnetite.

Question 4.
What grade of Iron-ore is mostly mined in India?
Answer:
Haematite: States – Orissa, Jharkhand, M.P.

Question 5.
Name two leading States producing manganese. Name two industrial uses of manganese.
Answer:
Andhra Pradesh, Goa, Jharkhand.
Industrial uses –

• Manganese is used in dry cell batteries,
• It is used to make steel tough and resistant to rusting.

Question 6.
Name one important non-ferrous metal which is being used since ancient time.
Answer:
Copper is an important non-ferrous metal and the earliest metal used by man.

Question 7.
Mention any two uses of copper.
Answer:

• It is a good conductor of electricity, highly ductile and malleable and is therefore, used for making electric wires and other equipment
• It is used in automobile and defence industries.
• It is alloyed with iron and nickel to make stainless steel, which is used to make utensils and other objects.

Question 8.
Name the states where copper is found in India.
Answer:
Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh.

Question 9.
Name the ore of aluminium. Describe two main uses of aluminium.
Answer:
Bauxite is the ore of aluminium.
Uses of aluminium:

1. It is used for making pots, pans and parts of automobiles.
2. It is used to make electrical wires.

Question 10.
Where is the largest aluminium plant in India located?
Answer:
The largest aluminium plant in India is at Renukoot in Uttar Pradesh.

Question 11.
Bauxite is an oxide of which metal?
Answer:
Bauxite is an oxide of aluminium.

Question 12.
Where are the deposits of bauxite found in India?
Answer:
Jharkhand and Madhya Pradesh are two States where bauxite is found on a large scale.

Question 13.
What are the advantages of the anthracite coal?
Answer:
Anthracite coal contain 90 percent carbon and bums slowly without smoke and leaves very little ash behind. It has a high heating value.

Question 14.
Name any two industrial products for which limestone is used as a source of raw material.
Answer:

1. Limestone is used as a flux in iron ore smelting.
2. It is also used for manufacturing cement, chemicals, paper, glass etc.

II. Name the following:

Question 1.
One place in each of the following States which has large Iron ore deposits:
(a) Odisha
(b) Goa
(c) Jharkhand
(d) Karnataka
(e) Chhattisgarh
(f) Andhra Pradesh
(g) Madhya Pradesh
Answer:
One important district which has large Iron ore deposits in the given States are as follows:

Question 2.
Name the mineral:
(a) Which is converted to aluminium.
(b) The largest deposits of which are found in Balaghat in Madhya Pradesh.
(c) Which is used in the manufacture of cement.
Answer:
(a) Bauxite is converted to aluminium.
(b) Manganese is the mineral whose largest deposits of which are found in Balaghat in Madhya Pradesh.
(c) Limestone is used in the manufacture of cement.

III. Structured Questions

Question 2.
(a) Write a brief note on the distribution of iron ore in India.
Answer:
India ranks ninth among the iron-producing countries. It has about 6.6% iron ore reserves of the world. Iron ore in Indian subcontinent is distributed as given below:
(i) India:
Many Indian States have rich deposits of iron ore.
(1) Orissa:
Orissa produces about one-third of the total iron ore production in India. These ores are found in the districts of Mayurbhanj, Keonjhar, Sundargarh, Cuttack, and Koraput etc. The ores found in this region are good quality haematite.

(2) Jharkhand:
Jharkhand is the second-largest iron producer in India. The main iron ore producing districts are Singhbhum and Palamau.

(3) Karnataka:
Karnataka is the fifth major iron ore producer in India. It has huge reserves of haematite and Magnetite. The main deposits of iron ore found in Karnataka are at Kemmangundi and Baba Budam Hills in Chikmagalur district, Hospet and Sandur in Bellary district and also Kudremukh.

(4) Chhattisgarh:
In Chhattisgarh, iron ore is mainly found in Bastar and Durg districts. Bailadila in Bastar district produces good quality of haemetite ore.

(5) Maharashtra:
The main deposits ofiron ore are found in the region of Lohara Hills in Chanda district. Other low grade deposits are found in the districts of Raigarh, Ratnagiri, Satara and Bhandara.

(6) Andhra Pradesh:
Mainly magnetite ore is found in Andhra Pradesh in the districts of Cuddapah and Chabali.

(7) Tamil Nadu:
In Tamil Nadu, Iron ore is found in Tiruchirapalli and Salem districts.

(8) Goa:
The Iron ore deposits are found at Kudriem, Bicholim, Ponda, Sanguem, Satari, Sahqualim Pali and Sirigao. Betawisgivenabrief account of the deposits and the concerning locations of Iron ore in the neighbouring countries of India, from which a clear picture can be easily depicted of reserves of Iron ore throughout the subcontinent.

(b) Name the two belts where manganese is found in India.
Answer:
Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh.

(c) Mention the three varieties of Iron ore found in India? Briefly explain the features of the Iron ore deposits in India.
Answer:
Three varieties of Iron ore found in India are :

• Haematite :
  It is reddish in colour and is also known as ‘Red Ore’. It contains 60 to 70 per cent pure Iron and is found in Odisha, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Karnataka and Maharashtra.
• Magnetite :
  It is dark brown to blackish in colour and is, therefore, known as ‘Black Ore’. It is the best quality of Iron and contains more than 70 per cent of Iron. Since it possesses magnetic property, it is called magnetite. It is found in Tamil Nadu and Karnataka.
• Limonite :
  It is yellow or light brown in colour and contains 35 to 50 per cent of Iron. It occurs in the Iron stone group in the Raniganj coalfield. It is also found in Garhwal (Uttarakhand) and Mirzapur district (UP) and the Kangra Valley (Himachal Pradesh).

Features of the Iron ore deposits in India :
The Iron ore deposits in India are found in close proximity to the areas producing coal, dolomite, limestone and manganese. Therefore they are well-utilised in several Iron and steel plants. In Jharkhand and Odisha, die Iron ore deposits are found in the close vicinity of coal fields and have a low sulphur content. Another significant feature of these deposits is that they occur as hill masses and are easily accessible.

(d) Which state is the leading producer of manganese? What are the uses of manganese?
Answer:
Maharashtra is the leading producer of manganese.
Manganese is a ferro-alloy used in making steel.

ICSE Geography Class 10 Question Bank

Goyal Brothers Prakashan Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 5 Factors Leading to the Formation of The Muslim League

Question 1.
Why did the British follow the policy of ‘Divide and Rule’ in India?
Answer:
The British followed the policy of divide and rule because they wanted to keep themselves in power by causing disagreements within various sections who might otherwise unite against the rulers.

Question 2.
What led to an arousal of Hindi-Urdu Controversy in 1900?
Answer:
The petitions in UP could be submitted to the offices and courts in Urdu alone. But, by the Government instructions on 8th April, 1900 offices and courts should entertain petitions written in Hindi, too. This led to a controversy between the Hindus and the Muslims, which embittered relations between the two communities.

Question 3.
Who led the Muslim Deputation that waited upon the Viceroy on Oct. 1, 1906?
Answer:
Aga Khan, head of the Ismaili sect of the Muslims, led the Muslim Deputation.

Question 4.
Mention any two demands made by the Muslim Deputation in 1906.
Answer:

1. Separate Electorates
2. Greater representation in Civil, Military and Judicial Services.

Question 5.
Name the Viceroy, who was responsible for granting separate representation to the Muslims in 1909?
Answer:
Lord Minto, the Viceroy was responsible for granting separate representation to the Muslims in 1909.

Question 6.
What is meant by Separate (Communal) Electorate?
Answer:
Separate (Communal) electorate means that the Muslims would vote for Muslim candidates and the Hindus for the Hindu candidates. Hence, communities were to serve as the basis for representations.

Question 7.
When was the Muslim League formed? Who presided over its first Session at Dhaka?
Answer:
Muslim League was founded on December 30, 1906. Its first session at Dhaka, was presided over by Nawab Salimullah Khan.

Question 8.
Who presided over the League’s Session at Amritsar in 1908?
Answer:
Syed Ali Imam, presided over the League’s session at Amritsar in 1908.

Question 9.
Mention any two objectives of the Muslim League as laid down in its Constitution?
Answer:
The objectives of the League were laid down as follows :

1. To promote among Indian Muslims feeling of loyalty towards the British Government.
2. To protect the political and other rights of the Muslims and to present before the government their aspirations in moderate language or early Nationalist Language.

Question 10.
Who founded ‘Majlis-i-Ahrar’?
Answer:
‘Majlis-i-Ahrar’ was founded by M. Rashid Ahmad.

Question 11.
Name two nationalist Muslims associated with the Ahrar Movement.
Answer:

1. Habibur Rahman
2. Abul Kalam Azad

Question 12.
Why were the Muslims treated with suspicion by the British after the Revolt of 1857?
Answer:
The British treated Muslims with suspicion because they held them guilty of the Revolt of 1857.

Question 13.
Give an example to show that the British encouraged communal and separatist trend in Indian politics.
Answer:
The Partition of Bengal in 1905 showed that British encouraged communal and separatist trend in Indian politics.

Question 14.
How did the communal bias in the History textbooks cause communalism in India?
Answer:
The History textbooks, contained material which encouraged religious intolerance. On one hand, Muslims were projected as intolerant oppressor who used their power to crush Hindus and on the other hand, incited Muslims by claiming them to be descendants of the Turks and the Mughals who had captured India from the Hindus. Such lessons in the textbook caused communal hatred.

Question 15.
Give one example to show that the Assertive nationalists gave their nationalism a religious tinge.
Answer:
Bal Gangadhar Tilak’s promotion of Shivaji and Ganpati festivals clearly reflect that the Assertive nationalists gave nationalism a religious tinge.

Question 16.
Why did Sir Syed Ahmad Khan advise the Muslims not to join the Congress?
Answer:
Sir Syed Ahmad Khan advised the Muslims not to join Congress because he feared that after independence, the Hindus would play a dominant role in political, economic and social affairs of the land.

Question 17.
Who founded the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College at Aligarh?
Answer:
Sir Syed Ahmad Khan founded the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College at Aligarh in 1875.

Question 18.
What was the object of the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental Defence Association founded in 1893?
Answer:
The main objectives of the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental Defence Association was :

• To promote loyalty towards the British.
• To prevent Muslims from participating any political Movement.

Question 19.
What was the main demand of the Muslim League in the early years of its formation?
Answer:
In the early years of the foundation of Muslim League, their main demand was greater representation of the Muslims in all services, Civil and Military.

Question 20.
In what way did the economic backwardness of the Muslim community lead to the growth of communalism in India?
Answer:
Educational backwardness led to inferior economic positions. Muslims lacked special training to get government job or jobs connected with medicine, law and education. Hence, British sowed the seeds of communalism by making them believe that supporting the government was the surest way to get jobs and honours.

Question 21.
How did the general economic backwardness of the country lead to the growth of communalism in India?
Answer:
General economic backwardness of the country led to intense competition for jobs. While, far-sighted Indians knew that only independence could liberate them from economic ailments. However, others talked of reservation of jobs for various communities or castes.

Structured Questions

Question 1.
There were many events and factors which finally led to the formation of the Muslim League in 1906. In this context describe :
(a) Rift caused by the Hindu-Urdu Controversy
(b) The Aligarh politics
(c) The Movement against the Partition of Bengal.
Answer:
(a) The seeds of Communalism had been sowed by the British through the ‘policy of Divide and Rule’. The Hindu-Urdu Controversy in 1900, added fuel to the fire. In UP, then known as United Province, all the petitions to the court had been written in Urdu. However, responding to the protest of the Hindus, the government passed an order on 8th April, 1900 that government offices and law-courts should also entertain petitions written in Hindi i.e., Devanagri Script.

This angered the Muslims, who called the protest meetings in different parts of the country. The Hindus, too held meetings to meet the challenge. However, the controversy, which continued for months worsened relations between the two communities.

(b) After the death of Sir Syed in 1898, Nawab Mohsin-ul-Mulk led the Aligarh Movement. When the Hindi-Urdu controversy raged, he was the Secretary of the M.A.O. College Trust. He had severely criticised the Government order granting equal status to Hindi and Urdu in U.P. The Lt. Governor of U.P., A. Macdonell, demanded that he should either resign from the Secretaryship of the Trust or separate himself from the agitation against the Government order.

The Nawab cooled down for the time being. But other Muslim leaders were angry and upset and put forward the suggestion of establishing a political organisation of the Muslims.

(c) The Anti-Partition Movement witnessed a united front against the government. However, the British was eager to prevent the Muslim from joining the national struggle. It soon won over Nawab Salimullah of Dhaka, and as days passed by, more and more persons from the Muslim upper class came under the influence of the British.

On the whole, government tried to secure the support of Muslims on the ground that the new province would be muslim majority region. Thus, this new factor was to have a drastic effect on relations between the two communities.

Question 2.
A Muslim Deputation with Aga Khan as their leader was received by Lord Minto on October, 1, 1906. In this context answer the following questions :
(a) What four demands did the Address presented to the Viceroy contain?
(b) What assurance did the Deputation have from the Viceroy?
(c) What impact did Viceroy’s promise have on Morley-Minto Reforms?
Answer:
(a) A Muslim deputation led by Aga Khan firstly demanded that Muslims must get due representation in the Provincial as well as Imperial Legislative Councils through separate electorates. Secondly, the representation should be based on their position in India rather than on numerical strength.

Thirdly, they demanded due representation of Muslims in Municipal and District boards along with senate and the syndicates of Indian universities. Fourthly, they demanded for greater representation in Civil, Military and Judicial services. Lastly, they asked for help in founding a Muslim University which would be a centre of religious, cultural and intellectual life.

(b) Lord Minto, the Viceroy gave an assurance that the political rights and interests of Muslims would be duly safeguarded. It seemed that Minto has engineered the deputation and created gulf between the two communities by encouraging separate electorates. Much against the wishes of Lord Morley, Secretary of state, Minto succeeded in providing for separate electorates for the Muslims in the Morley-Minto Reforms of 1909.

(c) As per the assurance given by the Viceroy, Lord Minto to the Muslim deputation, Morley-Minto Reforms of 1909 provided for separate representation of the Muslim Community in the Imperial as well as Provincial Legislature Councils. The system of ‘separate representation’ implied that the Muslims would vote for Muslim candidates, and the Hindus for the Hindu candidates.

The principal was clever more on the part of British to struck a fatal blow to the unity of India. From the day of that decision, the country knew no communal peace, separate electorates slowly but steadily led to the partition of India some forty years later.

Question 3.
The All-India Muslim League was established at a meeting held in Dhaka on December 30, 1906. In this context, describe :
(a) Aims and Objectives of the League
(b) Two direct results of the formation of the League.
Answer:
The Muslim League, a central organisation of Muslims was founded with an objective:
(a)

• To promote feeling of loyalty among the Muslims towards the British Government. Also, to dissipate the misconception hatched by the British for the Indian Muslims.
• To protect the political and other rights of the Muslims and to place their needs and aspiration before the government in mild and Early Nationalists language.
• To prevent the rise of any feeling of hostility between Muslims and other communities, without affecting the aforesaid objectives of the league.

(b) The leaders of the League advised Muslims to shun the national movement. The Muslim League was an outright loyalist, who asserted that the Muslim-interests were different from those of the Hindus. In this way, the policies of the Muslim League weakened the Nationalist sentiments and opposed such national movement as the Swadeshi and Boycott.

Secondly, the British were successful in sowing seeds of conflict between the two communities. They welcomed the formation of League in the hope that it would provide an effective answer to the Congress.

Question 4.
With reference to the picture given below answer the following questions :

(a) Identify the person.
Answer:
Sir Syed Ahmad Khan.

(b) Name the College which became the centre of a movement called the Aligarh Movement.
Answer:
MohammedanAnglo-Oriental College.

(c) He urged Muslim not to join the congress and to be loyal to the British. Why did he take this course of action?
Answer:
Sir Syed feared that when British withdrew, the Hindus would play a dominant role in political, economic and social affairs of the land.

(d) What was the object of the Anglo-Oriental Defence Association?
Answer:
The main objectives of the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental Defence Association was :

• To promote loyalty towards the British.
• To prevent Muslims from participating in any political Movement.

Question 5.
With reference to the picture given below answer the questions that follow :

(a) Identify the person.
(b) Which sect of the Muslims was headed by him?
(c) What role did he have in the Deputation that waited upon the Viceroy Lord Minto in 1906?
(d) What assurance did the Viceroy give to the Delegation?
(e) What role did the Muslim League play in its early years?
Answer:
(a) AgaKhan.

(b) Aga Khan Head of the Ismaili Sect of the Muslims.

(c) A Muslim Deputation, consisting of prominent persons from many Provinces, waited upon the Viceroy on 1st October, 1906. It was led by Aga Khan. He was head of the Ismaili sect of the Muslims. The Muslim leaders made the following demands.
Separate Electorates :
The Muslims should be given the right of sending their representatives to the Provincial Councils and Imperial Legislative Council through separate communal electorates.

(ii) Weightage in Representation :
The representation to the Muslim Community should be determined not by their numerical strength. It should be in accordance with the position they occupied in India about a hundred years ago.

(iii) Separate Representation in the Municipal and University Bodies :
There should be some scheme for giving adequate representation to the Muslims in Municipal and District Boards and the Senates and Syndicates of Indian Universities.

(iv) Greater Representation in Civil, Military and Judicial Services :
There should be greater representation of the Muslims in all services – civil and military. Further, there should be Muslim judges in every High Court.

(v) The Founding of a Muslim University: The Deputation asked for help in founding a Muslim University. The Address concluded with the words that ‘the bond of loyalty” united the Muslims and the British in India.

(d) Lord Minto gave an assurance that the political rights and interests of Muslims would be duly safeguarded. Such an assurance gave rise to the suspicion, said Kulke and Rothermund, that “the deputation of 1906 was somehow invited, rather than simply received by the Viceroy.”

(e) Role of the League were as follows :
(i) To promote among Indian Muslims feelings of loyalty towards the British Government. The League would also remove misconception that may arise as to the intentions of Government in relation to Indian Muslims.

(ii) To protect the political and other rights of the Muslims and to place their needs and aspirations before the Government in mild and moderate language.

(iii) To prevent the rise of any feeling of hostility between Muslims and other communities, without adversely affecting the aforesaid objectives of the League.

Extra Practice Questions

Question 1.
Why did the British change their policy towards Muslims later?
Answer:
The Congress, which started as an All India Organisation to create a broad-based freedom struggle, now turned into major force in the struggle for Independence. Thus, the British tried to appease Muslims in order to counter Congress. They began to follow the policy of Divide and Rule to sustain their rule in India.

Question 2.
How did the misinterpretation of the Indian history by the British historians cause communalism?
Answer:
The British historians divided the Indian history into Hindu and Muslims periods. In the Hindu period Muslims were dubbed as foreign invaders who settled in India as conquerors. In the Muslim period, they identified the Muslims as rulers and the Hindus as a subjugated people.

The fact the Muslims enjoyed complete religious freedom in the Non-Muslim state of the Rajputs, Marathas and Sikhs was not emphasized. Thus, the historians misinterpreted facts to sow the seeds of communalism.

Question 3.
What was the object of the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College founded in 1857?
Answer:
The Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College aimed at:

• To popularise scientific and Western Learning among the Muslims.
• To promote loyalty towards the British and win their favours.

Question 4.
What w as the theme of Aligarh Movement in 1875?
Answer:
The theme of the Aligarh Movement was “loyalty, approval and support of Government”.

Question 5.
When and by whom was United Indian Patriotic Association founded?
Answer:
United Indian Patriotic Association was founded in 1888 by Sir Syed Ahmad Khan with the help of Raja Sher Prasad of Benaras.

Question 6.
Who was Mr. Beck? Name any one mischief done by him.
Answer:
Mr. Beck was the principal of M.A.O. College, at Aligarh, who tried to bring about change in the liberal views of Sir Syed Ahmad Khan.

Question 7.
Where and when was the constitution of league formed?
Answer:
The league’s constitution was formed in 1907 at Karachi.

Question 8.
When did the 1st session of league held after the formal adoption of the constitution and who presided over it?
Answer:
The 1st session, after the formal adoption of the constitution was held in December 1908 at Amritsar under the Chairmanship of Syed Ali Inam.

Question 9.
Which Committee under Lord Minto, made recommendations on increase in the size of the Legislative Council?
Answer:
The Arundale Committee made recommendations on increase in the size of the Legislative Council.

Question 10.
Who was the new principal of M.A.O. College?
Answer:
Mr. Archbold was the new Principal of M.A.O. College.

Question 11.
When and by whom was the partition of Bengal annulled?
Answer:
The partition of Bengal was anulled in 1911 by lord Hardinge.

Question 12.
When was the Lucknow pact Signed?
Answer:
The Lucknow pact also known as Congress League Accord was signed in 1916.

Question 13.
Discuss the provision of the Government of India Act of 1909. Why was it criticised?
Answer:
The Indian Councils Act of 1909, popularly known as the Morley- Minto reforms had the following provisions :

• The number of members of the Central Legislative Council was increased from 16 to 60, but the number of official members (32) still remained more than the number of the non-official members (28).
• The strength of the members of the Provincial Councils was also increased.
• The members of the Legislative Councils were to be elected by the indirect system of election.
• The elections were to held on the basis of communal representation.
• Only the rich people could vote because the qualification for voting was very strict.
• The powers and functions of the Legislative councils were increased.
• An Indian member was added to the Viceroy’s Executive Council,
• The strength of the members of the Executive Councils of Bombay, Bengal and Madras was raised to 4.

It was criticised on the grounds that :

• it failed to provide a responsible government, it sowed the seeds of Communalism through the system of separate electorates.
• there was no direct link between the voters and the people because the elections were held indirectly.
• qualification for voting had been very strict.

ICSE History and Civics Class 10 Goyal Brothers Prakashan Solutions

Goyal Brothers Prakashan Class 10 Civics Solutions Chapter 2 The Union Executive: The President and the Vice-President

Question 1.
Who is the Chief Executive (Head of State) in India?
Answer:
The President is the Chief Executive (Head of State) in India.

Question 2.
Mention the qualifications which a person eligible for election as President must possess.
Answer:
To seek election to the high office of the President of India, a candiate must prossess the following qualifications :

• He must be a citizen of India.
• He must have completed 35 years of age.
• He must be qualified to become a member of the Lok Sabha.
• He should not hold any office of profit under the Central or State government.
• He should not be a pronounced offender under the law of the Land.

Question 3.
Mention any two offices of profit, the holders of which may contest Presidential Election.
Answer:
A person holding the office of Speaker of Lok Sabha or of State Assembly may contest Presidential election.

Question 4.
What is the term of Office of the President of India ?
Answer:
The President holds office for a term of 5 years and is eligible for re-election.

Question 5.
How long can the President continue to hold office even after the expiry of the term?
Answer:
The President shall continue to hold office even after the expiry of the term, until a new President gets elected and enters upon his office.

Question 6.
On what grounds may the President of India be removed from office?
Answer:
The President may be impeached on the grounds of:

• Violation of the Constitution,
• Proved misbehaviour.

Question 7.
Mention any two circumstances which cause vacancy in the office of the President.
Answer:

• The expiration of the term.
• By the reason of death.

Question 8.
Who constitute the Electoral College for the election of the President? Or Who elect the President of India?
Answer:
The President is elected by the Members of an Electoral College consisting of

• the elected members of both the Houses of Parliament.
• the elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies including those of Delhi and Union Territory of Pondicherry.

Question 9.
By how many electors should the nomination paper of a Presidential candidate be proposed and seconded ?
Answer:
The Presidents Candidate have to be proposed by 50 members of the Electoral College and Seconded by another 50 members.

Question 10.
What is meant by Single Transferable Vote System ?
Answer:
Under this system, all the candidates are listed and the elector gives them numbers according to his preference.

Question 11.
Who administers the Oath of Office to the President ?
Answer:
The Chief Justice of India administers the Oath of Office to the President.

Question 12.
What does the President undertake to do in his/her Oath of Office?
Answer:
The President in his/her Oath of Office, undertakes

• to discharge the functions of the President of India.
• to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and Law.
• to devote himself to the service and well-being of the people of India.

Question 13.
Who settles disputes in connection with the election of the President and Vice-President ?
Answer:
All the election disputes concerning the election of the President and Vice-President are settled by the Supreme Court, whose decision shall be final.

Question 14.
Mention any two executive powers of the President of India.
Answer:

1. The President being the head of the Union Administration, all the executive orders are issued in the name of the President.
2. The President appoints a large number of functionaries and top officials such as Governors of States, Judges of the Supreme Court and the State High Courts, Members of UPSC and State Public Service Commissions and a host of other officers.
3. He also appoints the Prime-Minister of India and other Ministers on the advice of the Prime-Minister.

Question 15.
Who is empowered by the Constitution to summon the Houses of Parliament and to dissolve the Lok Sabha ?
Answer:
The President has been empowered by the Constitution to summon the Houses of Parliament and to dissolve the Lok Sabha.

Question 16.
When does the President address both the Houses of Parliament assembled together ?
Answer:
The President addresses both Houses of Parliament assembled together at the first session after each general elections and at the commencement of the first session each year.

Question 17.
Mention any two legislative powers of the President.
Answer:

1. He can summon or prorogue either House of Parliament.
2. He nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha and 2 members to the Lok Sabha to represent the Anglo Indian community in India, if none of its members gets a seat in the Lok Sabha.
3. He is an integeral part of Parliament. Therefore, no Bill can become a law, unless the President gives his assent.

Question 18.
What is meant by the term ‘Ordinance’ ?
Answer:
An ‘Ordinance’ implies a direction, or command of an authoritative nature, which has the same face and effect as an Act of Parliament.

Question 19.
When can Ordinances be issued by the President ?
Answer:
The Ordinance can be issued by the President when both the Houses of Parliament are not in session, and the President is satisfied that circumstances exist which demand, immediate action.

Question 20.
Mention the Parliamentary control over the Ordinance¬making power of the President
Or
Why are the Ordinances considered temporary measures ?
Answer:
The Ordinances, have to be laid before the Houses of Parliament when they reassemble. If Parliament disapproves the ordinance it lapses. If it is not disapproved, it will automatically cease to operate at the expiration of 6 weeks from the reassembly of Parliament.

Question 21.
What options are open to the President when an Ordinary Bill is sent for his/her assent ?
Answer:
The President has three options. Firstly, he may give his assent to the Bill. Secondly, he may refuse his assent. Thirdly, he may send it back for reconsideration. In case the Bill is passed again, with or without amendment, the President has to give his assent thereof.

Question 22.
Mention any two financial powers of the President.
Answer:

1. A Money Bill cannot be introduced except on the prior recommendation of the President.
2. The President appoints the Finance Commission after every five years. The Commission makes recommendations on special financial matters, especially the distribution of the proceeds of central taxes between the union and the state.

Question 23.
Mention any two judicial powers of the President.
Answer:

1. He has the power to grant pardon, remit or suspend a sentence of punishment.
2. He is not answerable before any Court of law for the discharge of his duties.

Question 24.
Mention any two discretionary powers of the President.
Answer:

1. The President may withhold assent to a Bill or may send it back for reconsideration, if it is not a Money Bill.
2. The Constitution does not prescribe any time-limit within which the President is to declare his/her assent or refusal or return the Bill for reconsideration. The President is at liberty to decide what is right or proper.
3. When no political party or no leader seems to enjoy majority support in the Lok Sabha, the President shall have freedom to decide who should be appointed as Prime Minister.

Question 25.
Mention three types of Emergencies which the Constitution makes provision for.
Answer:

1. National Emergency
2. Constitutional Emergency
3. Financial Emergency

Question 26.
Under what circumstances, can there be imposition of President’s Rule on a State ?
Answer:
If the President is satisfied either on the recommendations of the Governor or otherwise, that the Constitutional machinery in the State has failed, he may declare an emergency in the State. The President may assume to himself all or any of the functions of the Government of the State. Thus, President-rule may be imposed in the State.

Question 27.
How is the Proclamation of General Emergency subjected to Parliamentary control ?
Answer:
The Proclamation of General Emergency cannot be made unless the decision of the union Cabinet has been communicated to the President in writing.

Question 28.
Under what circumstances can the President proclaim National or General Emergency ?
Answer:
A Proclamation of Emergency may be made if the President is satisfied that a grave emergency exists whereby the security of India or any part of India is threatened by war, external aggression or Armed Rebellion.
P.Q. Mention any two important effects of the National Emergency on each of the following :
(a) Autonomy of States, and
(b) Fundamental Rights.
Answer:
(a) The National Emergency may curtail the legislative powers of the State legislature by

• The Union Parliament can now legislate on subjects included in the State List.
• The distribution of revenues between the centre and the State may be altered.

(b) The effect on the Fundamental Rights. are as follows :

• The most important effect is that the exercise of the Fundamental Rights is partially or wholly suspended.
• Right to move the Supreme Court on the High Court for the enforcement of the rights (except Article 20 and 21) remains suspended.

Question 29.
Mention any two effects of the imposition of the President’s Rule.
Answer:

1. The Legislative Assembly of the State may be dissolved or suspended.
2. The Annual budget of the State is passed by the Parliament.

Question 30.
Under what circumstances may the Financial Emergency be proclaimed ? Mention any two consequences of such a Proclamation.
Answer:
The Financial Emergency may be proclaimed by the President, when there is a danger to the financial stability of the country. Its consequences can be as follow :

1. The Union Government may give direction to States to observe certain financial rules.
2. The Union Government may ask States to reduce salaries and allowances of all public servants connected with the affairs of the States.

Question 31.
What do we mean when we say that the President is the Nominal or Constitutional Head of State ?
Or
Why is the President of India referred to as the Nominal Head of State. Mention any one of his legislative powers that suggests his/her nominal status.
Answer:
The President is the nominal (Constitutional) Head of the Government which implies that the enormous powers linked with his name are infact enjoyed by the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers, Who come from the Parliament and are answerable to the Parliament collectively. Thus, it is the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers, which advice the President on the exercise of his functions. The President is bound by the Constitution to accept the advice of Council of Ministers.

Question 32.
What qualification should a person possess in order to be elected as Vice-President ?
Answer:

• He must be the citizen of India.
• He must be not less than 35 years of age.
• He must be qualified for election as a Member of the Rajya Sabha.
• He should not hold any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State.

Question 33.
What is the normal Term of Office of the Vice-President?
Answer:
The normal Term of the Office of the Vice-President is five years. However, he continues to hold his office until his success or enters upon the office.

Question 34.
How long can the Vice-President continue to hold office even after the expiry of his term ?
Answer:
Vice-President can continue to hold office untill his successor is elected, he may resign his office before the expiry of his terms.

Question 35.
How can the Vice-President be removed from Office ?
Answer:
The Vice-President may be removed by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha, passed by a majority of its members and agreed by the Lok Sabha.

Question 36.
How is the Vice-President of India elected ?
Answer:
The Vice-President is elected by an Electoral College consisting of the members of both the Houses of Parliament. The election is done on the basis of proportional representation with Single Transferable Vote System.

Question 37.
Shri Hamid Ansari became the second person in India’s history to have been re-elected the Vice-President. Name the person who was the first to get re-elected to this post.
Answer:
Dr. S. Radhakrishnan, the country’s first Vice-President went, on to be the country’s Vice-President twice.
Mention tyyo important functions of the Vice-President.

• The Vice-President of the Indian Union acts as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
• He officiates as President, when the latter is unable to discharge his duties owing to illness or absence from the country.

Question 38.
Mention the circumstances under which the Vice-President will take over the office of the President. How long shall the Vice-President act as President ?
Answer:
The Vice-President may officiate on behalf of the President under following situations:

• death of the President.
• resignation of the President,
• when the President owing to illness, absence or any other cause is unable to discharge his function.
• The Vice-President may act as President, until a new President is elected and enters upon the office.

Structured Questions

Question 1.
The President of India shall be elected by the members of an Electoral College. In this context answer the following questions :
(a) What reasons were given for adopting the method of Indirect Election for Presidential Elections ?
(b) How is the Electoral College for Presidential elections constituted and how is the value of Vote ofa member of a Legislative Assembly and members of Parliament determined ?
Answer:
(a) The President being the Head of Indian Union, is elected indirectly. In simple words, ordinary citizens play no part in the election. Infact, four reasons can be attributed for the adoption of indirect method of election. In the first place, in the Parliamentary from of Government, real power vests with the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister and the Union Parliament. While the President is only a nominal Head.

Therefore, it would be an anomaly if the President were to be elected directly by tbe people and yet given no real power. Secondly, the framers of the Consitution wanted the Presidential election to remain a quiet and dignified affair. Thirdly, it would be difficult to provide an electoral machinery for an election in which millions of people would have to participate. Fourthly, a direct election would place too much of power in the masses with a very high percentage of illiterates among them.

(b) The President is elected by the Members of an Electoral College Consisting of:

• Elected members of both the Houses of Parliament.
• Elected members of State Legislative Assemblies including those of Delhi and Union Territory Pondicherry.

The value of the vote of each Member of a State Legislative Assembly is determined by dividing the population of the State concerned by the total number of elected Members of the Assembly. The quotient so obtained, is divided by one thousand. If the remainder is five hundred or more, the vote of each Member is increased by one, while, if the remainder is less than five hundred, is ignored.

The value of Vote of each elected member of Parliament shall have such number of votes as may be obtained by dividing the total number of Votes assigned to the States by total number of the elected Members of Parliament.

Question 2.
With reference to the Office of the President of India, answer the following questions :
(a) What procedure has to be followedfor Impeaching the President?
(b) What are other ways in which a vacancy in the office of the President may be caused ?
Answer:
The President can be removed from his office on two ground :

1. Proved misbehavior
2. Violation of the Constitution.

The resolution to Impeach the President may be moved in either House of Parliament. Though, such a resolution can be moved, only after a notice has been given by atleast one-fourth of the total Membership of that House. The resolution must be passed by 2/ 3rds of the total membership of that House.

Then the charges levelled against him are investigated by the other House. The President has the right to appear in person in order to answer charges against him. He also has the right to be defended by a Council. If the charges are sustained by a 2/3rds Vote in the other House as well, the President stands removed from his office.

Question 3.
With reference to the powers of the President of India briefly explain the following :
(a) Any four Executive Powers
(b) Any two Judicial Powers
(c) Any two Military Powers
Answer:
His Executive Powers
(a) The Constitution opines that the Executive Power of the Union shall be vested in the President. His Executive Power embraces the given ahead activities:

1. Head Of The Union Administration
   All the Executive orders are issued in the name of the President. All the Union Officials are his subordinates.
2. Formation Of The Council Of Ministers
   He summons the leader of the majority party in the Parliament to form the Government. And on the advice of the leader of the Government i.e., Prime Minister, he appoints other Ministers. Again, it is the duty of the Prime Minister to communicate all decisions of the Council of Ministers to the President.
3.  Appointment And Removal Of High Officials
   The President of India, appoints the Attorney-General of India, Judges of the Supreme Court and State High Court, Ambassador and other Diplomatic Representatives of India abroad. He also appoints the Members of Finance Commission, UPSC and the Chief Election Commissioner.
   Besides he has the power to remove his Ministers and other top Officials.
4. Administration Of Union Territories The President, acts through an Administrator appointed by him with such designation as he may specify.
5. Control Over State Governments: The Union Government may give necessary directions to a State. During President’s rule, the control of the Union Government over States is complete.

(b) Two Judicial Powers:
The President has the power to grant pardon or reduce the punishment that a person receives.
He can grant pardons only in the following cases :

1. Where the punishment or sentence is by a Court Martial ;
2. Where the punishment is for offence against Union laws ; and

(c) In all cases of sentence of death. A pardon may be absolute as well as conditional.
Pardoning power like most other powers is exercised on the advice of Council of Ministers.

• The President is not answerable to. any Court for the exercise of the powers and duties of his office.
• No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the President in any Court during the term of office.

(c) His Military Powers : The President of the Republic of India is vested with following Military Powers :

• He is the Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces of India.
• He appoints the Chiefs of the three wings of the Armed Forces, subject to certain rules and regulations.
• He can declare war or conclude peace with any foreign power on the advice of his Council of Ministers.

Question 4.
The President is an essential part of the Union Parliament. In this context, explain the following legislative powers of the President of India :
(a) Power to summon and prorogue
(b) Right to address and send messages to either House of Parliament
(c) President’s Assent to Bills
(d) Power to promulgate Ordinances
(e) His previous sanction to the introduction of a Bill
Answer:
(a) The President is the integral part of the Parliament. Thus, he summons and prorogues the sessions of Parliament and may dissolve the Lok Sabha before the expiry of its normal Term on the advice of the Prime Minister. The power to summon Parliament is subject to the condition that six months shall not intervene between the two sessions. Again, Rajya Sabha being a Permanent House, is not subject to dissolution.

(b) The President addresses, both Houses of Parliament at the first session after each General Election and at the commencement of the first session each year. In his address, the President outlines the national and international policies of his Governments. Besides, the President is empowered to address either House or their joint sitting at any time. He may also send messages to either House of Parliament.

(c) A Bill becomes a law only after the assent of the President. When the Bill passed by both Houses of Parliament is sent to the President, he has three options. Firstly, he may give his assent. Secondly, he may refuse his assent. Thirdly, he can send it back for reconsideration. In case if the bill is passed again by both Houses of Parliament, with or without the Amendment, the President has to give his assent. Money Bills however are introduced only on the prior recommendation of the President.

(d) The President enjoys yet another important Legislative Power to promulgate Ordinace. The President can issue Ordinances when the Parliament is not in session. These Ordinances are as good as laws, but all the Ordinances must be placed before the Parliament as soon as it meets. TheOrdinances are temporary laws and ceases to be effective six weeks after the reassembly of Parliament, unless they are approvedby it within that period.

(e) Money Bills cannot be introduced, except on the recommendation of a President. Similarly, a Bill for the formation of new States or alteration of areas of the existing States cannot be introduced except on his recommendation.

Question 5.
The President can issue Proclamation of National Emergency under certain circumstances. In this context explain the following :
(a) The three circumstances leading to the Proclamation of National Emergency.
(b) Duration of such Proclamation
(c) Effect of a Proclamation of Emergency on Centre-State relations and Fundamental Rights.
(d) Effect of such Proclamation on Fundamental Rights.
Answer:
(a) The President may declare a General Emergency. If he is satisfied that a grave Emergency exists, where by the security of India or any of its territories is threatened whether by War, External Aggression or Armed Rebellion. Every such Proclamation must be laid before the Houses of Parliment, and unless it is approved by resolutions of both the Houses of Parliament within one monjth from the date of its issue, it will be rendered ineffective.

(b) The Emergency cannot remain in operation for more than six months at a time. It will get a fresh lease of six months, every time after being approved by the Parliament by a majority of total Membership of the House and a majority of not less than two- thirds of the Members present and voting. However, if the Lok Sabha, passes a resolution disapproving the Emergency, the President has no option, but to revoke the Proclamation.

(c) The Proclamation has serious effects on both Autonomy of States and Fundamental Rights.
As regards its effect on Centre-State relations :

• The Union Parliament can legislate on any subject included in the State List.
• The Union Government may give directions to States, on exercising their Executive authority.
• The Central Government gets the power to suspend the financial provisions of the Constitution.

As regards the Fundamental Rights, its effects are as under :

• All the Fundamental Rights, under Article 19 remain suspended.
• The President may suspend the right to move any Court for the enforcement of rights except Article 20 and 21.
• Exercise of the Fundamental Rights is partially or wholly suspended.

(d) The effect of such Proclamation on fundamental rights :

• All the Fundamental Rights, under Article 19 remain suspended.
• The President may suspend the right to move any Court for the enforcement of rights except Article 20 and 21.
• Exercise of the Fundamental Rights is partially or wholly suspended.

Question 6.
With reference to Emergency in the event of failure of Constitutional Machinery in a State, answer the following questions :
(a) When is such an Emergency proclaimed ?
Or
Mention any two circumstances under which the imposition of President’s Rule in a State could be justified.
(b) What is the Duration of the Emergency?
(c) What are the effects of the imposition of the President’s Rule
Answer:
(a) If the President is satisfied either on the recommendations of the Governor or otherwise that the Constitutional Machinery in a State has failed, he may place that State under President’s rule. In other words, the State Administration is directly placed under the President and the Union Government.

(b) The duration of such Proclamation is only two months. If it is to continue beyond two months, it should be ratified by the Parliament. Though, even if the Parliament has ratified the Proclamation, it will cease to operate six months after the date of its issue. It can however be extended for another six months. Thus, the President’s rule can normally continue only for a year.
However, it may be extended beyond one year under two conditions.

• Wien a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation in the whole of India on in any part of the State.
• The Election Commission certifies that holding elections to the Legislative Assembly of the State is difficult. But, no such Proclamation shall remain in force for more than three years. Any such Proclamation may be revoked by a subsequent Proclamation.

(c) The consequences of the imposition of the President’s rule are as follows:
(d) The Legislative Assembly of the State may be dissolved or suspended.

• In that case the powers of the State Legislature shall be exercised by the Parliament.
• The President may vest all executive functions in the Governor.
• The Annual budget of the State is passed by the Parliament.
• The President, however, cannot suspend the operation of any provision of the Constitution relating to High Courts.

Question 7.
With reference to the Financial Emergency, explain the following :
(a) Circumstances surrounding the Proclamation of Financial Emergency
(b) Duration of such a Proclamation
(c) Consequences of Financial Emergency
Answer:
(a) A Financial Emergency may be declared by the President when there is danger to the financial stability of the country.
(b) The Proclamation should be approved by Parliament, if it is to continue beyond a period of two months. It may be revoked by the President at any time. The Financial Emergency thus, continues until it is revoked by the President of India. However, the Financial Emergency has never been revoked.

(c) The consequences of such a Proclamation are :

• The Union Government may issue directions to States to observe certain financial rules.
• The President is competent to reduce the salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons, including the Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts.
• The Union Government may ask the States to reduce salaries and allowances of all public servants connected with the affairs of the State.
• All Money Bills, passed by the State Legislatures, may be reserved for the consideration of the President.

Question 8.
Powers shall be exercised by President in accordance with the advice of the Council of Ministers, but situations may arise when the President may use his discretion to act as he thinks right. In this context mention any four situations when President shall have freedom and authority to use his judgement to decide what to do.
Or
Describe the Discretionary powers of the President of India.
Answer:
(a) In a Parliamentary Form of Government, like ours real power is vested with Council of Minister headed by the Prime Minister and the Union Parliament. The President, on the other hand is only a normal Head. He represents the nation, not rules the nation. As such 42nd Amendment, 1976 clearly states that President shall exercise his powers on the aid and advice of Council of Minister. Though the President was empowered to send back the advice for reconsideration, However he has to act in accordance with advice rendered after such reconsideration.

All Proclamation of Emergency have to be laid before both the Houses of Parliament. The President can be removed from his office for the violation of the Constitution. Thus, we find that the President does not have dictatorial powers, as his authority is restrained by the limitations imposed by the Parliament and Council of Ministers.

(b) When after General Election no political party or leader enjoy majority in Lok Sabha, or when so many leader stake claim for the post of Prime Minister. A situation may also arise when a Prime Minister resign. The President will have to make a judicious decision under such circumstances. On April 17, 1999 the Prime Minister Shri A.B. Vajpayee submitted his resignation. President asked him to continue in office till alternative arrangements.

On April 21, the President invited the opposition leader Smt. Sonia Gandhi to form a Government at the Centre, after some days Smt. Sonia Gandhi expressed her inability to fonn a Government. In this situation the President Shri. K.R. Narayanan dissolved the Lok Sabha.

Question 9.
The election of the Vice-President shall be indirect and not many functions are attached to the office of the Vice-President as such. In this context, answer the following questions :
(a) Mr. K. Mohanty is not legally eligible for election as Vice President, even though he (i) is a Citizen of India,
(ii) has completed the age of thirty-two years, and
(iii) is qualified for election as a Member of the Rajya Sabha. In view of these facts mention why he is not eligible for election as Vice-President
(b) What are the three main functions of the Vice-President as the Ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?
(c) Mention any three situations when the Vice-President shall take over the Office of the President of India,
(d) What is the effect of Vice-President’s ‘Casting Vote’as Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?
Or
When can the Vice-President give a Casting Vote and what is the effect of such a vote?
Answer:
(a) Mr. K. Mohanty is not eligible for election as Vice-President because he hold an office of profit under the Government of India or Government of any state.

(b) As Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, he

• regulates debates and proceedings of the House and decides the order of speeches,
• decides the admissibility of a resolution or of questions,
• may suspend or adjourn the business of the House in case of grave disorder.

(c) The Vice-President will take over the office of the President under these situations:

• Death of the President,
• Resignation of the President,
• Removal of the President, and
• When President, owing to absence, illness or any other cause, is unable to discharge his functions.

(d) He is entitled to vote only when there is a tie, i.e., in case of an equality of votes for and against a proposal. Such vote is called Casting Vote. This Vote decides whether or not the Bilk or the Resolution will be passed.

Question 10.
With reference to the election of the President of India answer the following questions :
(a) What is meant by Single Transferable Vote System?
(b) What procedure is followed as to counting of Votes ?
Answer:
(a) The President is elected according to the system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote system. Under this system, all the candidates are listed and the elector gives them numbers according to his preference. Every voter may mark on the ballot paper as many preferences as there are candidates.

(b) Firstly, the First preference valid vote are sorted. Next the Electoral Quota is found by dividing the total number of first preference votes by two and adding one to the result. Thus in order to be selected a candidate must get votes at least equal to the Quota i.e. clear majority of the valid votes.

Thus, first of all, the first preference votes are counted. If any of the candidate received votes equal or greater than the Quota that candidate is declared elected. In case, no canidate recieves absolute majority, then the candidate, who has recieved the least votes is eliminated and his second preference votes are added to the other candidates. Thus process goes on and ultimately the candidate who get’s the absolute majority is elected.

Extra Practice Questions

Question 1.
Why the Indian Constitution adopt the Parliamentary form of Government ?
Answer:
The Indian Constitution adopted the Parliamentary form of Government as our Indian leaders had some experience of the working of Parliamentary Governments in the provinces under the Acts of 1919 and 1935.
Secondly, they were impressed by the British political institutions and practices.

Question 2.
What is the electoral security for the Presidential election ?
Answer:
Rs. 15,000

Question 3.
How many members should propose the candiate for the Presidential elections and how many should second the
candiate?
Answer:
The Presidential candiate must be proposed by 50 members and seconded by 50 members.

Question 4.
Which Indian President was elected twice?
Answer:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

Question 5.
What is the value of the vote of MLA?
Answer:
\(\text { Vote of MLA }=\frac{\text { Total population of a State }}{\text { Total number of elected MLA’s }} \times \frac{1}{1000}\)

Question 6.
What is value of the vote of MP?
Answer:
Value of Total no. of votes assigned to :
\(\text { Vote of an MP }=\frac{\text { MLA’sof all States }}{\text { Total number of elected MP’s }}\) .

Question 7.
Which amendment Act substituted ‘Armed Rebellion’ for the words ‘internal disturbance’?
Answer:
The 44th Amendment Act.

Question 8.
What is the minimum duration of the National Emergency?
Answer:
The National Emergency can be revoked only for 6 months. To extend it further, it has to be approved by Parliament by a majority of not less than 2/3rds of the member present and voting. If the Lok Sabha passes a resolution, disapproving the Emergency, the President has no option but to revoke the Proclamation.

Question 9.
What does the Article 20 and 21 stand for?
Answer:

• The Article 20 provides protection in respect of conviction for offences.
• The Article 21 declares that no person shall be deprived of his life and personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.

Question 10.
Mention the emoluments of the President of India.
Answer:
The President enjoys the salary of Rs 50,000 per month and pension of 25,000 per month on the expiry of his term. His emoluments and allowances cannot be diminished during his term of office.

Question 11.
How is the President of India elected ?
Answer:
Every voter marks on the ballot paper as many preferences as there are candiates. After the casting of votes is over, first of all the first preference votes are counted. If any candidate gets the absolute majority or more than 50% of the votes, he is declared elected and there is no need for counting the second preference votes. But, in case no candidate is able is get the absolute majority, then the candiate who secured the least votes is eliminated and his second preferences votes are added to the other candidates. The process goes on and ultimately the candidate who gets the absolute majority is declared elected.

ICSE History and Civics Class 10 Goyal Brothers Prakashan Solutions

ICSE Geography Class 10 Question Bank Chapter 7 Water Resources

 Questions Based on Water Resources

I. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Name four surface water resources.
Answer:
Rivers, lakes, ponds, lagoons are the different surface water resources.

Question 2.
Give two main reasons why water scarcity occurs in India.
Answer:

1. Overexploitation of water sources.
2. Improper management,
3. Industrialisation and urbanisation.

Question 3.
(i) What is meant by water harvesting?
(ii) Mention any three Water harvesting systems practised in India.
Answer:
(i) Water harvesting is the activity of direct collection of rainwater the rainwater collected can be stored for direct use or can be recharged into the groundwater. They were called Khatri or Kuhl in Western Himalayas, Boalis or Dighis in the Gangetic plains, Johads in Central India, Korambu in Eastern Ghats and Zing in Ladakh.

(ii) Rain water is harvested in India by following methods :
(a) Catchments
(b) Rooftop Rain water harvesting.
(c) Check dams.

Question 4.
Why is Water harvesting needed?
Answer:
Water harvesting is needed because in India rainfall occurs during short spells of high intensity. Because of such intensities and short duration of heavy rain, most of the rain falling on the surface tends to flow away rapidly, leaving very little for the recharge of groundwater.

Question 5.
How much water is utilised by the agricultural sector in India?
Answer:
About 92% of water is utilised by the agricultural sector in India.

Question 6.
What is meant by irrigation?
Answer:
Irrigation refers to the process of watering of agricultural plants through artificial means from wells, tanks, tubewells, canals; etc.

Question 7.
Why do we need to adopt different means of irrigation?
Answer:
We need to adopt different means of irrigation for sustained agricultural production and allround development.

Question 8.
Mention the three factors based on which different means of irrigation are used.
Answer:
Different means of irrigation are utitlised in India, based on the availability of surface (river) and groundwater, relief, soils and climatic conditions.

Question 9.
Name the States in India where well irrigation is used.
Answer:
Well irrigation is used in India in states like Uttar Pradesh, Goa, Punjab, Haryana, Bihar, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.

Question 10.
Name two states in which tubewells are extensively used. Give a reason to explain its importance as a source of irrigation.
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh and Bihar. Because

• They can irrigate large area,
• In dry period they do not dry up due to deep boring.

Question 11.
How are the fields irrigated using the Persian wheel method?
Answer:
Fields are irrigated using the Persian wheel method by a partly submerged vertical wheel with buckets attached to the rim. As the wheel is turned by draught animals rotating a geared horizontal wheel, the buckets are filled and emptied into a trough above, which carries the water to crop-sown fields.

Question 12.
Give two advantages and two disadvantages of well irrigation.
Answer:
Advantages of well irrigation:

• Wells can be dug at a very low cost which is well within the means of poor farmers.
• Water can be lifted even from great depths, by the use of pumps and tubewells.

Disadvantages of well irrigation:

• Wells depend on undergroundwater resources whose distribution varies from region to region.
• It is difficult to dig wells or bore tubewells in the hilly regions of the north and stony areas of the Peninsula.

Question 13.
Give two advantages and one disadvantage that tubewells have over surface wells.
Answer:
Advantages of tube wells

• It occupies a small area.
• Tubewells are perennial.
• Water does not get polluted.
• Tubewells irrigates 400 hectare means large area
• No manual labour is required to draw water.

Disadvantages of tubewells

• Tubewells are expensive to construct.
• It irrigates particular area.
• It causes depletion of groundwater.
• It reduces the water table.
• Power is needed to draw water.
• The region must be fertile and productive so that the cost of the construction and operation of the tube well is justified.

Question 14.
Name the two types of canals.
Answer:
Two types of canals are:

1. Inundation canals
2. Perennial canals

Question 15.
Name two states where perennial canals are widely used.
Answer:
(i) Perennial canals are used in Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan.
(ii) (1) Low relief area.
(2) Even surface so digging is easy.
(3) Perennial rivers.

Question 16.
Why are inundation canals being converted to perennial canals? Give two reasons.
Answer:
Inundation canals are being converted to perennial canals because

• Inundation canals are taken from rivers without any regulating systems like weirs at their head while perennial canals have water in them throughout the year.
• Inundation canals are “floodwater” canals and have water in them only when the rivers is flooded during the raining season and are solely dependent on rainfall for its supply while perennial canals have water in them all the year around.
• These canals dry up in the drought.
• Inundation canals are not lined unlike perennial canals and the water in them seeps through into the surrounding area, leading to the formation of swamps.
• Since inundation canals have no regulative system at the head, they cannot be used to irrigate – areas at higher levels, unlike perennial canals.

Question 17.
Where are tanks most widely used in India? Why?
Answer:
Tanks are most widely used in India (more in South India than in North India, in states like Orissa, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and Karnataka) because of the following reasons:

• The Deccan Plateau is a highly. Dissected one with natural depressions.
• The Deccan Plateau is a highly dissected one with natural depressions. (Anyone)

Question 18.
Mention two disadvantages of tank irrigation.
Answer:

1. Tanks get silted up soon and regular desalting is required to make these suitable for irrigation.
2. When the monsoons fail they go dry and therefore, are not dependable source of irrigation.

Question 19.
Give three disadvantages of using conventional system of irrigation.
Answer:
Disadvantages of conventional methods of irrigation:

• In the Conventional system of irrigation large quantity of water is not properly utilised.
• Crops are usually subjected to cyclic changes of flooding and water stress situations, by providing heavy irrigation at one time and leaving the fields to dry up for about 10 to 15 days. The moisture availability to the crops therefore keeps on changing. This results in poor yields in the crops.
• The fields situated in low areas always get excess water causing prolonged waterlogging. Thus, crops are subjected to waterlogging resulting in poor yields.

Question 20.
Name the three modern means of irrigation.
Answer:
Modem means of irrigation includes furrow irrigation, spray irrigation and drip irrigation.

Question 21.
Give three reasons to justify the need to conserve water?
Answer:

1. The overexploitation of underground water often results in the lowering of water table.
2. Water is basic input for agriculture. If there is shortage of water, food production will fall leading to scarcity of essential products.
3. To save the future generations from water crisis.

Question 22.
Give two reasons why tanks are used for irrigation in the Deccan.
Answer:
Tanks are used for irrigation in Deccan because of the following reasons:

• The rivers of the Deccan are not snow-fed and are mainly dependent on the rainwater.
• There are many streams which became torrential during the rany season but dry up when the rain ceases.

Question 23.
Mention two advantages of rainwater harvesting.
Answer:
The advantages of rainwater harvesting are –

• It reduces groundwater pollution,
• It reduces soil erosion.
• It meets the increasing demand for water and supplements household requirement of water.
• It reduces surface runoff,
• It avoids flooding of roads.
• It raises the groundwater table by adding to groundwater reserves.
• It conserves water.
• It improves the quality of groundwater.

II. Match the following:

1. Well irrigation – (a) Water Harvesting System in Ladakh
2. Tank irrigation – (b) Recharging Ground Water Acquifers
3. Zing – (c) Punjab, Haryana and Western Rajasthan
4. Percolation Pit – (d) Exclusively irrigated crops
5. Zaid – (e) Southern India
Answer:
1. Well irrigation – (c) Punjab, Haryana and Western Rajasthan
2.Tank irrigation – (e) Southern India
3. Zing – (a) Water Harvesting System in Ladakh
4. Percolation Pit – (b) Recharging Ground Water Acquifers
5. Zaid – (d) Exclusively irrigated crops

III. Structured Questions:

Question 1.
With reference to conservation of water, answer the following questions:
(a) Why do we need to conserve water?
(b) Suggest five effective measures to conserve water.
(c) What is watershed management? How is it significant in maintaining the water supply in the long run?
Answer:
(a) We need to conserve water for the following reasons:

• The overexploitation of underground water often results in the lowering of water table.
• The loss of vegetation causes drought and reduction of rainfall and of the water table.
• Irrigation utilises more than 90 percent of the totalfresh water.
• The water demand for industrial use will increase more than two times of water demand for domestic use by2025.
• The increase in population with the progress of time results in water scarcity.
• Out water resources like the underground water, river, lakes etc. are polluted and their water can hardly be used without adequate treatement.

(b) Water can be preserved by adoping

• water saving technologies,
• encouraging watershed development,
• rainwater harvesting,
• water recycling and
• preventing the pollution of water.

(c) Watershed Management
Watershed management refers to the efficient management and conservation of both the surface and groundwater resources. It includes prevention of runoff as well as storage and recharge of groundwater by various methods like percolation pits, recharge wells, borewells, dug wells, etc.

The Central Government has started a watershed development project, called ‘Haryali’. It aims at enabling the rural people to conserve water for irrigation, chinking, fisheries and afforestation.

Significance of Watershed Management:
Watersheds are extremely important. Watersheds provide many of us with our drinking water supply, plus recreational opportunities and aesthetic beauty. Unfortunately, the replacement of vegetation by impervious surface like roads, parking lots and rooftops has a negative impact on watersheds. This increases the velocity and amount of runoff flowing into surface waters and causes erosion, turbidity and degraded wildlife habitats.

Not only into surface waters along with it. Forested areas play a very important role in the health of a watershed. The plant cover and leaf litter absorb moisture and help maintain soil structure, while root masses keep soil permeable and stable so moisture can move into it for storage. This is more desirable, because it allows water to be filtered and released slowly into the stream system rather than rapidly running overland.

Question 2.
With reference to rainwater harvesting, answer the following questions:
(a) Briefly state two methods of rainwater harvesting in India.
(b) Mention any two objectives of rainwater harvesting.
Answer:
(a) Two methods of rainwater harvesting in India are:

1. Surface runoff harvesting.
2. Rooftop rainwater harvesting.

(b) Objectives of rainwater harvesting are :

1. To solve the problem of water scarcity.
2. To enhance availability of groundwater at specific place and lime and utilize rainwater for sustainable development.

Question 3.
With reference to irrigation, answer the following questions:
(a) Why is irrigation needed for agricultural development?
(b) What are the conventional methods of irrigation?
(c) What are the drawbacks of conventional methods of irrigation?
Answer:
(a) Irrigation in India has been practised from ancient times. A number of artificial lakes and canals that dot the country are centuries old and some of them have served for more than a thousand years. It is needed for agriculatural development because of the following reasons:
(i) Uncertainly of Rainfall:
The rainfall is highly irregular in place and time. Sometimes monsoon arrives early and at times it comes late. The rainfall is not regular throughout the rainy season leading to water scarcity and withering of crops. Hence, irrigation is the only means to supplement rain water to raise crops.

(ii) Uneven distribution of rainfall:
Most parts of the country receive 80% of the annual rainfall from June to September from the South-west monsoon. Western Ghats and Eastern India receive more than 250 cm of annual rainfall, the northern plains and eastern Peninsula receive between 100 and 200 cm of rainfall, Saurashtra-Kutch region of Gujarat, parts of Punjab and Haryana and western half of Rajashthan lie in the arid zones. The amount of rainfall is low and there is constant scarcity of water. This scarcity has to be met by irrigation.

(iii) Crop rquirements:
Different crops require different quantities of water for their growth.

• Most of the crops do not require water when they are maturing. However, grain crops require more water during the time ear heads are formed.
• High yielding varieties requiring higher quantity of chemical fertilizers which need more moisture which could be supplied only through irrigation.
• Commercial crops like Sugarcane need higher quantity of water as they require frequent watering which could be managed through efficient irrigation system.

(iv) Nature of the Soil:
The water requirement of different crops depends on the natrue of the soil. For example, clayey soils have higher moisture holding capacity and therefore, require less irrigation. On the other hand, the sandy loam soils have less moisture- retentive capacity and need frequent watering. Similarly, the level and lowland areas require less water than the sloping and highland areas.

(v) To Utilise River Water Effectively :
Many rivers in India are not perennial and cany insignificant flows during the rabi season. There is also a wide disparity in the water flow from year to year. The rivers of central and southern India have water for the four months of monsoon rains and remain largely dry during the eight months of the year. Therefore, to utilise the water of these rivers means of irrigation have to be used.

(vi) To Maximise Production :
To obtain maximum production, irrigation is a must. According to agricultural scientists, the production of irrigated crops is more than the unirrigated crops in the same area.

(b) Based on the availability of surface (river) and ground water, relief, soils and climatic conditions, different means of irrigation are utilised in India. The conventional sources of irrigation include tanks, inundation canals and wells. For example, in the crystalline soil areas of Deccan plateau, tanks form the major source of irrigation, whereas the alluvial tracts of the Gangetic and Coastal plans are best suited for canals and well irrigation.

(c) Drawbacks of Conventioanl Methods of Irrigation:
The number of constraints leading to improper utilisation of water. These are the following:
(i) In the conventional system of irrigation a large quantity of water is not properly utilised.

(ii) Crops are usually subjected to cyclic changes of flooding and water stress situations, by providing heavy irrigation at one time and leaving the fields to diy up for about 10 to 15 days. The moisture availability to the crops therefore keeps on changing. This results in poor yields in the crops.

(iii) The fields situated in low areas always get excess water causing prolonged water logging. Thus, crops are subjected to water-logging resulting in poor yields.

(iv) In the fields about 10-15 percent of land is utilised for preparing channels and distributions, etc. which decreases effective area of cultivation.

(v) Extensive areas of land in the arid and semi-arid regions of India have gone out of cultivation due to accumulation of salts. Excessive irrigation and poor water management are the main reasons of water-logging and gradual build up of excessive salts. Progressive build-up of soil salinity has made the soils unsuitable for cultivation.

Question 4.
With reference to well irrigation, answer the following questions:
(a) Why is well irrigation confined mainly to the alluvial plains?
(b) Name the states where well irrigation is practised.
(c) Give two advantages and two disadvantages of well irrigation.
Answer:
(a) Well irrigation is confined mainly to the alluvial plains where
owing to the soft nature of the soil, wells can be easily dug and the yield of crops from the land after irrigation is considerably high. Wells are dug in the middle of the area to be irrigated and at place which is relatively at a high level.

(b) The areas where well irrigation is practised include Uttar Pradesh, Goa, Punjab, Haryana, Bihar, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.

(c) Advantages of well irrigation:

• Wells can be dug at a very low cost which is well within the means of poor famers.
• Water can be lifted even from great depths, by the use of pumps and tubewells.

Disadvantages of well irrigation:

• Wells depend on underground water resources whose distribution varies from region to region.
• It is difficult to dig wells or bore tubewells in the hilly regions of the north and story areas of Peninsula.

Question 5.
In the context of canal irrigation, answer the following questions:
(a) In which States of India canal irrigaiton is practised?
(b) Why are perennial canals preferred over inundation canals ?
(c) Give two advantages and two disadvantages of canal irrigation.
Answer:
(a) Canal irrigation is in practice in Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Rajasthan and Haryana, Jammu and Kashmir, Assam and Tripura. Canals also supply water to a sizeable part of the irrigated area in Bihar, Orissa, Karnataka Tamil Nadu and West Bengal.

(b) Perennial canals are preferred inundation canals as these
(perennial) over canals are taken out from the perennial rivers by constructing barrages to regulate the flow of water. Most of the cause in India belong to this category,

(c) Advantages of Canal Irrigation:

• The rainfall deficiency in some areas is made up canals taken out from the perennial rivers.
• In arid areas like Raj ash than, canals have proved to be boon as a result of which sandy patches are yielding good agricultural harvests.

Disadvantages of Canal Irrigation:
(i) At some places where the perennial unlined canals flow at the ground level and between raised high banks, the water table may reach the surface and make the once cultivable soil completely water logged. Complete saturation of the soil with water may give rise to swamps.

(ii) In the canal irrigation, where the water table is a few feet below the ground, the alkaline salts come to the surface, mix with the soil and make it unproductive.

Question 6.
With reference of tank irrigation, answer the following questions:
(a) How are the farms irrigated using tanks?
(b) Why is tank irrigation preferred over other means irrigation in Peninsular India?
(c) What are the disadvantages of tank irrigation?
Answer:
(a) The tanks can be easily made by means of making dams
in hollow spaces in which rainwater is stored in large quantities for distributing regular supply of water through the channels to the arable lands in the seasons.

(b) Tank irrigation is preferred over other means of irrigation in Peninsular India because of the following reasons :

• In the uneven rocky plateau of Peninsular India, where rainfall is highly seasonal, tank irrigation is useful.
• In the large stretches of the Indian plateau, due to hard rocky terrain, wells and canals are difficult to construct, so only tank irrigation is feasible.
• Tank irrigation is highly significant in stroing the abundant rainwater that would otherwise flow out and go waste.

(c) Disadvantages of Tank Irrigation:

• Tanks get silted up soon and regular desilting is required to make these suitable for irrigation.
• When the monsoons fail these tanks go dry and therefore, are not dependable source of irrigation.
• Most of the tanks are non-perennial and become dry during the winter and summer seasons when water is urgently required for rabi and zaid crops.
• Due to large areal coverage and its shallow depth, huge quantity of stored water is either evaporated or sinks underground without being used in the irrigation.
• Tanks occupy a large fertile area which otherwise could have been utilised for growing crops.
• The lifting of water from the tanks and bringing it to the fields is a strenuous and costly tanks.

ICSE Geography Class 10 Question Bank