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Frank ICSE Solutions for Class 9 Maths Irrational Numbers Ex 1.2

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Frank ICSE Solutions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 1 Irrational Numbers Ex 1.2

Answer 1A.

Answer 1B.

Answer 1C.

Answer 1D.

Answer 2A.

Answer 2B.

Answer 2C.

Answer 2D.

Answer 3.

Answer 4.

Answer 5A.

Answer 5B.

Answer 5C.

Answer 5D.

Answer 5E.

Answer 5F.

Answer 6A.

Answer 6B.

Answer 7A.

Answer 7B.

Answer 7C.

Answer 7D.

Answer 8A.

Answer 8B.

Answer 8C.

Answer 9.

Answer 10.

Answer 11.

Answer 12.

Answer 13A.

Answer 13B.

Answer 13C.

Answer 13D.

Answer 13E.

Answer 13F.

Answer 14.

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APlusTopper.com provides ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Previous Year Board Question Papers Solved Pdf Free Download with Solutions, Answers and Marking Scheme. Here we have given ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Solved Question Papers Last Ten Years. Students can view or download the ICSE Board 10th Economic Applications Previous Year Question Papers with Solutions for their upcoming examination.

These ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Previous 10 Years Board Question Papers with Answers are useful to understand the pattern of questions asked in the board exam. Know about the important concepts to be prepared for ICSE Class 10 Board Exam and Score More marks.

Board – Indian Certificate of Secondary Education (ICSE), www.cisce.org
Class – Class 10
Subject – Economic Applications
Year of Examination – 2020, 2019, 2018, 2017.

ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Solved Question Papers Last Ten Years

• ICSE Economic Applications Question Paper 2019 Solved
• ICSE Economic Applications Question Paper 2018 Solved
• ICSE Economic Applications Question Paper 2017 Solved
• ICSE Economic Applications Question Paper 2016 Solved
• ICSE Economic Applications Question Paper 2015 Solved
• ICSE Economic Applications Question Paper 2014 Solved
• ICSE Economic Applications Question Paper 2013 Solved
• ICSE Economic Applications Question Paper 2012 Solved
• ICSE Economic Applications Question Paper 2011 Solved
• ICSE Economic Applications Question Paper 2010 Solved
• ICSE Economic Applications Question Paper 2009 Solved

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ICSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10

Get ICSE Solutions for Class 10 Mathematics Chapter 6 Quadratic Equation for ICSE Board Examinations on ICSESolutions.com. We provide step by step Solutions for ICSE Mathematics Class 10 Solutions Pdf. You can download the Class 10 Maths ICSE Textbook Solutions with Free PDF download option.

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Quadratic Equation Class 10 Maths ICSE Solutions

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Formulae

1. The standard form of a quadratic equation is ax² + bx + c = 0, where a, b and c are all real numbers and a ≠ 0.
   e.g., equation 4x² + 5x – 6 = 0 is a quadratic equation in standard form.
2. Every quadratic equation gives two values of the unknown variable and these values are called roots of the equation.
3. Zero Product Rule: Whenever the product of two expressions is zero; at least one of the expressions is zero.
   
4. Solving quadratic equations using the formula:
   The roots of the quadratic equation ax² + bx + c = 0; where a ≠ 0 can be obtained by using the formula:
   
5. To examine the nature of the roots:
   Examining the roots of a quadratic equation means to see the type of its roots i.e., whether they are real or imaginary, rational or irrational, equal or unequal.
   The nature of the roots of a quadratic equation depends entirely on the value of its discriminant b² – 4ac.
   Case I: If a, b and c are real numbers and a ≠ 0, then discriminant:
   (i) b² – 4ac = 0 ⇒ the roots are real and equal.
   (ii) b² – 4a c > 0 ⇒ the roots are real and unequal.
   (iii) b² – 4ac < 0 ⇒ the roots are imaginary (not real).
   Case II: If a, b and c are rational numbers and a ≠ 0, then discriminant.
   (i) b² – 4ac = 0 ⇒ the roots are rational and equal.
   (ii) b² – 4ac > 0 and b² – 4ac is a perfect square ⇒ the roots are rational and unequal.
   (iii) b² – 4ac > 0 and b² – 4ac is not a perfect square ⇒ the roots are irrational and unequal.
   (iv) b² – 4ac < 0 ⇒ the roots are imaginary.
6. Sum and product of the roots: If a and P are the roots of quadratic equation ax² + bx + c = 0 then
   
7. To form a quadratic equation with given roots: Let α, β be the roots of the required quadratic equation, then
   

Determine the Following

Question 1. Which of the following are quadratic equation:

Question 2. Determine, if 3 is a root of the given equation

Question 3. Examine whether the equation 5x² -6x + 7 = 2x² – 4x + 5 can be put in the form of a quadratic equation.

Question 4. Find if x = – 1 is a root of the equation 2x² – 3x + 1 = 0.

Question 6. 48x² – 13x -1 = 0

Question 12. Without solving the following quadratic equation, find the value of ‘p’ for which the given equation has real and equal roots: x² + (p – 3) x + p = 0

Question 13. Find the value of k for which the following equation has equal roots:

Question 14. If one root of the equation 2x² – px + 4 = 0 is 2, find the other root. Also find the value of p.

Question 16. The sum of two numbers is 15. If the sum of reciprocals is 3/10, find the numbers.

Question 17. Find two consecutive natural numbers whose squares have the sum 221.

Question 18. The sum of the squares of three consecutive natural numbers is 110. Determine the numbers.

Question 19. If an integer is added to its square the sum is 90. Find the integer with the help of a quadratic equation.

Question 20. Find two consecutive positive even integers whose squares have the sum 340.

Question 21. Divide 29 into two parts so that the sum of the square of the parts is 425.


Question 22. In a two digit number, the unit’s digit is twice the ten’s digit. If 27 is added to the number, the digit interchange their places. Find the number.

Question 23. A two digit positive number is such that the product of its digits is 6. If 9 is added to the number, the digits interchange their places. Find the number.

Question 24. Five years ago, a woman’s age was the square of her son’s age. Ten years later her age will be twice that of her son’s age. Find:
(i) The age of the son five years ago.
(ii) The present age of the woman.

Question 25. The length of verandah is 3m more than its breadth. The numerical value of its area is equal to the numerical value of its perimeter.
(i) Taking x, breadth of the verandah write an equation in ‘x’ that represents the above statement.
(ii) Solve the equation obtained in above and hence find the dimension of verandah.

Question 26. A two digit number is such that the product of its digit is 14. When 45 is added to the number, then the digit interchange their places. Find the number.

Question 27. In each of the following determine the; value of k for which the given value is a solution of the equation:

Question 28. If x = 2 and x = 3 are roots of the equation 3x² – 2kx + 2m = 0. Find the values of k and m.

Question 29. Solve the following equation and give your answer up to two decimal places:

Question 30. Determine whether the given values of x is the solution of the given quadratic equation below:

Question 32. Solve using the quadratic formula x² – 4x + 1 = 0

Question 33. Solve the quadratic equation:

Question 36. Form the quadratic equation whose roots are:

Question 37. Find the value of k for which the given equation has real roots:

Question 38. Without actually determining the roots comment upon the nature of the roots of each of the following equations:

Question 39. Solve the equation 3x² – x – 7 = 0 and give your answer correct to two decimal places.

Question 40. Solve for x using the quadratic formula. Write your answer correct to two significant figures (x -1)² – 3x + 4 = 0.

Question 41. Without solving the following quadratic equation, find the value of ‘m’ for which the given equation has real and equal roots.

Question 42. Solve the following by reducing them to quadratic equations:

Question 44. Solve for x:

Question 45. Solve the following equation by reducing it to quadratic equation:

Question 46. Solve:

Question 47. A two digit number is such that the product of the digits is 12. When 36 is added to this number the digits interchange their places. Determine the number.

Question 48. The side (in cm) of a triangle containing the right angle are 5x and 3x – 1. If the area of the triangle is 60 cm². Find the sides of the triangle.

Question 49. Rs. 480 is divided equally among ‘x’ children. If the number of children were 20 more then each would have got Rs.  12 less. Find ‘x’.


Question 50. By increasing the speed of a car by 10 km/hr, the time of journey for a distance of 72 km. is reduced by 36 minutes. Find the original speed of the car.

Question 51. A car covers a distance of 400 km at a certain speed. Had the speed been 12 km/hr more, the time taken for the journey would have been 1 hour 40 minutes less. Find the original speed of the car.

Question 52. The speed of an express train is x km/hr arid the speed of an ordinary train is 12 km/hr less than that of the express train. If the ordinary train takes one hour longer than the express train to cover a distance of 240 km, find the speed of the express train.

Question 53. Some students planned a picnic. The budget for the food was Rs. 480. As eight of them failed to join the party, the cost of the food for each member increased by Rs. 10. Find how many students went for the picnic.

Question 54. Two pipes flowing together can fill a cistern in 6 minutes. If one pipe takes 5 minutes more than the other to fill the cistern, find the time in which each pipe would fill the cistern.

Question 55. One fourth of a herd of camels was seen in the forest. Twice the square root of the herd had gone to mountains and the remaining 15 camels were seen on the bank of a river. Find the total number of camels.

Question 56. An aeroplane travelled a distance of 400 km at an average speed of x km/hr. On the return journey the speed was increased by 40 km/hr. Write down the expression for the time taken for
(i) The outward journey (ii) the return Journey. If the return journey took 30 minutes less than the onward journey write down an equation in x and find its value.

Question 57. Car A travels x km for every litre of petrol, while car B travels (x + 5) km for every litre of petrol.
(i) Write down the number of litres of petrol used by car A and car B in covering a distance of 400 km.
(ii) If car A use 4 litre of petrol more than car B in covering the 400 km, write down and equation in x and solve it to determine the number of litre of petrol used by car B for the journey.

Solution: Given Distance = 400 km

Question 58. A shopkeeper purchases a certain number of books for Rs. 960. If the cost per book was Rs. 8 less, the number of books that could be purchased for Rs. 960 would be 4 more. Write an equation, taking the original cost of each book to be Rs. x, and Solve it to find the original cost of the books.

Question 59. Two pipes running together can 1 fill a cistern in 11 1/9 minutes. If one pipe takes 5 minutes more than the other to fill the cistern find the time when each pipe would fill the cistern.

Question 60. In each of the following find the values of k of which the given value is a solution of the given equation:

Question 61. Solve the following quadratic equation by factorisation:

Question 62. Solve the following quadratic equation by factorisation method:

Question 63. Solve the following quadratic equation:

Question 64. Determine whether the given quadratic equations have equal roots and if so, find the roots:

Question 65. Find the value of k so that sum of the roots of the quadratic equation is equal to the product of the roots:

Question 66. Find the values of k so that the sum of tire roots of the quadratic equation is equal to the product of the roots in each of the following:

Question 67. Solve the following by reducing them to quadratic equations:





Question 69. Solve the following by reducing them to quadratic form:

Question 70. Solve: x(x + 1) (x + 3) (x + 4) = 180.

Question 71. Solve the equation:

Question 72. Solve for x:

Question 73. Solve the equation

Prove the Following 

Question 1. Given that one root of the quadratic equation ax² + bx + c = 0 is three times the other, show that 3b² – 16ac.

Question 2. If one root of the quadratic equation ax² + bx + c = 0 is double the other, prove that 2b² = 9 ac.

Question 3. If the ratio of the roots of the equation

Question 4. In each of the following determine whether the given values are solutions of the equation or not.

Question 5. In each of the following, determine whether the given values are solution of the given equation or not:

Question 7. Show, that a, b, c, d are in proportion if:

Concept Based Questions

Question 1. The hypotenuse of a right angled triangle is 3√5. If the smaller side is tripled and the larger side is doubled, the new hypotenuse will be 15 cm. Find the length of each side.

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Selina Concise Biology Class 10 ICSE Solutions Genetics- Some Basic Fundamentals

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 10 Biology Chapter 3 Genetics Some Basic Fundamentals. You can download the Selina Concise Biology ICSE Solutions for Class 10 with Free PDF download option. Selina Publishers Concise Biology for Class 10 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

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Selina ICSE Solutions for Class 10 Biology Chapter 3 Genetics – Some Basic Fundamentals

Exercise 1

Solution A.1.
d) Ascaris

Solution A.2.
a) 3 : 1

Solution B.1.
(a) – (iii) Study of laws of inheritance of characters
(b) – (v) Chromosomes other than the pair of sex chromosomes
(c) – (iv) A gene that can express when only in a similar pair
(d) – (ii) The alternative forms of a gene
(e) – (i) Chromosomes similar in size and shape

Solution B.2.
Lion, tiger, domestic cat (Any two)

Solution B.3.
Colour-blindness, Thalassaemia, Sickle cell anaemia and Haemophilia (Any two)

Solution B.4.
Homozygous dominant – RR
Homozygous recessive – rr

Solution C.1.

(a)

(b)

(c)

Solution C.2.
The characteristics of a species such as physical appearance, body functions and behavior are not only the outcome of chromosome number, but these depend on the genotype of every organism. That means the set of genes present in the organisms may very and therefore lion, tiger and domestic cat have the same number of 38 chromosomes, their characteristics (like different appearances) are the result of the genes located on the chromosomes.

Solution C.3.

(Any 3)

Solution C.4.

• Colour-blindness is caused due to recessive genes which occur on the X chromosome.
• Males have only one X chromosome. If there is recessive gene present on X chromosome, then the male will suffer from colour-blindness.
• Females have two X chromosomes. It is highly impossible that both the X chromosomes carry abnormal gene. Hence, if one gene is abnormal and since it is recessive, its expression will be masked by the normal gene present on the other X chromosome. Females are unlikely to suffer from colour-blindness.

Solution C.5.
Phenotypic Ratio – 3 (Black Fur) :1 (Brown Fur)
Genotypic Ratio – 1(Homozygous Black Fur):2 (Heterozygous Black Fur): 1 (Homozygous Brown Fur)

Solution D.1.

(a)  Heterozygous:  The condition in which a pair of homologous chromosomes carries dissimilar alleles for a particular character.

For example –

1. A daughter (XX^o) from a normal homozygous mother for colour vision (XX) and a colour blind father has one normal and one defective allele (X^oY).
2. Certain tongue rollers are heterozygous with Rr genotype.

(b)  Homozygous:  The condition in which a pair of homologous chromosomes carries similar alleles for a particular character.

For example –

1. A colorblind daughter (X^oX^o) will have both the X chromosomes with defective alleles.
2. A non-roller will have rr (homozygous) genotype.

(c)  Pedigree Chart:  A pedigree chart is a diagram that shows the occurrence and appearance or phenotypes of a particular gene or organism and its ancestors from one generation to the next. In the pedigree chart, males are shown by squares and females by circles.

Solution D.2.
Mendel’s laws of inheritance are:

1. Law of Dominance: Out of a pair of contrasting characters present together, only one is able to express itself while the other remains suppressed. The one that expresses is the dominant character and the one that is unexpressed is the recessive one.
2. Law of Segregation : The two members of a pair of factors separate during the formation of gametes. The gametes combine together by random fusion at the time of zygote formation. This law is also known as ‘law of purity of gametes’.
3. Law of Independent Assortment: When there are two pairs of contrasting characters, the distribution of the members of one pair into the gametes is independent of the distribution of the other pair.

Solution D.3.

• • The sex of the child depends on the father. The egg contains only one X chromosome, but half of the sperms contain X-chromosome whereas the other half contains Y-chromosome. It is simply a matter of chance as to which category of sperm fuses with the ovum and this determines whether the child will be male or female.
  • If the egg fuses with X-bearing sperm, the resulting combination is XX and the resulting child is female.
  • If the egg fuses with Y-bearing sperm, the resulting combination is XY and the resulting child is male.
    

Solution E.1.

Solution E.2.
(a) Black
(b) No

Solution E.3.

Solution E.4.
(a) Father
(b) Two sons and three daughters
(c) The child 1 (daughter) is colour blind
(d) X chromosome
(e) Haemophilia

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Selina ICSE Solutions for Class 10 Maths – Compound Interest (Using Formula)

Selina ICSE Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 2 Compound Interest (Using Formula)

Exercise 2(A)

Solution 1:
Given : P = ₹ 12,000; n = 3 years and r = 5%

= ₹ 13,891.50
C.I. = ₹ 13,891.50 – ₹ 12,000
= ₹ 1,891.50

Solution 2:
Given : P = ₹ 15,000; n = 2 years ; r₁ = 8%; r₂ = 10%

= ₹ 17,820

Solution 3:
Given : P = ₹ 6,000; n = 3 years ; r₁ = 5%; r₂ = 8% and r₃ = 10%

= ₹ 7,484.40
C.I. = ₹ 7,484.40 – ₹ 6,000 = ₹ 1,484.40

Solution 4:
Given : Amount = ₹ 5,445; n = 2 years and r = 10%

Solution 5:
Given : C.I = ₹ 768.75; n = 2 years and r = 5%

Solution 6:
Given : C.I = ₹ 1,655; n = 3 years and r = 10%

Solution 7:
Given : Amount = ₹ 9,856; n = 2 years ; r₁ = 10%; r₂ = 12%

Solution 8:

The sum is ₹ 16,000

Solution 9:

At 5% per annum the sum of ₹ 6,000 amounts to ₹ 6,615 in 2 years when the interest is compounded annually.

Solution 10:
Let Principal = ₹ y
Then Amount = ₹ 1.44y
n = 2 years

Solution 11:
Given : P = ₹ 18,000; C.I. = ₹ 5,958 and n = 3 years

Solution 12:
Given: P = ₹ 5,000; A = ₹ 6,272 and n = 2 years

Solution 13:
Given : P = ₹ 7,000; A = ₹ 9,317 and r = 10%

Solution 14:
Given : P = ₹ 4,000; C.I. = ₹ 630.50 and r = 5%

Solution 15:
Let share of A = ₹ y
share of B = ₹ (28,730 – y)
rate of interest = 10%
According to question
Amount of A in 3 years = Amount of B in 5 years

Therefore share of A = ₹ 15,730
Share of B = ₹ 28,730 – ₹ 15,730 = ₹ 13,000

Solution 16:
Let share of Rohit = ₹ y
share of Rajesh = ₹ (34,522 – y)
rate of interest = 5%
According to question
Amount of Rohit in 12 years = Amount of Rajesh in 9 years

Therefore share of Rohit = ₹ 16,000
Share of Rajesh = ₹ 34,522 – ₹ 16,000 = ₹ 18,522

Solution 17:
(i) Let share of John = ₹ y
share of Smith = ₹ (44,200 – y)
rate of interest = 10%
According to question
Amount of John in 4years = Amount of Smith in 2years

Therefore share of John = ₹ 20,000
Share of Smith = ₹ 44,200- ₹ 20,000 = ₹ 24,200
(ii) Amount that each will receive

Solution 18:
The amount of money in the account = ₹ 22,000
Compound interest for the first year = Simple interest for the first year

Solution 19:
Let’s ₹ x be the sum of the money.
Let A₁ be the amount obtained at the end of the 1^st year.
Let A₂ be the amount obtained at the end of the 2^nd year.
Let R be the rate of interest.
The amounts of are in the ratio 20:21.

But rate on interest cannot be negative hence R = 5.
Therefore the rate of interest is 5%.

Solution 20:
Let’s ₹ x be the sum of the money.

The sum of the money is ₹ 30,000.

Exercise 2(B)

Solution 1:
Given: P = ₹ 7,400; r = 5% p.a. and n = 1 year
Since the interest is compounded half-yearly,

Solution 2:

Solution 3:
For the first 2 years

Amount in the account at the end of the two years is ₹ 22,400.
For the remaining one year

The total amount to be paid at the end of the three years is ₹ 27,104.

Solution 4:

The sum of ₹ 24,000 amount ₹ 27,783 in one and a half years at 10% per annum compounded half yearly.

Solution 5:

Solution 6:

The rate of interest is 8%.

Solution 7:
Given: P = ₹ 1,500; C.I.= ₹ 496.50 and r = 20%
Since interest is compounded semi-annually

Solution 8:
Given: P = ₹ 3,500; r = 6% and n = 3 years
Since interest is being compounded half-yearly

Solution 9:
Given: P = ₹ 12,000; n = 1 ½ years and r = 10%

To calculate C.I.
For 1 year
P = ₹ 12,000; n = 1 year and r = 10%

For next ½ year
P = ₹ 13,200; n = ½ year and r = 10%

∴ C.I. = ₹ 13,860 – ₹ 12,000 = ₹ 1,860
∴ Difference between C.I. and S.I = ₹ 1,860 – ₹ 1,800 = ₹ 60

Solution 10:
Given: P = ₹ 12,000; n = 1 ½ years and r = 10%

To calculate C.I.(compounded half-yearly)
P = ₹ 12,000; n = 1 ½ years and r = 10%

∴ C.I. = ₹ 13,891.50 – ₹ 12,000 = ₹ 1,891.50
∴ Difference between C.I. and S.I
= ₹ 1,891.50 – ₹ 1,800 = ₹ 91.50

Solution 11:

Solution 12:

Exercise 2(C)

Solution 1:
Initial height(P)= 80 cm
Growth rate = 20%
∴ Growth after 3 months

Solution 2:
Cost of machine in 2008 = ₹ 44,000
Depreciation rate = 12%
(i) Cost of machine at the end of 2009

(ii) Cost of machine at the beginning of 2007(P)

Solution 3:
Value of a machine at the end of 2004(P)= ₹ 27,000
Value of a machine at the beginning of 2007(A)= ₹ 21,870
Time(n)= 2 years

(ii) The value of machine at the beginning of 2004(P)

Solution 4:
Let x be the value of the article.
The value of an article decreases for two years at the rate of 10% per year.
The value of the article at the end of the 1^st year is
x – 10% of x = 0.90x
The value of the article at the end of the 2^nd year is
0.90x – 10% of (0.90x) = 0.81x
The value of the article increases in the 3^rd year by 10%.
The value of the article at the end of 3^rd  year is
0.81x + 10% of (0.81x) = 0.891x
0.891x = 40,095
⇒ x = 45,000
The value of the article at the end of 3 years is ₹ 40,095.
The original value of the article is ₹ 45,000.

Solution 5:
Population in 2005(P) = 64,000
Let after n years its population be 74,088(A)
Growth rate = 5% per annum

Solution 6:
Let the population in the beginning of 1998 = P
The population at the end of 1999 = 2,85,120(A)
r₁ = – 12% and r₂ = +8%

Solution 7:
Let sum of money be Rs P and rate of interest= r%
Money after 1 year = ₹ 16,500
Money after 3 years = ₹ 19,965

Solution 8:
Given: P = ₹ 7,500 and Time(n) = 2 years
Let rate of interest = y%

Solution 9:
Let Principal be Rs y and rate= r%
According to 1st condition
Amount in 10 years = Rs 3y

Solution 10:
At the end of the two years the amount is

Mr. Sharma paid ₹ 19,360 at the end of the second year.
So for the third year the principal is A1 – 19,360.
Also he cleared the debt by paying ₹ 31,944 at the end of the third year.

Mr. Sharma borrowed ₹ 40,000.

Solution 11:

Solution 12:
Let ₹ x and ₹ y be the money invested by Pramod and Rohit respectively such that they will get the same sum on attaining the age of 25 years.
Pramod will attain the age of 25 years after 25 – 16 = 9 years
Rohit will attain the age of 25 years after 25 -18 = 7 years

Pramod and Rohit should invest in 400:441 ratio respectively such that they will get the same sum on attaining the age of 25 years.

Exercise 2(D)

Solution 1:
Let ₹ 100 be the principal amount.

When the principal is ₹ 100 the compound interest is ₹ 10.25.
Therefore the effective rate per annum is 10.25%.

Solution 2:
Let ₹ x be the value of the property.
Value of the property decreases at the rate of 6 1/4 percent at the beginning of that year.

Value of the property at the end of the 2nd year = Value of the property at the beginning of the 3rd year

Value of the property at the beginning of 2nd year = value of property at the beginning of 1st year
Value of property

Value of the property at the beginning of 2 years is ₹ 2,56,000.

Solution 3:

Solution 4:

Solution 5:

Solution 6:

Solution 7:
(i) Present value of machine(P) = ₹ 97,200
Depreciation rate = 10%

= ₹ 78732
(ii) Present value of machine(A) = ₹ 97,200
Depreciation rate = 10% and time = 2 years
To calculate the cost 2 years ago

Solution 8:

Solution 9:

Solution 10:

Solution 11:
Given: C.I. for the 2nd year = ₹ 4,950 and rate = 15%

Then amount at the end of 2nd year= ₹ 33,000
For first 2 years
A = ₹ 33,000; r₁ =10%

Solution 12:

Solution 13:

Solution 14:
P = ₹ 60,000, R = 5%, n = 2 years

The money lender deducts the interest that would be due at the end of the period and handed over the balance to Mrs. Shukla.
Amount received by Mrs. Shukla = ₹ 60,000 – ₹ 6,000 = ₹ 54,000
Now sum deposited in the bank (P) = ₹ 54,000
R = 5% compounded annually, n = 2 years

The amount of money that Mrs. Shukla will have to add to pay the money back to the money lender
= ₹ 60,000 – ₹ 59,535 = ₹ 465

Solution 15:
Let ₹ x be the sum of money.
Rate = 5 % p.a. Simple interest = ₹ 1,200, n = 3years

The amount due and the compound interest on this sum of money at the same rate and after 2 yers
P = ₹ 8,000; rate = 5% p.a., n = 3 years

The amount due after 2 years is ₹ 8,820 and the compound interest is ₹ 820.

Solution 16:
Let x% be the rate of interest.
P = ₹ 6,000, n = 2 years, A = ₹ 6,720
(i) For the first year

The rate of interest is x% = 12%.
(ii) The amount at the end of the second year.

The amount at the end of the second year = ₹ 7,526.40

Selina ICSE Solutions for Class 10 Maths – Compound Interest (Without using formula)

Selina ICSE Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 1 Compound Interest (Without using formula)

Exercise 1(A)

Solution 1:

Solution 2:

Solution 3:

Solution 4:

Solution 5:

Solution 6:

Solution 7:

Solution 8:

Solution 9:

Solution 10:

Solution 11:

Solution 12:
Let Rs.x be the sum.

Compound interest

The difference between the simple interest and compound interest at the rate of 8% per annum compounded annually should be ₹ 64 in 2  years.
⇒ ₹ 0.08x – ₹ 0.0864x = ₹ 64
⇒ ₹ 0.0064x = ₹ 64
⇒ x = ₹ 10000
Hence the sum is ₹ 10000.

Solution 13:

Solution 14:

Solution 15:

Solution 16:

Solution 17:

Solution 18:

Solution 19:

Amount = ₹ 30,400 + ₹ 3,040 + ₹ 4,000 = ₹ 37,440
The amount in Mrs. Kapoor’s account on 01/01/2012 is ₹ 37,440.

Solution 20:
(i) Let x% be the rate of interest charged.

The compound interest for the second year is ₹ 920
Rs. (80x + 1.20x²) = ₹ 920
⇒ 1.20x² + 80x – 920 = 0
⇒ 3x² + 200x – 2300 = 0
⇒ 3x² + 230x – 30x – 2300 = 0
⇒ x(3x + 230) -10(3x + 230) = 0
⇒ (3x + 230)(x – 10) = 0
⇒ x = -230/3 or x = 10
As rate of interest cannot be negative so x = 10.
Therefore the rate of interest charged is 10%.
(ii) For 1^st year:
Interest = ₹ 120x = ₹ 1200
For 2^nd year:
Interest = ₹ (80x + 1.20x²) = ₹ 920
The amount of debt at the end of the second year is equal to the addition of principal of the second year and interest for the two years.
Debt = ₹ 8,000 + ₹ 1200 + Rs.920 = ₹ 10,120

Exercise 1(B)

Solution 1:

Solution 2:
Difference between the C.I. of two successive half-years
= ₹ 760.50 – ₹ 650 = ₹ 110.50
₹ 110.50 is the interest of one half-year on ₹ 650

Solution 3:

Solution 4:

Solution 5:

Solution 6:

Solution 7:

Solution 8:

Solution 9:

Solution 10:
(i) The interest charged is compounded because if the interest charged is simple, then the interest for two years will be double of interest for one year which is not given.
(ii) C.I. for 1^st year= ₹ 720
C.I. for two years= ₹ 1,497.60
C.I. for 2^nd year = ₹ 1,497.60 – ₹ 720 = ₹ 777.60
Difference between the C.I. of two successive years
= ₹ 777.60 – ₹ 720
= ₹ 57.60
₹ 57.60 is the interest for one year on ₹ 720.

Solution 11:
(i) C.I. for second year = ₹ 864
C.I. for third year = ₹ 933.12
Difference between the C.I. of two successive years= ₹ 933.12 – ₹ 864= ₹ 69.12
₹ 69.12 is the interest of one year on ₹ 864

(ii) Let the sum of money= ₹ 100
Interest on it for 1st year= 8% of ₹ 100= ₹ 8
Amount in one year= ₹ 100+ ₹ 8= ₹ 108
Similarly, C.I. for 2nd year= 8% of ₹ 108 = ₹ 8.64
When C.I. for 2nd year is ₹ 8.64, sum = ₹ 100

Principal for 4th year= ₹ 10,000+₹ 800+₹ 864+₹ 933.12 = ₹ 12,597.12
Interest for 4th year= 8% of ₹ 12,597.12 = ₹ 1,007.77

Solution 12:
(i) Amount in three years = ₹ 20,160
Amount in four years = ₹ 24,192
Difference between the amounts of two successive years
= ₹ 24,192 – ₹ 20,160= ₹ 4,032
⇒ ₹ 4,032 is the interest of one year on ₹ 20,160

(ii) Let amount in two years = ₹ 100
And amount in three years = ₹ 100+ 20% of ₹ 100
= ₹ 100+ ₹ 20
= ₹ 120
When amount in 3 years is ₹ 120, amount in two years = ₹ 100

(iii) Amount in 5 years = ₹ 24,192+ 20% of ₹ 24,192
= ₹ 24,192 +₹ 4,838.40
= ₹ 29,030.40
Solution 13:

(ii)The total interest paid in two years = ₹ 350 + ₹ 560 = ₹ 910
(iii) The total amount of money paid in two years to clear the debt
= ₹ 8,000+ ₹ 910
= ₹ 8,910

Solution 14:

Solution 15:

Solution 16:

Solution 17:
(i) Difference between depreciation in value between the first and second years = ₹ 4,000 – ₹ 3,600 = ₹ 400
⇒ Depreciation of one year on ₹ 4,000 = ₹ 400

(ii) Let ₹ 100 be the original cost of the machine.
Depreciation during the 1st year = 10% of ₹ 100 = ₹ 10
When the values depreciates by ₹ 10 during the 1st year, Original cost = ₹ 100
⇒ When the depreciation during 1st year = ₹ 4,000
The original cost of the machine is ₹ 40,000.

(iii) Total depreciation during all the three years
= Depreciation in value during(1st year + 2nd year + 3rd year)
= ₹ 4,000 + ₹ 3,600 + 10% of (₹ 40,000 – ₹ 7,600)
= ₹ 4,000 + ₹ 3,600 + ₹ 3,240
= ₹ 10,840
The cost of the machine at the end of the third year
= ₹ 40,000 – ₹ 10,840 = ₹ 29,160.

Exercise 1(C)

Solution 1:
Let the sum of money be ₹ 100
Rate of interest = 10% p.a.
Interest at the end of 1st year = 10% of ₹ 100 = ₹ 10
Amount at the end of 1st year = ₹ 100 + ₹ 10 = ₹ 110
Interest at the end of 2nd year = 10% of ₹ 110 = ₹ 11
Amount at the end of 2nd year = ₹ 110 + ₹ 11 = ₹ 121
Interest at the end of 3rd year = 10% of ₹ 121 = ₹ 12.10
Sum of interest of 1st year and 3rd year = ₹ 10 + ₹ 12.10 = ₹ 22.10
When sum of both interest is ₹ 22.10, principal is ₹ 100
When sum of both interest is ₹ 1,768, principal = \(\frac { 100\times 1768 }{ 22.10 }\) ₹ = ₹ 8,000

Solution 2:

Solution 3:

Solution 4:
Cost of machine= ₹ 32,000
Depreciation rate every year = 5%
∴ Cost of machine after one year = ₹ 32,000- 5% of ₹ 32,000
= ₹ 32,000- ₹ 1,600
= ₹ 30,400
Cost of machine after two year = ₹ 30,400- 5% of ₹ 30,400
= ₹ 30,400- ₹ 1,520
= ₹ 28,880
∴ Total depreciation in two years = ₹ 32,000 – ₹ 28,880 = ₹ 3,120.

Solution 5:
Let the sum of money be ₹ 100.
Rate of interest= 10%p.a.
Interest at the end of 1st year = 10% of ₹ 100= ₹ 10
Amount at the end of 1st year = ₹ 100 + ₹ 10= ₹ 110
Interest at the end of 2nd year = 10% of ₹ 110 = ₹ 11
Amount at the end of 2nd year = ₹ 110 + ₹ 11= ₹ 121
Interest at the end of 3rd year = 10% of ₹ 121= ₹ 12.10
∴ Difference between interest of 3rd year and 1st year = ₹ 12.10 – ₹ 10 = ₹ 2.10
When difference is ₹ 2.10, principal is ₹ 100.
When difference is ₹ 252, principal = \(\frac { 100\times 252 }{ 2.10 }\) = ₹ 12,000.

Solution 6:
(i) C.I. for 2nd year = ₹ 9,680
C.I. for 3rd year = ₹ 10,648
Difference in both interests = ₹ 10,648 – ₹ 9,680 = ₹ 968

(ii) Interest for 4th year = ₹ 10,648+ 10% of ₹ 10,648
= ₹ 10,648 + ₹ 1,064.80
= ₹ 11,712.80
(iii) Let principal be ₹ 100
Rate of interest= 10% p.a.
Interest at the end of 1st year = 10% of ₹ 100= ₹ 10
Amount at the end of 1st year = ₹ 100 + ₹ 10= ₹ 110
Interest at the end of 2nd year = 10% of ₹ 110 = ₹ 11
When C.I. for 2nd year is ₹ 11, principal is ₹ 100
When C.I. for 2nd year is ₹ 9,680, principal = ₹ \(\frac { 100\times 9680 }{ 11 }\) = ₹ 88,000
Interest for 1st year = 10% of ₹ 88,000 = ₹ 8,800.

Solution 7:
(i) Amount in two years = ₹ 9,680
Amount in three years = ₹ 10,648
∴ Difference in both amounts = ₹ 10,648 – ₹ 9,680 = ₹ 968

(ii) Amount in 4 years = ₹ 10,648+ 10% of ₹ 10,648
= ₹ 10,648 + ₹ 1,064.80
= ₹ 11,712.80
(iii) Let principal be ₹ 100
Rate of interest= 10%p.a.
Interest at the end of 1st year = 10% of ₹ 100= ₹ 10
Amount at the end of 1st year = ₹ 100 + ₹ 10= ₹ 110
Interest at the end of 2nd year = 10% of ₹ 110 = ₹ 11
Amount at the end of 2nd year = ₹ 110 +₹ 11= ₹ 121
When amount at the end of 2nd year is ₹ 121, principal is ₹ 100
When amount at the end of 2nd year is ₹ 9,680, principal
= ₹ \(\frac { 100\times 9680 }{ 121 }\)
= ₹ 8,000
∴ Amount in one year = ₹ 8,000+10% of ₹ 8,000
= ₹ 8,000 + ₹ 800
= ₹ 8,800

Solution 8:

Solution 9:

Solution 10:
(i) The population of a town increases by 10% every 3 years.
The population of the town after 3 years
= 72,600 + 10% of 72,600
= 72,600 + 7,260
= 79,860
The population of the tower after 6 years
= 79,860 + 10% of 79,860
= 79,860 + 7,986
= 87,846
The population of the town after 6 years is 87,846.
(ii) Let x be the population of the town 6 years ago.
The present population of the town is 72,600.
The population of the town 3 years ago
= x + 10% of x
= x + 0.10x
= 1.10x
The present population of the town
= 1.10x + 10% of 1.10x
⇒ 72,600 = 1.10x + 0.110x
⇒ 72,600 = 1.210x
⇒ x = 60,000
The population of the town before 6 years ago was 60,000.

ICSE Geography Previous Year Question Paper 2015 Solved for Class 10

ICSE Paper 2015
GEOGRAPHY

(Two hours)
Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
Attempt seven questions in all.
Part I is compulsory. All questions from Part I are to be attempted.
A total of five questions are to be attempted from Part II.
The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].
To be supplied with this Paper : Survey of India Map Sheet No. 45D/10
and 20 cm of twine.

Note:
(i) In all Map Work, make wise use of arrows to avoid overcrowding of the map.
(ii) The extract of Survey of India Map Sheet No. 45D/10 must not be taken out of the examination hall. It must be handed over to the Supervising Examiner on completion of the Paper.
(iii) The Map given at the end of this question paper must be detached, and after marking must be fastened to your answer booklet.
(iv) All sub-sections of the questions attempted must be answered in the correct serial
order.
(v) All working including rough work should be done on the same answer sheet which is used to answer the rest of the paper.

PART I [30 Marks]

Attempt all questions from this Part.

Question 1:
Study the extract of the Survey of India Map Sheet No. 45D/10 and answer the following questions :
(a) Give the four figure grid reference for a figure similar to the one given below. Identify the figure: [2]
(b) How is the drainage pattern in grid square 1606 different from that in grid square 1608? [2]

(c) Identify the correct six figure grid reference for each of the following:
(i) Gautam Maharishi Mandir
200071; 071200; 201070 ?
(ii) 0.443
172059; 052179; 179052 ? [2]

(d) Name the most prominent settlement other than ABU. Give two reasons to support your answer. [2]

(e) (i) What is the general slope of the land in the north-west comer of the map extract ?
(ii) What is the compass direction of Chandela (1803) from Hanumanji ka Mandir (2208) ? [2]

(f) What do you understand by the following terms as used on the map extract :
(i) Causeway (1702)
(ii) Falls 25m (2307). [2]

(g) (i) If you were to cycle at 10 km an hour, how much time would it take to cover the north-south distance depicted on this map extract ?
(ii) Calculate the area enclosed by Eastings 19 to 22 and Northings 04 to 09. [2]

(h) (i) Identify one natural feature in grid square 1610
(ii) Identify one man made feature in grid square 1903. [2]

(i) Give two probable reasons, other than dry water features, to indicate that the region depicted on the map extract receives seasonal rainfall. [2]

(j) Calculate, in metres, the difference in height between the highest point on the map extract and the contour height given in grid square 2402. [2]

Answer:
(a) The four fig grid reference for the figure is 1903. And the figure is a seasonal tank with an embankment.

(b) Drainage pattern of grid square 1606 is Radial and of grid square 1608 is Trellis.

(c) The correct six figure are
(i) Gautam Maharishi Mandir-200071.
(ii) 0.443-179052.

(d) Vajna settlement is another prominent settlement because
(1) It has a police Chauki.
(2) It is located on the metalled road therefore good transport is available.

(e) (i) General slope of the land in the North west comer is towards North west.
(ii) Compass direction of Chandela from Hanumanji Ka Mandir is South west.

(f) (i) Cause way : It is a raised road or path that enable us to cross a seasonal river. It does not work during rain. It is not a bridge.
(ii) Fall 25 m indicate the presence of a waterfall i.e., 25 metres high.

(g) (i) one hour.
(ii) Area = L × B = 3 × 5 = 15 km²

(h) (i) Natural feature in 1610 is broken ground and seasonal stream.
(ii) One man made feature in grid square 1903 is hut and embankment.

(i) Two reasons to indicate that the region depicted on the map receives seasonal rainfall are :

1. Cart tracks are motorable in the dry season.
2. Presence of causeway and broken ground.

(j) Difference between the highest point on the map and the contour height given in grid square 2402 is 1129 metres.

Question 2:
On the outline map of India provided :
(a) Mark and. name the Nilgiris. [1]
(b) Shade and label the Malwa Plateau. [1]
(c) Shade and label the Malabar Coastal Plains. [1]
(d) Mark and name the river Gomti. [1]
(e) Shade and name the Andaman Sea. [1]
(f) Mark and name Allahabad. [1]
(g) Mark with a single arrow and name the winds that bring winter rain to north-west India. [1]
(h) Mark and name Digboi. [1]
(i) Mark an area with laterite soil below the Tropic of Cancer. [1]
(j) Mark and name the Karakoram Pass. [1]

Answer:

PART II [50 Marks]

Attempt any five questions from this Part.

Question 3:
(a) Explain two factors that affect the climate of India giving a suitable example for each. [2]

(b) State two differences between the rainfalls that occur from June to September and that from December to February in North India. [2]

(c) Give a geographic reason for each of the following :
(i) Kerala has the longest rainy season.
(ii) The Konkan coast experiences orographic rainfall.
(iii) The city of Kanpur in Uttar Pradesh has a higher range of temperature than that of Chennai in Tamil Nadu. [3]

(d) Study the climatic data given below and answer the questions that follow :

(i) Identify the hottest month.
(ii) Calculate the annual rainfall.
(iii) Name the winds that bring the maximum rainfall to this city. [3]

Answer:
(a) Two factors that affect the climate in India are :

1. Altitude: As the height increases temperature decreases at the rate of 1°C for every 165 m of ascend. Example : Nainital has lower temperature than Agra.
2. Distance from the sea: Places close to the sea have lower range of temperature i.e. moderate climate and places away from the influence of the sea have higher range of temperature i.e. continental climate. Example : Mumbai has lower range of temperature than Delhi as it is close to the sea.

(b) Two differences between the rainfall that occur from June to September and from December to February are :

1. Rainfall in June to September is caused by S.W. monsoon whereas rainfall in December to February is caused by temperate cyclones (western disturbances) originating in Mediterranean sea.
2. Rain in June to September is heavy ranging between 75 to 150 cm. whereas rain in Dec. to February is only 5 to 7 cm but beneficial for wheat and barley.

(c) Geographical Reasons:
(i) Kerala has the longest rainy season because it lies in the extreme south of India and it is the first and last to see the monsoon.
(ii) Konkan coast experiences orographic rainfall because it lies of the wind ward side of western ghats when south west monsoon strikes it.
(iii) Kanpur in Uttar Pradesh has a higher range of temperature than that of Chennai because Kanpur is located away from the sea and the equator.

(d) (i) May is the hottest month.
(ii) Annual rainfall is 131.9 cm.
(iii) Maximum rainfall is received by North-East monsoon winds.

Question 4:
(a) State the characteristic of each of the soils named below that makes them most suitable for crop cultivation :
(i) Black soil.
(ii) Red soil. [2]

(b) State the geographic term for each of the following processes :
(i) The process by which soluble minerals dissolve in rain water and percolate to the bottom, leaving the top soil infertile.
(ii) The process by which rain water, flowing in definite paths, removes the top soil, thus causing deep cuts to the surface of the land. [2]

(c) Define the following :
(i) Pedogenesis.
(ii) Humus.
(iii) Bhangar. [3]

(d) Give a geographic reason for each of the following :
(i) Alluvial soil is extremely fertile.
(ii) Need for soil conservation.
(iii) Reafforestation should be practised extensively. [3]

Answer:
(a) (i) Characteristic of black soil : It is able to retain moisture.
(ii) Characteristic of red soil : It is rich in potash and become fertile with proper use of fertilizers and irrigation.

(b) Geographic terms are :
(i) Leaching
(ii) Gully erosion.

(c) Definition:
(i) Pedogenesis: Process of soil formation is called pedogenesis.
(ii) Humus: Decayed remains of plants, animal manures and dead animals is called Humus. It is an essential element in determining the fertility of soil.
(iii) Bhangar: Older alluvium soil found about 30 m above sea level in river terraces, light grey in colour and calcareous clay is called humus.

(d) Geographical reasons:
(i) Alluvial soil is extremely fertile because it is found to a depth of 500 m and rich in humus, lime and potash.
(ii) There is a need for soil conservation because top soil that is eroded is the main feeding zone. With the increase in population the demand of crops is also increasing.
(iii) Reafforestation should be practised extensively because the area under forest cover is shrinking day by day due to urbanization etc.

Question 5:
(a) State two characteristics of Tropical Deciduous forests. [2]

(b) State two reasons why Tropical Evergreen forests are difficult to exploit. [2]

(c) Identify the tree as per its characteristics mentioned below :
(i) It yields wood that is hard and scented and is usually found in high altitudes.
(ii) It is generally found in deltaic regions and is used to make boats.
(iii) The furniture made from the wood of this tree is generally the most expensive. [3]

(d) Differentiate between afforestation and deforestation. State a disadvantage of deforestation. [3]

Answer:
(a) Characteristics of Tropical deciduous forests are :
(i) They shed their leaves before the summer season.
(ii) These trees are found in pure stands.

(b) Tropical evergreen forests are difficult to exploit because they are found in mixed stands and found in dense growth.

(c) Trees as per its characteristics are :
(i) Deodar
(ii) Sundri
(iii) Teak.

(d) Afforestation means growing of trees where there are no trees. It increases the forested area.
Deforestation means cutting of trees for various purposes.
Disadvantage : It increases soil erosion.

Question 6:
(a) State two reasons why’irrigation is important to a country like India. [2]

(b) Name two modern methods of irrigation. State one important reason for their growing popularity. [2]

(c) (i) Why is well irrigation still a popular means of irrigation ? Give two reasons to support your answer.
(ii) State the significance of rainwater harvesting. [3]

(d) (i) Why is the world in danger of facing a severe water shortage in the coming future ? Give two reasons to support your answer.
(ii) State one measure the Government should adopt to handle the present water crisis. [3]

Answer:
(a) Irrigation is important to a country like India because rainfall here is seasonal in nature. It is limited to four months of a year. It is also important because some crops require more water than what it is provided by the rainfall therefore we have to depend on irrigation.

(b) Two modern methods of irrigation are :

1. Perennial canals.
2. Drip irrigation system.

They are becoming popular because there is minimum loss of water and can irrigate fields throughout the year.

(c) (i) Well irrigation is still a popular means of irrigation because :

1. It can supply water whenever and where ever required.
2. It is also a cheap source of irrigation.

(ii) Significance of rain water harvesting are :
(i) Reduce surface run off therefore no flooding of roads.
(ii) It raises ground water table by adding to ground water reserves.
(iii) It solve the problem of water scarcity.

(d) (i) The world is in danger of facing a severe water shortage in coming future because :

1. Most of our surface waters are polluted by industrial waste, sewage etc.
2. The indiscriminate use of chemicals, fertilizers, pesticides, insecticides, to increase farm productions had led to increasing ground water pollution.

(ii) One measure the Government should adopt to handle present water crisis is rain water harvesting and recycle and reuse of water.

Question 7:
(a) State two reasons why limestone is a valuable mineral. [2]

(b) State the most important use of the following :
(i) Iron ore
(ii) Bauxite [2]

(c) Name the :
(i) Largest oil refinery in the Public sector.
(ii) State that is the largest producer of coal.
(iii) Best variety of iron ore. [3]

(d) Give a geographic reason for each of the following :
(i) Many port cities have their own oil refineries.
(ii) Petroleum is called a ‘fossil fuel’.
(iii) Coal is called a versatile mineral. [3]

Answer:
(a) Limestone is a valuable mineral because it is used in various industries like chemicals, iron and steel, cement, fertilizers etc.

(b) Most important use of:
(i) Iron ore : In the production of steel.
(ii) Bauxite: In the production of aluminium.

(c) (i) Largest oil refinery in the public sector — Indian Oil Corporation Ltd.
(ii) Jharkhand is the largest coal producing state.
(iii) Hematite is the best variety of iron ore.

(d) Geographical reasons for the following are :
(i) Port cities have their own oil refineries because two thirds of the petroleum is imported. The crude oil is imported from Gulf countries and Malaysia.
(ii) Petroleum is called fossil fuel because it is derived from plant and animal . life buried in sedimentary rocks millions of years ago.
(iii) Coal is called a versatile mineral because it forms a basic raw material for the production of chemicals, dyes, fertilizers, paints, synthetics, explosive apart from source of energy.

Question 8:
(a) Differentiate between a Rabi crop and a Kharif crop. [2]

(b) State an important difference between the climatic requirements for growing cotton and jute. [2]

(c) Give the geographic term for each of the following :
(i) Cultivation of sugarcane from the root stock of the cane which has been cut.
(ii) The residue left behind after the crushing of oilseeds.
(iii) The process by which latex is converted into a thick, spongy mass by adding acetic acid or formic acid. [3]

(d) Give a geographical reason for each of the following :
(i) Tea is cultivated on hill slopes.
(ii) The yield per hectare of sugarcane is higher in the Southern states.
(iii) Pulses are important food crops. [3]

Answer:
(a) Rabi crop is sown during late November and harvested in March e.g. : wheat, mustard etc.
Kharif crop is sown in June and harvested in early November e.g. : rice, cotton etc.

(b) Climatic requirements for growing cotton :
Temperature: 20°C to 32°C and atleast 200 frost free days.
Rainfall: Ranging between 50 cm to 120 cm abundant sunshine is required during ripening period.
Climatic requirement for Jute :
Temperature: 21°C to 35°C a hot climate with high atmospheric humidity. Rainfall : Ranging between 150 cm to 200 cm.

(c) Geographical terms are :
(i) Ratoon crop
(ii) Oil cake
(iii) Coagulate.

(d) Geographical reasons are :
(i) Tea is cultivated on hill slopes because tea plant can not tolerate standing water on its roots.
(ii) Yield per hectare of sugarcane is higher in southern states because of the use of modem scientific agricultural methods and the factories are located close to the fields.
(iii) Pulses are important food crops because they are rich source of protein for vegetarian people.

Question 9:
(a) (i) Why is the cotton textile industry called an agro-based industry ?
(ii) Give an important reason for it being more widespread than the jute industry. [2]

(b) (i) State one important point of similarity between the woollen industry and the silk industry.
(ii) Name the state that produces the most woollen and silk products respectively. [2]

(c) (i) State two major problems faced by the sugar industry.
(ii) Name two by-products of the sugar industry. [3]

(d) (i) State one of the main problems of the silk industry.
(ii) Name two products of the jute industry, other than rope and gunny bags.
(iii) Why are synthetic fibres popular ? [3]

Answer:
(a) (i) Cotton textile is called an agro-based industry because for its raw material it depends on cotton which is an agricultural product.
(ii) It is more widespread than the jute industry because India has tropical climate where cotton is mainly used for clothing.

(b) (i) Main similarity between the woollen and the silk industry : Both of them derive their raw material from animals and both require skilled labour.
(ii) State that produces woollen products is Punjab and state that produces silk products is Karnataka.

(c) (i) Two problems faced by sugar industry are :
(1) It is the most soil exhausting crop therefore cost increases.
(2) Sugar mills are old-fashioned and far from the sugar farms.
(ii) Two by products of the sugar industry are :
(1) Bagasse
(2) Pressmud.

(d) (i) One main problem of the silk industry is that it has a limited market as it is very expensive.
(ii) Two products of the jute industry are upholstry and carpets.
(iii) Synthetic fibres are popular because they are cheap, durable and easy to maintain.

Question 10:
(a) (i) Why is the iron and steel industry called a basic industry ?
(ii) Define a mini steel plant. [2]

(b) With which large scale industry would you identify the following manufacturing centres :
(i) Kanpur
(ii) Rourkela
(iii) Pune
(iv) Mangalore. [2]

(c) (i) State two reasons for the growing importance in the status of petrochemical industries.
(ii) Name two products of the petroleum industry. [3]

(d) (i) State two conditions necessary for the setting up of a heavy engineering industry.
(ii) Name a ship building yard on the east coast and a centre for making electric locomotives. [3]

Answer:
(a) (i) Iron and steel industry is called basic industry because it supports fertilizers and cement industry. It is linked with the economic development of a country.
(ii) Mini steel plant is a unit that uses cheaply available scrap iron in the electric arc furnaces to make steel which is futher rolled and shaped into necessary products.

(b) Large scale industry that we identify with :
(i) Kanpur : Woollen industry.
(ii) Rourkela : Iron and Steel plant.
(iii) Pune : Electronics Industry.
(iv) Mangalore : Petrochemical Industry.

(c) (i) Two reasons for the growing importance is the status of petrochemical, industries are :

1. It is durable, cheap, light weight and attractive.
2. It has replaced wood, glass, metal, natural rubber etc.

(ii) Two products of the petroleum industry are :

1. PVC pipes.
2. Synthetic fibre.

(d) (i) Two conditions necessary for the setting up of a heavy engineering industry are :

1. Availability of market.
2. Availability of cheap labour.

(ii) Ship building yard on east coast is Vishakhapatnam and Chittaranjan for making electric locomotives.

Question 11:
(a) (i) Why is the Railways an important means of transport as compared to Airways ?
(ii) State one economic benefit of the Golden Quadrilateral Project. [2]

(b) (i) State one important difference between an expressway and a highway.
(ii) Name the first expressway constructed in the country.
(iii) State a reason why the Northern Rivers are more suitable for navigation than the Deccan Rivers. [3]

(c) (i) “Waste segregation is important”. Give a reason to support your answer.
(ii) Why is nuclear waste harmful ?
(iii) Explain briefly how as a student, you can help in the reduction of waste generation. [3]

(d) (i) What is understood by biodegradable waste ?
(ii) State one source of gaseous waste. [2]

Answer:
(a) (i) Railways is an important means of transport as compared to airways as it is cheap and has more carrying capacity of passengers and goods.
(ii) Economic benefit of the Golden Quadrilateral project is that it leads to general improvement of the area with more employment.

(b) (i) Expressway is a six lane highway where two and three wheelers are not allowed. A highway is a two lane road where all vehicles are allowed.
(ii) Mumbai-Pune expressway is the first expressway constructed in the country.
(iii) Northern Rivers are more suitable for navigation than the Deccan Rivers because they are perennial in nature and flow over gentle sloping plains.

(c) (i) Waste segregation is important because the method of treating waste depends on the nature of waste like solid waste, liquid waste, biodegradable and non-biodegradable waste.
(ii) Nuclear waste is more harmful because radioactive wastes remain active for a long time therefore it can enter in human body through food and water and can cause damage of tissues, blood cells and cancer.
(iii) As a student I can segregate the waste into biodegradable and non biodegradable waste of my house, reduce the water by incineration and recycling it.

(d) (i) Biodegradable waste is a type of waste which can be broken down in a reasonable amount of time, into its base compounds by micro organisms and other living things regardless of what those compounds may be.
(ii) Release of smoke, ashes and aerosols from chimneys of factories, increase CO₂. Methane comes out from cattle shed. Swamps, coal mines etc. Volcanic erruptions gives out SO₂.

ICSE Class 10 Geography Previous Years Question Papers

ICSE Biology Previous Year Question Paper 2016 Solved for Class 10

ICSE Paper 2016 BIOLOGY

(Two hours)
Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
This time is to be spent in reading the Question Paper.
The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
Attempt all questions from Section I and any four questions from Section II.
The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

SECTION-I (40 Marks)

(Attempt all questiohs from this Section.)

Question 1:
(a) Name the following : [5]
(i) The exchange of chromatid parts between the maternal and the paternal chromatids of a pair of homologous chromosomes during meiosis.
(ii) The number of individuals inhabiting per unit area.
(iii) The immunity acquired by providing readymade antibodies from outside for treating certain infectious diseases.
(iv) The pollutants that cannot be broken down to simple and harmless products.
(v) The part of the bra ip that carries impulses from one hemisphere of the cerebellum to the other.

(b) Choose the correct answer from the four options given below : [5]
(i) A plant cell may burst when :
(A) Turgor pressure equalises wall pressure.
(B) Turgor pressure exceeds wall pressure.
(C) Wall pressure exceeds turgor pressure.
(D) None of the above
(ii) The individual flattened stacks of membranous structures inside the chloroplasts are known as :
(A) Grana (B) Stroma (C) Thylakoids (D) Cristae
(iii) The nephrons discharge their urine at the :
(A) Urinary bladder (B) Urethra (C) Renal pelvis (D) Renal pyramid
(iv) Gigantism and Acromegaly are due to :
(A) Hyposecretion of Thyroxine
(B) Hyposecretion of Growth hormone
(C) Hypersecretion of Thyroxine
(D) Hypersecretion of Growth hormone
(v) The mineral ion needed for the formation of blood clot is :
(A) Potassium (B) Sodfrym (C) Calcium (D) Iron

(c) In each set of terms given below, there is an odd one and cannot be grouped in the same category to which the other three belong. Identify the odd term in each set and name the category to which the remaining three belong. [5]
Example: Ovary, Fallopian tube, Ureter, Uterus
Odd term: Ureter
Category: Parts of female reproductive system
(i) Sewage, Newspaper, Styrofoam, Hay.
(ii) Thymine, Cytosine, Adenine, Pepsin.
(iii) Malleus, Iris, Stapes, Incus.
(iv) Cortisone, Somatotropin, Adrenocorticotropic hormone. Vasopressin.
(v) Typhoid, Haemophilia, Albinism, Colour blindness.

(d) Complete the following paragraph by filling in the blanks (i) to (ii) with appropriate words : [5]
The amount of urine output is under the regulation of a hormone called (i) ……… secreted by the (ii) ……… lobe of the pituitary gland. If this hormone secretion is reduced, there is an increased production of urine. This disorder is called (iii) ……… Sometimes excess glucose is passed with urine due to hyposecretion of another hormone called (iv) ……… leading to the cause of a disease called (v) ……… .

(e) State the exact location of the following structures : [5]
(i) Centromere (ii) Chordae tendinae (iii) Thyroid gland (iv) Ciliary body (v) Proximal convoluted tubule.

(f) Given below is a diagram depicting a defect of the human eye, study the same and then answer the questions that follow : [5]
(i) Name the defect shown in the diagram.
(ii) What are the two possible reasons that cause this defect ?
(iii) Name the type of lens used to correct this defect.
(iv) With the help of a diagram show how the defect shown above is rectified using a suitable lens.

(g) Given in the box below are a set of 14 biological terms. Of these, 12 can be paired into 6 matching pairs. Out of the six pairs, one has been done for you as an example.
Example: endosmosis – Turgid cell.
Identify the remaining five matching pairs:
Cushing’s syndrome, Turgid cell, Iris, Free of rod and cone cells, Colour of eyes, Hypoglycemia, Active transport, Aerosome, Addison’s disease, Blind spot, Hyperglycemia, Spermatozoa, Endosmosis, Clotting of blood.

(h) State the main function of the following: [5]
(i) Lymphocytes of blood
(ii) Leydig cells
(iii) Guard cells
(iv) Eustachian tube
(v) Corpus luteum

Answers:
(a) (i) Crossing over (ii) Population density (iii) Passive immunity (iv) Non biodegradable (v) Pons varoli

(b) (i) (B) Turgor pressure exceeds wall pressure.
(ii) (C) Thylakoids
(iii) (C) Renal pelvis
(iv) (D) Hypersecretion of Growth hormone
(v) (C) Calcium

(c) (i) Odd term: Styrofoam
Category: Biodegradable wastes.
(ii) Odd term: Pepsin
Category: Nitrogen bases of DNA molecule.
(iii) Odd term: Iris
Category: Ear ossicles/Tiny bones present in the middle ear.
(iv) Odd term: Cortisone
Category: Hormones secreted by Pituitary gland.
(v) Odd term: Typhoid
Category: Sex linked inheritence.

(d) (i) Antidiuretic hormone
(ii) Posterior
(iii) Diabetes insipidus
(iv) Insulin
(v) Diabetes mellitus

(e) (i) Centromere: Between two chromatids of a chromosome.
(ii) Chordae tendinae: At the flaps of the bicuspid and tricuspid valves.
(iii) Thyroid gland: In front of the neck/lower part of the neck below the larynx.
(iv) Ciliary body: Extension of choroid layer as a muscular ring around the lens.
(v) Proximal Convoluted Tubule: In the cortex of the kidney.

(f) (i) Myopia.
(ii) 1. The eye ball is too long from front to back.
2. The lens is too curved.
(iii) Concave lens
(iv)

(g) (i) Hyperglycemia: Cushings syndrome
(ii) Hypoglycemia: Addison’s disease.
(iii) Blind Spot: Free of rod cells and cone cells.
(iv) Iris: Colour of eyes.
(v) Acrosome: Spermatozoa.

(h) (i) Lymphocytes of blood: Produce antibodies.
(ii) Leydig cells: Secrete male sex hormone testosterone.
(iii) Guard cells: Regulate the opening and closing of stomata in leaf to facilitate transpiration and exchange of gases.
(iv) Eustachian tube: Balance air pressure on either sides of the ear drum. So that ear drum can vibrate freely.
(v) Corpus luteum: Secretes hormones oesterogen, progesterone and relaxin.

SECTION-II (40 Marks)

(Attempt any Four questions from this Section.)

Question 2:
(a) The figure given below is a diagrammatic representation of a part of the cross section of the root in the root hair zone. Study the same and then answer the questions that follow : [5]
(i) Name the parts indicated by the guidelines 1 to 4.
(ii) Which is the process that enables the passageqf water from the soil into the root hair ?
(iii) Name the pressure that is responsible for the movement of water in the direction indicated by the arrows. Define it.
(iv) Due to an excess of this pressure sometimes drops of water are found along the leaf margins of some plants especially in the early mornings. What is the phenomenon called ?
(v) Draw a well labelled diagram of the root hair cell as it would appear if an excess of fertiliser is added to the soil close to it.

(b) Differentiate between the following pairs on the basis of what is mentioned within brackets : [5]
(i) Human skin cell and. Human ovum (number of chromosomes)
(ii) Sperm duct and fallopian tube (function)
(iii) Red Cross and WHO (one activity)
(iv) Rod cells and cone cells (pigment)
(v) LUBB and DUP (names of the valves whose closure produce the sound)

Answer:
(a) (i) 1. Root hair 2. Soil water 3. Xylem Vessels 4. Cortical cells.
(ii) Osmosis Process
(iii) Osmotic pressure: The pressure exerted by a solution to prevent the entry of water molecules, through the semi -permeable membrane is called Osmotic pressure.
(iv) Guttation.
(v)

(b) (i) Human skin cell: 46 Chromosomes
Human ovum: 23 Chromosomes
(ii) Sperm Duct: Transfer mature sperm from testis for release. Fallopian Tube : Site of fertilisation in human female.
(iii) Red Cross: Supply blood to victims of war.
WHO: Set, pharmaceutical standards.
(iv) Rod cells: Rhodopsin
Cone cells: Iodopsin
(v) LUBB: Atrioventricular valves
DUP: Semilunar valves.

Question 3:
(a) Given below is the outline of the human body showing the important glands : [5]
(i) Name the glands marked 1 to 4.
(ii) Name the hormone secreted by part 2. Give one important function of this hormone.
(iii) Name the endocrine part of the part numbered 3.
(iv) Why is the part labelled 1 called, the master gland ? Which part of the forebrain controls the gland labelled 1 ?
(v) Name the gland, that secretes the ’emergency hormone’.

(b) The. diagram of an apparatus given below demonstrates a paniadar process in plants. Study the same and answer the Questions that follow. [5]
(i) Name the apparatus.
(ii) Which phenomenon is demonstrated, by this apparatus
(iii) Explain the phenomenon mentioned in (ii) above.
(iv) State two limitations of using this apparatus.
(v) What is the importance of the air bubble in, the experiment ?
(vi) Name the structures in a plant through which the above process takes place.

Answer:
(a) (i) 1. Pituitary gland.
2. Thyroid gland
3. Pancreas
4. Adrenal gland
(ii) Thyroxine. It regulates basal metabolism of the body.
(iii) Islets of Langerhans.
(iv) Because it controls the secretions of all the other endocrine gland. Hypothalamus controls it.
(v) Adrenal medulla (part of Adrenal gland.)

(b) (i) Ganong’s potometer
(ii) Transpiration
(iii) The process in which water is given out in the form of vapour through the aerial parts of the plant.
(iv) 1. The small twig can not remain alive for a long time.
2. Introducing a single air bubble is practically very difficult.
(v) The movement of the air bubble shows the amount of water transpired by the twig in a given time.
(vi) 1. Cuticle 2. Stomata 3. Lenticel

Question 4:
(a) (i) Draw a well labelled diagram of the membranous labyrinth found in the inner ear.
(ii) Based on the diagram drawn above in (i) give a suitable term for each of the following descriptions :
1. The sensory cells that helps in hearing.
2. The part that is Responsible for static balance of the body.
3. The membrane covered opening that connects the middle ear to the inner ear.
4. The fluid present in the middle chamber of cochlea.
5. The structure that maintains dynamic equilibrium of the body. [5]

(b) Give the Biological / technical term for the following : [5]
(i) Complete stoppage of menstrual cycle in females.
(ii) Pigment providing colour to urine.
(iii) The vein which drains the blood from the intenstine to the liver.
(iv) The canal through which the testes descend into the scrotum just before the birth of a male baby.
(v) The process causing an undesirable change in the environment.
(vi) The removal of nitrogenous wastes from the body.
(vii) The repeating components of each DNA strand lengthwise.
(viii) An alteration in the genetic material that can be inherited.
(ix) The process of uptake of mineral ions against the concentration gradient using energy from the cell.
(x) Blood vesels carrying blood to the left atrium.

Answer:
(a) (i)

(ii) 1. Organ of corte 2. Utriculus and sacculus 3. Oval window 4. Endolymph 5. Semicircular canals

(b) (i) Menopause
(ii) Urochrome
(iii) Hepatic portal vein
(iv) Inguinal canal
(v) Pollution
(vi) Excretion
(vii) Nucleotide
(viii) Mutation
(ix) Active absorption
(x) Plumonary veins

Question 5:
(a) The given diagram shows a stage during mitotic division in an animal cell: [5]
(i) Identify the stage. Give a reason to support your answer.
(ii) Draw a neat labelled diagram of the cell as it would appear in the next stage. Name the stage.
(iii) In what two ways is mitotic division in an animal cell different from the mitotic division in a plant cell ?
(iv) Name the type of cell division that occurs during : A. Growth of a shoot B. Formation of pollen grains

(b) Give scientific reasons for the following statements : [5]
(i) Colour blindness is more common in men than in women.
(ii) Injury to medulla oblongata leads to death.
(iii) When an ovum gets fertilized, menstrual cycle stops temporarily in a woman.
(iv) Mature erythrocytes in humans lack nucleus and mitochondria.
(v) Blood flows in arteries in spurts and is under pressure.

Answer:
(a) (i) Prophase
Reason : Chromosomes clearly visible as paired chromatids connected by centromere. Centrosome split into centrioles and are moving to opposite poles. Nuclear membrane and nucleolus disappearing. Chromosomes not arranged in any pattern.
(ii)

(iii)

(iv) A – Mitosis.
B – Meiosis.

(b) (i) Colour blindness is an X-linked inheritence. Women have two X- chromosomes. so even when one X-chromosome carry colour blindness, the other X-chromosome over comes the abnormal trait Whereas men have only one X-chromosome. So when it is affected the man becomes a colour blindness.
(ii) Medulla oblongata controls the involuntary activities like respiration, heart beats etc. So any injury to this part of brain arrests these movements and cause death.
(iii) Menstrual cycle occurs due to rupture and shedding oi the endometrium lining of the uterus. When an ovum gets fertilised the endometrium gets thickned, and vascularized to house the embryo. So during the whole term when the embryo/foetus is in the uterus, menstrual cycle stops temporarily.
(iv) Presence of nucleus would occupy space and reduce the oxygen carrying capacity. Nucleus is also not required as a mature RBC does not divide. Mitochrondria is absent so that oxygen is not consumed by the RBC and all the oxygen is transported to target areas.
(v) Arteries carry blood from heart. With every pump of heart blood flows with a jerk and pressure through it.

Question 6:
(a) The diagram given below is that of a developing human foetus. Study the diagram and then answer the questions that follow : [5]
(i) Label the parts numbered 1 to 3 in the diagram.
(ii) Mention any two functions of the part labelled 2 in the diagram.
(iii) Explain the significance of the part numbered 3 in the diagram.
(iv) Define the term ‘GestationWhat is the normal gestational period of the developing human embryo ?
(v) Mention the sex chromosomes in a male and female embryo

(b) The following diagram demonstrates a physiological process taking place in green plants. The whole set up was placed in bright sunlight for several hours. Study the diagram and answer the questions that follow :
(i) What aspect of the physiological process is being examined ?
(ii) Explain the physiological process mentioned in (i) above.
(iii) Label the parts numbered 1 and 2 in the diagram.
(iv) Write a well balanced chemical equation for the physiological process explained in (ii) above.
(v) What would happen to the rate of bubbling of the gas if a pinch of sodium bicarbonate is added to the water in the beaker ? Explain your answer.

Answer:
(a) (i) 1. Umbilical cord 2. Placenta 3. Amniotic cavity/Amniotic fluid
(ii) Functions of Placenta:
1. Transfer nutrients and oxygen from mother’s blood to foetus.
2. Releases hormones called oestrogens, progesterone.
(iii) Significance of Amniotic Fluid:
1. Protects the foetus against jerks, mechanical shocks, and injury.
2. Allows foetus movements.
3. Keeps the pressure even, around the foetus.
4. Prevent sticking of foetus to the amnion.
(iv) Gestation : The full term of development of the embryo in the uterus.
In a developing human embryo gestational period is of 280 days.
(v) Male embryo = XY
Female embryo = XX.

(b) (i) Photosynthesis.
(ii) The process in which plant cells having chlorophyll take raw materials like carbondioxide from air & water from soil and manufacture glucose in presence of light. Oxygen is a waste product during this process.
(iii) Part 1 – Oxygen gas.
Part 2 – Hydrilla plant.
(iv)

(v) Rate of bubbling of gas suddenly increases on adding a pinch of sodium bicarbonate.
Sodium bicarbonate releases carbon dioxide into the water which is made available to the plant. This.increases the rate of photosynthesis. So more oxygen is released thus more bubbles released.

Question 7:
(a) A homozygous tall plant (T) bearing red coloured (R) flowers is crossed with a homozygous dwarf (t) plant bearing white (r) flowers : [5]
(i) Give the genotype and phenotype of the plants of F₁ generation.
(ii) Mention the possible combinations of the gametes that can be obtained from the F₁ hybrid plant.
(iii) State the Mendel’s law of Independent Assortment.
(iv) Mention the phenotypes of the offsprings obtained in F₂ generation.
(v) What is the phenotypic ratio obtained in F₂ generation ?

(b) Briefly explain the following terms : [5]
(i) Reflex action
(ii) Power of accommodation
(iii) Photophosphorylation
(iv) Hormone
(v) Synapse

Answer:
(a) (i) Genotype of F₁ generation : Tt Rr
Phenotype of F₁ generation : All heterozygous tall and red.
(ii) TR: Tall and Red
Tr: Tall and White
tR: Dwarf and Red
tr: Dwarf and White
(iii) Mendel’s law of independent Assortment: “In a dihybrid cross, one pair of character is independent of the other pair during gamete formation.”
(iv) Tall & Red
Tall & White
Dwarf & Red
Dwarf & white
(v) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

(b) (i) Reflex action: A quick and involuntary action built-in-response to a stimulus.
(ii) Power of accomodation: It is the power and adjustment of our eyes to focus objects at different distances.
(iii) Photophosphorylation: The conversion of Adenosine diphosphate (ADP) to Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) with one inorganic phosphate by light.
(iv) Hormone: A chemical messengers secreted by endocrine glands which reaches its destination by the blood stream and which has the power of influencing the activity of other distant target organs.
(v) Synapse: It is the point of contact between the axon endings of one neuron comes in contact with dendrites of the other neuron through a synaptic cleft.

ICSE Class 10 Biology Previous Years Question Papers

ICSE Commercial Applications Previous Year Question Paper 2013 Solved for Class 10

ICSE Paper 2013
COMMERCIAL APPLICATIONS

(Two Hours)
Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
This time is to be spent in reading the Question Paper.
The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
Section A is compulsory. Attempt any four questions from Section B.
The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Section-A (40 Marks)
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1:
Give one difference between each of the following:
(a) Industrial goods and Consumer goods. [2]
(b) Fixed assets and Current assets. [2]
(c) Sales promotion and Publicity. [2]
(d) Fixed deposit and Recurring deposit. [2]
(e) Direct labour costs add Indirect labour costs. [2]

Answer:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

Question 2:
(a) What is Food Adulteration? Give an example. [2]
(b) Mention the elements of Public Relations. [2]
(e) Why should an Income and Expenditure Account be prepared? [2]
(d) Give two basic differences between Informaive advertising and Persuasive advertising. [2]
(e) What are ‘contingent liabilities’? [2]

Answer:
(a) Food Adulteration: It means deliberate mixing of foreign particles of low quality which are undesirable in the food items, to increase the quantity.
e.g. —Mixing of stone pieces identical to Wheat, Rice and Pulses.
(b) Public Relation Elements: (1) Human Relations, (2) Empathy, (3) Persuasion, (4) Dialogue.
(c) Income and Expenditure account is prepared to know the surplus or deficit arising from the activities of a non-trading concern during a year.
(d)

(e) Contingent Liabilities: These are those liabilities which become payable on the’happening of an event.
e.g. — bills discounted but not matured, guarantee for a loan. These are also known as anticipated liabilities.

Question 3:
(a) On the basis of ownership, distinguish between a Product and a Service. [2]
(b) Explain in brief the term ‘Parity Princing’. [2]
(c) How does the Central Bank control credit through Statutory Liquidity Ratio. [2]
(d) Explain the terms Surplus and Deficit in an Income and Expenditure Account. [2]
(e) With reference to the Bhopal Gas Tragedy:
(i) Name the company responsible for the tragedy.
(ii) Identify the poisonous gas that caused this ghastly man made disaster. [2]

Answer:
(a)

(b) Parity Pricing: Parity Pricing concept that the selling price of a product or produce should.go up in the same account as the peices of the inputs used in product. It means adjustment of price according to the competitors. It is best suitable for a highly competitive market.
(c) Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR): Statutory liquidity ratio refer amount that the commercial banks require to maintain in the form of gold or government approved securities before providing credit to the customers. SLR is determined and maintained by the Reserve Bank of India in order to control the expansion of bank credit.
(d) Surplus: If the income of a non-trading concern exceeds over its expenditure, it is known as surplus.
Deficit: If the expenditure exceeds the income, it is known as deficit.
(e) (i) The company responsible for the Bhopal Gas Tragedy – Union Carbide India Limited.
(ii) Methyl Isocyanate (MIC).

Question 4:
Justify either for or against by giving two reasons for each of the following:
(a) Aggressive selling is the only way a company can survive in a highly competitive market. [2]
(b) Real costs must be recorded in the books of accounts. [2]
(c) Training reduces employee turnover. [2]
(d) Tea and coffee can be sold on sale-on approval or return basis. [2]
(e) Increased advertising in recent times has resulted in lower prices of newspapers. [2]

Answer:
(a) For: Yes, it is true because through agressive selling only you can get more customers to exchange their money for your products and services by proving yourself superior among the competitors. To achieve this, new marketing and selling techniques are used to explore the needs of customers, to get their maximum satisfaction.
(b) Against: Real cost cannot be recorded in the books of accounts because value of this cannot be measured in terms of money. It means sacrifice, discomfort and pain involved in doing the business.
(c) For: Yes, training reduces employee turnover as it increases the efficiency of worker which boosts the morale of the employees. This ensures employee loyalty, long term growth and a lifetime association with the organisation.
(d) Against: Tea and coffee cannot be sold or sale on approval or return basis because under this arrangement of sale an individual or a company interested in purchasing a specific item is allowed to use the item for a given length of time. At the end of that time if the individual is satisfied with the item they agree to purchase otherwise it has to be returned, but in the case of tea and coffee nothing could be returned, after the consumption (if not satisfied) and if, consumed partially it will be difficult to do the valuation of the consumed portion.
(e) For: Yes, increased advertising in recent times has resulted in lower prices of newspapers, as now a days advertising has become a great source of income for newspapers which has resulted in increase in its circulation.

Section – B (60 Marks)
(Attempt any four questions from this section)

Question 5:
(a) What are Overheads or Indirect expenses? Mention three types of Overheads with an example of each. [5]
(b) ‘Intense competition in the corporate world has led to the emergence of advertising as a vital tool for corporate survival’. Do you agree with this statement? Support your answer by citing reasons. [5]
(c) Explain the following:
(i) Principle of Prudence.
(ii) Money Measurement Concept. [5]

Answer:
(a) Overhead or indirect expenses are those expenses which cannot be charged to production directly or cannot be identified with a specific product or job. These are incurred in planning and controlling the business operations.
Three types of overhead expenses are:

1. Factory Overheads: Consumable stores like Lubricants, Grease etc. used for the smooth working of machines.
2. Office Overheads: These expenses are incurred in the process of managing business Activities e.g. office rent, salary of office manager etc.
3. Selling Overheads: These expenses are incurred in selling and distribution of goods and services, e.g. advertising expenses, sales commission etc.

(b) Intense competition in the corporate world has led to the emergence of advertising as a vital tool for corporate survival because these days, there are several producers producing similar products, therefore the primary objective of advertising is to provide relevant information to the consumers about products and services. It also provides link between producers and consumers. With the help of convincing advertisement, a business firm can create demand for its products which facilitates mass distribution of goods. By creating brand loyalty, advertising helps to maintain sales and market-share.
(c) (i) Principle of Prudence: According to this convention all anticipated losses should be recorded in the books of accounts, but all anticipated or unrealized gains should be ignored, e.g. – Joint Life Insurance Policy is shown only at surrender value as against the amount paid.
(ii) Refer Ans. 8. (a) (ii), 2016.

Question 6:
(a) What is the Penetrating Princing Policy? Discuss its pros and cons. [5]
(b) Elucidate the selection procedure for a vacancy in an organizaiton. [5]
(c) Briefly explain any five Consumer Rights. [5]

Answer:
(a) Penetrating Pricing Policy: According to this pricing policy, in the initial stage low prices are set-up to make the particular brand popular. This strategy is mostly used when there is strong potential competition in market and while launching fast moving consumer goods where demand is highly elastic and to restrict the entry of new competitors in the market. But at the same time the demand goes so high that it becomes difficult for the producer to meet it or the consumers think that the low price product are low in quality.

Pros:

1. Penetrating pricing yields high sales turn over and thereby offers the benefits of economies of scale.
2. A low initial price helps to restrict the entry of new competitors.
3. The product finds immediate acceptance in the market as common man can afford it.
4. Penetrating pricing can prolong the life of a product after the cream of the market has been skimmed.

Cons:

1. A low price may bring in so much demand which the producer may be unable to meet.
2. Consumers may interpret low price as a sign of poor quality.
3. It may be very difficult to increase the price when cost increases.
4. Low price may not yield adequate profit margin to the producer and the dealers.

(b) Selection Procedure:

1. Preliminary Interview: This is the first step in the process of selection which is conducted to know the minimum qualification, experience and age of the candidates.
2. Application Form: After qualifying Preliminary interview the candidates are asked to fill in the prescribed application form to get the written details of the candidates including his age, sex, address etc.
3. Employment Test: This is conducted to check the required skills in the candidates. These tests are based on the assumption that work behaviour of a person can be predicted by sampling it.
4. Selection Interview: It is a method of checking the information obtained through application and employment test, through face to face communication with the candidates. It also helps the candidate to acquire knowledge about the job details and the company.
5. Checking References: It is the process of verifying the names given by the candidate, of the people who knows about him, his previous job and his character.
6. Medical Determination and Final Approval: A medical test is conducted to ensure the physical fitness of the candidate which leads to the final approval. The finally approved candidate are issued appointment letters.
7. Final Approval: The candidates who are short listed after medical examination are finally approved by the head of the department in which they are to work. They are issued appointment letters and/or service agreement are made with them.

(c) Consumer Rights:

1. The Right to Safety: This right protects the consumers against the sale of goods which are hazardous to life and property.
   e.g. Electrical appliances, Gas cylinders etc. Consumers must have assurance regarding quality, reliability and safety of the products.
2. The Right to be informed: The consumer must have the right to be informed about the full details of the product regarding its quality, price etc. This protects the consumers from deceptive advertising, inflated price etc.
3. The Right to Choose: According to this right the consumer should be free to choose from alternative products, through free competition.
4. The Right to be heard: The consumer is free to register his complaint regarding the product at appropriate forums.
5. The Right to Consumer Education: According to this right, the consumer should be made aware of his rights and remedies available under the law.

Question 7:
(a) Describe the procedure adopted for opening a Saving Bank Account with a Commercial Bank. [5]
(b) Briefly explain any five factors responsible for the destruction of the eco system. [5]
(c) List the advantages and disadvantages of using radio services as a form of advertising media. [5]

Answer:
(a) Procedure for Opening a Saving Bank Account:

1. Application in the Prescribed Form: These forms are provided by banks for opening different types of accounts. In these the person willing to open an account should furnish full details about his name, occupation, permanent and official address, specimen signature etc.
2. Introduction of the Applicant: Introduction of the applicant by an existing account holder in the bank to ensure the identity of the applicant. Existing account holder needs sign the application form itself and to write his full name.
3. Specimen Signature: After filling the prescribed form issued by the bank and introduction given by a current account holder, the applicant is required to give his four signatures on a prescribed card. This enables to bank to verify the signature of the account holder with the signature on the cheque issued by him.
4. Photograph: In order to avoid various frauds due to fake identity the banks require photographs of the applicant to be affixed on signature card.
5. Initial Deposit: It is the minimum amount which the applicant must deposit, to activate his newly opened account. After opening an account, the bank provides the passbook, chequebook and pay-in-slips to account holder.

(b) Five Factors Responsible for the Destruction of the Eco System:

1. Population Growth: Population is growing rapidly but the land is static, which is a great threat to our eco system. Ibis is resulting in deforestation, destruction of natural resources, soil erosion, falling water table, pollution of water sources and atmosphere.
2. Transport: More and more road network is being expanded, which is resulting in deforestation, extinction of species, urbanisation etc.
3. Tourism: With the development of tourism, there is a quest to earn more and more revenue and foreign currency. The virgin areas which are rich in natural resources are exposed for the tourists. This is causing a loss of fresh water and habitats.
4. Agriculture: In order to cater the needs of over growing population, our farmers are using more and more chemical fertilizers and pesticides to increase their productivity. This is resulting into degradation of soil quality and natural food chain process.
5. Industrialisation: Increase in the number of industries is a great danger to our eco system. It is resulting into deforestation to get more and more land for industries, contamination of water by industrial wastes, air pollution and sound pollution.

(c) Advantages of Radio Services in the form of Advertising Media:

1. It is convenient for the masses due to its wide coverage.
2. It is good for rural areas as it can even cover illiterate people and lower income segment.
3. The frequency of repetition of advertisement is more.
4. People don’t have to sit and watch the advertisement, they can very easily hear them while working.
5. With the use of extra audio affects, in the form of music and interactive sessions through phone calls, makes the communication more effective.

Disadvantages:

1. There is a lack of selectivity due to availability of selective radio channels in our country.
2. It is costlier due to limited selectivity.
3. Industrialisation and other factors makes the sound signal weak which results in poor reception.
4. It has a short life span and back reference is not possible.
5. It takes visual impact.

Question 8:
(a) What is the professional and social significance of Human Resource Management? [5]
(b) Write short notes on:
(i) Importance of Packaging.
(ii) The Chernobyl disaster. [5]
(c) Last year, Sakona Co. Ltd. came up with a unique and revolutionary Home Theatre System with amazing new features, excellent sound quality and elegant design. It was priced very high, yet it was a great success. This year the company is facing stiff competition, but is determined to acquire a huge chunk of the market share.
(i) In what stage of PLC (Product Life Cycle) is the Home Theatre System presently?
(ii) Suggest strategies that Sakona Co. Ltd. should adopt to achieve its corporate goals. [5]

Answer:
(a) Professional and Social Importance of Human Resources Management:
Professional Significance: Human Resource Management helps in maximising the working potential of the employees by providing a healthy working environment and opportunities for growth. It enhances better understanding among the people working together which leads to effective team work. It boosts the confidence of the people by placing them at the right place at the right time according to their qualification and work experience. HRM also inculcates a feeling of belonging for the organisation.
Social Significance: Human Resource Management helps the society by utilising and channelising the manpower in the productive channels. It provides maximum opportunities to enhance the dignity of labour by placing the right person at the right job. HRM also raises the standard of living of the people by increasing the employment opportunities.

(b) (i) Packaging: It means placing products in suitable packages for safe and easy handling. It is not only a protective cover but it also acts as a silent salesman by providing various information about the product. Packaging also provides reuse, repack and resale value of the packaging material which adds utility to the product. It also has a competitive value as it differentiates a product from its substitutes and adds beauty to the product to grab immediate attention.
(ii) The Chernobyl Disaster: The Chernobyl disaster occurred on April 26, 1986 at Chernobyl nuclear plant located in Chernobyl city of Ukraine. It is a nuclear power generation station from where radioactive material drifted over the surrounding area causing more than 10,000 people died due to side effect of radiation. It lead to a series of genetic disorders or changes in the areas of Ukraine, Belrus and Russia.

(c) (i) At present the PLC of the Home Theatre System is in its growth stage where it is facing a tough competition. Still the sale at distribution is widening.
(ii) At this stage the Sakona Co. Ltd should adopt the following strategies:

1. Keep the price at competitive level.
2. More importance should be given to after sales service.
3. Try to introduce more versions of the Home Theatre System with improved features.
4. More advertising to be done to create brand image and more sales promotional activities to be introduced.

Question 9:

Case Study

It is the conviction of the management of Carmel Closure Co. Ltd. that its shareholders constitute an important part of the public. The management feels that the company should devote time and effort in studying the make-up, location, economic status and demography of this group to enable better communication and a stronger public relation policy.
Mr. Ramesh Sharma is the Public Relation Officer of the company. He agrees with the Management to a certain extent, however he would like to introduce other forms of public relations programmes.
(a) Why is it imperative for a company to maintain a good relationship with its shareholders?
How should Mr. Sharma go about planning a successful programme? [5]
(b) Mention two other public relations programmes that would be of paramount importance to the company. Give reasons to support your answer. [5]
(c) How would you explain to Mr. Sharma about the element ‘Empathy’ as being one of the key elements to establish good public relations? [5]

Answer:
(a) It is important for a company to maintain a good relationship with its shareholders because they are the one who contributes to the company’s share capital and assure the risk of the loss. The company should consider the shareholder as its actual owner and should always strive for a better relationship with its shareholders to hold their interest in the company and j promote holding of stock as a long term investment.
Mr. Sharma should provide the current information about the financial position and future prospectsnf the company in a simple and under-standable language. The company should organise share holder relation programmes to promote the long-term investment relationship with the company. This will reduce the dissatisfaction and organised opposition to management policies.

(b) The two public relation programmes that would paramount importance to the company are:

1. The importance should be given to good employee relations, by giving equal opportunities to the employees and to be a part of management. This will increase the adaptability of management policies more effectively. A two way r channel of communication should always be active between management and workers.
2. Consumer decides the success or failure of a business enterprise. Therefore, a sincere concern for consumers is very important. This can be easily achieved by developing better relations with consumers by regularly communicating with them through sales representatives, meetings, surveys, mailings, magazines and literature.

(c) Empathy means looking at things from others point of view which leads towards better understanding of another human being. It is basically concerned with the establishment of trust and rapport, which is the base for public relation. It involves seeing and feeling matters as others see and feel which builds more confidence of the public and promotes goodwill of the company. It also appreciate company’s perspective in a positive way by creating an atmosphere full of faith, trust and confidence.

Question 10:

Case Study

Ardent Aptec Ltd. is a telecommunication company. It gives top priority to employee training. The company believes that training contributes to a permanent relationship between superiors and subordinates. The company environment provides conditions favourable to learning and career growth. It also considers it as a continuous process.
The recruitment policy of the company is focused on campus recruitment and hence special steps are taken to ensure that the employees acquire the necessary skills. The accelerated rate of technological changes in the telecommunication industry has led to greater focus on retraining employees.
In addition to in-house training facilities, the company makes use of training programmes run by various technical and management institutes.
(a) Discuss any three types of training that can be undertaken by Ardent Aptec Ltd. [5]
(b) Why does Ardent Aptec Ltd. think it is important to train employees? [5]
(c) Discuss any three training methods that may be adopted by Ardent Aptec Ltd. [5]

Answer:
(a) The three types of training that can be undertaken by Ardent Aptec Ltd are as follows:

1. Coaching: Under this method of training, the employee gets instructions by the supervisors or by some experienced employee. This method of training is economical, more realistic, does not require any separate training department and it creates better understanding between the workers and their supervisors.
2. Lectures, Seminars and Conferences: Employees learn new ideas and latest changes taking place in the technology by attending lectures, seminars and conferences. This refresh their knowledge and they learn new ideas.
3. Job Rotation: In this method the trainee is periodically rotated from one job to another. This broadens the outlook of the employees, by making him learn a variety of tasks.

(b) Ardent Aptec Ltd, thinks training is very important because training is a learning experience which develops manpower to improve their job performance. It also helps workers to cope with the latest technological advancement taking place rapidly which boosts the morale of the workers to face the complex situations at the work place. Well trained employees require less supervision which reduces the cost of supervision and increases the probability of expansion of work.

(c) Three training methods that may be adopted by Ardent Aptec Ltd. are:

1. Lectures, Seminars and Conferences: Under such training method the employees learn new ideas and latest technological developments taking place in the industry. It refreshes their knowledge with new ideas.
2. Vestibule Training: This training is conducted away from the actual work place. Artificial working environment is created where the employees recover from their initial nervousness before going into an actual work place. This type of training permits greater emphasis on teaching the best method of work.
3. Sensitivity Training: This method helps the employees to learn more about themselves, their weaknesses and to develop self awareness. It also helps in promoting team spirit among the workers.

ICSE Class 10 Commercial Applications Previous Years Question Papers

ICSE Geography Previous Year Question Paper 2016 Solved for Class 10

ICSE Paper 2016
GEOGRAPHY

(Two hours)
Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
Attempt seven questions in all.
Part I is compulsory. All questions from Part I are to be attempted.
A total of five questions are to be attempted from Part II.
The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].
To be supplied with this Paper : Survey of India Map Sheet No. 45D/7
and 20 cm of twine.

Note:
(i) In all Map Work, make wise use of arrows to avoid overcrowding of the map.
(ii) The extract of Survey of India Map Sheet No. 45D/7 must not be taken out of the examination hall. It must be handed over to the Supervising Examiner on completion of the Paper.
(iii) The Map given at the end of this question paper must be detached, and after marking must be fastened to your answer booklet.
(iv) All sub-sections of the questions attempted must be answered in the correct serial
order.
(v) All working including rough work should be done on the same answer sheet which is used to answer the rest of the paper.

PART I [30 Marks]

Attempt all questions from this Part.

Question 1:
Study the extract of the Survey of India Map Sheet No. 45D/7 and answer the following questions :
(a) Give the six figure grid reference for :  [2]
(i) Surveyed tree 219 north east of Pirojpura settlement.
(ii) Triangulated height 364 in the southern part of the map extract.

(b) What is the direction of flow of Banas river? Give one evidence for your answer.  [2]

(c) What do you understand by:  [2]
(i) 12r in the grid square 9878 and
(ii) 180 in the grid square 9182.

(d) Calculate the area in kilometre of the region between 93 and 99 eastings and 76 and 81 northings. [2]

(e) (i) What is the compass direction of settlement Juvol from settlement Arnivada ?
(ii) Give the difference in altitude between the highest point on the map to the altitude of Moti Bhatamal. [2]

(f) Name the feature depicted by:  [2]
(i) Blue line in Balaram nadi
(ii) Brown patch in 9678

(g) Name the drainage pattern found in:  [2]
(i) 9782
(ii) 9478

(h) What do you infer about the climate of the region by the information provided on the map ? Give an evidence in support of your answer.  [2]

(i) Name two man made and two natural features in 9580.  [2]

(j) What do the following denote:  [2]
(i) Black vertical line running along with 93 easting.
(ii) RS near Chitrasani settlement.

Answer:
(a) Six Figure grid reference are :
(i) Surveyed tree 219—979755.
(ii) Triangulated height 364—957744.

(b) Direction of flow of River Banas is from ENE to WSW.
Evidence: Contour height is decreasing towards WSW i.e., from 200 m to 180 m.

(c) (i) 12 r in grid square 9878 is the relative height of a sand dune i.e., 12 m.
(ii) 180 in grid square 9182 is the contour height above mean sea level.

(d)

(e) (i) Compass direction of juvol from settlement Arnivada is NW. (North-West)
(ii) Highest point in the map is 542
Altitude of Moti Bhatamal is 198
Difference in Height = 542 – 198 = 344 m.

(f) (i) Blue line in Balaram nadi is a perennial water channel in a seasonal river, (ii) Brown patch in 9678 indicates sanddunes.

(g) Drainage pattern in
(i) 9782-Radial
(ii) 9478 – Disappearing.

(h) Climate of the region depicted in the map is hot and dry with seasonal rainfall.
Evidence: Rivers and streams in the map are seasonal in nature.

(i) Two man made and natural features in 9580 are :
Man Made: Perennial lined well and permanent huts.
Natural Features: Broken ground and seasonal stream.

(j) (i) Black vertical line running along with 93 easting is Longitude.
(ii) RS near Chitrasani settlement is Railway Station.

Question 2:
On the outline map of India provided :
(a) Draw and number the Standard Meridian of India.  [1]
(b) Label the river Mahanadi. [1]
(c) Mark and name Lake Chilka. [1]
(d) Shade and name the Gulf of Mannar. [1]
(e) Mark and name the Vindhya Mountains. [1]
(f) Shade and name a sparsely populated region in western India. [1]
(g) Shade a region with alluvial soil in South India. [1]
(h) Mark and name Kolkata. [1]
(i) Mark with arrows and name South West Monsoon winds over the Bay of Bengal. [1]
(j) Mark and name Mumbai High. [1]

Answer:

PART II [50 Marks]

Attempt any five questions from this Part.

Question 3:
(a) What is the name given to the climate of India ? Mention any two factors responsible for such a type of climate.  [2]

(b) Name the following:  [2]
(i) The winds that bring heavy rain to Cherrapunji.
(ii) The local wind that bring a light rainfall to South India and is good for tea and coffee crops.

(c) Give a geographical reason for each of the following:  [3]
(i) Kanpur has extreme temperature conditions.
(ii) Kochi is warmer than Mumbai even though both lie on the western coast of India.
(iii) The Ganga Plain gets the monsoon rain much later than the west coast of India.

(d) Study the climatic data of station x given below and answer the questions that follow:  [3]

(i) Calculate the total annual rainfall experienced by the station.
(ii) What is the annual range of temperature ?
(iii) On which coast of India does the station lie ? Give a reason for your answer.

Answer:
(a) Name given to the Indian climate – ‘Tropical Monsoon Type’.
Two factors responsible for it are :
(i) Altitude
(ii) Distance from the sea.

(b) (i) Moisture Laiden Monsoon winds of Bay of Bengal Branch of South West Monsoon.
(ii) Mango Showers.

(c) (i) Kanpur has extreme type of temperature conditions because it is away from the influence from the sea and is not influenced by the land and sea breezes.
(ii) Kochi is warmer than Mumbai even though both lie on the western coast of India because Kochi is located on lower latitude and is close to the equator.
(iii) Ganga plain gets the monsoon rain much later than the west coast of India because Ganga plain lies in the north India and the monsoon being S.W. Monsoon, first strikes the west coast of India.

(d) (i) Total annual rainfall experienced by the station is 128.7 cm.
(ii) Annual range of temperature of the station is 8°C.
(iii) Station lies on the east coast of India because it receives its maximum rainfall in the month of October and November.

Question 4:
(a) What is soil erosion ? Mention two steps that could be taken to prevent soil erosion.  [2]

(b) Mention two similarities between red soil and laterite soil.  [2]

(c) Give a geographical reason for each of the following:  [3]
(i) Alluvial soil differs in texture.
(ii) Black soil does not get leached.
(iii) Khadar is more fertile than bhangar

(d) Define the following:  [3]
(i) Sheet erosion
(ii) Soil conservation
(iii) In situ soil

Answer:
(a) Soil Erosion: The detachment of the soil particles from the uppermost portion of the earth’s crust is called soil erosion.
Steps taken to prevent soil erosion are :
(i) Contour Ploughing: The fields are ploughed and sown along the contours instead up and down the slope.
(ii) Planting of Shelter belts: In desert areas trees are planted on the margins of deserts perpendicular to the wind direction which prevents soil erosion.

(b) Two similarities between red soil and laterite soil are :
(i) Both are red is colour as they are rich in iron oxide.
(ii) Both are porous and friable.

(c) (i) Alluvial soil differs in texture because it is a transported soil deposited by rivers.
(ii) Black soil does not get leached because it is moisture retentive.
(iii) Khadar is new alluvium deposited by the rivers in their flood plains which is replensid every year. Bangar is older alluvium found in upland area above the flood plains, Bangar is older alluvium which is not renewed by the floods.

(d) (i) Sheet Erosion: When the vegetation cover of an area is removed, the rainwater instead of seeping into the ground, washes down the slope. A complete layer is carried along with water in a larger area. It is called sheet erosion.
(ii) Soil Conservation: It refers to the steps taken to protect the soil from erosion. It aims at prevention as well as reclamation of soil that has been damaged by natural phenomenon or due to exploitation and improvishment over centuries.
(iii) In Situ Soil: When the soil remains at the place of its formation it is called in situ soil. e.g. Black Soil.

Question 5:
(a) (i) Name the forest which is commercially most important in India.  [2]
(ii) Name two trees which grow in this forest.

(b) (i) Name the forests which grow on the wind ward slope of the Western Ghats.  [2]
(ii) Why do such forests grow in this region ?

(c) To which type of forest do the following trees belong ?  [3]
(i) Hintal and Sundari.
(ii) Rosewood and Ebony.
(iii) Deodar and Chir Pine.

(d) Give three reasons for rapid depletion of forest resources in India in the past.  [3]

Answer:
(a) (i) Tropical monsoon deciduous forest.
(ii) Two trees found in these forest are Teak and Semul.

(b) (i) Tropical evergreen rainforests grow on the wind ward slope of the western ghats.
(ii) These forests grow in this region because the temperature here ranges between 24°C to 27°C and rainfall is above 200 cm.

(c) (i) Hintal and Sundari – Tidal or Littoral Forest
(ii) Rosewood and Ebony – Tropical Evergreen Rain Forest.
(iii) Deodar and Chirpine – Mountain Forest.

(d) Three reasons for rapid depletion of forest resources are :
(i) Increase in Population.
(ii) Industrial Growth.
(iii) Defects in the method of farming (slash and burn farming).
(iv) Dependence of forest fuel for energy. (any three)

Question 6:
(a) “Without irrigation, development of agriculture is difficult in India.” Clarify the statement by giving two reasons.  [2]

(b) Mention two factors which are essential for the development of tube well irrigation.  [2]

(c) Give one reason for each of the following:
(i) The Northern Plain of India is found suitable for canal irrigation.
(ii) Tank irrigation is an important method of irrigation in Karnataka.
(iii) Although expensive, yet, sprinkler irrigation is gaining popularity in recent times.

(d) (i) What is rain water harvesting ?  [3]
(ii) Mention two objectives of rain water harvesting.

Answer:
(a) Without irrigation, development of agriculture is difficult in India because :
(i) India is an agricultural country and proper irrigation becomes a must. Rainfall in India is uncertain in both time and amount.
(ii) Cultivation in winters is only possible when there is proper irrigation facilities as monsoon in India are limited for four months only.

(b) Two factors for development of tubewell irrigation:
(i) Cheap supply of Electricity.
(ii) High underground water label.

(c) (i) Northern plains are suitable for canal irrigation because the rivers in the north are perennial in nature.
(ii) Tank irrigation is an important method of irrigation in Karnataka because its a plateau region with natural depressions.
(iii) Sprinkler irrigation is gaining importance in recent times because it prevents loss of water and there is economical use of water.

(d) (i) Rain Water Harvesting: Collection of rain water for recharging the underground water is called rainwater harvesting.
(ii) Two Objectives:
(1) Preventing soil erosion and flooding.
(2) Dilutes salinity of ground water.

Question 7:
(a) (i) Name any three types of coal found in India.  [2]
(ii) Which type of coal is mostly used in Iron and Steel Industries ?

(b) Name the following:  [2]
(i) An off-shore oil field of India
(ii) An iron ore mine of Karnataka.

(c) Name the following:  [3]
(i) Largest coal field of India.
(ii) Oldest oil-field of India.
(iii) Best variety of iron ore.

(d) (i) Name the metal extracted from Bauxite.
(ii) Mention two uses of this metal.

Answer:
(a) (i) Three types of coal found in India are :
(1) Anthracite. (2) Bituminous. (3) Lignite.
(ii) Iron and steel industries mainly use Bituminous type of coal.

(b) (i) Mumbai High in Maharashtra.
(ii) An iron ore mine of Karnataka : Kudremukh iron ore mine.

(c) (i) Jharia coal field in Jharkhand.
(ii) Digboi oil reserves in Assam.
(iii) Haematite.

(d) (i) Aluminium is extracted from Bauxite.
(ii) Uses of aluminium are :

1. Used in air craft Industry.
2. Used for making head light reflectors.

Question 8:
(a) Mention any two reasons for the importance of agriculture in India.  [2]

(b) With reference to rice cultivation answer the following:  [2]
(i) Why does rice grow well in a soil with a clay like subsoil ?
(ii) What is the advantage of growing rice in nurseries before it is transplanted ?

(c) Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:  [3]
(i) Name one State where this crop grows well.
(ii) Why are mostly women employed to harvest it ?
(iii) Mention two geographical conditions suitable for the cultivation of this crop.

(d) Explain briefly the following terms:  [3]
(i) Shifting cultivation
(ii) Budgrafting
(iii) Oil cake.

Answer:
(a) Two reasons for the importance of Agriculture are :
(i) One-third of the India’s national income is earned through agriculture.
(ii) About 70% of working population of India is directly involved in agriculture.

(b) (i) Rice grow well in a soil with a clay like subsoil because rice requires stagnant water in the field. The subsoil layer prevents water from draining away and allows the water to stagnant in the field.
(ii) Advantages of growing rice in nurseries before it is transplanted is that, the weeds are removed so problem of weeds is solved and there is less wastage of seeds.

(c) (i) Assam.
(ii) Mostly women are employed to harvest tea leaves because of their temprament. Tea leaves plucking is a very skilled job. They are able to pluck the leaves delicately. Other work on the fields is done by men.
(iii) Two geographical conditions suitable for the cultivation of tea are :

1. It requires the temperature ranging between 13°C to 35°C.
2. Rainfall ranging between 150-200 cm annually is best suited. Dry spell is harmful. High humidity, heavy dew and morning fog favours its growth.

(d) (i) Shifting Cultivation: It is widely practiced on the hill slopes of north eastern states. In this farming a patch of ground is cleared by burning the trees. After cultivating for 2 to 3 years they switch over to another piece of land when soil is exhausted. Mainly practiced by tribals. This farming has been banned by the government as it encourages deforestation and increases the green house gases.
(ii) Bud grafting: It is associated with rubber crop. This method is done by the insertion of a strip of bark containing a bud from high yielding clones under a bark of a young seedling about 5 cm high till they become united in 3 to 4 weeks. The old seedliqg stem is then cut off above the grafted bud, which then grows to form a new rubber plant.
(iii) Oil Cake: The residue left after crushing the nuts is called oil cake. It makes an excellent feed for cattle.

Question 9:
(a) Give two reasons for the importance of the jute industry in the Ganga-Brahmaputra delta region. [2]

(b) Mention two problems of the Cotton Textile industry in India.  [2]

(c) (i) Give two reasons why the woollen industry is not a flourishing industry in India.  [3]
(ii) Name two centres for this industry.

(d) With reference to the silk industry, answer the following:  [3]
(i) Why is Karnataka the largest producer of mulberry silk ?
(ii) Mention two varieties of non-mulberry silk produced in India.
(iii) Name one silk weaving centre each in U.P. and in Tamil Nadu.

Answer:
(a) Two reasons for the importance of the jute industry in the Ganga-Brahmaptra delta region are :
(i) Raw material is easily available, as jute is grown in Ganga delta.
(ii) The hot and humid climate is favourable for spinning and weaving.

(b) Three problems faced by the cotton textile industry are :
(i) Shortage of raw material. India has still to face shortage of raw material and has to import it.
(ii) Obsolete Machinery
(iii) Competition with synthetic fibre which is cheapand aurable.

(c) (i) (1) India is a tropical country and woollen colothes are required only in Northern India during winter season.
(2) A large number of people are poor and cannot afford to spend on costly woollen clothes.
(3) Woollen industry is decentralised. Therefore improvement and development is difficult. (any two)
(ii) Two centres of this industry are Ludhiana and Kanpur.

(d) (i) Karnataka is the largest producer of mulberry silk because

1. Temperature in this region ranges between 16°C to 30°C which is favourable for rearing silk worms.
2. Enough fresh water free from alkaline salts for the processing of silk fibre is also available.

(ii) Two varieties of non mulberry silk—eri and muga.
(iii) U.P. — Banaras, Tamil Nadu – Tanjore.

Question 10:
(a) Mention two advantages that a mini steel plant has over an integrated iron and steel plant.  [2]

(b) (i) Name an iron and steel plant which was established with British collaboration.  [2]
(ii) From where does it get its supply of:
1. iron ore
2. manganese
3. coal

(c) Give a reason for each of the following:  [3]
(i) Products made from petrochemicals are growing in popularity.
(ii) A heavy engineering industry requires huge capital investment.
(iii) The electronics industry contributes to the development of the country.

(d) Name the industrial product for which the following centres are well known:  [3]
(i) Bhilai
(ii) Chittaranjan
(iii) Koraput.

Answer:
(a) Advantages of Mini steel plants are:

1. They use the electric arc furnace and thus conserve coal.
2. They require small capital investment.
3. They cater to the local need of the market and the cost of transport is reduced. (any two)

(b) (i) Durgapur steel plant.
(ii) It gets its supply of

1. Iron ore from Keonjhar in Orissa and Singhbhum in Jharkhand.
2. Manganese from Keonjhar in Orissa.
3. Coal from Jharia and Raniganj.

(c) (i) Products made from petrochemicals are growing in popularity because they are cost effective, economically stable and do not depend on agricultural raw material.
(ii) A heavy engineering industry requires huge capital investment because it requires enormous amount of power, good transport facility and heavy bulky raw material which is costly.
(iii) The electronics industry contributes to the development of the country because it has largely contributed to space technology, communication, information technology, software industry, medical sciences and defence to develop with electronic apparatus.

(d) Industrial products of the following centres are:
(i) Bhilai—Iron and Steel-rails, beams etc
(ii) Chittaranj an—Electrical and diesel locomotives
(iii) Koraput—Air Crafts.

Question 11:
(a) Mention two advantages and one disadvantage of waterways.  [3]

(b) Roadways are always considered more important than any other means of transportation. Give two reasons in support of the statement.  [2]

(c) (i) Mention any two sources of waste.  [2]
(ii) What are Biodegradable waste ?

(d) Explain briefly the meaning of the following terms:  [3]
(i) Composting.
(ii) Incineration.
(iii) Segregation.

Answer:
(a) Two advantages of waterways are :

1. It is the cheapest source of transport.
2. Most suitable transport to carry heavy and bulky goods.

One disadvantage of waterways is :

1.  Demand for waterways is declining because its movement is not as fast as airways or railways.

(b) Roadways are considered more important than any other means of transportation because

1. It is a cheap transport for long distances and for bulky products.
2. It promotes national integration and integration within states.

(c) (i) Two sources of wastes are :

1. Domestic Waste
2. Industrial Waste

(ii) Biodegradable Waste: Waste produced by plants and animals, kitchen, paper, green waste etc that can be broken down in a reasonable amount of time through microbial activities of fungi and bacteria.

(d) (i) Composting: It is a process that involves decomposition of organic waste into humus known as compost which is a good fertilizer for the plants.
(ii) Incineration: It is a process of controlled high temperature oxidation of primary organic compounds that release thermal energy and produce carbon dioxide and water.
(iii) Segregation: The waste from residential areas, hotels and restaurants, office complex and commercial areas must be segregated at source into different categories of biodegradable and non-degradable waste, this process is called Segregation.

ICSE Class 10 Geography Previous Years Question Papers

APlusTopper.com provides ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Previous Year Board Question Papers Solved Pdf Free Download with Solutions, Answers and Marking Scheme. Here we have given ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Solved Question Papers Last Ten Years. Students can view or download the ICSE Board 10th Chemistry Previous Year Question Papers with Solutions for their upcoming examination.

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Board – Indian Certificate of Secondary Education (ICSE), www.cisce.org
Class – Class 10
Subject – Chemistry
Year of Examination – 2020, 2019, 2018, 2017.

ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Solved Question Papers Last Ten Years

ICSE Chemistry Class 10 Solved Question Papers Last 10 Years 

• ICSE 2019 Chemistry Question Paper Solved
• ICSE 2018 Chemistry Question Paper Solved
• ICSE 2017 Chemistry Question Paper Solved
• ICSE 2016 Chemistry Question Paper Solved
• ICSE 2015 Chemistry Question Paper Solved
• ICSE 2014 Chemistry Question Paper Solved
• ICSE 2013 Chemistry Question Paper Solved
• ICSE 2012 Chemistry Question Paper Solved
• ICSE 2011 Chemistry Question Paper Solved
• ICSE 2010 Chemistry Question Paper Solved
• ICSE 2009 Chemistry Question Paper Solved
• ICSE 2008 Chemistry Question Paper Solved

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Board – Indian Certificate of Secondary Education (ICSE), www.cisce.org
Class – Class 10
Subject – English Literature
Year of Examination – 2020, 2019, 2018, 2017.

ICSE Class 10 English Literature Solved Question Papers Last Ten Years

• ICSE English Literature Question Paper 2019 Solved
• ICSE English Literature Question Paper 2016 Solved
• ICSE English Literature Question Paper 2015 Solved
• ICSE English Literature Question Paper 2014 Solved
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ICSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10