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ICSE Class 10 Geography Goyal Brothers Solutions Chapter 19 Need and Method for Reducing, Reusing & Recycling Waste

Question 1.
State two methods for managing waste efficiently and properly.
Answer:
The two methods for managing waste efficiently and properly by the following ways:

1. To reduce generation of waste resource.
2. To find suitable ways to turn waste into wealth i. e. turn it into potential resource.

Hence the basic concept of 3R’s., i.e. Reduce, Reuse and Recycle plays the most important role in the modem waste management strategy.
Its aim is to generate minimum amount of waste and to extract maximum benefit from the waste generated or produced.

Question 2.
In what way can we reduce the generation of waste?
Answer:
We can reduce the generation of waste by the following ways:
(a) Change of Process :
By changing a modem method to make the best use of raw materials reduces the waste generation in industries.
In zinc electroplating chlorides are used in the process instead of using the sulphate salt in order to eliminate the production of cyanides.

(b) Waste Concentration :
By using scientific techniques such as precipitation and evaporation the amount of liquid waste can be reduced. Incineration can be used to get rid of inflammable wastes.

(c) Segregation of Waste :
First of all, non-hazardous waste are separated from hazardous waste rather than dumping them together. Then the small amount of hazardous waste can be treated. We can dispose of a large amount of non-hazardous waste in the traditional ways.

Question 3.
How can we utilize the household waste?
Answer:
Each individual should change his or her lifestyle in such a way as to reduce environmental pollution. It can be done by following ways:

• Use carry bags made of paper or cloth instead of polythene.
• Help more in pollution prevention than pollution control.
• Use eco-friendly products. ,
• Cut down the use of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) as they destroy the ozone layer. Do not use styrofoam cups that have chlorofluorocarbon (CFC) molecules in them which destroy ozone layer.
• Use the chemicals derived from peaches and plums to clean computer chips and circuit boards instead of CFCs.
• Use CFC-free refrigerators.
• Save electricity by not wasting it when not required because electricity saved is electricity generated without polluting the environment. For example, put on warm clothes rather than switching on a heater.

Question 4.
What substitutes would you suggest in place of plastic and polythene bags which are non-biodegradable?
Answer:
Reducing the use of harmful articles which are non- biodegradable like plastic and polythenes and replacing them by cloth bags or paper bags.

Question 5.
What is meant by 3 Rs? Explain with the help of appropriate examples.
Answer:
3 Rs are Reduction, Reuse and Recycling. It plays most important role in the modem waste management strategy. Its aim is to generate minimum amount of waste and to extract maximum benefit from the waste generate or produced.

Reduction means the least use of waste e.g. bigger packages will reduce the package material saved and so the waste. Reuse is economical and wise e.g. use washable mugs, washable table napkins etc.

Recycling means the profitable use of the domestic waste and industrial wastes, e.g. plastic bottles, bags and containers may be recycled. In the same way the scrap iron may be recycled by melting and purifying it.

Question 6.
How can you recycle paper?
Answer:
Paper Recycling: Waste Paper sometimes reused to make new paper through a process called Paper Recycling. Many different products result from paper recycling. For instance, new computer paper and stationary result from recycling used chipboard or boxboard. It is also used in manufacturing such building materials as insulation, plasterboard and roofing.

Goyal Brothers Prakashan Class 10 ICSE Geography Solutions

Check the below ICSE Class 10 Geography Goyal Brothers Solutions Chapter Chapter 18 Waste Generation & Management – Methods of Safe Disposal of Waste with Questions and Answers Pdf free download. Students can also read Waste Generation and Management Class 10 ICSE Solutions.

ICSE Class 10 Geography Goyal Brothers Solutions Chapter 18 Waste Generation & Management – Methods of Safe Disposal of Waste

Question 1.
Why is it necessary to segregate waste at source?
Answer:
It is necessary to segregate waste at source because if the waste is not separated properly at source, it all gets mixed up in landfills. The dangers of this is that they all leak after a period of time, resulting in leachate or toxic soup at the bottom, which can contaminate groundwater and release explosive methane gas.

Question 2.
What precautions should be observed while collecting the waste?
Answer:
Following Precautions should be observed while collecting the waste:

• The Collection bins must be covered so that the waste is not exposed to atmosphere and stray cattle.
• Mannual handling of waste must be avoided so as to prevent people from exposure to dreadful diseases.
• The storage bins must be so designed that handling and transferring of waste into vans or trucks can be done properly.
• Collection of waste must be organised areawise by covered trucks, vans or rickshaws so as to prevent litering on the roads.
• Building materials, debris and demolition waste must be separately collected and disposed of appropriately.

Question 3.
Why should the waste bins be kept covered?
Answer:
The waste bins must be covered so that the waste is not exposed to atmosphere and stray cattle.

Question 4.
Why should manual handling of waste be avoided?
Answer:
Manual handling of waste must be avoided so as to prevent people from exposure to dreadful diseases and infections.

Question 5.
How is waste transferred? What happens if the vehicles used for transporting waste are not covered?
Answer:
Hazardous waste transporters are individuals or entities that move hazardous waste from one site to another by highway, rail, water, or air.
Vehicles used for transfer or transportation of must be especially designed for waste collection.
It should be covered while being transferred to prevent the pollution of environment and spread and litter on the roads.

Question 6.
What are landfills? What factors must be kept in mind while planning a landfill?
Answer:
Landfills –
Landfills are large area on the outskirts of cities where the waste is deposited on or in the ground and covered with earth.
Factors:

• Topography –
  Any large area away from the city may be used for the site of a landfill.
• Accessibility –
  The site of disposal must be located either centrally or near the source of waste generated.
• Climate-
  The frequency of rainfall, the velocity and direction of prevailing wind and overall temperature-time relationship are factors to be considered at a particular site for landfill.

Question 7.
State the problems associated with landfills.
Answer:
The Problems associated with landfills are:

• The landfills give out a bad odour and affects people living or working nearby.
• A major problem associated with landfills involves the contamination of surrounding water supplies, aquifier and soil by leachate.
• Another serious problem associated with landfill is their creation of explosive methane gas. This gas can leak into the surrounding soil, damaging plants.

Question 8.
What is a leachate? Why is it harmful for soil and water?
Answer:
Leachate:
Leachate is formed when rainwater leaks into the landfill. As the water problems percolates through the landfill, chemical processes turn it acidic. This acidic water then dissolves toxic chemicals from common hazardous waste products such as household cleaners, insect sprays and paints.
The resulting toxic leachate leaks through the bottom and sides of the landfill and contaminates water.
It is associated with landfill is their creation of explosive methane gas. The gas is a by product of chemical processes that occur when bacteria decompose waste. This gas can leak into the surrounding soil and damaging plants.

Question 9.
What is meant by composting?
Answer:
Composting of waste is an aerobic (in the presence of air) method of decomposing solid wastes. The process involves decomposition of organic waste into humus known as compost which is a good fertilizer for plants.

Question 10.
Explain the process of composting in brief.
Answer:
Composting of waste is an aerobic (in the presence of air) method of decomposing solid wastes. The process involves decomposition of organic waste into humus known as compost which is a good fertilizer for plants.

The composting process produces carbon dioxide and heat which can be used for various purposes like cooking. The organic wastes from households are made to undergo decomposition in such a way that bacteria and other micro-organisms break them down and product a safe, clean and soil-like material called compost.

Question 11.
State any three advantages of composting.
Answer:
The major advantages of composting are :

• It enhances soil nutrients and water retention capacity of soils.
• It suppresses plant diseases.
• It rejuvenates poor soils by adding humus.
• It absorbs odours and degrading volatile organic compounds.
• It prevents pollution by preventing pollutants in storm water run-off from draining into water resources.
• It checks soil erosion and silting on embankments.
• It reduces cost by reducing the need for excess water, fertilizers and pesticides.

Goyal Brothers Prakashan Class 10 ICSE Geography Solutions

ICSE Class 10 Geography Goyal Brothers Solutions Chapter 17 Waste Management – Need for Management of Waste

Question 1.
Give two reasons why waste must be managed efficiently?
Answer:
Waste must be managed efficiently due to the following reasons :

• Increasing urbanisation has lead to overcrowding of cities. Thus, lack of space for disposal of garbage, increasing air pollution, water pollution, soil pollution and nuclear pollution is affecting life on Earth.
• The rapid growth of population and industry and the increase in the number of vehicles and airplanes, has made pollution of environment a serious problem in many metropolitan cities and even rural areas since last two decades.

Question 2.
Why should waste be recycled?
Answer:
The waste should be recycled due to following reasons :

• The waste must be recycled to conserve our resources.
• To protect our environment.

Question 3.
In what way developing countries face more problems than developed countries in managing waste?
Answer:
The need for waste management also depends on the country’s level of development.
Developed countries of US and Europe do not face the same problems as they have the latest know how, public awareness and better management techniques.

Question 4.
Write a brief note on the need for management of waste in India.
Answer:
The need of the India is to implement the following steps in controlling pollution and to manage increasing generation of waste to their advantage by recycling it.

• Restricting Population growth.
• Evolvement of proper infrastructure.
• Disposal of waste in covered vans.
• Educating the farmers about the impact of harmful pesticides on human life and soil.
• Implementation of strict laws against polluting the environment by imposing heavy fines.

Question 5.
What is meant by E-waste? Why is it important to recycle it?
Answer:
E-waste or electronic waste include a wide range of electronic goods like washing machines, refrigerators, television etc.
E-waste recycling is very important to protect our environment.

Goyal Brothers Prakashan Class 10 ICSE Geography Solutions

ICSE Class 10 Geography Goyal Brothers Solutions Chapter 16 Waste Management – Impact of Waste Accumulation

Question 1.
What is meant by spoilage of landscape? How does it affect the environment?
Answer:
Spoilage of landscape refers to inefficient and improper management of accumulated waste.
It pollutes the environment and leads to health hazards. The decaying waste matter becomes the breeding ground for all sort of insects, flies and mosquitoes in over crowd residential are as where it may spread infectous diseases.

Question 2.
What is meant by pollutant? Give two examples of air pollution.
Answer:
Pollutant: Substances causing pollution called pollutants.
Examples of Air Pollution:

• Ash from the volcanic eruptions.
• Carbon monoxide from motor vehicles.
• Exhaust or sulphur dioxide from factories.

Question 3.
Name two diseases caused by air pollution.
Answer:
Diseases caused by air pollution are:

1. Asthma
2. Irritation of respiratory diminished lung function.

Question 4.
What is meant by eutrophication? How does it affect aquatic life?
Answer:
Water pollution gives use to eutrophication. It is the process of depletion of oxygen from water bodies occurring either naturally or due to human activities. The process of eutrophication takes place due to introduction of nutrients and chemicals through discharge of domestic sewage, industrial effluents and fertilizers from agricultural field. Algae and phytoplankton use carbon dioxide, inorganic nitrogen and phosphate from the water as food.

They serve as food for microscopic animals (zooplankton). Small fish feed on these zooplanktons and large fish in turns consume these small fish. When nutrients become abundant due to waste accumulation, the growth of phytoplankton and algae increases. Consequently, the penetration of oxygen, light and heat into the waterbody is reduced. This causes death of most of the aquatic organisms, draining water of all its oxygen,

Question 5.
Name the disease caused by mercury contamination in Japan.
Answer:
Minamata disease caused by mercury contamination in Japan.

Question 6.
What affect does the burning of organic waste has on environment?
Answer:
Burning of organic waste has following affects on the environment:

• It causes pollution.
• It causes many harmful diseases like respiratory problems and even caused cancer.
• Some chemicals like cyanides, polychlorinated piphenyls are highly toxic and exposure to them leads to disease or death.
• Burning of organic waste can affect human health, children most vulnerable to these pollutants as the direct exposure leads to chemical poisoning.

Question 7.
Name any three diseases caused due to water pollution?
Answer:
Diseases caused to water pollution are :
Skin rashes, nausea, stomach ailments and cancer.

Question 8.
What is meant by biomagnification?
Answer:
The term Biomagnification means increasing die concentration of various toxic substances along the food chain. Toxic substances at the level of primary producers get concentrated at each trophic level as they move up the food chain.

Question 9.
How is acid rain caused? What are its effects?
Answer:
“When oxides of Sulphur and Nitrogen of air come in contact with water of rain they form corresponding acids and constitute Acid Rain”.
Causes of Acid Rain : “The cause of acid rain is the formation of mineral acids like nitric acid, sulphuric acid and carbonic acid”.

Question 10.
What are hazards caused by soil pollutions?
Answer:
Hazards caused by soil pollutions are :

• It increase the toxicity in soil.
• Micro-organisms enter the food chain or water and are consequently ingested by man.
• Soil pollutants include fertilizers and pesticides these chemicals remain in soil for a long time continuously contaminating the top soil and ground water.

Question 11.
What are the effects of untreated solid waste?
Answer:
The effects of untreated solid waste are following :

• Numerous insects, bacteria and virus grow on the routing waste which are capable of spreading several diseases like diarrhoea, cholera etc.
• Mosquitoes are known for spreading Malaria.
• Flies carry the virus and spread it in the adjoining areas. People fall sick and start vomiting.
• Toxic substances found in waste cause cancer, genetic disorder and foetal human (teratogens) chemicals like arsenic, cadmium and chromium are mostly responsible for cancer.

Question 12.
Why is its essential to have Proper disposal of waste?
Answer:
It is essential to have proper disposal of waste so as to reduce the harmful impact of wastes.

Question 13.
Name the diseases spread by industrial effluents.
Answer:
Pollutant from industries which are released water, such as arsenic, lead, mercury, fluorides etc have serious health impact on humans and caused Minamata disease.

Question 14.
How do farm waste affect human life? Name any two harmful substances they contain.
Answer:
Effects of farm waste on human life are as follows :

• After burning crop residue floats in air and affects the health of people.
• Activity of threshing also releases a lot of waste in the form of straw.
  Its particles remain suspended in air which affects the health of people, especially the asthmatic patients.
• Many farmers in dairy farming which makes the air stinking.
  The harmful substances are nitrate and phosphate. Contaminate with water bodies and create undesirable effects.

Question 15.
Name any three pollutants produced by chemical effects from industries? How do they affect terrestrial life?
Answer:
Industrial Pollutants are such as chemical waste consisting of lead, mercury, arsenic and fluorides.
Affect on Terrestrial life :

• Earthworms and other soil organisms are extremely susceptible to cadmium poisoning.
• Chronic poisoning results from consumption of arsenic, lead and molybednum.
• Another known pollutant is fluoride. Animals are suceptible to fluorosis.
  Cattle and sheep are most commonly affected animals.

Question 16.
How does DDT affect the marine life?
Answer:
Dumping of industrial wastes such as pesticides, especially DDT can accumulate in the fatty tissues of animals. This could lead to failure of the reproductive system of the animals.

Question 17.
Why is fluoride harmful for cattles?
Answer:
Animals are suceptible to fluorosis. Cattle and sheep are most commonly affected animals.
Diarrhoea, weight loss, lowered fertility and reduced milk production are some of the major effects of fluorides seen in animals and cattles.

Question 18.
How do plastics affect marine life? What are its substitutes?
Answer:
Plastics dumped into ocean can affect the marine life seriously. Plastics substitutes such as bottle and bags could choke and suffocate the sea animals, as they eat them thinking that they are food. Plastics are known to be a major cause for the death of turtles, as they swallow the floating bags, mistaking them for jelly fish.

Goyal Brothers Prakashan Class 10 ICSE Geography Solutions

Check the below ICSE Class 10 Geography Goyal Brothers Solutions Chapter Chapter 15 Transport with Questions and Answers Pdf free download. Students can also read Transport in India Class 10 ICSE Solutions.

ICSE Class 10 Geography Goyal Brothers Solutions Chapter 15 Transport

Question 1.
What is the importance of Roadways in the economic development of India?
Answer:
Roads are the vital lifelines of the economy making possible trade and commerce. Roads are most preferred modes of transportation and considered as one of the cost effective modes of transportation. Roads are easily accessible to each individual. Roads facilitate movement of both men and materials anywhere within a country.

It helps in socio-economic development as well as brings national integration. It provides linkages to other modes of transportation like railways, airways, and shipping, etc. An efficient and well-established network of roads is desired for promoting trade and commerce in any country and also fulfills the needs of a sound transportation system for sustained economic development. Road transport is contributing 3.69% to GDP where as all transportation modes are contributing a total of 5.5% to GDP.

Question 2.
Compare and contrast Railways with Airways.
Answer:

• Airways are the fastest mode of transport than Railways.
• Air transport is most significant in hilly regions in border areas, which are not easily accessible by Railways.
• It saves lives at the time of calamities like epidemics, earthquakes and floods etc. When every minute saved counts a lot.

Question 3.
Name the different categories of road in India.
Answer:
Different categories of road in India are:

• Roads are two types, metalled and unmetalled.
• Metalled roads are made of cement and concrete. They can stand any type of weather.
• Unmetalled roads can be used only during dry season.

Question 4.
What is the objective of Golden Quadrilateral?
Answer:
The Golden quadrilateral is a project undertaken by the NHAI. Its objective is to connect Mumbai – Delhi, Chennai, Kolkata by a six lane super highway.

Question 5.
What is the importance of Border Roads?
Answer:
The importance of Border Roads are:

• It give a boost to the trade and economic development of the country.
• These roads have improved accessibility in the areas of difficult terrain.

Question 6.
Why is rail transport most comfortable and popular means of transport?
Answer:
The rail transport most comfortable and popular means of transport due to the following reasons:

• Railway is cheap mode of transportation.
• Railway can carry bulky raw material.
• They unite people from one comer of the land to other.
• It forms a major employment sector as lakhs of people are dependent on railways for their live hood.

Question 7.
Why are the means of transport called the ‘lifelines’ of nation’s economy?
Answer:
The means of transport called the ‘lifelines’ of nation’s economy because of following reasons:

• To provide link.
• Development of Economy.
• National and Cultural Integration.
  Explanation –
  • (i) To Provide Link:
    Transportation is the lifeline of a country. This connects one part of the country with another part, and helps in providing essential products to all the places and the people.
  • (ii) Development of Economy:
    The means of transport help the industries to get raw materials and its finished products are transported by the railways and roadways. Agriculture also depends greatly on transportation.
  • (lii) National and Cultural Integration:
    India is a very vast country. Transport network brings people of different casts, creed, colours, religions, languages and regions near to each other.

Question 8.
State any two merits of water transport.
Answer:
Merits of waterways:

• It is the cheapest means of transport.
• It is most suitable for carrying heavy and bulky material.

Question 9.
Name the four international airports of India.
Answer:
International airports of India :

• Indira Gandhi International Airport – New Delhi.
• Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose – Kolkata
• Sahara International Airport – Mumbai
• Chennai International Airport – Chennai.

Question 10.
Name any two States served by Inland waterways.
Answer:
Assam and Kolkata.

Question 11.
Name the important means of Inland transport in Kerala. What is it used for?
Answer:
In Kerala, the backwater serve as means of navigation. These waterways are used by local boats for transporting goods like spices, coconuts, raw rubber, pepeer and cashewnuts and other products.

Question 12.
Name the important national waterways in India.
Answer:
The important National Waterways in India :

• The Ganga River between Allahabad and Haldia (1620 kms) NW No 1.
• The Sadiya – Dhubri Strech of Brahmaputra river (891 kms) NW No 2.
• The Kollam – Kottapuram stretch of West Coal canal along Champakara and Udyogmangal canals (205 kms) NW No. 3.

Question 13.
State the importance of major airports in India.
Answer:
Importance of Airports are :

• The ability for 100% automatic screening of persons, luggage and cargo.
• Automatic and imperceptible screening
• Staff reduction due to automation
• No delay in flow / transit of people and goods
• Less “false positives”
• Long maintenance intervals which optimize business uptime and minimize costs
• No seizure of extra space as units can be integrated into existing structure
• Ability to link with Control Center

Question 14.
State the problems faced by Indian shipping.
Answer:
Problems faced by Indian shipping:

• India ports are not well connected with their hinterland.
• Slow handling of the cargo at part and under port delays inflict heavy losses on shipping companies.

Question 15.
What does AAI stands for? Why was it formed?
Answer:
AAI stands for Airport Authority of India was formed on 1st April 1995 by merging the International Airports Authority of India and the National Airports Authority.

It was done with a view to accelerate the integrated development, expansion and modernization of the operational, terminal and cargo facilities at the airports in the country, conforming to international strands.

Question 16.
How can air transport promote tourism at the international level?
Answer:
The cost of air transport has a direct influence on the cost of tourism products and indeed on the consumer’s choice of destination. The steady reduction in the cost of air travel is making this a more competitive form of transport for tourists.

This reduction of costs and hereby airfares is partly derived from improved technology, aircraft have become larger, fester and are able to carry more passengers. It is partly linked to the fact that airlines upgraded their fleets and made secondhand aircraft available at low cost and in good condition to other airlines.

Question 17.
Why is inland navigation more popular in north India as compared to south?
Answer:
The inland navigation more popular in North India as compared to south because the rivers of the peninsular India are not navigable as they have very little water in the hot season.

Question 18.
State the factors that affect the distribution of railway network.
Answer:
The following factors are affected the distribution of railway network:

• Geological Factors
• Economic Factors.

Question 19.
Which port is known as Tidal port? Why was it developed?
Answer:
Kandla was developed to release the pressure on Mumbai port. It is a tidal port located on the eastern end of the Rann of Kutch.

Question 20.
What is the importance of Jawaharlal Nehru Port?
Answer:
It plays a crucial role in the economic development and international trade of India.

Question 21.
Where is Yamuna Expressway situated? Why is it important?
Answer:
Yamuna Expressway was initiated in 2003, it is a 165 km project between Agra and Greater Noida.
It was constructuted to ensure smooth travel with controlled access in the Indian road network.

Goyal Brothers Prakashan Class 10 ICSE Geography Solutions

Check the below ICSE Class 10 Geography Goyal Brothers Solutions Chapter Chapter 14 Manufacturing Industries in India 2: Mineral-based with Questions and Answers Pdf free download. Students can also read Industries in India II: Mineral Based Industries Class 10 ICSE Solutions.

ICSE Class 10 Geography Goyal Brothers Solutions Chapter 14 Manufacturing Industries in India 2: Mineral-based

Question 1.
What does the agricultural machinery consist of?
Answer:
Tractor, combine etc.

Question 2.
When and where was the machine tool industry started?
Answer:
The machine tool industry was started in 1953 at Bangalore.

Question 3.
Where does the Chittaranjan Locomotive industry get its coal and iron-ore?
Answer:
The Chittaranjan Locomotive industry get its coal from Jharia and Raniganj coalfields and iron-ore from the Chhota Nagpur Plateau.

Question 4.
Where is the diesel locomotive works located?
Answer:
The diesel locomotive works located in Varanasi.

Question 5.
Where is the Integrated Coach Factory located? What does it manufacture?
Answer:
The Integrated Coach Factory is located at Perambur near Chennai. It manufactures railway coaches.

Question 6.
What are the by-products of sugar industry.
Answer:
The by-products of sugar industry are:

• Molasses
• Bagasse
• Press mud

Question 7.
What are the by-products of sugar industry used for?
Answer:
The by-products of sugar industry are used for:

• Molasses-used for distilling alcohol.
• Bagasse – used for making cardboard.
• Press mud – used for making wax and shoe polishes.

Question 8.
What comprises the electronic goods?
Answer:
The electronic goods comprising wide range of electronic goods including television sets, transistor sets, telephone exchanges, cellular telecom, paging, computers and varied equipment for defence, railway and meterological department.

Question 9.
How has the software industry developed in the recent past?
Answer:
The development of software industry, in the recent past especially in Bengaluru due to following favourable factors –

• Progressive government policies.
• Readily available world class information technology infrastructure.
• Pleasant and comfortable climate to allow efficient working.
• Innovative global meets held by various companies.

Question 10.
Name the leading software centres of India?
Answer:

• Bengaluru is called the ‘ Silicon Valley of India” due to large number of information technology companies located here.
• Hyderabad is another major software industry centre in Telangana.

Question 11.
Name a few of India’s indigenously built satellites.
Answer:
The India’s indigenously built satellites are:

• Satellite Launching Station at Sriharikota(SHAR)
• Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) at Bengaluru, Karnataka.
• MS Antrix Cooperation, Bengaluru, Kamatka the Department of space was establish in 1992 with access to resources of Indian Space Industry.

Question 12.
What does NRSA stands for? Where is this centre?
Answer:
NRSA stands for National Remote Sensing Agency at Hyderabad.

Question 13.
What are petrochemicals?
Answer:
The organic chemicals derived from petroleum products, LPG and coal are called petrochemicals.

Question 14.
Name its main raw materials used in the petrochemical industry?
Answer:
The main raw materials used in the Petrochemical industry are : Naphtha, Ethylene, and Benzene.

Question 15.
Name the main products of the petrochemical industry.
Answer:
The main products of the petrochemicals industry are-synthetic rubber, synthetic fibres, plastics, ferrous and non-ferrous metals, drugs and pharmaceutical products.

Question 16.
How important are petrochemicals?
Answer:
Petrochemicals are very important because these are used for manufacturing a large variety of articles such as synthetic fibres, synthetic rubber, ferrous and non-ferrous metals, plastics, dyestuffs, drugs and pharmaceuticals and insecticides. They are economically stable, cheaper when produced on large scale. Traditional raw materials can be replaced by petrochemical products.

Question 17.
Name a few important petrochemical industries.
Answer:
Two petrochemical industries are:

1. The Indian Petrochemicals Corporation Limited (IPCL), Jawahar Nagar, Vadodara and
2. Union Carbide India Limited, Trombay.

Question 18.
(a) Classify industries according to (a) the source of raw material
(b) the size and
(c) the management.
Answer:
(a) Inudstries on basis of source of Raw Material

• Agro Based Industries
  e.g. Sugar, Jute, Cotton, veg. oil, food processing
• Mineral based Industries
  e.g. Iron, steel, cement etc.
• Animal based Industries
  e.g. Dairy, Poultry, Hides and skin.
• Forestry.

(b) the size and

• targe Scale Industries
• Medium Scale Industries
• Small Scale Industries

(c) the Management

• Private Sector Industries
• Public Sector Industries
• Joint Sector Industries

Question 19.
List some mineral-based industries.
Answer:
Mineral – based Industries are:

• Iron and Steel Industries.
• Cement Industries.
• Aluminium Industries.
• Shipbuilding Industries

Question 20.
Name a few important factors that are responsible for the location of, or development of, industries in a particular area.
Answer:
The following factors are responsible for the localisation of manufacturing industries:

• Availability of raw materials.
• Adequate supply of power.
• Water supply.
• Adequate supply of labour and
• Transportation.

Question 21.
What is an integrated steel plant?
Answer:
An integrated steel plant is one where all the three processes from melting of iron in the blast furnace to steel making followed by shaping of the metal by rolling is carried out under one complex.

Question 22.
What are the raw materials needed for the iron and steel industry?
Answer:
The basic raw materials used in iron and steel industry are iron ore, manganese, limestone, silica, chromate, feldspar, scrap iron, flux and fuel.

Question 23.
What are mini-steel plants? What are their advantages?
Answer:
A mini steel plant is a small or medium sized steel plant, which uses electric furnaces and utilize scrap sponge iron as raw materials. At present there are 216 mini-steel plants. The advantages of mini-steel plant is the utilization of waste scrap iron and using electric furnaces to save coking coal and production of alloy steel is promoted.

Question 24.
Name the various steel plants that are located in India. Name their collaborators.
Answer:
The two Iron and Steel plants with foreign collaborators are:

• Bhilai Steel Plant-
  Foreign Collaborator is Soviet Union (now Russia)
• Rourkela Steel Plant-
  Foreign Collaborator is Germany.

Question 25.
From where does Durgapur Steel Plant get its iron ore and limestone?
Answer:
Durgapur Steel Plant get its iron ore from Keonjhar in Orissa and Singbhum in Jharkhand.
It gets Limestone from Birmitrapur in Sundargarh.

Question 26.
Why is iron and steel industry called a key or a basic industry?
Answer:
The largest mineral-based industry in India is Iron and Steel Industry.
It is called a key industry or a basic industry, because of providing iron and steel products for house-building, Utensils, machineries for each and every industry from pin to heavy machineries. So, it is the root of every industry, as every industry needs machinery and tools which are made of iron and steel.

Question 27.
Why are forests grown in and around steel cities?
Answer:
The forested area controls the pollution or environmental pollution brought through steel industries.

Question 28.
Name two iron and steel industries, which have been set up by two different foreign collaborators. Also, name the regions from where coal and iron ore are obtained by the two steel plants named by you.
Answer:
The deficient iron and steel industries that have been set up by two different foreign collaborators are: Bhilai Steel Plant, Durgapur Steel Plant, Rourkela Steel Plant, and Bokaro Steel Plant.

Bhilai Steel Plant: Russia
Rourkela Steel Plant: West Germany (now Germany) Durgapur
Steel Plant: British
Bokaro Plant: Russia
Bhilai Steel Plant gets its coal from Korba, and iron ore from Dalli Rajhara Range, Rourkela Steel Plant gets its coal from Jharia, Talchar, Korba, and iron ore from Bonaigarh, Mayurbhanj, Keonjhar, Durgapur Steel Plant gets its coal from Jharia, Raniganj, and iron ore from Singhbhum, Keoojhar, Bokaro Steel Plant gets its coal from Jharia, and iron ore from Kiribum, Bonai range, Bursua, Noamundi.

Question 29.
With reference to the Iron and Steel plant located at Jamshedpur, answer the following questions:
(a) From where does the plant get its iron ore?
(b) Which river provides water to the township?
(c) Name the States that provide its labour force.
(d) Which seaport serves the region?
Answer:
(a) Iron and Steel plant of Jamshedpur gets its iron ore from the districts of Singhbhum, Mayurbhanj, and Bonai in Orissa.
(b) It gets its water from the river Subamarekha.
(c) Bengal, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh States supply labour.
(d) Kolkata port serves the entire region.

Question 30.
Where is the latest integrated Iron and Steel Plant of India located?
Answer:
Vishakhapatnam steel plant is the latest integrated iron and steel plant which was completed in 1992.

Question 31.
What two advantages do the Vishakhapatnam steel plant have over the other steel plants in the public sector?
Answer:
Two advantages of Vishakhapatnam Steel Plant, over the other Steel Plants are:

• It is a major export oriented steel plant and takes Ml advantage of its coastal location.
• It is the second largest producer of iron and steel in the country.

Question 32.
Which is the largest mineral-based industry in India? Why is it called a key or basic industry?
Answer:
The largest mineral-based industry in India is Iron and Steel Industry.
It is called a key industry or basic industry, because of providing iron and steel products for house-building, utensils, machineries for each and every industry from pin to heavy machineries. So, it is the root of every industry, as every industry needs machinery and tools which are made of iron and steel.

Question 33.
Why is this industry concentrated in the Chhotanagpur region? Which is the oldest and privately owned plant?
Answer:
This industry is concentrated in the Chhotanagpur region because of the following factors:

• Availability of coal from Damodar Valley.
• Availability of iron ore from Singhbhum and other mines.
• Cheap hydro and thermal power from large multipurpose projects on river Damodar and river Mahanadi.
• Cheap labour supply from highly populated areas of Bihar, Orissa and West Bengal.
• Proximity to the Kolkata region market.
• Facility of import and export of the raw material and finished goods provided by Kolkata port.
• Excellent communication facilities by rail and roads to Kolkata region.
  Tata iron and steel company is the oldest and privately owned plant.

Question 34.
Name four large-scale industries dependent on this industry.
Answer:
Four large-scale industries dependent on iron and steel industry:

• Automobile industry,
• Ship Building industry,
• Machine tool industry, and
• Railway Locomotive industry.

Question 35.
Give reason-
(a) The iron and steel industry forms the backbone of India economy.
Answer:
Iron and steel industry is the key element in the heavy industrial structure of a nation.
It is often called the basic industry and forms the backbone of the industrial economy because of most of the important industries such as automobile, locomotives, rail tracks, ship building, machine and tools and manufacture of defence equipment depend on iron and steel industry.

(b) The software has emerged as a major industry in India.
Answer:
Bengaluru has become the most important software and hardware centre of India and rightly won the reputation of being the information technology capital of India
Following are die reasons mentioned below:
(i) Cost –
The biggest factor that contributes to the ever-rising software outsourcing from India is cost-cutting. Global companies save considerable amounts by outsourcing to India. Salaries of software professionals in India are one-tenth of what is being paid in UK and US. Though salaries do fluctuate depending upon the living cost of index of different cities and set of skills, still it is far lesser as compared to the developed nations.

(ii) Well-versed in English language –
Since English is our international language but still there are nations which are not familiar with the usage of it. Therefore, it becomes difficult to trade with such countries. India happens to be the ideal place as half of the population is well-versed with English which makes it easier for the other nations to interact and outsource their business operations to the country. Moreover, nation has abundance of educated and skilled workforce.

(iii) Technologically sound –
Another reason that has brought big chunk of software outsourcing business to India is that the professionals of the country are technologically sound and big time tech-sawy. The experts here have in-depth knowledge of their fields and extend logical reasoning while developing creative softwares.

(c) Traditional raw material have been replaced by petrochemical products.
Answer:
Petrochemical products are cost-effective, economically stable, cheaper as produced on a mass scale. Their raw materials are easily available, not dependent on agricultural raw material. For this reason, traditional raw materials such as wood, glass and metals are being replaced by petrochemical products.

Goyal Brothers Prakashan Class 10 ICSE Geography Solutions

ICSE Class 10 Geography Goyal Brothers Solutions Chapter 12 Agriculture in India 3: Cash Crops

Question 1.
What are the climatic conditions that favour the cultivation of cotton?
Answer:
The climatic conditions that favour the cultivation of cotton are given below:
Temperature:

• Cotton plants require mild, cool, preferably dry climate with 21° C to 27° C temperature.
• They also need plenty of sunshine.
• In the first stage at the time of fruition, warm days and cool nights are good for the development of the boll and fibre.

Rainfall:

• Cotton plants need a moderate rainfall of 50 cm to 80 cm, well distributed throughout the year.
• Stagnant water and excessive rain both are harmful to the plant.

Question 2.
Where in India does long staple cotton grow ? What are its advantages?
Answer:
In India, long staple cotton grows in Punjab, Haryana, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh. The main advantages of long staple cotton is that it is used to make fine quality cotton cloth.

Question 3.
Is dry weather necessary at the time of harvest of cotton? Why?
Answer:
Dry weather is necessary at the time of harvest of cotton because dry and hot weather help in the ripening and the bursting of the cotton balls.

Question 4.
Why is jute called the ‘brown paper’ of the wholesale trade?
Answer:
Jute is called the ‘brown paper’ bag of wholesale trade because jute fabric is widely used for wrapping many agricultural and industrial products such as rice, wheat, cotton balls, cement, fertilizer etc.

Question 5.
What are the geographical requiremenets for growing jute? Name the leading producer of jute.
Answer:
Three main climatic conditions which favour the growth of the ‘fibre crop are as follows:

• Soil :
  Jute is mostly grown in sandy and clayey loams. It also grows well on alluvial soil in the plains and deltas of rivers. The soil of these areas is renewed every year due to flood.
• Temperature:
  The jute well at higher temperature of about 34°C with high relative humidity of 80% to 90%. However, it can also grow in areas with a minimum temperature of 27° C.
• Rainfall:
  The crop requires heavy rainfall ranging between 170 cm to 200 cm during the period of growth. It cannot survive continuous drought.

Question 6.
Name the two most fibres crops of India.
Answer:
Cotton and Jute.

Question 7.
Name the different varieties of tea in India.
Answer:
Following are the different varieties of tea grown in India:

• The Green tea,
• The Black tea, and
• The Oolong tea.

Question 8.
Why is tea generally grown on the hill slopes?
Answer:
Tea is grown on hill slopes because it helps to drain the water, tea cannot tolerate stagnant water.

Question 9.
Why are the tea plants pruned?
Answer:
Pruning of the tea plant is very essential because of two reasons:

• The removal of the central stem encourages the quick development of lateral branches and periodical pruning does not allow the plant to grow more than about 40 cm.
• Pruning also help in growing new shoots bearing soft leaves in plenty.

Question 10.
Name the leading producer of tea in India. What factors have helped it to become the leading state?
Answer:
Assam is the leading producer of tea in India. The most favourable conditions with over250 cm rainfall and temperature above 20° C helped it to become the leading state.

Question 11.
Why is the plucking of tea leaves entrusted generally to women?
Answer:
Because it involve fine – plucking (two leaves and a bud) and women labourer can patiently pluck the same.

Question 12.
Name the different stages of tea processing befdre it is sent out to the market.
Answer:
There are five main stages of processing before it is packed for despatch:

• Withering :
  The gathered leaves are first withered or dried in the sun for a day or two to extract moisture.
• Rolling:
  They are then rolled mechanically between steel rollers to break up the fibres. The leaves are dried again or baked lightly over charcoal fires, until they become reddish brown in colour.
• Fermentation:
  The leaves are allowed to ferment and this reduces the amount of tannic acid in the tea by half, but does not impair its flavour.
• Drying:
  Further fermentation is checked by roasting and drying the leaves over a fire until they are black in colour.
• Blending:
  Expert blenders and tea-tasters further blend the various grades of tea to give it special aroma and make many proprietary brands.

Question 13.
Name the two main centres where tea is auctioned.
Answer:
North-East India and South India are the two main centres where tea is auctioned.

Question 14.
Why is blending necessary’ for tea?
Answer:
Blending is necessary for tea as it gives special taste and flavour.

Question 15.
Give two reasons stating the economic importance of the tea industry.
Answer:
The economic importance of the tea industry’ in India are as follows:

• Being a largest producer of tea, India earns a major part of foreign exchange by the export of tea.
• Tea plantation and industry employ millions of men and women.
• The tea industry supports fertilizer, plywood and transport industries.

Question 16.
Name two important regions where tea is grown in South India.
Answer:
In South India, tea is grown in Nilgiri and Palni.

Question 17.
Name the two main varieties of coffee grown in India.
Answer:
Two main varieties of coffee grown in India are:

• Coffea arabica
• Coffea robust

Question 18.
Why are young coffee plants protected from heat?
Answer:
The young coffee plants are protected from heat because the direct rays of the sun are injurious to the coffee plant.

Question 19.
State three factors which favour the cultivation of coffee in South India. Name the leading producer of coffee in India.
Answer:
Three factors which favour the cultivation of coffee in South India are as follows:

• Well-drained volcanic soil with sufficient humus.
• Sufficient rainfall distributed throughout the year.
• Hot and humid climate with moderate temperature.
  Karnataka is the leading producer of coffee in India.

Question 20.
State one climatic and one commercial problem that coffee cultivation in India faces.
Answer:
Problems of coffee cultivation in India :

• Dry weather, high temperature, long droughts and unseasonal rainfall are harmful for coffee plants.
• The present yield of coffee per hectare is very low.

Question 21.
Name the different methods by which sugarcane can be propagated.
Answer:

• Sett Method
• Ratooning

Question 22.
State the leading producer of sugarcane in India.
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh is the leading producer of sugarcane in India.

Question 23.
What are the advantages of ‘Ratooning’?
Answer:
Advantages of Ratoon Cropping:

• Expenditure of preparing the fields and planting is saved. Therefore, cost of cultivation becomes much lower.
• Ratoon mature earlier.

Question 24.
Give two problems the farmers of north India face during sugarcane cultivation.
Answer:
The farmers who grow sugarcane in North India have to face the following problems:

• Being a soil-exhausting crop, a large quantity of manure is required in sugarcane farm.
• Cultivation of sugarcane on small lands proves to be uneconomical for the farmers.
• The sugar content of the cane decreases substantially, if it is not reached to the factory for crushing within 48 hours.
• Irrespective of its quality the price of sugarcane is fixed by the government. Therefore, the farmers are not likely to get any incentive of a good quality crop.

Question 25.
What advantage does the Deccan region have over the north with reference to sugarcane cultivation?
Answer:
The yield of sugarcane is higher in the Deccan due to following reasons:

• Favourable geographical conditions, and
• The use of modem scientific method of cultivation.

Question 26.
Name a few diseases that sugarcane plant is susceptible to.
Answer:
Fungal diseases like red rot, smut, rus and ratoon stunting are few diseases that sugarcane plant is susceptible to.

Question 27.
Name a few important oil-seeds grown in India.
Answer:
Five oilseeds gown in India are-Mustard, Coconut, Sunflower, Groundnut and Soyabean.

Question 28.
State the economic importance of oilseeds.
Answer:
The economic importance of oilseeds are as follows:

• As an agricultural product, oilseeds stands next in importance to cereals. So, they play an important role in the Indian economy.
• Vegetable oil is an essential part of our diet. More than 80% of the vegetable oil produced is used as food.
• Vegetable oil, e.g. linseed oil is used for industrial purposes such as paints, varnishes, lubricants etc.
• The oil industry, both on small and large scale, is a major source of employment.
• Oil cake, obtained as the by-product after the extraction of oil, is used as cattle feed and also as fertilizer for many crops such as cotton, tea, tobacco etc.

Question 29.
What is an oil cake ? How is it used?
Answer:
Oil cake is the residue of the soil seeds from which the oil has been extracted.
This residue of oil is used as cattle feed and manure.

Question 30.
Name the non-edible oilseeds. Why are they so called?
Answer:
Castor, Linseed, neem and mahua are the non-edible oil seeds. They are called non-edible oil seeds because these seeds cannot be used as part of our diet and are only used for producing industrial oils and other commercial products.

Question 31.
Give the geographical conditions necessary for the growth of groundnuts. Name its leading producer.
Answer:
Gujarat and Andhra Pradesh are the leading producers of groundnut.
Following geographical conditions are necessary for the growth of groundnuts.
Soil:
Groundnuts grow well in light sandy soil.
Temperature :
Groundnut requires about 20° C to 25° C temperature. Dry weather is needed during the time of ripening.
Rainfall:
Groundnuts require light to moderate rainfall between 50 to 100 cm. Rainfall should be well distributed.

Question 32.
Name the by-products of sugarcane: Give one important use of each. [1991]
Answer:
The two by-products of sugarcane are Molasses, Bagasse and their industrial uses are as follows:
Molasses:
It can be used in the manufacture of rum, fertilizers, chemicals, cattle feed.
Bagasse:
It can be used for making paper, cardboard.

Question 33.
Why are floods beneficial for better growth of jute?
Answer:
If the area is flooded, the plants are uprooted, otherwise cut to ground length that is why floods are beneficial for better growth of jute.

Question 34.
Explain the following terms. With which crop do you associate them ?
(a) Ginning
(b) Retting
(c) Clonal planting
(d) Ratooning
(e) Fine Plucking
(f) Bud grafting
Answer:
(a) Ginning :
Ginning is a process in which cotton seeds is associated with cotton crop.

(b) Retting:
Retting is microbiological process involved in the processing of jute plant in which the outer bark of the stalk has been made loosen so as to make it easier to remove the fibers from the stalk. It is associated with cotton crop.

(c) Clonal planting:
Clonal planting is associated with tea. In this process, cuttings are taken from the mother plant and grown to produce tea shrubs been deserved to yield the same superior quality as that of the mother plant.

(d) Rotooning:
Rotooning is a method used for growing sugarcane in which the already grown cane is cut close to the ground. After few days the plant begin to grow again and produced a second crop known as ratoon. It is associated with sugarcane crop.

(e) Fine Plucking:
The finest tea is obtained from the young shoots comprising two leaves and a bud known as the fine Plucking. Fine plucking associated with tea.

(f) Bud grafting:
The bud from a good rubber tree is grafted on the seeding of a new rubber tree, once the bud starts sprouting the shoot from the seeding is cut down and the bud then grows into a tree with all the traits of the mother trees. Bud grafting associated with Rubber.

Question 35.
Give reason –
(a) Tea is best grown on hill slopes.
Answer:
Tea plantation demands evenly distributed rainfall with no water logging issues. The hill slopes provide an easy drainage of the rain water, hence prevents the conditions of water logging. Moreover, the tea plants grow well in the loamy soil which is found mostly over the hill slopes

(b) Pruning is essential for a tea plant.
Answer:
Pruning ofthe tea plant is very essential because of two reasons:

• The removal of the central stem encourages the quick development of lateral branches and periodical pruning does not allow the plant to grow more than about 40 cm.
• Pruning also help in growing new shoots bearing soft leaves in plenty.

(c) Honey bees are reared on coffee plants.
Answer:
Honey bees are reared of coffee plant as they help to pollinate the flowers.

Question 36.
Answer in one word:
(a) Method in which coffee is obtained by pulping, fermenting, washing and drying.
Answer:
Wet and Dry Method.

(b) Method in which coffee berries are dried in sun.
Answer:
Cherry or Native Method.

(c) Method in which seeds are dropped through bamboo shafts attached to a plough.
Answer:
Sett Method.

Goyal Brothers Prakashan Class 10 ICSE Geography Solutions

ICSE Class 10 Geography Goyal Brothers Solutions Chapter 11 Agriculture in India 2: Food Crops

Question 1.
What do you understand by the term ‘cereals’?
Answer:
The term ‘cereals’ denotes all types of grass like plants, which have starchy edible seeds.

Question 2.
Name the different methods of sowing rice.
Answer:
Following are the three methods of sowing rice:

• Drilling
• Broadcasting
• Dibbling

Question 3.
Which is the best method of growing rice.
Answer:
Drilling is the best method for growing rice.
This method, though saving wastage of seeds, and its very time-consuming.

Question 4.
What kind of soil is best suited for growing rice?
Answer:
Deep fertile clayey or friable loams are ideal for the cultivation of rice.
Even black lava soil is suitable for growing rice.

Question 5.
Name the leading producer of rice in India.
Answer:
West Bengal produces the highest quantity of rice in India.

Question 6.
Name a state in India where rice is grown as a non-food crop.
Answer:
Punjab in India is a state where rice is grown as a non-food crop.

Question 7.
Name an area in India where rice is grown under ‘Shifting Cultivation’.
Answer:
In north-east India, rice is grown under ‘ Shifting Cultivation’. or by ‘Jhooming’.

Question 8.
State the reasons for low yield of rice in India.
Answer:
Low yield of Rice in India due to following reasons:

• Disease damage the rice crop and can reduce yield.
• Proper storage of rice is not available.
• Farmers do not get suitable price for their crop do as middlemen buy it cheaply at harvest time and sell it at higher prices later.

Question 9.
What are the climatic conditions suitable for growing of wheat?
Answer:
Conditions suitable for the growing of wheat in the above places are :
Temperature:
10°-20°, Rainfall: 50-100 cms,
Soil:
loamy, alluvial soil, and it needs winter rainfall.

Question 10.
Is wheat a rabi or kharif crop?
Answer:
Wheat is a rabi crop.

Question
11. Name the leading producer of wheat in India.
Answer:
Punj ab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh are the leading producer of wheat in India.

Question 12.
Give two natural and two man-made factors that help in the cultivation of wheat.
Answer:
Two natural factors that help in the cultivation of wheat are:

1. Fertile loamy clayey and black soil.
2. Cool climate with moderate rainfall.

Whereas, The Bhakra Nangal Dam And canals made by man
ensures constant supply of water. The power supplied by the Bhakra Nangal Project is used to operate the tube well. The flat level land allows the fanner to use a combined harvester to harvest his crop.

Question 13.
Give a few important aspects of ‘Green Revolution’?
Answer:
The important aspects of‘ Green Revolution’are:

• Use of high Yielding Varieties (HYV) of seeds.
• Irrigation.
• Use of insecticides and pesticides.
• Consolidation of holdings
• Rural electrification
• Land reforms
• Rural electrification
• Supply of agricultural credit
• Opening agricultural universities
• Use of (chemical) fertilizers.

Question 14.
In which season is wheat sown and why?
Answer:
Wheat is a temperate crop. It is grown in winter and harvest in
March/April, hence it is a rabi crop.
In India, winter temperature of north India provides more favourable conditions.

Question 15.
Is maize a rabi or kharif crop? Name three leading ‘ producers of maize.
Answer:
Maize is chiefly a kharif crop but in Tamil Nadu it is grown as, a rabi crop. Therefore it is a rabi and kharif crop. Uttar Pradesh, Orissa and Madhya Pradesh are leading producers of maize.

Question 16.
Why are the millets called the dry crops?
Answer:
Millets are called dry crops because they can be grown where the rainfall is very low, where rice or wheat cannot be grown. It is a hardy plant and drought resistant crop. It needs no special soil requirements. It is a short-duration crop.

Question 17.
Why are millets so widely grown?
Answer:
Millets belong to the grass family and do not have any special requirements as far as soil is concerned. Also they grow in warm weather and do not require heavy rainfall. Therefore they are so widely grown.

Question 18.
Give two new uses of maize.
Answer:
Besides as an article of food, maize is also used as fodder for cattle.

Question 19.
What is the common feature of all milets?
Answer:
All millets are hardy, drought and heat – resistant plants.

Question 20.
Name the most important rotation crop. In what way does it help the soil?
Answer:
Pulses are very useful rotation crop. They are the leguminous plants, take the atmospheric nitrogen and convert it into soil nitrogen and maintain the soil fertility and they are dry crops requiring less water.

Goyal Brothers Prakashan Class 10 ICSE Geography Solutions

Check the below ICSE Class 10 Geography Goyal Brothers Solutions Chapter 10 Agriculture in India 1: Introduction with Questions and Answers Pdf free download. Students can also read Agriculture in India Class 10 ICSE Solutions.

ICSE Class 10 Geography Goyal Brothers Solutions Chapter 10 Agriculture in India 1: Introduction

Question 1.
What do you mean by the term ‘agriculture’?
Answer:
The use of land in order to grow crops and rear livestock is called agriculture. The term ‘ agriculture’ broadly means – man’s management of the environment to produce food.

Question 2.
What is meant by the term ‘subsistence agriculture’?
Answer:
The type of agriculture in which the farmer grows a variety of crops only to maintain his family.

Question 3.
What is commercial Farming?
Answer:
Commercial farming:
It is a system of agriculture in which food crops are produced specifically for sale in the market, by using improved variety of seeds and machinery.
Commercial farming is of two types:

1. Intensive Commercial farming.
2. Extensive Commercial farming.

Question 4.
What is mixed farming?
Answer:
Cultivation of crops and rearing of animals done together on the same farm is called mixed farming. Subsidiary occupations like Suit and vegetable gardening or poultry-farming may also be practiced. Two or more crops are grown together. In such cases, a number of crops having varying maturing periods are sown at the same time. The crop maturing early is generally harvested before growth of the long maturing crop.

Question 5.
What is meant by the term ‘Plantation farming’? Give two examples.
Answer:
The type of farming being practiced for the cultivation of a single crop on a large tract of land is called plantation farming, e.g. tea and rubber plantation.

Question 6.
How important is agriculture to India?
Answer:
India is basically an agricultural country. Majority of its people are dependent on agriculture. India’s rural economy is still based on agriculture and agro-based industries. Agro-based industries include cotton textiles, tobacco, jute sugar etc.

India earn a substantial foreign exchange by the export of agricultural commodities like cotton, tea, cashew nuts, spices, oilseeds, etc. to industrialised country.

Agriculture, being a good source of income, prevent the migration of rural population to urban areas to some extent.

Question 7.
Give a few important characteristics of Indian agriculture.
Answer:
Important characteristics of Indian agriculture are following:

• Dependence on Monsoons.
• Variety of crops.
• Preponderance of Food crops.
• Agricultural Pattern-Crop Seasons.

(i) Dependence on Monsoons :
Indian agriculture has always been dependent on the arrival of monsoon which is highly unreliable – both uncertain and irregular.
The large-scale irrigation serves only one-third of crop area. The remaining has to suffers the vagaries of monsoon.

(ii) Variety of Crops:
India’s vast relief, varying climatic and soil conditions produce a variety of crops. Both tropical, subtropical and temperate crops like wheat and barely are grown.

(iii) Preponderance of Food Crops:
Since India has to feed to large population, preponderance of food crops over other crops is the most important feature of Indian agriculture. More than 2/3 rd of the total cropped area is taken up by cultivation of food crops.

Agricultural Pattern :
India has three main Crop Seasons which are most influenced by the changing seasons:

• Kharif Season
• Rabi Season
• Zayad Season

Question 8.
What are rabi and kharif crops? Give examples.
Answer:
Rabi crops – The ground is prepared by the end of October and harvesting takes place in March.
Examples: Wheat, barley, Jowar, gram, oilseeds and tobacco.

Kharif Crops – Ground is prepared in April-May and seeds are sown in June on arrival of rain. Harvesting is done in the beginning of November.
Examples : Rice, maize, jowar, bajra, cotton, sesame, groundnut, pulses and jute.

Question 9.
Give any three problems of Indian agriculture. [2005]
Answer:
Problems of Indian Agriculture are following:

• Erratic Nature of Rainfall:
  Agricultural production is affected in many areas due to unprecedented rainfall or a full season of little rainfall.
• Poor Quality of Seeds:
  Poor quality of seeds and fertilizers are responsible for poor productivity or low yields.
• Lack of proper use of Manure and Fertilizer:
  Manures and fertilizers are fertility of the soil. Unfortunately, continuous use of Indian soil without use of proper manure has led to depletion and exhaustion of soil, resulting in low productivity.
• Traditional Upbringing:
  Most of the Indian farmers do not like change. They stick to their traditional ways of farming or produce only for their own need.
• Heavy Rains in many areas cause heavy soil erosion affecting agricultural production.

Question 10.
What type of agriculture is practiced in India.
Answer:
Indian agriculture can be divided into the following categories :

1. Subsistence Farming
2. Commercial Fanning

In India, agriculture is still of the subsistence type:
It is a system of agriculture in which the farmer produces exlusively for his own consumption.
This involves the cultivation of food crops like rice, wheat and pulses.

Question 11.
How is ‘jhooming’ carried out?
Answer:
It is a primitive agricultural practice in which a patch of forest is cleared, trees are felled and stumps set on fire. The cleared patch is then cultivated for a few years until the fertility of the soil is seriously reduced.

Question 12.
What is done in primitive type of agriculture?
Answer:
Primitive Type is used to be practiced in the past in backward equatorial areas. In this type, farmers use simple tools and primitive techniques to grow food for their own use.

Question 13.
Where is intensive commercial farming done?
Answer:
Intensive Commercial Farming is done in that countries where the population pressure reduces the size of land holdings.

Question 14.
What happens in extensive commercial farming?
Answer:
Extensive Commercial Farming is a system of agriculture in which relatively small amounts of capital or labour investment are applied to relatively large areas of land. At times, the land is left follow to regain its fertility.

It is mostly mechanized as labour is very expensive or may not be available to all. It usually occurs at the margin of the agricultural system, at a great distance from market or on poor land of limited patential. It is practised usually in the terai regions of north India.
Examples: Sugarcane, rice and wheat.

Question 15.
What is meant by monoculture?
Answer:
In this type of agriculture, only one crop is grown in the whole plantation. It is more common in tropical countries because there is no fear of frosts, e.g. tea and rubber.

Goyal Brothers Prakashan Class 10 ICSE Geography Solutions

ICSE Class 10 Geography Goyal Brothers Solutions Chapter 9 Mineral and Energy Resources 2

Question 1.
How is energy obtained?
Answer:
Energy output is obtained from commercial sources like coal, petroleum and electricity.

Question 2.
How do we classify energy?
Answer:

Question 3.
Where is coal got from?
Answer:
Coal is a conventional source of energy. It is an inflammable organic substance composed of hydrocarbons found in sedimentary rocks.
Or
Coal is obtained from the areas of Raniganj, Jharia and Talcher.

Question 4.
Why is coal often referred to as ‘black gold’?
Answer:
Because it contains over 80% carbon. It is hard, compact and black in colour.

Question 5.
Write in brief about the origin of coal.
Answer:
Coal is formed as a result of the action of high pressure and temperature on the remains of forest products and plants buried deep into the earth for a long period of time.

Question 6.
Give the different varieties of coal. Which do you think is the best variety? Why?
Answer:
The different varieties of coal are:

• Anthracite
• Bituminous
• Lignite
• Peat Coal
  Anthracite is the best variety of coal because it contains 80% carbon.

Question 7.
Name the main coal-bearing areas of India.
Answer:
West Bengal-Raniganj,
Jharkhand – Jharia

Question 8.
List the state-wise distribution of coal.
Answer:
North India –
West Bengal – (Raniganj, Purulia, Bankura and Bardhman) Jharkhand: Jharia in Dhanbad district. and Ramgarh.

South India –
Odisha – Talcher coalfield: Sambalpur and Dhenkanal
Madhya Pradesh – Singrauli and Chhindwara, Korba, Mohpani, Sohagpur.
Maharashtra – Pench, Kanhan area in Wardha valley.
Telangana – Singareni
TamilNadu – Neyveli.

Question 9.
Which state ranks first in the Gondwana coal?
Answer:
Jharkhand has the first rank in the Gondwana coal.

Question 10.
Name three important states which form the tertiary coal distribution.
Answer:

• Kashmir
• Assam
• Arunachal Pradesh.

Question 11.
Name any three major problems of coal mining industry.
Answer:
The major Problems of Coal mining industry ore:

• The coal seams are surrounded by plants, rievers or other natural landscapes and digging for coal may destroy forest areas that serve as wildlife habitat It affects the ecosystem and biodiversity.
• Transporting coal would need an extensive transporting system that is likely to pass through mountains and valleys, building such infrastructure would destroy the landscape and increase pollution due to emissions of various vehicles.
• Underground mining is prone to cave-ins and explosions. The health of the people living close to the mines is at risk.

Question 12.
List any two ways by which one can conserve coal.
Answer:
The coal can conserve by following methods:

• New reserves should be discovered and new techniques should be adopted.
• Coking coal should be used for metallurgical industry only.
• Selective mining should be discouraged in order to prevent wastage of coal.
• Low-grade coal should be washed and blended with superior quality coal in required proportion and used in industries.
• Small and uneconomic collieries should be amalgamated and be made economically viable units.

Question 13.
Where is petroleum obtained from?
Answer:
The petroleum is obtained from rocks: particularly sedimentary rocks of the Earth.
Or
Technically speaking petroleum is an inflammable liquid that is composed of hydrocarbons which constitute 90 to 95% of petroleum and the remaining is chiefly compounds containing oxygen, nitrogen and sulphur.

Question 14.
Name the two most important areas of petroleum oil.
Answer:
The two most important areas of petroleum oil are:

• On-shore Oil-fields in North-Eastern India.
• On-shore Oil-fields in Western India.
• On-shore Oil-fields in Southern India.
• Bombay High (Offshore oil field).

Question 15.
Name a few important oil fields of North-East India.
Answer:
In Assam there are Digboi, Naharkatiya, Maran, Galeki,RudraSagaf, Hagrijati, Ahgui, Lakwa fields, Bappapung, Hansapung and Mosimpur. In Nagaland oil-fields are at Barbolla on the border between Nagaland and Assam. There are oilfields at Nigreu oil fields near Kharasang in Tirap district, in Arunachal Pradesh.

Question 16.
Name a few important oil fields of West India.
Answer:
In Gujarat important fields are Ankleshwar, Kalol Nawagam, Kosamba, Kathana, Wavel, BarkOl, Dholaka, Mehsana, Kadi, Ahmedabad and Sanand fields.

Question 17.
Why is Mumbai High considered to be major oil bearing site in India?
Answer:
Mumbai high considered to be major oil bearing site in India because off-shore oil-field is in the Mumbai High region, out in the Arabian Sea, 152 km northwest of Mumbai city.

Question 18.
How many oil refineries do we have in India?
Answer:
India has 23 oil refineries.

Question 19.
Name a few problems of natural gas.
Answer:
Problems of Natural Gas are:

• Lack of required compression and transport facilities.
• Lack of technical help for operational safety.

Question 20.
Name the different types of electricity.
Answer:
There are three types of Electricity:

1. Hydro Electricity.
2. Thermal Electricity.
3. Nuclear Electricity.

Question 21.
What are the main causes for the low production of hydel power?
Answer:
Geographical factors responsible for low production of Hydel Power are:

• Most of the river regimes in India are extremely erratic because they are fed by monsoon winds which are highly seasonal and whimsical especially in the South. Hence, these rivers cannot provide for Hydel Power generation consistently.
• Many rivers do not have natural waterfalls and huge capital has to be invested for constructing dams.
• The sites suitable for generating hydroelectricity are located away from the consuming centres. As a result a lot of energy is wasted in transmission.

Question 22.
Enumerate the factors needed for installing a hydroelectric project.
Answer:
Factors needed for installing Hydroelectricity Power Projects are:

• Mountainous area where waterfalls from a height – the potential energy of felling water helps the turbine to move.
• Permanent supply of water can be ensured by perennial rivers. Hence snowfed rivers of the Himalayas are of great use for the generation of hydropower.
• Climate should be suitable i.e. rivers should not freeze during winter.
• Water of the river should be silt free or water should be stored in artificial reservoirs before releasing in hydel channle.
• A gorge between the two hills is the most suitable site for building dams.
• Flow of water should be uniform in the river. Any fluctuation would affect the generation of electricity.
• There should be enough scope for electricity supply i.e. an industrial zone so that the loss of electricity is minimum in transmission.

Question 23.
How important is the hydel power projects for India?
Answer:
India being so rich in water resources, there is enough importance of developing hydel power projects for India.

• Permanent supply of water can be ensured by perennial rivers. Hence snowfed rivers of the Himalayas are of great u$e for the generation of hydropower.
• In Deccan, the river flowing through the plateau is very swift and there are many waterfalls in the way, so this helps in power generation.
• India has vast arable land and it is in constant need for irrigation due to irregular rainfall.
• There are many areas rich in mineral resources along with ideal sites for construction of dams. Thus, it serves the dual purpose by supplying hydroelectricity to the industries as well as helping in promoting agricultural and industrial development.

Question 24.
How do hydel power projects score over thermal project?
Answer:
Hydel Power Projects Score Over Thermal Power Project:

• Hydel power is inexhaustible and renewable source of power whereas coal – the major factor in thermal power – is exhaustible and non-renewable.
• It is cheaper to build the dams than building thermal power stations.
• Hydel power projects do not cause any pollution whereas thermal power plants find it difficult to get rid of wastage.
• It is easy to transport it for long distances while are restricted to areas of coal production.

Question 25.
What are the main disadvantages of H.E.P.?
Answer:
Disadvantages of Hydel Power Projects (H.E.P.) are:

• The location is very important for the construction of Hydel Power Projects. Regions must be mountainous or hilly so that water falls from a height.
• The supply of water may fluctuate thus affecting the generation of electricity.
• Almost all the power projects face the problem of silting.

Question 26.
Which was the first state to set up H.E.P. project?
Answer:
Karnataka was the first state to set up H.E.P. project.

Question 27.
What are the disadvantages of thermal electricity ?
Answer:
The disadvantages of Thermal Electricity are:

• The process of generating thermal electricity is very expensive.
• This process is not very environment friendly. It causes pollution of the atmosphere.
• Thermal electricity is produced from sources like coal, petroleum and natural gas. All these raw materials are exhaustible and non-renewable.
• Thermal power in produced by burning coal which leaves a lot of waste/residue in the form of ash. It is very expensive to dispose of the waste material.

Question 28.
Name three coal-based and gas-based projects.
Answer:
Coal-based Projects:

1. Bokaro, Chandrapur,
   Durgapur Project-Damodar valley
   Project (West-Bengal)
2. Talcher
   Project – Hirakud Project (Odisha)
3. Obra – Rihand Project (Uttar Pradesh)

Question 29.
What are the raw materials required for nuclear energy?
Answer:
The main raw materials for nuclear energy are Uranium, Plutonium, Beryllium and Thorium.

Question 30.
Where is uranium found in India?
Answer:
Uranium is available in the copper belt of Bihar and the rocks of the Aravali range in Rajasthan.

Question 31.
Name the nuclear power stations of India.
Answer:
The Nuclear Power Stations of India are:

• Kalpakkam in Tamil Nadu
• Rana Pratap Sagar in Kota.
• Narora in Uttar Pradesh.
• Kakrapara near Surat in Gujarat.
• Rawatbhata in Rajasthan.
• Kaiga in Karnataka.

Question 32.
Name a few non-conventional sources or energy.
Answer:
Solar energy, Wind energy, Biogas, Tidal energy arid geothermal energy are non-convential sources of energy.

Question 33.
How do the non-conventional sources of energy score over the conventional sources of energy?
Answer:
The non-conventional sources of energy score over the conventional sources of energy because of following reasons:

• Conventional source are exhaistible.
• They cause smoke pollution when used as they emit smoke and ash.
• They are very expensive to be maintained, stored and transmitted.

Question 34.
Explain the need to develop the alternative sources of energy.
Answer:
Need to develop the alternative source of energy because of:

• These are in-exhaustable sources of energy for time immemorial.
• They are environment friendly and do not produce any waste or cause pollution.

Question 35.
State two advantages that biogas has over the solar energy.
Answer:
The advantages that biogas has over the solar energy :

• Solar energy cannot be created during the night whereas Biomass energy uses organic material and waste and can be obtained during night.
• Biofuels are cleaner fuels which means they produce fewer emissions on burning hence do not cause pollution. They are easily available and are cost-effective. Whereas installation of solar panels is highly expensive.

Question 36.
Which is the most abundant non-conventional source of energy?
Answer:
Solar energy.

Question 37.
Name two states where wind farm projects have been undertaken.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu, Gujarat, Maharashtra, and Odisha.

Question 38.
Name the different nuclear power plants.
Answer:

• Tarapur Power plant (Maharashtra)
• Rawatbhatta (Rajasthan)
• Kalpakkam (Tamil Nadu)
• Narora(U.P) ,
• Kakropara (Gujarat)
• Kaiga (Karnataka)

Question 39.
What are the advantages of producing electricity from water?
Answer:
Advantages of Producing electricity from water are as follows:

• It does not emit any green house gases.
• It is renewable, cheap, clean and environmentally begin source of energy and will be available to us in the future.

Question 40.
What are the raw materials needed for the generation of atomic energy?
Answer:
The main raw materials needed for generation of atomic energy are Uranium, Plutonium, Beryllium and Thorium.

Goyal Brothers Prakashan Class 10 ICSE Geography Solutions

Check the below ICSE Class 10 Geography Goyal Brothers Solutions Chapter 13 Manufacturing Industries in India 1: Agro-based with Questions and Answers Pdf free download. Students can also read Industries in India: Agro Based Industries Class 10 ICSE Solutions.

ICSE Class 10 Geography Goyal Brothers Solutions Chapter 13 Manufacturing Industries in India 1: Agro-based

Question 1.
Name a few agro-based industries.
Answer:

• Cotton Textile
• Silk Industry Textile
• Synthetic Textile
• Sugar Industry.

Question 2.
What are the four special features of the cotton textile industry in India?
Answer:
The four special features of the cotton textile industry in India are:

1. It is the most widespread industry found all over India.
2. It is the oldest industry in India. It provides employment to millions of people.
3. It is also most important foreign exchange earner for die country.
4. It is second most important industry next to agriculture.

Question 3.
Give two reasons why the cotton textile industry has developed around Mumbai. [1999]
Answer:
Cotton textile Industry has developed around Mumbai because:

1. It gets cheap power (hydroelectric); Excellent harbour facilities; both skilled and unskilled labour;
2. Good market for finished goods; Loans from Government and other local bodies.

Question 4.
Name the oldest and the most widespread industry in India.
Answer:
Cotton textile Industry is oldest and most widespread industry in India

Question 5.
What are the problems of the cotton textile industry? [1994 & 2001]
Answer:
Problems faced by the cotton textile industry:

• Power shortage and inadequate supply of raw materials.
• Competition from synthetic products.

Question 6.
State any three problems faced by sugar industry.
Answer:
Problems faced by the Sugar industry:

• It is a seasonal industry in which labour cannot be employed throughout the year. This decreases the efficiency of workers.
• In general, sugarcane is grown by small cultivators who sell their produce directly to the mill owners. Thus, farmers get less returns.
• Delay in transporting sugarcane to the mills in some parts of the country also results in the lowering of the sugar content.
• In large parts of India, especially in the north, sugarcane grown is of low quality.
• Sugar mills are old, and methods of production are inefficient and uneconomical.
• The by-products of sugar industry are also not utilized properly.

Question 7.
What is meant by the term sericulture? State the factors responsible for the concentration of silk industry in Karnataka.
Answer:
Sericulture –
The art of rearing silkworms for silk production is called sericulture.
The factors responsible for the concentration of silk industry in Karnataka are:

• Availability of favourable climate for rearing silkworms.
• Availability of the mulberry plant which is raised as a plantation bush.
• Availability of abundant soft water free from alkaline salts and iron.
• Availability of the silkworm known as Bombyxmori which is reared throughout the year.

Question 8.
Which industry has a tendency to migrate towards the south? Why?
Answer:
Sugar Industry has a tendency to migrate south.
Because of frost free climate, ideal climatic conditions, sugar mills located closer to the sugar growing areas, crushing season is longer.

Question 9.
Name the by-products of the sugar industry. Give the industrial use of each. [2005].
Answer:
The by-products of sugar industry are:

• Molasses-used for distilling alcohol.
• Bagasse – used for making cardboard.
• Press mud-used for making wax and shoe polishes.

Question 10.
State any three differences between the sugar industry of Northern and Peninsular India.
Answer:
(i) Tapering shape of Peninsular India has tropical climate which is ideal for growing sugarcane. The black soil, higher temperature, good amount of rainfall or irrigation and frost free growing season are best suited geographical conditions which, give higher yield per unit as compared to north India.

(ii) The cooperative sugar mills are better managed in the south than in north.

(iii) The sucrose content is higher in the tropical variety of sugarcane in the south or Peninsular India.

So, there are marked differences between the sugar industries of the northern and Peninsular India. As a result of better conditions prevailing in Peninsular India, the sugar Industry shifting from North India to Peninsular India

Goyal Brothers Prakashan Class 10 ICSE Geography Solutions